Search Results

Search found 16208 results on 649 pages for 'pass community'.

Page 534/649 | < Previous Page | 530 531 532 533 534 535 536 537 538 539 540 541  | Next Page >

• ASP.NET MVC Model Binding into a List

  - by Maxim Z.

  In my ASP.NET MVC site, part of a feature allows the user to enter the hours when a certain venue is open. I've decided to store these hours in a VenueHours table in my database, with a FK-to-PK relationship to a Venues table, as well as DayOfWeek, OpeningTime, and ClosingTime parameters. In my View, I want to allow the user to only input the times they know about; in other words, some days may not be filled in for a Venue. I'm thinking of creating checkboxes that the user can check to enable the OpeningTime and ClosingTime fields for the DayOfWeek that the checkbox belongs to. My question relates to how to pass this information to my HttpPost Controller Action. As I know the maximum amount of Days that can be passed in (7), I could of course just write 7 nullable VenueHour parameters into my Action, but I'm sure there's a better way. Can I somehow bind the View information into a List that is passed to my Action? This will also help me if I run into a scenario where there is no limit to how much information the user can fill in.

  Read the article

• dynamic link_to_remote in rails with jquery

  - by Claus Lensbøl

  Hi I'm trying to pass a string with a link_to_remote call as the :id, and the string should be collected from an input field with and id of "movie_title". <div id="search_list">Nothing here yet</div> <br /> <% semantic_form_for @movie do |f| %> <% f.inputs do -%> <%= f.input :title, :class => "movie_title" %> <%= link_to_remote( 'Search...', { :url => { :action => :imdb_search, :id => "'+$('\#movie_title').value+'" } }, { :title => "Search for this movie", :class => "imdb_search" } ) -%> [...removed text that does not matter...] <% end -%> <%= f.buttons %> <% end %> I keep getting an javascript error, and if I remove the # from the jquery in the link, it returns "Undefined". The link I get is: <a class="imdb_search" href="#" onclick="jQuery.ajax({data:'authenticity_token=' + encodeURIComponent('yHPHYTZsPTQLi9JYSauUYcoie/pqPPk2uHBTN0PzNsQ='), dataType:'script', type:'post', url:'/movies/imdb_search/'+$('%23movie_title').value+''}); return false;" title="Search for this movie">Search...</a> So I want the link updated with the contents of movie_title. How do I do that?

  Read the article

• Compiling Visual c++ programs from the command line and msvcr90.dll

  - by Stanley kelly

  Hi, When I compile my Visual c++ 2008 express program from inside the IDE and redistribute it on another computer, It starts up fine without any dll dependencies that I haven't accounted for. When I compile the same program from the visual c++ 2008 command line under the start menu and redistribute it to the other computer, it looks for msvcr90.dll at start-up. Here is how it is compiled from the command line cl /Fomain.obj /c main.cpp /nologo -O2 -DNDEBUG /MD /ID:(list of include directories) link /nologo /SUBSYSTEM:WINDOWS /ENTRY:mainCRTStartup /OUT:Build\myprogram.ex e /LIBPATH:D:\libs (list of libraries) and here is how the IDE builds it based on the relevant parts of the build log. /O2 /Oi /GL /I clude" /I (list of includes) /D "WIN32" /D "NDEBUG" /D "_CONSOLE" /D "_UNICODE" /D "UNICODE" /FD /EHsc /MD /Gy /Yu"stdafx.h" /Fp"Release\myprogram" /Fo"Release\\" /Fd"Release\vc90.pdb" /W3 /c /Zi /TP /wd4250 /vd2 Creating command line "cl.exe @d:\myprogram\Release\RSP00000118003188.rsp /nologo /errorReport:prompt" /OUT:"D:\myprgram\Release\myprgram.exe" /INCREMENTAL:NO /LIBPATH:"d:\gtkmm\lib" /MANIFEST /MANIFESTFILE:"Release\myprogam.exe.intermediate.manifest" /MANIFESTUAC:"level='asInvoker' uiAccess='false'" /DEBUG /PDB:"d:\myprogram\Release\myprogram.pdb" /SUBSYSTEM:WINDOWS /OPT:REF /OPT:ICF /LTCG /ENTRY:"mainCRTStartup" /DYNAMICBASE /NXCOMPAT /MACHINE:X86 (list of libraries) Creating command line "link.exe @d:\myprogram\Release\RSP00000218003188.rsp /NOLOGO /ERRORREPORT:PROMPT" /outputresource:"..\Release\myprogram.exe;#1" /manifest .\Release\myprogram.exe.intermediate.manifest Creating command line "mt.exe @d:\myprogram\Release\RSP00000318003188.rsp /nologo" I would like to be able to compile it from the command line and not have it look for such a late version of the runtime dll, like the version compiled from the IDE seems not to do. Both versions pass /MD to the compiler, so i am not sure what to do.

  Read the article

• Beginner problems with references to arrays in python 3.1.1

  - by Protean

  As part of the last assignment in a beginner python programing class, I have been assigned a traveling sales man problem. I settled on a recursive function to find each permutation and the sum of the distances between the destinations, however, I am have a lot of problems with references. Arrays in different instances of the Permute and Main functions of TSP seem to be pointing to the same reference. from math import sqrt class TSP: def __init__(self): self.CartisianCoordinates = [['A',[1,1]], ['B',[2,2]], ['C',[2,1]], ['D',[1,2]], ['E',[3,3]]] self.Array = [] self.Max = 0 self.StoredList = ['',0] def Distance(self, i1, i2): x1 = self.CartisianCoordinates[i1][1][0] y1 = self.CartisianCoordinates[i1][1][1] x2 = self.CartisianCoordinates[i2][1][0] y2 = self.CartisianCoordinates[i2][1][1] return sqrt(pow((x2 - x1), 2) + pow((y2 - y1), 2)) def Evaluate(self): temparray = [] Data = [] for i in range(len(self.CartisianCoordinates)): Data.append([]) for i1 in range(len(self.CartisianCoordinates)): for i2 in range(len(self.CartisianCoordinates)): if i1 != i2: temparray.append(self.Distance(i1, i2)) else: temparray.append('X') Data[i1] = temparray temparray = [] self.Array = Data self.Max = len(Data) def Permute(self,varray,index,vcarry,mcarry): #Problem Class array = varray[:] carry = vcarry[:] for i in range(self.Max): print ('ARRAY:', array) print (index,i,carry,array[index][i]) if array[index][i] != 'X': carry[0] += self.CartisianCoordinates[i][0] carry[1] += array[index][i] if len(carry) != self.Max: temparray = array[:] for j in range(self.Max):temparray[j][i] = 'X' index = i mcarry += self.Permute(temparray,index,carry,mcarry) else: return mcarry print ('pass',mcarry) return mcarry def Main(self): out = [] self.Evaluate() for i in range(self.Max): array = self.Array[:] #array appears to maintain the same reference after each copy, resulting in an incorrect array being passed to Permute after the first iteration. print (self.Array[:]) for j in range(self.Max):array[j][i] = 'X' print('I:', i, array) out.append(self.Permute(array,i,[str(self.CartisianCoordinates[i][0]),0],[])) return out SalesPerson = TSP() print(SalesPerson.Main()) It would be greatly appreciated if you could provide me with help in solving the reference problems I am having. Thank you.

  Read the article

• Using Windows Integrated Auth & Anonymous during redirect on IIS7

  - by James Black

  I have an application we bought that I need to integrate, and it uses jakarta connection to get to the application from IIS. So, the basic operation is: user goes to the url Gets redirected to the application SSO is enabled, so redirected back to IIS for fetching of domain credentials Back to application If username is blank show login page, else let user in. This is a simplification of all the steps, but the basic idea is here. My difficulty is that I need both Windows Integrated Auth and anonymous on, as some users won't have credentials, and need to be prompted for a username/password. I have looked at: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2068546/iis-windows-authentication-before-anonymous already, but the user doesn't get to click on a link to decide. The application goes back to IIS looking for login.aspx and from there I want to either get their domain credentials or pass back to the application empty strings to signify that there are no credentials. It seems this isn't going to be possible though as if anonymous is on it doesn't make the 401 request so the credentials aren't passed. If I can't get this to work with just using an ASP page, could it be done using an ISAPI filter, or a module?

  Read the article

• C# Client to Consume Google App Engine RESTful Webservice (rpc XML)

  - by Ngu Soon Hui

  I think I hit a problem when using C# client to consume Google App Engine Webservice. The Google App Engine code I use is here. This is how the python script on server would look like: from google.appengine.ext import webapp from google.appengine.ext.webapp.util import run_wsgi_app import logging from StringIO import StringIO import traceback import xmlrpclib from xmlrpcserver import XmlRpcServer class Application: def __init__(self): pass def getName(self,meta): return 'example' class XMLRpcHandler(webapp.RequestHandler): rpcserver = None def __init__(self): self.rpcserver = XmlRpcServer() app = Application() self.rpcserver.register_class('app',app) def post(self): request = StringIO(self.request.body) request.seek(0) response = StringIO() try: self.rpcserver.execute(request, response, None) except Exception, e: logging.error('Error executing: '+str(e)) for line in traceback.format_exc().split('\n'): logging.error(line) finally: response.seek(0) rstr = response.read() self.response.headers['Content-type'] = 'text/xml' self.response.headers['Content-length'] = "%d"%len(rstr) self.response.out.write(rstr) application = webapp.WSGIApplication( [('/xmlrpc/', XMLRpcHandler)], debug=True) def main(): run_wsgi_app(application) if __name__ == "__main__": main() The client side ( in Python) is this: import xmlrpclib s = xmlrpclib.Server('http://localhost:8080/xmlrpc/') print s.app.getName() I have no problem in using Python client to retrieve values from Google App Engine, but I do have difficulties in using a C# client to retrieve the values. The error I got was 404 method not found when I am trying to GetResponse from the web request. This is my code var request = (HttpWebRequest)WebRequest.Create("http://localhost:8080/xmlrpc/app"); request.Method = "GET"; request.ContentLength = 0; request.ContentType = "text/xml"; using (HttpWebResponse response = request.GetResponse() as HttpWebResponse) //404 method not found error here. { } I think it must be that the url is wrong, but I don't know how to get it right. Any idea?

  Read the article

• How to launch multiple Internet Explorer windows/tabs from batch file?

  - by TheZenker

  I would like a batch file to launch two separate programs then have the command line window close. Actually, to clarify, I am launching Internet Explorer with two different URLs. So far I have something like this: start "~\iexplore.exe" "url1" start "~\iexplore.exe" "url2" What I get is one instance of Internet Explorer with only the second URL loaded. Seems the second is replacing the second. I seem to remember a syntax where I would load a new command line window and pass the command to execute on load, but can't find the reference. As a second part of the question: what is a good reference URL to keep for the times you need to write a quick batch file? Edit: I have marked an answer, because it does work. I now have two windows open, one for each URL. (thanks!) The funny thing is that without the /d approach using my original syntax I get different results based on whether I have a pre-existing Internet Explorer instance open. If I do I get two new tabs added for my two URLs (sweet!) If not I get only one final tab for the second URL I passed in.

  Read the article

• How to avoid using this in a contructor

  - by Paralife

  I have this situation: interface MessageListener { void onMessageReceipt(Message message); } class MessageReceiver { MessageListener listener; public MessageReceiver(MessageListener listener, other arguments...) { this.listener = listener; } loop() { Message message = nextMessage(); listener.onMessageReceipt(message); } } and I want to avoid the following pattern: (Using the this in the Client constructor) class Client implements MessageListener { MessageReceiver receiver; MessageSender sender; public Client(...) { receiver = new MessageReceiver(this, other arguments...); sender = new Sender(...); } . . . @Override public void onMessageReceipt(Message message) { if(Message.isGood()) sender.send("Congrtulations"); else sender.send("Boooooooo"); } } The reason why i need the above functionality is because i want to call the sender inside the onMessageReceipt() function, for example to send a reply. But I dont want to pass the sender into a listener, so the only way I can think of is containing the sender in a class that implements the listener, hence the above resulting Client implementation. Is there a way to achive this without the use of 'this' in the constructor? It feels bizare and i dont like it, since i am passing myself to an object(MessageReceiver) before I am fully constructed. On the other hand, the MessageReceiver is not passed from outside, it is constructed inside, but does this 'purifies' the bizarre pattern? I am seeking for an alternative or an assurance of some kind that this is safe, or situations on which it might backfire on me.

  Read the article

• Alternative to jQuery's .toggle() method that supports eventData?

  - by Bungle

  The jQuery documentation for the .toggle() method states: The .toggle() method is provided for convenience. It is relatively straightforward to implement the same behavior by hand, and this can be necessary if the assumptions built into .toggle() prove limiting. The assumptions built into .toggle have proven limiting for my current task, but the documentation doesn't elaborate on how to implement the same behavior. I need to pass eventData to the handler functions provided to toggle(), but it appears that only .bind() will support this, not .toggle(). My first inclination is to use a flag global to a single handler function to store the click state. In other words, rather than: $('a').toggle(function() { alert('odd number of clicks'); }, function() { alert('even number of clicks'); }); do this: var clicks = true; $('a').click(function() { if (clicks) { alert('odd number of clicks'); clicks = false; } else { alert('even number of clicks'); clicks = true; } }); I haven't tested the latter, but I suspect it would work. Is this the best way to do something like this, or is there a better way that I'm missing? Thanks!

  Read the article

• How to use Java varargs with the GWT Javascript Native Interface? (aka, "GWT has no printf()")

  - by markerikson

  I'm trying to quickly learn GWT as part of a new project. I found out that GWT doesn't implement Java's String.format() function, so there's no printf()-like functionality. I knew that some printf() implementations exist for Javascript, so I figured I could paste one of those in as a GWT Javascript Native Interface function. I ran into problems, and decided I'd better make sure that the varargs values were being passed in correctly. That's where things got ugly. First, some example code: // From Java, call the JSNI function: test("sourceString", "params1", "params2", "params3"); .... public static native void test(Object... params) /*-{ // PROBLEM: this kills GWT! // alert(params.length); // returns "function" alert(typeof(params)); // returns "[Ljava.lang.Object;@b97ff1" alert(params); }-*/; The GWT docs state that "calling a varargs JavaScript method from Java will result in the callee receiving the arguments in an array". I figured that meant I could at least check params.length, but accessing that throws a JavascriptException wrapped in an UmbrellaException, with no real information. When I do "typeof(params)", it returns "function". As if that weren't odd enough, if I check the string value of params, it returns what appears to be a string version of a Java reference. So, I guess I'm asking a few different questions here: 1) How do GWT/JSNI varargs actually work, and do I need to do something special to pass in values? 2) What is actually going on here? 3) Is there any easier way to get printf()-style formatting in a GWT application?

  Read the article

• form with multiple upload but allow no upload on edit problems

  - by minus4

  hiya i have a section that when created takes in images, however when you edit this item i dont want them to re-upload none changes images just to change a description or name. i have created this that deals with uploading files: public void UploadFiles(string currentFileName, FormCollection form) { // loop through all files in form post foreach (string file in Request.Files) { HttpPostedFileBase hpf = Request.Files[file]; // if no file is uploaded, we could be editing so set to current value if (hpf.ContentLength == 0) { form[file] = currentFileName; } else { //rename the file unique so we dont clash with names var filename = hpf.FileName.Replace(" ", "_").Replace(".", DateTime.Now.Date.Ticks + "."); UploadFileName = filename; hpf.SaveAs(Server.MapPath("~/Content/custom/" + filename)); // set the name of the file in our post to the new name form[file] = UploadFileName; } } // ensure value is still sent when no files are uploaded on edit if(Request.Files.Count <= 0) { UploadFileName = currentFileName; } } all works fine when only one image is required (CurrentFileName), however there is now a new image available taking it to a total of 2 images in the database therefor currentFileName is obsolete. has anyone tackled this and how as i have hit a wall with this one. thought of string[] currentFiles but cant see how to match this into string file in Request.Files. if it helps i am also working with models for the form so i could pass over the model but i dont think your able to do model.file without some kind of reflection. help much appreciated. thanks

  Read the article

• Globally disabling FxCop errors in TeamCity

  - by Dave

  Ok, another FxCop question for today. I've read the arguments regarding the IdentifiersShouldBeCasedCorrectly rule, and whether or not it should be "XML" or "Xml". Well, I'm an "XML" guy and I want to stay that way. Therefore, I do not want FxCop to correct me all of the time. I have been using the SuppressMessage attribute only for specific cases. I have also used FxCop to mark a ton of errors and copied them as "module" level SuppressMessage statements into assemblyinfo.cs. That works pretty well. However, now I really want to globally disable this annoying IdentifiersShouldBeCasedCorrectly rule. I'm using TeamCity 5.0.3, and am not using an FxCop project file (however, I could do this). I was hoping that I could pass a parameter to FxCopCmd to tell it to ignore this error, but it doesn't look that way from the documentation. So... is there anything I can do short of creating an FxCop project file on the TeamCity build server and using it for the FxCop build runner?

  Read the article

• Very strange jQuery / AJAX behavior

  - by Dr. DOT

  I have an Ajax call to the server that only works when I pass an alert(); to it. Cannot figure out what is wrong. Can anyone help? This Does Not Work (ie., Ajax call to server does not get made): <!-- jQuery.support.cors = true; // needed for ajax to work in certain older browsers and versions $('input[name="status"]').on("change", function() { if ($('input:radio[name="status"]:checked').val() == 'Y') { $.ajax({ url: 'http://mydomain.com/dir/myPHPscript.php?param=' + $('#param').val() + '&id=' + ( $('#id').val() * 1 ) + '&mode=' + $('#mode').val() }); } window.parent.closePP(); window.top.location.href = $('#redirect').val(); // reloads page }); //--> This Works! (ie., Ajax call to server gets made when I have the alert() present): <!-- jQuery.support.cors = true; // needed for ajax to work in certain older browsers and versions $('input[name="status"]').on("change", function() { if ($('input:radio[name="status"]:checked').val() == 'Y') { $.ajax({ url: 'http://mydomain.com/dir/myPHPscript.php?param=' + $('#param').val() + '&id=' + ( $('#id').val() * 1 ) + '&mode=' + $('#mode').val() }); **alert('this makes it work');** } window.parent.closePP(); window.top.location.href = $('#redirect').val(); // reloads page }); //--> Thanks.

  Read the article

• Link to Hotmail / Windows Live email compose -- maintaining BCC

  - by Curtis Gibby

  My app creates a mailto-esque link that takes the end user to a Hotmail compose screen with various attributes pre-filled. Most of the functionality I need is working: to, cc, subject, body. However, Hotmail seems to be stripping out any BCC attributes that I pass into the URL. For example, this link works as advertised: http://mail.live.com/mail/EditMessageLight.aspx?n=&[email protected]&[email protected];%[email protected]&subject=the%20subject&body=the%20body I get the one email address in the To field and two in the CC field. But when I try the exact same URL except substituting "bcc" for "cc", the two addresses are nowhere to be found. http://mail.live.com/mail/EditMessageLight.aspx?n=&[email protected]&[email protected];%[email protected]&subject=the%20subject&body=the%20body This link format is posted all over the web (along with a variation like http://mail.live.com/default.aspx?rru=compose%3f[attributes] ), but none of the various settings that I've tried actually work to bring in the BCC addresses. I need the BCC so that the email recipients are not given each others' email addresses. My versions of this url for regular old mailto, along with Gmail and Yahoo Mail, work perfectly. Surprise surprise.

  Read the article

• HttpModule.Init - safely add HttpApplication.BeginRequest handler in IIS7 integrated mode

  - by Paul Smith

  My question is similar but not identical to: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1123741/why-cant-my-host-softsyshosting-com-support-beginrequest-and-endrequest-event (I've also read the mvolo blog referenced therein) The goal is to successfully hook HttpApplication.BeginRequest in the IHttpModule.Init event (or anywhere internal to the module), using a normal HttpModule integrated via the system.webServer config, i.e. one that doesn't: invade Global.asax or override the HttpApplication (the module is intended to be self-contained & reusable, so e.g. I have a config like this): <system.webServer> <validation validateIntegratedModeConfiguration="false"/> <modules> <remove name="TheHttpModule" /> <add name="TheHttpModule" type="Company.HttpModules.TheHttpModule" preCondition="managedHandler" /> So far, any strategy I've tried to attach a listener to HttpApplication.BeginRequest results in one of two things, symptom 1 is that BeginRequest never fires, or symptom 2 is that the following exception gets thrown on all managed requests, and I cannot catch & handle it from user code: Stack Trace: [NullReferenceException: Object reference not set to an instance of an object.] System.Web.PipelineModuleStepContainer.GetEventCount(RequestNotification notification, Boolean isPostEvent) +30 System.Web.PipelineStepManager.ResumeSteps(Exception error) +1112 System.Web.HttpApplication.BeginProcessRequestNotification(HttpContext context, AsyncCallback cb) +113 System.Web.HttpRuntime.ProcessRequestNotificationPrivate(IIS7WorkerRequest wr, HttpContext context) +616 Commenting out app.BeginRequest += new EventHandler(this.OnBeginRequest) in Init stops the exception of course. Init does not reference the Context or Request objects at all. I have tried: Removed all references to HttpContext.Current anywhere in the project (still symptom 1) Tested removing all code from the body of my OnBeginRequest method, to ensure the problem wasn't internal to the method (= exception) Sniffing the stack trace and only calling app.BeginRequest+=... when if the stack isn't started by InitializeApplication (= BeginRequest not firing) Only calling app.BeginRequest+= on the second pass through Init (= BeginRequest not firing) Anyone know of a good approach? Is there some indirect strategy for hooking Application_Start within the module (seems unlikely)? Another event which a) one can hook from a module's constructor or Init method, and b) which is subsequently a safe place to attach BeginRequest event handlers? Thanks much

  Read the article

• How can I display the users profile pic using the facebook graph api?

  - by kielie

  Hi, I would like to display the users profile picture inside of my applications canvas page, is there a way to do that using the graph api? I know I can do it using FBML but I would also like to pass the profile pic to a flash game I am making, so I would have to get the profile pic from the api and send it as a variable, here is the code I have thus far, $facebook = new Facebook(array( 'appId' => FACEBOOK_APP_ID, 'secret' => FACEBOOK_SECRET_KEY, 'cookie' => true, 'domain' => 'myurl/facebook-test' )); $session = $facebook->getSession(); $uid = $facebook->getUser(); $me = $facebook->api('/me'); $updated = date("l, F j, Y", strtotime($me['updated_time'])); echo "Hello " . $me['name'] . $me['picture'] . "<br />"; echo "<div style=\"background:url(images/bg.jpg); width:760px; height:630px;\">" . "You last updated your profile on " . $updated . "</div>" . "<br /> your uid is" . $uid; Thanx in advance!

  Read the article

• Grails bean-fields plugin

  - by Don

  Hi, I'm having problems using the Grails bean-fields plugin with a class this is annotated Validateable, but is not a domain/command class. The root cause of the problem appears to be in this method of BeanTagLib.groovy private def getBeanConstraints(bean) { if (bean?.metaClass?.hasProperty(bean, 'constraints')) { def cons = bean.constraints if (cons != null) { if (log.debugEnabled) { log.debug "Bean is of type ${bean.class} - the constraints property was a [${cons.class}]" } // Safety check for the case where bean is no a proper domain/command object // This avoids confusing errors where constraints comes back as a Closure if (!(cons instanceof Map)) { if (log.warnEnabled) { log.warn "Bean of type ${bean.class} is not a domain class, command object or other validateable object - the constraints property was a [${cons.class}]" } } } else { if (log.warnEnabled) { log.warn "Bean of type ${bean.class} has no constraints" } } return cons } else return null } I tested out this method above in the grails console and when I pass an instance of MyBean into this method, it logs: Bean of type ${bean.class} is not a domain class, command object or other validateable object - the constraints property was a [${cons.class}] Because the constraints are returned as an instance of Closure instead of a Map. If I could figue out how to get a Map reference to the constraints of a @Validateable class (that is not a domain/command class), I guess I could resolve the problem. Thanks, Don

  Read the article

• SQL Server 2005 Reporting Services and the Report Viewer

  - by Kendra

  I am having an issue embedding my report into an aspx page. Here's my setup: 1 Server running SQL Server 2005 and SQL Server 2005 Reporting Services 1 Workstation running XP and VS 2005 The server is not on a domain. Reporting Services is a default installation. I have one report called TestMe in a folder called TestReports using a shared datasource. If I view the report in Report Manager, it renders fine. If I view the report using the http ://myserver/reportserver url it renders fine. If I view the report using the http ://myserver/reportserver?/TestReports/TestMe it renders fine. If I try to view the report using http ://myserver/reportserver/TestReports/TestMe, it just goes to the folder navigation page of the home directory. My web application is impersonating somebody specific to get around the server not being on a domain. When I call the report from the report viewer using http ://myserver/reportserver as the server and /TestReports/TestMe as the path I get this error: For security reasons DTD is prohibited in this XML document. To enable DTD processing set the ProhibitDtd property on XmlReaderSettings to false and pass the settings into XmlReader.Create method. When I change the server to http ://myserver/reportserver? I get this error when I run the report: Client found response content type of '', but expected 'text/xml'. The request failed with an empty response. I have been searching for a while and haven't found anything that fixes my issue. Please let me know if there is more information needed. Thanks in advance, Kendra

  Read the article

• Scalaz: request for use case for Cokleisli composition

  - by oxbow_lakes

  This question isn't meant as flame-bait! As it might be apparent, I've been looking at Scalaz recently. I'm trying to understand why I need some of the functionality that the library provides. Here's something: import scalaz._ import Scalaz._ type NEL[A] = NonEmptyList[A] val NEL = NonEmptyList I put some println statements in my functions to see what was going on (aside: what would I have done if I was trying to avoid side effects like that?). My functions are: val f: NEL[Int] => String = (l: NEL[Int]) => {println("f: " + l); l.toString |+| "X" } val g: NEL[String] => BigInt = (l: NEL[String]) => {println("g: " + l); BigInt(l.map(_.length).sum) } Then I combine them via a cokleisli and pass in a NEL[Int] val k = cokleisli(f) =>= cokleisli(g) println("RES: " + k( NEL(1, 2, 3) )) What does this print? f: NonEmptyList(1, 2, 3) f: NonEmptyList(2, 3) f: NonEmptyList(3) g: NonEmptyList(NonEmptyList(1, 2, 3)X, NonEmptyList(2, 3)X, NonEmptyList(3)X) RES: 57 The RES value is the character count of the (String) elements in the final NEL. Two things occur to me: How could I have known that my NEL was going to be reduced in this manner from the method signatures involved? (I wasn't expecting the result at all) What is the point of this? Can a reasonably simple and easy-to-follow use case be distilled for me? This question is a thinly-veiled plea for some lovely person like retronym to explain how this powerful library actually works.

  Read the article

• Convert string to decimal retaining the exact input format

  - by Brett

  Hi All, I'm sure this is a piece of cake but I'm really struggling with something that seems trivial. I need to check the inputted text of a textbox on the form submit and check to see if it's within a desired range (I've tried a Range Validator but it doesn't work for some reason so I'm trying to do this server-side). What I want to do is: Get the value inputted (eg. 0.02), replace the commas and periods, convert that to a decimal (or double or equivalent) and check to see if it's between 0.10 and 35000.00. Here's what I have so far: string s = txtTransactionValue.Text.Replace(",", string.Empty).Replace(".", string.Empty); decimal transactionValue = Decimal.Parse(s); if (transactionValue >= 0.10M && transactionValue <= 35000.00M) // do something If I pass 0.02 into the above, transactionValue is 2. I want to retain the value as 0.02 (ie. do no format changes to it - 100.00 is 100.00, 999.99 is 999.99) Any ideas? Thanks in advance, Brett

  Read the article

• Publish Maven artifacts on FTP with Hudson FTP Publisher Plugin

  - by jaguard

  I'm building a number of artefacts (zip files for different environments: test, dev) using the maven-assembly-plugin using a specialized Maven profile. These artefacts I want to copy/collect on on a FTP server keeping the version (01.07.10.16.Wed-1626) as a folder, so I need to copy from test/build/01.07.10.16.Wed-1626/ to ftp://my-ftp-server:21/projects/myserver-1.7/01.07.10.16.Wed-1626/ The layout for the Maven output is this: target/ build/ 01.07.10.16.Wed-1626/ my-server-01.07.10.16.Wed-1626-dev.zip my-server-01.07.10.16.Wed-1626-test.zip For copying the artefacts I'm using FTP Publisher Plugin but it seams I miss something since that even the build is OK and the artefacts are build without problem but the job is finishing without copying the artefacts, and in the console there is no log info about copying the artefacts My FTP publisher config (FTP repository hosts) is: Hostname: my-ftp-server Port: 21 Timeout: 10000 Root Repository Path: projects User Name: my-user Password: my-pass My Hudson job FTP publisher config (Publish artifacts to FTP) is: FTP site: my-ftp-server Files to upload Source: target/build/** Destination: myserver-1.7 1: There is any log to check if there are any FTP copy errors ? 2: There is any problem with the file pattern (source) or with the dest ?

  Read the article

• Hooking thread exit

  - by mackenir

  Is there a way for me to hook the exit of managed threads (i.e. run some code on a thread, just before it exits?) I've developed a mechanism for hooking thread exit that works for some threads. Step 1: develop a 'hook' STA COM class that takes a callback function and calls it in its destructor. Step 2: create a ThreadStatic instance of this object on the thread I want to hook, and pass the object a managed delegate converted to an unmanaged function pointer. The delegate then gets called on thread exit (since the CLR calls IUnknown::Release on all STA COM RCWs as part of thread exit). This mechanism works on, for example, worker threads that I create in code using the Thread class. However, it doesn't seem to work for the application's main thread (be it a console or windows app). The 'hook' COM object seems to be deleted too late in the shutdown process and the attempt to call the delegate fails. (The reason I want to implement this facility is so I can run some native COM code on the exiting thread that works with STA COM objects that were created on the thread, before it's 'too late' (i.e. before the thread has exited, and it's no longer possible to work with STA COM objects on that thread.))

  Read the article

• Objective-C Simple Inheritance and OO Principles

  - by bleeckerj

  I have a subclass SubClass that inherits from baseclass BaseClass. BaseClass has an initializer, like so: -(id)init { self = [super init]; if(self) { [self commonInit]; } return self; } -(void)commonInit { self.goodStuff = [[NSMutableArray alloc]init]; } SubClass does its initializer, like so: -(id)init { self = [super init]; if(self) { [self commonInit]; } return self; } -(void)commonInit { self.extraGoodStuff = [[NSMutableArray alloc]init]; } Now, I've *never taken a proper Objective-C course, but I'm a programmer more from the Electrical Engineering side, so I make do. I've developed server-side applications mostly in Java though, so I may be seeing the OO world through Java principles. When SubClass is initialized, it calls the BaseClass init and my expectation would be — because inheritance to me implies that characteristics of a BaseClass pass through to SubClass — that the commonInit method in BaseClass would be called during BaseClass init. It is not. I can *sorta understand maybe-possibly-stretch-my-imagination why it wouldn't be. But, then — why wouldn't it be based on the principles of OOP? What does "self" represent if not the instance of the class of the running code? Okay, so — I'm not going to argue that what a well-developed edition of Objective-C is doing is wrong. So, then — what is the pattern I should be using in this case? I want SubClass to have two main bits — the goodStuff that BaseClass has as well as the extraGoodStuff that it deserves as well. Clearly, I've been using the wrong pattern in this type of situation. Am I meant to expose commonInit (which makes me wonder about encapsulation principles — why expose something that, in the Java world at least, would be considered "protected" and something that should only ever be called once for each instance)? I've run into a similar problem in the recent past and tried to muddle through it, but now — I'm really wondering if I've got my principles and concepts all straight in my head. Little help, please.

  Read the article

• What should i do to test EasyMock objects when using Generics ? EasyMock

  - by Arthur Ronald F D Garcia

  See code just bellow Our generic interface public interface Repository<INSTANCE_CLASS, INSTANCE_ID_CLASS> { void add(INSTANCE_CLASS instance); INSTANCE_CLASS getById(INSTANCE_ID_CLASS id); } And a single class public class Order { private Integer id; private Integer orderNumber; // getter's and setter's public void equals(Object o) { if(o == null) return false; if(!(o instanceof Order)) return false; // business key if(getOrderNumber() == null) return false; final Order other = (Order) o; if(!(getOrderNumber().equals(other.getOrderNumber()))) return false; return true; } // hashcode } And when i do the following test private Repository<Order, Integer> repository; @Before public void setUp { repository = EasyMock.createMock(Repository.class); Order order = new Order(); order.setOrderNumber(new Integer(1)); repository.add(order); EasyMock.expectLasCall().once(); EasyMock.replay(repository); } @Test public void addOrder() { Order order = new Order(); order.setOrderNumber(new Integer(1)); repository.add(order); EasyMock.verify(repository) } I get Unexpected method call add(br.com.smac.model.domain.Order@ac66b62): add(br.com.smac.model.domain.Order@ac66b62): expected: 1, actual: 0 Why does it not work as expected ??? What should i do to pass the test ???

  Read the article

• Sybase: how can I remove non-printable characters from CHAR or VARCHAR fields with SQL?

  - by Kenny Drobnack

  I'm working with a Sybase database that seems to have non-printable characters in some of the string fields and this is throwing off some of our processing code. At first glance, it seemed to only be newlines and carriage returns, but we also have an ASCII code 27 in there - an ESC character, some accented characters, and some other oddities in there. I have no direct access to change the database, so changing the bad data isn't an option, yet. For now I have to make do with just filtering it out. We're trying to export the table data from one database and load it into a database used by another application in a nightly batch process. Ideally, I'd like to have a function that I can pass a list of characters and just have Sybase return the data with those characters removed. I'd like to keep it something we could do in plain SQL if possible. Something like this to remove characters that are ASCII 0 - 31. select str_replace(FIELD1, (0-31), NULL) as FIELD1, str_replace(FIELD2, (0-31), NULL) as FIELD2 from TABLE So far, str_replace is the nearest I can find, but it only allows replacing one string with another. No support for character ranges and won't let me do the above. We're running on Sybase ASE 12.5 on Unix servers.

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 530 531 532 533 534 535 536 537 538 539 540 541  | Next Page >