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• Basic date/time manipulation in NHiberate query

  - by Yann Trevin

  I'm trying to restrict my NHibernate query with some basic date/time manipulation. More specifically, I want to execute the following statement (pseudo-SQL): select * from article where created_on + lifespan >= sysdate with: created_on is mapped to a property of type DateTime. lifespan is mapped to a property of type TimeSpan. sysdate is the current date/time (of the database server or ofthe application host, I don't care) Is there any built-in way to do that by using the Criteria-API or HQL? return session .CreateCriteria<Article>() .Add( ? ) .List<Article>();

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• Reverse Expression.Like criterion

  - by Joel Potter

  How should I go about writing a backwards like statement using NHibernate criteria? WHERE 'somestring' LIKE [Property] + '%' Sub Question: Can you access the abstract root alias in a SQLCriterion expression? This is somewhat achievable using the SQLCriterion expression Expression.Sql("? like {alias}.[Property] + '.%'", value, NHibernateUtil.String); However, in the case of class inheritance, {alias} is replaced with the incorrect alias for the column. Example (these classes are stored in separate tables): public abstract class Parent { public virtual string Property { get; set; } } public class Child : Parent { } The above query executed with Child as the root type will replace {alias} with the alias to the Child table rather than the Parent table. This results in an invalid column exception. I need to execute a like statement as above where the property exists on the parent table rather than on the root type table.

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• interfacing: simplified

  - by code wombat

  i've been doing some research on interfaces and a simple layman's explanation for what it truly is. For some reason people love using overly complex explanations and jargon to explain truly simple concepts (guess it makes them feel big) and i have a gut feeling it's the same in this case. so from what i could grasp, it seems like interfaces are nothing more than a way to reserve method names, their return type if any, and the type and amount of arguments they accept. so when a class implements an interface (or interfaces) it is forced to define the body of each method from the interface(s). Am i on the nose with this one or do i need to keep digging? p.s. i know javascript doesn't have support for interfaces, but i still need to understand the concept because there are quite a few places where it's shown how to emulate to an extent.

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• Void pointer values comparing C++

  - by user2962977

  My actual question is it really possible to compare values contained in two void pointers, when you actually know that these values are the same type? For example int. void compVoids(void *firstVal, void *secondVal){ if (firstVal < secondVal){ cout << "This will not make any sense as this will compare addresses, not values" << endl; } } Actually I need to compare two void pointer values, while outside the function it is known that the type is int. I do not want to use comparison of int inside the function. So this will not work for me as well: if (*(int*)firstVal > *(int*)secondVal) Any suggestions? Thank you very much for help!

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• can oracle types be updated like tables?

  - by Omnipresent

  I am converting GTT's to oracle types as explained in an excellent answer by APC. however, some GTT's are being updated based on a select query from another table. For example: UPDATE my_gtt_1 c SET (street, city, STATE, zip) = (SELECT src.unit_address, src.unit_city, src.unit_state, src.unit_zip_code FROM (SELECT mbr.ROWID row_id, unit_address, RTRIM(a.unit_city) unit_city, RTRIM(a.unit_state) unit_state, RTRIM(a.unit_zip_code) unit_zip_code FROM table_1 b, table_2 a, my_gtt_1 mbr WHERE type = 'ABC' AND id = b.ssn_head AND a.h_id = b.h_id AND row_id >= v_start_row AND row_id <= v_end_row) src WHERE c.ROWID = src.row_id) WHERE state IS NULL OR state = ' '; if my_gtt_1 was not a global temporary table but an oracle collection type then is it possible to do updates this complex? Or in these cases we are better off using the global temporary table?

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• Is it valid to replace http:// with // in a <script src="http://...">?

  - by Darryl Hein

  I have the following tag: <script type="text/javascript" src="https://cdn.example.com/js_file.js"></script> In this case the site is HTTPS, but the site may also be just HTTP. (The JS file is on another domain.) I'm wondering if it's valid to do the following for convenience sake: <script type="text/javascript" src="//cdn.example.com/js_file.js"></script> I'm wondering if it's valid to remove the http: or https: ? It seems to work everywhere I have tested, but are there any cases where it doesn't work?

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• System.Timers.Timer leaking due to "direct delegate roots"

  - by alimbada

  Apologies for the rather verbose and long-winded post, but this problem's been perplexing me for a few weeks now so I'm posting as much information as I can in order to get this resolved quickly. We have a WPF UserControl which is being loaded by a 3rd party app. The 3rd party app is a presentation application which loads and unloads controls on a schedule defined by an XML file which is downloaded from a server. Our control, when it is loaded into the application makes a web request to a web service and uses the data from the response to display some information. We're using an MVVM architecture for the control. The entry point of the control is a method that is implementing an interface exposed by the main app and this is where the control's configuration is set up. This is also where I set the DataContext of our control to our MainViewModel. The MainViewModel has two other view models as properties and the main UserControl has two child controls. Depending on the data received from the web service, the main UserControl decides which child control to display, e.g. if there is a HTTP error or the data received is not valid, then display child control A, otherwise display child control B. As you'd expect, these two child controls bind two separate view models each of which is a property of MainViewModel. Now child control B (which is displayed when the data is valid) has a RefreshService property/field. RefreshService is an object that is responsible for updating the model in a number of ways and contains 4 System.Timers.Timers; a _modelRefreshTimer a _viewRefreshTimer a _pageSwitchTimer a _retryFeedRetrievalOnErrorTimer (this is only enabled when something goes wrong with retrieving data). I should mention at this point that there are two types of data; the first changes every minute, the second changes every few hours. The controls' configuration decides which type we are using/displaying. If data is of the first type then we update the model quite frequently (every 30 seconds) using the _modelRefreshTimer's events. If the data is of the second type then we update the model after a longer interval. However, the view still needs to be refreshed every 30 seconds as stale data needs to be removed from the view (hence the _viewRefreshTimer). The control also paginates the data so we can see more than we can fit on the display area. This works by breaking the data up into Lists and switching the CurrentPage (which is a List) property of the view model to the right List. This is done by handling the _pageSwitchTimer's Elapsed event. Now the problem My problem is that the control, when removed from the visual tree doesn't dispose of it's timers. This was first noticed when we started getting an unusually high number of requests on the web server end very soon after deploying this control and found that requests were being made at least once a second! We found that the timers were living on and not stopping hours after the control had been removed from view and that the more timers there were the more requests piled up at the web server. My first solution was to implement IDisposable for the RefreshService and do some clean up when the control's UnLoaded event was fired. Within the RefreshServices Dispose method I've set Enabled to false for all the timers, then used the Stop() method on all of them. I've then called Dispose() too and set them to null. None of this worked. After some reading around I found that event handlers may hold references to Timers and prevent them from being disposed and collected. After some more reading and researching I found that the best way around this was to use the Weak Event Pattern. Using this blog and this blog I've managed to work around the shortcomings in the Weak Event pattern. However, none of this solves the problem. Timers are still not being disabled or stopped (let alone disposed) and web requests are continuing to build up. Mem Profiler tells me that "This type has N instances that are directly rooted by a delegate. This can indicate the delegate has not been properly removed" (where N is the number of instances). As far as I can tell though, all listeners of the Elapsed event for the timers are being removed during the cleanup so I can't understand why the timers continue to run. Thanks for reading. Eagerly awaiting your suggestions/comments/solutions (if you got this far :-p)

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• jQuery Validation using the class instead of the name value

  - by Matt

  Hi, I'd like to validate a form using the jquery validate plugin, but I'm unable to use the 'name' value within the html - as this is a field also used by the server app. Specifically, I need to limit the number of checkboxes checked from a group. (Maximum of 3.) All of the examples I have seen, use the name attribute of each element. What I'd like to do is use the class instead, and then declare a rule for that. html This works: <input class="checkBox" type="checkbox" id="i0000zxthy" name="salutation" value="1" /> This doesn't work, but is what I'm aiming for: <input class="checkBox" type="checkbox" id="i0000zxthy" name="i0000zxthy" value="1" /> javascript: var validator = $(".formToValidate").validate({ rules:{ "salutation":{ required:true, }, "checkBox":{ required:true, minlength:3 } } }); Is it possible to do this - is there a way of targeting the class instead of the name within the rules options? Or do I have to add a custom method? Cheers, Matt

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• PROBLEM: PHP strip_tags & multi-dimensional array form parameter

  - by Tunji Gbadamosi

  I'm having problems stripping the tags from the textual inputs retrieved from my form so as to do something with them in checkout.php. The input is stored in a multi-dimensional array. Here's my form: echo '<form name="choose" action="checkout.php" method="post" onsubmit="return validate_second_form(this);">'; echo '<input type="hidden" name="hidden_value" value="'.$no_guests.'" />'; if($no_guests >= 1){ echo '<div class="volunteer">'; echo '<fieldset>'; echo '<legend>Volunteer:</legend>'; echo '<label>Table:</label>'; echo '<select name="volunteer_table">'; foreach($tables as $t){ echo '<option>'.$t.'</option>'; } echo '</select><br><br>'; echo '<label>Seat number:</label>'; echo '<select name="volunteer_seat">'; foreach($seats as $seat){ echo '<option>'.$seat.'</option>'; } echo '</select><br><br>'; //echo '<br>'; echo '</fieldset>'; echo '</div>'; for($i=0;$i<$no_guests;$i++){ $guest = "guest_".$i; echo '<div class="'.$guest.'">'; echo '<fieldset>'; echo '<legend>Guest '.$i.':</legend>'; echo '<label>First Name:</label>'; echo '<input type="text" name="guest['.$i.']['.$first_name.']" id="fn'.$i.'">'; echo '<label>Surname:</label>'; echo '<input type="text" name="guest['.$i.']['.$surname.']" id="surname'.$i.'"><br><br>'; echo '<label>Date of Birth:</label> <br>'; echo '<label>Day:</label>'; echo '<select name="guest['.$i.'][dob_day]">'; for($j=1;$j<32;$j++){ echo"<option value='$j'>$j</option>"; } echo '</select>'; echo '<label>Month:</label>'; echo '<select name="guest['.$i.'][dob_month]">'; for($j=0;$j<sizeof($month);$j++){ $value = ($j + 1); echo"<option value='$value'>$month[$j]</option>"; } echo '</select>'; echo '<label>Year:</label>'; echo '<select name="guest['.$i.'][dob_year]">'; for($j=1900;$j<$year_limit;$j++){ echo"<option value='$j'>$j</option>"; } echo '</select> <br><br>'; echo '<label>Sex:</label>'; echo '<select name="guest['.$i.']['.$sex.']">'; echo '<option>Female</option>'; echo '<option>Male</option>'; echo '</select><br><br>'; echo '<label>Table:</label>'; echo '<select name="guest['.$i.']['.$table.']">'; foreach($tables as $t){ echo '<option>'.$t.'</option>'; } echo '</select><br><br>'; echo '<label>Seat number:</label>'; echo '<select name="guest['.$i.']['.$seat_no.']">'; foreach($seats as $seat){ echo '<option>'.$seat.'</option>'; } echo '</select><br><br>'; //echo '<br>'; echo '</fieldset>'; echo '</div>'; } } else{ echo '<div id="volunteer">'; echo '<fieldset>'; echo '<legend>Volunteer:</legend>'; echo '<label>Table:</label>'; echo '<select name="volunteer['.$table.']">'; foreach($tables as $t){ echo '<option>'.$t.'</option>'; } echo '</select><br><br>'; echo '<label>Seat number:</label>'; echo '<select name="volunteer['.$seat_no.']">'; foreach($seats as $seat){ echo '<option>'.$seat.'</option>'; } echo '</select><br><br>'; //echo '<br>'; echo '</fieldset>'; echo '</div>'; } echo '<input type="submit" value="Submit form">'; echo '</form>'; here's checkout.php: if(isset($_POST['guest'])){ foreach($_POST['guest'] as $guest){ $guest['first_name'] = strip_tags($guest['first_name']); $guest['surname'] = strip_tags($guest['surname']); } //$_SESSION['guest'] = $guests; }

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• Binding Properties.Settings to Textbox fails

  - by user268098

  I would like to define a key & value in Settings.settings and bind the value by declaration in the XAML (not in the code behind by command). Here's what I've been trying in vain: Create a WPF project "Exp1" with Visual Studio Express 2010. Set one key named "TextFromSettings" to the value "Some Text from Setting". Add the attribute xmlns:p="clr-namespace:Exp1.Properties;assembly=Exp1" to the tag. Add Text="{Binding Path=TextFromSettings, Mode=TwoWay, Source={x:Static p:Settings.Default}}" to the tag Now, the preview window shows the text, however, the compiler fails: "Error 1 Cannot find the type 'Settings'. Note that type names are case sensitive." Where am I going wrong?

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• CPU not working on a specific motherboard

  - by Shaman

  I'm making a computer for someone and I met a weird problem. The CPU that I have doesn't work on this motherboard. The CPU is an Intel Pentium D 925 and the motherboard is an ECS G41T-M6, which in theory should work together. The only thing reused is the power source(400W). When I start the computer, the fans start, and that's it. The BIOS doesn't boot. I tried my own power source (600W Corsair) and nothing. Removed the RAM, no warning. In desperation I tried the last thing, swaped my own CPU with this one (Core2Duo E7200). Lo and behold, it worked. Both. The Core2Duo worked on the ECS with the old power source and the RAM that I used in the first place, and the Pentium D worked on my Gigabyte G31M-ES2L. What I discovered was that the Pentium D didn't receive power on the ECS, because I tried running it without the cooler and it remained at room temperature. On a side note, I also removed the HDDs just in case. So, in conclusion, any ideas? I can't return it, and I can still use it to upgrade another PC, but I would really prefer not to buy another CPU if possible.

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• Selecting an item from a very large list

  - by Ben Fulton

  Suppose I have a list of a couple of thousand organizations and a user needs to be able to select one of them. The list is too large to populate in a dropdown at page load, and the user often knows what they want but it's not the first part of the organization name. That is, they know "Collections" but not that the precise name of the organization is "Department of Collections". So the user will need/want to type in some information. It's easy enough to use an autocompleting textbox of some kind, but I don't want to allow the user to type in random text - they have to choose one of the organizations explicitly. What's the best solution?

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• Why is Decimal('0') > 9999.0 True in Python?

  - by parxier

  This is somehow related to my question Why is ''0 True in Python? In Python 2.6.4: >> Decimal('0') > 9999.0 True From the answer to my original question I understand that when comparing objects of different types in Python 2.x the types are ordered by their name. But in this case: >> type(Decimal('0')).__name__ > type(9999.0).__name__ False Why is Decimal('0') > 9999.0 == True then? UPDATE: I usually work on Ubuntu (Linux 2.6.31-20-generic #57-Ubuntu SMP Mon Feb 8 09:05:19 UTC 2010 i686 GNU/Linux, Python 2.6.4 (r264:75706, Dec 7 2009, 18:45:15) [GCC 4.4.1] on linux2). On Windows (WinXP Professional SP3, Python 2.6.4 (r264:75706, Nov 3 2009, 13:23:17) [MSC v.1500 32 bit (Intel)] on win32) my original statement works differently: >> Decimal('0') > 9999.0 False I even more puzzled now. %-(

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• Compare values in each column of two Oracle Types

  - by colinjameswebb

  I've been playing around with the pluto-test-framework today, and I'd like to get some existing functions into a test harness with it. I have lots of functions with this type of specification. FUNCTION DO_SOME_STUFF (pOldSchedule IN SCHEDULE_OBJ, pNewSchedule OUT SCHEDULE_OBJ, pLoggerContext IN OUT LOGGER_CONTEXT_OBJ) RETURN NUMBER; It takes pOldSchedule, does some stuff to it, and then returns pNewSchedule. The logger_context just does logging. As part of a test, I'd like to be able to compare the values in each of the columns of the type, without having to write individual IF statements. It'll need to return boolean to signify whether or not pOldSchedule and pNewSchedule match. Any ideas?

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• Python grab class in class definition.

  - by epochwolf

  I don't even know how to explain this, so here is the code I'm trying. class Test: type = self.__name__ #self doesn't work, how do I get a reference to Test? class Test2(Test): pass #Test2.type should return "Test2" The reason I'm even trying this is I'm working on creating a base class for an orm I'm using. I want to avoid defining the table name for every model I have. Also knowing what the limits of python is will help me avoid wasting time trying impossible things.

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• How to migrate WinXP from failing old HD to new one

  - by Péter Török

  Following this issue, we have all our important data backed up now. I also bought and installed a new replacement hard disk (WD 160GB PATA) as secondary (slave) drive. I created two primary NTFS partitions on it: a 40 GB system partition, and a 110GB data partition. In theory I could start reinstalling WinXP from scratch on the new system partition, then copying over all user data from the old drive to the new data partition. Once this is done, I could even throw away the old drive, or keep it just to see what happens. (Note: I don't want to clone the whole drive as it contains a dual boot setup with an old Linux installation which I don't need anymore, and anyway, a fresh reinstall would do WinXP good to get rid of many years' clutter.) However, I am lazy :-) The old HD is still functioning, the problem has not manifested again since. So I feel there is no need to hurry with a complete OS reinstall. What I don't know though is whether I will be able to install WinXP on the new system partition at a later stage without affecting the contents of the data partition on the same drive. If this is possible, I can just move over all our data to the new data partition to have it safe, then continue running WinXP from the old drive as long as it works. Does anyone see any problems/risks with this plan?

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• How do I get the current time in a Windows 7 gadget?

  - by norlando02

  For my first windows gadget I'm trying to make one that displays the current time and date. The code below is what I have, but I can't figure out why the javascript is not running. Any ideas? <html> <head> http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=Unicode" /> <title>Clock</title> <style type="text/css"> body { width: 130px; height: 60px; margin: 1 1 1 2; } body { font-family: Segoe UI, Arial; font-size: 11px; font-weight: bold; white-space: nowrap; } </style> <script type="text/javascript"> var background; var interval; var connection_id; var timeZone; var now; function load() { try { interval = 1000; connection_id = 0; timeZone = System.Time.currentTimeZone; update(); } catch(e){} } function update() { try { now = new Date(Date.parse(System.Time.getLocalTime(timeZone))); curDate.innerHTML = now.format('M jS, Y'); curTime.innerHTML = now.format('h:i:s A'); clearTimeout(connection_id); connection_id = setTimeout("update()", interval); } catch(e) {} </script> </head> <body onload="load()"> <div id="curDate"> </div> <div id="curTime"> </div> </body> </html>

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• How to access a field's value in an object using reflection

  - by kentcdodds

  My Question: How to overcome an IllegalAccessException to access the value of a an object's field using reflection. Expansion: I'm trying to learn about reflection to make some of my projects more generic. I'm running into an IllegalAccessException when trying to call field.getValue(object) to get the value of that field in that object. I can get the name and type just fine. If I change the declaration from private to public then this works fine. But in an effort to follow the "rules" of encapsulation I don't want to do this. Any help would be greatly appreciated! Thanks! My Code: package main; import java.lang.reflect.Field; public class Tester { public static void main(String args[]) throws Exception { new Tester().reflectionTest(); } public void reflectionTest() throws Exception { Person person = new Person("John Doe", "555-123-4567", "Rover"); Field[] fields = person.getClass().getDeclaredFields(); for (Field field : fields) { System.out.println("Field Name: " + field.getName()); System.out.println("Field Type: " + field.getType()); System.out.println("Field Value: " + field.get(person)); //The line above throws: Exception in thread "main" java.lang.IllegalAccessException: Class main.Tester can not access a member of class main.Tester$Person with modifiers "private final" } } public class Person { private final String name; private final String phoneNumber; private final String dogsName; public Person(String name, String phoneNumber, String dogsName) { this.name = name; this.phoneNumber = phoneNumber; this.dogsName = dogsName; } } } The Output: run: Field Name: name Field Type: class java.lang.String Exception in thread "main" java.lang.IllegalAccessException: Class main.Tester can not access a member of class main.Tester$Person with modifiers "private final" at sun.reflect.Reflection.ensureMemberAccess(Reflection.java:95) at java.lang.reflect.AccessibleObject.slowCheckMemberAccess(AccessibleObject.java:261) at java.lang.reflect.AccessibleObject.checkAccess(AccessibleObject.java:253) at java.lang.reflect.Field.doSecurityCheck(Field.java:983) at java.lang.reflect.Field.getFieldAccessor(Field.java:927) at java.lang.reflect.Field.get(Field.java:372) at main.Tester.reflectionTest(Tester.java:17) at main.Tester.main(Tester.java:8) Java Result: 1 BUILD SUCCESSFUL (total time: 0 seconds)

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• What C# data types can be nullable types?

  - by Randy Minder

  Can someone give me a list, or point me to where I can find a list of C# data types that can be a nullable type? For example: I know that Nullable<int> is ok I know that Nullable<byte[]> is not. I'd like to know which types are nullable and which are not. BTW, I know I can test for this at runtime. However, this is for a code generator we're writing, so I don't have an actual type. I just know that a column is "string" or "int32" etc. Thanks.

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• Using JSON Data to Populate a Google Map with Database Objects

  - by MikeH

  I'm revising this question after reading the resources mentioned in the original answers and working through implementing it. I'm using the google maps api to integrate a map into my Rails site. I have a markets model with the following columns: ID, name, address, lat, lng. On my markets/index view, I want to populate a map with all the markets in my markets table. I'm trying to output @markets as json data, and that's where I'm running into problems. I have the basic map displaying, but right now it's just a blank map. I'm following the tutorials very closely, but I can't get the markers to generate dynamically from the json. Any help is much appreciated! Here's my setup: Markets Controller: def index @markets = Market.filter_city(params[:filter]) respond_to do |format| format.html # index.html.erb format.json { render :json => @market} format.xml { render :xml => @market } end end Markets/index view: <head> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://www.google.com/jsapi?key=GOOGLE KEY REDACTED, BUT IT'S THERE" > </script> <script type="text/javascript"> var markets = <%= @markets.to_json %>; </script> <script type="text/javascript" charset="utf-8"> google.load("maps", "2.x"); google.load("jquery", "1.3.2"); </script> </head> <body> <div id="map" style="width:400px; height:300px;"></div> </body> Public/javascripts/application.js: function initialize() { if (GBrowserIsCompatible() && typeof markets != 'undefined') { var map = new GMap2(document.getElementById("map")); map.setCenter(new GLatLng(40.7371, -73.9903), 13); map.addControl(new GLargeMapControl()); function createMarker(latlng, market) { var marker = new GMarker(latlng); var html="<strong>"+market.name+"</strong><br />"+market.address; GEvent.addListener(marker,"click", function() { map.openInfoWindowHtml(latlng, html); }); return marker; } var bounds = new GLatLngBounds; for (var i = 0; i < markets.length; i++) { var latlng=new GLatLng(markets[i].lat,markets[i].lng) bounds.extend(latlng); map.addOverlay(createMarker(latlng, markets[i])); } } } window.onload=initialize; window.onunload=GUnload;

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• Loading form values from one IFrame to another

  - by Roland

  What I want to achieve is the following. A search is made from one IFrame "the form is loaded into this frame via the src atribute of iframe" the search query is then passed to another IFrame that redirects to a url with the query eg. www.test.com/index.php?query=test Is this possible? Currently my code looks as such <iframe src="abc.php" name="iframe1"> </iframe> <iframe name="iframe2"> <?php var_dump($_GET); ?> </iframe> abc.php contains the following <form method="get" action="#" target="iframe2"> <input type="text" name="searchtype" id="searchtype" /> <input type="submit" value="submit"> </form>

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• How to convert a .NET WebService-Method-Result (Soap) into its original datatype?

  - by Marc

  Hello everyone. I have two "identical" webservices (Soap) on two different servers. Don't ask why :-) WebService-1 decides if it handels the request itself or if it passes the request to WebService-2. If so, the response of WebService-2 should directly be returned from WebService-1. The response datatype is complex and self defined. With simple datatypes like 'int or 'string' there would be no problem. The response of WebService-2 is a serialized object (I think it is called "stubs") and theredore it is not possibel to pass this object through as the response of WebService-1 because the type of the objects doesn't match. Is there a simple way to convert the serialised datatype into its original type without buiding a complex converter?

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• Any homologue of InternalsVisibleToAttribute, but for internal classes?

  - by Will Marcouiller

  In my most recent question: Unit Testing Best Practice? / C# InternalsVisibleTo() attribute for VBNET 2.0 while testing?, I was asking about InternalsVisibleToAttribute. I have read the documentation on how to use it, and everything is fine and understood. However, I can't instantiate my class Groupe from my Testing project. I want to be able to instantiate my internal class in my wrapper assembly, from my testing assembly. Any help is appreciated! EDIT Here's the compile-time error I get when I do try to instantiate my type: Erreur 2 'Carra.Exemples.Blocs.ActiveDirectory.Groupe' n'est pas accessible dans ce contexte, car il est 'Private'. C:\Open\Projects\Exemples\Src\Carra.Exemples.Blocs.ActiveDirectory\Carra.Exemples.Blocs.ActiveDirectory.Tests\GroupeTests.vb 9 18 Carra.Exemples.Blocs.ActiveDirectory.Tests (This says that my type is not accessible in this context, because it is private.) But it's Friend (internal)!

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• Jquery: how to trigger td a when tr is clicked

  - by Poku

  Hey, I have a table where the first td in the trs contains a link. I want this anchor to be triggered (clicked) no matter where i click in the containing tr. I have read and tried alot of recents post and suggentions on this topic but i can't get this to work. I tried the trigger() and triggerHandle() functions, but it does not trigger the anchor click that i want. There must be others who have had the need to trigger a anchor click when a tr is clicked, so that the user doesn't have to click the tds anchor link. It sure is a nice UI feature if its possible? Here is the code i have tried: <head> <meta http-equiv="content-type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8" /> <script type="text/javascript" src="javascripts/jquery-1.4.2.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" charset="utf-8"> /* Initialise the table with the required column sorting data types */ jQuery(document).ready(function () { jQuery("#rowClick tr").click(function (e) { jQuery("#clickevent", this).trigger("click"); }); }); </script> </head> <body id="dt_example"> <table id="rowClick"> <thead> <tr> <th style="width: 30px">id</th> <th style="width: 200px">navn</th> </tr> </thead> <tbody> <tr> <td><a href="datatabletext.asp?test=1" id="clickevent">1</a></td> <td>Jesper</td> </tr> <tr> <td><a href="datatabletext.asp?test=2" id="clickevent">2</a></td> <td>Bjarne</td> </tr> <tr> <td><a href="datatabletext.asp?test=3" id="clickevent">3</a></td> <td>Søren</td> </tr> </tbody> </table> </body>

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• Inserting into an Associative array?

  - by RedShft

  I'm playing around with associative arrays right now and I can't seem to figure out how to add additional objects to the array. I tried insert but it doesn't recognize both arguments. Also, if I do this it produces an error: Node[bool] test; Node node; Node[bool] temp = [ false:node ]; test ~= temp; //Error 1 Error: cannot append type Node[bool] to type //Node[bool] C:\Users\CP\Documents\Visual Studio //2010\Projects\D\STDS\NPC.d 256 Does this mean you can't use the append operator on associative arrays ?

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