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• PHP site keeps opening to blank page, no errors.

  - by gene

  First, the premises: PHP loaded on IIS6 on Win2003 STD R2 SP2, PHP_5213 using FastCGI, MySQL_5145. Customer sent me the site files, which I unzipped to C:\InetPub\wwwroot\<site root>, then I created a new site in IIS, pointed to <site root>, added test.php to the site files for testing and it works, but visiting index.php produces a blank page with no errors. The readme.txt file present makes reference to application.php and explains root folder var and sets it to a non-existent file. I don't know PHP syntax, but I tried several logical changes with zero results. At this point I'm not even sure if that is the problem anymore. With PHP, MySQL & site debugging have put in over 20 hours. Still confused, I have resorted to heavy drug use and purchased a small firearm, loaded with a single round (even this seemed to take an inordinate amount of time). I've given up all hope. Someone please help save a new server and/or old administrator.

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• EF + UnitOfWork + SharePoint RunWithElevatedPrivileges

  - by Lorenzo

  In our SharePoint application we have used the UnitOfWork + Repository patterns together with Entity Framework. To avoid the usage of the passthrough authentication we have developed a piece of code that impersonate a single user before creating the ObjectContext instance in a similar way that is described in "Impersonating user with Entity Framework" on this site. The only difference between our code and the referred question is that, to do the impersonation, we are using RunWithElevatedPrivileges to impersonate the Application Pool identity as in the following sample. SPSecurity.RunWithElevatedPrivileges(delegate() { using (SPSite site = new SPSite(url)) { _context = new MyDataContext(ConfigSingleton.GetInstance().ConnectionString); } }); We have done this way because we expected that creating the ObjectContext after impersonation and, due to the fact that Repositories are receiving the impersonated ObjectContext would solve our requirement. Unfortunately it's not so easy. In fact we experienced that, even if the ObjectContext is created before and under impersonation circumstances, the real connection is made just before executing the query, and so does not use impersonation, which break our requirement. I have checked the ObjectContext class to see if there was any event through which we can inject the impersonation but unfortunately found nothing. Any help?

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• Using Excel as front end to Access database (with VBA)

  - by Alex

  I am building a small application for a friend and they'd like to be able to use Excel as the front end. (the UI will basically be userforms in Excel). They have a bunch of data in Excel that they would like to be able to query but I do not want to use excel as a database as I don't think it is fit for that purpose and am considering using Access. [BTW, I know Access has its shortcomings but there is zero budget available and Access already on friend's PC] To summarise, I am considering dumping a bunch of data into Access and then using Excel as a front end to query the database and display results in a userform style environment. Questions: How easy is it to link to Access from Excel using ADO / DAO? Is it quite limited in terms of functionality or can I get creative? Do I pay a performance penalty (vs.using forms in Access as the UI)? Assuming that the database will always be updated using ADO / DAO commands from within Excel VBA, does that mean I can have multiple Excel users using that one single Access database and not run into any concurrency issues etc.? Any other things I should be aware of? I have strong Excel VBA skills and think I can overcome Access VBA quite quickly but never really done Excel / Access link before. I could shoehorn the data into Excel and use as a quasi-database but that just seems more pain than it is worth (and not a robust long term solution) Any advice appreciated. Alex

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• Django: how to cleanup form fields and avoid code duplication

  - by Alexander Konstantinov

  Quite often I need to filter some form data before using it (saving to database etc.) Let's say I want to strip whitespaces and replace repeating whitespaces with a single one in most of the text fields, in many forms. It's not difficult to do this using clean_<fieldname> methods: # Simplified model with two text fields class MyModel(models.Model): title = models.CharField() description = models.CharField() # Model-based form class MyForm(forms.ModelForm): class Meta: model = MyModel def clean_title(self): title = self.cleaned_data['title'] return re.sub(r'\s{2,}', ' ', title.strip()) def clean_description(self): description = self.cleaned_data['description'] return re.sub(r'\s{2,}', ' ', description.strip()) It does exactly what I need, and has a nice side effect which I like: if user enters only whitespaces, the field will be considered empty and therefore invalid (if it is required) and I don't even have to throw a ValidationError. The obvious problem here is code duplication. Even if I'll create some function for that, say my_text_filter, I'll have to call it for every text field in all my forms: from myproject.filters import my_text_filter class MyForm(forms.ModelForm): class Meta: model = MyModel def clean_title(self): return my_text_filter(self.cleaned_data['title']) def clean_description(self): return my_text_filter(self.cleaned_data['description']) The question: is there any standard and simple way in Django (I use version 1.2 if that matters) to do this (like, for example, by adding property validators = {'title': my_text_filter, 'description': my_text_filter} to MyModel), or at least some more or less standard workaround? I've read about form validation and validators in the documentation, but couldn't find what I need there.

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• Can I spead out a long running stored proc accross multiple CPU's?

  - by Russ

  [Also on SuperUser - http://superuser.com/questions/116600/can-i-spead-out-a-long-running-stored-proc-accross-multiple-cpus] I have a stored procedure in SQL server the gets, and decrypts a block of data. ( Credit cards in this case. ) Most of the time, the performance is tolerable, but there are a couple customers where the process is painfully slow, taking literally 1 minute to complete. ( Well, 59377ms to return from SQL Server to be exact, but it can vary by a few hundred ms based on load ) When I watch the process, I see that SQL is only using a single proc to perform the whole process, and typically only proc 0. Is there a way I can change my stored proc so that SQL can multi-thread the process? Is it even feasible to cheat and to break the calls in half, ( top 50%, bottom 50% ), and spread the load, as a gross hack? ( just spit-balling here ) My stored proc: USE [Commerce] GO /****** Object: StoredProcedure [dbo].[GetAllCreditCardsByCustomerId] Script Date: 03/05/2010 11:50:14 ******/ SET ANSI_NULLS ON GO SET QUOTED_IDENTIFIER ON GO ALTER PROCEDURE [dbo].[GetAllCreditCardsByCustomerId] @companyId UNIQUEIDENTIFIER, @DecryptionKey NVARCHAR (MAX) AS SET NoCount ON DECLARE @cardId uniqueidentifier DECLARE @tmpdecryptedCardData VarChar(MAX); DECLARE @decryptedCardData VarChar(MAX); DECLARE @tmpTable as Table ( CardId uniqueidentifier, DecryptedCard NVarChar(Max) ) DECLARE creditCards CURSOR FAST_FORWARD READ_ONLY FOR Select cardId from CreditCards where companyId = @companyId and Active=1 order by addedBy desc --2 OPEN creditCards --3 FETCH creditCards INTO @cardId -- prime the cursor WHILE @@Fetch_Status = 0 BEGIN --OPEN creditCards DECLARE creditCardData CURSOR FAST_FORWARD READ_ONLY FOR select convert(nvarchar(max), DecryptByCert(Cert_Id('Oh-Nay-Nay'), EncryptedCard, @DecryptionKey)) FROM CreditCardData where cardid = @cardId order by valueOrder OPEN creditCardData FETCH creditCardData INTO @tmpdecryptedCardData -- prime the cursor WHILE @@Fetch_Status = 0 BEGIN print 'CreditCardData' print @tmpdecryptedCardData set @decryptedCardData = ISNULL(@decryptedCardData, '') + @tmpdecryptedCardData print '@decryptedCardData' print @decryptedCardData; FETCH NEXT FROM creditCardData INTO @tmpdecryptedCardData -- fetch next END CLOSE creditCardData DEALLOCATE creditCardData insert into @tmpTable (CardId, DecryptedCard) values ( @cardId, @decryptedCardData ) set @decryptedCardData = '' FETCH NEXT FROM creditCards INTO @cardId -- fetch next END select CardId, DecryptedCard FROM @tmpTable CLOSE creditCards DEALLOCATE creditCards

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• What's the purpose of "import package"?

  - by codethief

  As I just found out import package does not make the package's modules available through package.module. The same obviously holds true for from package import subpackage as well as from package import * What's the purpose of importing a package at all then if I can't access its submodules but only the objects defined in __init__.py? It makes sense to me that from package import * would bloat the namespace, which, however, doesn't apply in case of the other two ways! I also understand that loading all submodules might take a long time. But I don't know what these unwanted side-effects, "that should only happen when the sub-module is explicitly imported", are which the author of the previous link mentions. To me it looks like doing an import package[.subpackage] (or from package import subpackage) makes absolutely no sense if I don't exactly want to access objects provided in __init__.py. Are those unwanted side effects really that serious that the language actually has to protect the programmer from causing them? Actually, I thought that Python was a little bit more about "If the programmer wants to do it, let him do it." In my case, I really do want to import all submodules with the single statement from package import subpackage, because I need all of them! Telling Python in the init.py file which submodules I'm exactly talking about (all of them!) is quite cumbersome from my point of view. Please enlighten me. :)

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• HELP with XML to XML transformation using XSLT.

  - by kaniths

  Am a rookie trying XSLT and XML tranformations for the first time. To start off, i tried a simple sample programs. I expected the Output in Tree format (maintaining the hierarchy) instead i just get " KING" in single line... What could be the problem? PS: I use XMLSpy. Any guideline would be great full. Thanks :) Input XML: <ROWSET> <ROW> <EMPNO>7839</EMPNO> <ENAME>KING</ENAME> </ROW> </ROWSET> XSL used for transformation: <xsl:stylesheet version="1.0" xmlns:xsl="http://www.w3.org/1999/XSL/Transform"> <xsl:output method="xml" encoding="UTF-8" indent="yes" omit-xml-declaration="no"/> <xsl:template match="/"> <Invitation> <To> <xsl:value-of select="ROWSET/ROW/ENAME"/> </To> </Invitation> </xsl:template>

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• Working around "one executable per project" in Visual C# for many small test programs

  - by Kevin Ivarsen

  When working with Visual Studio in general (or Visual C# Express in my particular case), it looks like each project can be configured to produce only one output - e.g. a single executable or a library. I'm working on a project that consists of a shared library and a few application, and I already have one project in my solution for each of those. However, during development I find it useful to write small example programs that can run one small subsystem in isolation (at a level that doesn't belong in the unit tests). Is there a good way to handle this in Visual Studio? I'd like to avoid adding several dozen separate projects to my solution for each small test program I write, especially when these programs will typically be less than 100 lines of code. I'm hoping to find something that lets me continue to work in Visual Studio and use its build system (rather than moving to something like NAnt). I could foresee the answer being something like: A way of setting this up in Visual Studio that I haven't found yet A GUI like NUnit's graphical runner that searches an assembly for classes with defined Main() functions that you can select and run A command line tool that lets you specify an assembly and a class with a Main function to run

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• autocommit and @Transactional and Cascading with spring, jpa and hibernate

  - by subes

  Hi, what I would like to accomplish is the following: have autocommit enabled so per default all queries get commited if there is a @Transactional on a method, it overrides the autocommit and encloses all queries into a single transaction, thus overriding the autocommit if there is a @Transactional method that calls other @Transactional annotated methods, the outer most annotation should override the inner annotaions and create a larger transaction, thus annotations also override eachother I am currently still learning about spring-orm and couldn't find documentation about this and don't have a test project for this yet. So my questions are: What is the default behaviour of transactions in spring? If the default differs from my requirement, is there a way to configure my desired behaviour? Or is there a totally different best practice for transactions? --EDIT-- I have the following test-setup: @javax.persistence.Entity public class Entity { @Id @GeneratedValue private Integer id; private String name; public Integer getId() { return id; } public void setId(Integer id) { this.id = id; } public String getName() { return name; } public void setName(String name) { this.name = name; } } @Repository public class Dao { @PersistenceContext private EntityManager em; public void insert(Entity ent) { em.persist(ent); } @SuppressWarnings("unchecked") public List<Entity> selectAll() { List<Entity> ents = em.createQuery("select e from " + Entity.class.getName() + " e").getResultList(); return ents; } } If I have it like this, even with autocommit enabled in hibernate, the insert method does nothing. I have to add @Transactional to the insert or the method calling insert for it to work... Is there a way to make @Transactional completely optional?

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• Comment reply procedure using jquery and php?

  - by Prashant

  I have Commenting system in my app. For a single video entry anyone can post a comment and someone else can post reply to that comment and replies, cannot have thier further reples, similar to StackOverflow is doing (1 Answer, and thier 1 or more replies). I want the similar functionality what SO has, Let's I have the following HTML <div class="comment" id="comment-908"> First comment </div> <div class="reply"> <div id="reply-909> reply 1 </div> <div id="reply-910> reply 2 </div> <div id="reply-911> reply 3 </div> </div> <form id="reply-form"> <textarea id="replycomment" name="replycomment"></textarea> <input type="submit" name="submit-reply" value="add reply" /> </form> Now above HTML is a sample which I have created, When someone will click on "add reply" button then I am using jquery to post there reply. Now I want to know that there will be multiple comment and multiple add reply forms. So who clicks on which button and for which comment someone wants to post a reply, how will i know that? The above HTML is not in correct way, please suggest me the correct HTML flow which I can use and how to work with jquery? now I want to know when soe

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• Can I spread out a long running stored proc accross multiple CPU's?

  - by Russ

  [Also on SuperUser - http://superuser.com/questions/116600/can-i-spead-out-a-long-running-stored-proc-accross-multiple-cpus] I have a stored procedure in SQL server the gets, and decrypts a block of data. ( Credit cards in this case. ) Most of the time, the performance is tolerable, but there are a couple customers where the process is painfully slow, taking literally 1 minute to complete. ( Well, 59377ms to return from SQL Server to be exact, but it can vary by a few hundred ms based on load ) When I watch the process, I see that SQL is only using a single proc to perform the whole process, and typically only proc 0. Is there a way I can change my stored proc so that SQL can multi-thread the process? Is it even feasible to cheat and to break the calls in half, ( top 50%, bottom 50% ), and spread the load, as a gross hack? ( just spit-balling here ) My stored proc: USE [Commerce] GO /****** Object: StoredProcedure [dbo].[GetAllCreditCardsByCustomerId] Script Date: 03/05/2010 11:50:14 ******/ SET ANSI_NULLS ON GO SET QUOTED_IDENTIFIER ON GO ALTER PROCEDURE [dbo].[GetAllCreditCardsByCustomerId] @companyId UNIQUEIDENTIFIER, @DecryptionKey NVARCHAR (MAX) AS SET NoCount ON DECLARE @cardId uniqueidentifier DECLARE @tmpdecryptedCardData VarChar(MAX); DECLARE @decryptedCardData VarChar(MAX); DECLARE @tmpTable as Table ( CardId uniqueidentifier, DecryptedCard NVarChar(Max) ) DECLARE creditCards CURSOR FAST_FORWARD READ_ONLY FOR Select cardId from CreditCards where companyId = @companyId and Active=1 order by addedBy desc --2 OPEN creditCards --3 FETCH creditCards INTO @cardId -- prime the cursor WHILE @@Fetch_Status = 0 BEGIN --OPEN creditCards DECLARE creditCardData CURSOR FAST_FORWARD READ_ONLY FOR select convert(nvarchar(max), DecryptByCert(Cert_Id('Oh-Nay-Nay'), EncryptedCard, @DecryptionKey)) FROM CreditCardData where cardid = @cardId order by valueOrder OPEN creditCardData FETCH creditCardData INTO @tmpdecryptedCardData -- prime the cursor WHILE @@Fetch_Status = 0 BEGIN print 'CreditCardData' print @tmpdecryptedCardData set @decryptedCardData = ISNULL(@decryptedCardData, '') + @tmpdecryptedCardData print '@decryptedCardData' print @decryptedCardData; FETCH NEXT FROM creditCardData INTO @tmpdecryptedCardData -- fetch next END CLOSE creditCardData DEALLOCATE creditCardData insert into @tmpTable (CardId, DecryptedCard) values ( @cardId, @decryptedCardData ) set @decryptedCardData = '' FETCH NEXT FROM creditCards INTO @cardId -- fetch next END select CardId, DecryptedCard FROM @tmpTable CLOSE creditCards DEALLOCATE creditCards

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• Can I spread out a long running stored proc accross multiple CPU's?

  - by Russ

  [Also on SuperUser - http://superuser.com/questions/116600/can-i-spead-out-a-long-running-stored-proc-accross-multiple-cpus] I have a stored procedure in SQL server the gets, and decrypts a block of data. ( Credit cards in this case. ) Most of the time, the performance is tolerable, but there are a couple customers where the process is painfully slow, taking literally 1 minute to complete. ( Well, 59377ms to return from SQL Server to be exact, but it can vary by a few hundred ms based on load ) When I watch the process, I see that SQL is only using a single proc to perform the whole process, and typically only proc 0. Is there a way I can change my stored proc so that SQL can multi-thread the process? Is it even feasible to cheat and to break the calls in half, ( top 50%, bottom 50% ), and spread the load, as a gross hack? ( just spit-balling here ) My stored proc: USE [Commerce] GO /****** Object: StoredProcedure [dbo].[GetAllCreditCardsByCustomerId] Script Date: 03/05/2010 11:50:14 ******/ SET ANSI_NULLS ON GO SET QUOTED_IDENTIFIER ON GO ALTER PROCEDURE [dbo].[GetAllCreditCardsByCustomerId] @companyId UNIQUEIDENTIFIER, @DecryptionKey NVARCHAR (MAX) AS SET NoCount ON DECLARE @cardId uniqueidentifier DECLARE @tmpdecryptedCardData VarChar(MAX); DECLARE @decryptedCardData VarChar(MAX); DECLARE @tmpTable as Table ( CardId uniqueidentifier, DecryptedCard NVarChar(Max) ) DECLARE creditCards CURSOR FAST_FORWARD READ_ONLY FOR Select cardId from CreditCards where companyId = @companyId and Active=1 order by addedBy desc --2 OPEN creditCards --3 FETCH creditCards INTO @cardId -- prime the cursor WHILE @@Fetch_Status = 0 BEGIN --OPEN creditCards DECLARE creditCardData CURSOR FAST_FORWARD READ_ONLY FOR select convert(nvarchar(max), DecryptByCert(Cert_Id('Oh-Nay-Nay'), EncryptedCard, @DecryptionKey)) FROM CreditCardData where cardid = @cardId order by valueOrder OPEN creditCardData FETCH creditCardData INTO @tmpdecryptedCardData -- prime the cursor WHILE @@Fetch_Status = 0 BEGIN print 'CreditCardData' print @tmpdecryptedCardData set @decryptedCardData = ISNULL(@decryptedCardData, '') + @tmpdecryptedCardData print '@decryptedCardData' print @decryptedCardData; FETCH NEXT FROM creditCardData INTO @tmpdecryptedCardData -- fetch next END CLOSE creditCardData DEALLOCATE creditCardData insert into @tmpTable (CardId, DecryptedCard) values ( @cardId, @decryptedCardData ) set @decryptedCardData = '' FETCH NEXT FROM creditCards INTO @cardId -- fetch next END select CardId, DecryptedCard FROM @tmpTable CLOSE creditCards DEALLOCATE creditCards

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• I'v installed NetBeans 6.8 on my MacOS X MacBook and the logs say it cannot be run, any ideas?

  - by codezealot

  I've installed NetBeans 6.8 on my MacBook, and the installation results indicated success. However, every single time I attempt to run the application is shuts down. I monitored the process and noticed the following entries in the console that imply the application cannot be found? 3/19/10 10:20:20 PM [0x0-0x22022].org.netbeans.ide.baseide.200912041610[22168] /Applications/NetBeans/NetBeans 6.8.app/Contents/MacOS/netbeans: line 57: dirname: command not found 3/19/10 10:20:20 PM [0x0-0x22022].org.netbeans.ide.baseide.200912041610[22168] Cannot read cluster file: /../etc/netbeans.clusters 3/19/10 10:20:20 PM com.apple.launchd.peruser.501[77] ([0x0-0x22022].org.netbeans.ide.baseide.200912041610[22168]) Exited with exit code: 1 I started researching how to set the default JDK for use by NetBeans, and found repeated use of the following command line entry; netbeans --jdkhome /System/Library/Frameworks/JavaVM.framework/Versions/1.6.0/Home -- from http://wiki.netbeans.org/JDKVersionAndMacOS When I attempt the command line above, I receive "netbeans command not found". So do I ... 1.) Need to create a command called "netbeans" that points to my install location for NetBeans 6.8? If so how do I do that? 2.) How do I get to the netbeans.conf file for NetBeans 6.8, does one even exist for it? It gets even more interesting, the above happens with Eclipse as well. Yippie.

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• C#: Why am I still getting an RCW error when exiting my application?

  - by shifuimam

  To be specific, the error is: An attempt has been made to free an RCW that is in use. The RCW is in use on the active thread or another thread. Attempting to free an in-use RCW can cause corruption or data loss. The application in question is a small applet that displays the current clock speed of the CPU as a system tray icon. I'm using a System.Timers.Timer object to refresh the systray icon at an interval of 2.5 seconds. There's a single context menu item to exit the application, which uses the following function to unload everything: public void ExitApp(object sender, EventArgs e) { //stop and disable the timer theInterval.Stop(); theInterval.Enabled = false; //unload the system tray icon TheIcon.Visible = false; //exit the application Application.Exit(); } If I take out everything but Application.Exit(); I get an RCW error and the systray icon doesn't go away until I mouse over it. Everything was working perfectly until I changed the window style of the hidden form used to initialize the systray icon and the timer. If it helps any, I'm using C# 2010 Express.

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• MySql scoping problem with correlated subqueries

  - by Rolf

  Hi, I'm having this Mysql query, It works: SELECT nom ,prenom ,(SELECT GROUP_CONCAT(category_en) FROM (SELECT DISTINCT category_en FROM categories c WHERE id IN (SELECT DISTINCT category_id FROM m3allems_to_categories m2c WHERE m3allem_id = 37) ) cS ) categories ,(SELECT GROUP_CONCAT(area_en) FROM (SELECT DISTINCT area_en FROM areas c WHERE id IN (SELECT DISTINCT area_id FROM m3allems_to_areas m2a WHERE m3allem_id = 37) ) aSq ) areas FROM m3allems m WHERE m.id = 37 The result is: nom prenom categories areas Man Multi Carpentry,Paint,Walls Beirut,Baalbak,Saida It works correclty, but only when i hardcode into the query the id that I want (37). I want it to work for all entries in the m3allem table, so I try this: SELECT nom ,prenom ,(SELECT GROUP_CONCAT(category_en) FROM (SELECT DISTINCT category_en FROM categories c WHERE id IN (SELECT DISTINCT category_id FROM m3allems_to_categories m2c WHERE m3allem_id = m.id) ) cS ) categories ,(SELECT GROUP_CONCAT(area_en) FROM (SELECT DISTINCT area_en FROM areas c WHERE id IN (SELECT DISTINCT area_id FROM m3allems_to_areas m2a WHERE m3allem_id = m.id) ) aSq ) areas FROM m3allems m And I get an error: Unknown column 'm.id' in 'where clause' Why? From the MySql manual: 13.2.8.7. Correlated Subqueries [...] Scoping rule: MySQL evaluates from inside to outside. So... do this not work when the subquery is in a SELECT section? I did not read anything about that. Does anyone know? What should I do? It took me a long time to build this query... I know it's a monster query but it gets what I want in a single query, and I am so close to getting it to work! Can anyone help?

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• moving audio over a local network using GStreamer

  - by James Turner

  I need to move realtime audio between two Linux machines, which are both running custom software (of mine) which builds on top of Gstreamer. (The software already has other communication between the machines, over a separate TCP-based protocol - I mention this in case having reliable out-of-band data makes a difference to the solution). The audio input will be a microphone / line-in on the sending machine, and normal audio output as the sink on the destination; alsasrc and alsasink are the most likely, though for testing I have been using the audiotestsrc instead of a real microphone. GStreamer offers a multitude of ways to move data round over networks - RTP, RTSP, GDP payloading, UDP and TCP servers, clients and sockets, and so on. There's also many examples on the web of streaming both audio and video - but none of them seem to work for me, in practice; either the destination pipeline fails to negotiate caps, or I hear a single packet and then the pipeline stalls, or the destination pipeline bails out immediately with no data available. In all cases, I'm testing on the command-line just gst-launch. No compression of the audio data is required - raw audio, or trivial WAV, uLaw or aLaw encoding is fine; what's more important is low-ish latency.

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• How can i Execute a Controller's ActionMethod programatically?

  - by Pure.Krome

  Hi folks, I'm trying to execute a controller's Action Method programatically and I'm not sure how. Scenario: When my ControllerFactory fails to find the controller, I wish it to manually execute a single action method which i have on a simple, custom controller. I don't want to rely on using any route data to determine the controller/method .. because that route might not have been wired up. Eg. // NOTE: Error handling removed from this example. public class MyControllerFactory : DefaultControllerFactory { protected override IController GetControllerInstance(Type controllerType) { IController result = null; // Try and load the controller, based on the controllerType argument. // ... snip // Did we retrieve a controller? if (controller == null) { result = new MyCustomController(); ((MyCustomController)result).Execute404NotFound(); // <-- HERE! } return result; } } .. and that method is .. public static void Execute404NotFound(this Controller controller) { result = new 404NotFound(); // Setup any ViewData.Model stuff. result.ExecuteResult(controller.ControllerContext); // <-- RUNTIME // ERROR's HERE } Now, when I run the controller factory fails to find a controller, i then manually create my own basic controller. I then call the extension method 'Execute404NotFound' on this controller instance. That's fine .. until it runs the ExecuteResult(..) method. Why? the controller has no ControllerContext data. As such, the ExecuteResult crashes because it requires some ControllerContext. So - can someone out there help me? see what I'm doing wrong. Remember - i'm trying to get my controller factory to manually / programmatically call a method on a controller which of course would return an ActionResult. Please help!

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• WPF : Multiple views, one DataContext

  - by zapho

  Hi, I'm working on a WPF application which must handle multiple screens (two at this this time). One view can be opened on several screens and user actions must be reflected consistently on all screens. To achieve this, for a given type of view, a single DataContext is instantiated. Then, when a view is displayed on a screen, the unique DataContext is attached to it. So, one DataContext, several views (same type of view/xaml). So far so good. It works quite well in most cases. I do have a problem with a specific view which relies on ItemsControl. These ItemsControl are used to display UIElements dynamically build in the ViewModel/DataContext (C# code). These UIElements are mostly Path objects. Example : <ItemsControl ItemsSource="{Binding WindVectors}"> <ItemsControl.Template> <ControlTemplate TargetType="{x:Type ItemsControl}"> <Canvas IsItemsHost="True" /> </ControlTemplate> </ItemsControl.Template> </ItemsControl> Here, WindVectors is a ObservableCollection<UIElement>. When the view is opened the first time, everything is fine. The problem is that when the view is opened one another screen, all ItemsControl are removed from the first screen and displayed one the second screen. Other WPF components (TextBlock for instance) on this view react normally and are displayed on both screens. Any help would be greatly appreciated. Thanks. Fabrice

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• What is the difference between cubes and the Unified Dimensional Model (if any)?

  - by ngm

  I'm currently researching SQL Server 2008 as a business intelligence solution, and currently looking at Analysis Services (and I'm pretty new to business intelligence as a whole...) I'm a bit confused by some of the terms in SSAS, particularly the conceptual differences between cubes and MS's Unified Dimensional Model. I believe that a cube in SSAS is basically an OLAP cube -- dimensions, measures, something that sits between the underlying data source and a business user. But then that's kind of what I understand UDM to be as well. The docs for SQL Server 2005 seem to suggest as much: "A cube is essentially synonymous with a Unified Dimensional Model (UDM)". But then the SQL Server 2008 pages sort of suggest that UDM is a wrapper for both multidimensional data (cubes) and relational data: "Use the Unified Dimensional Model to provide one consolidated business view for relational and multidimensional data that includes business entities, business logic, calculations, and metrics." This blog post suggests similarly: "UDM provides a single dimensional model for all OLAP analysis and relational reporting needs. So you can use either MDX or SQL" Is UDM something that sits above cubes? Or are they the same thing? I presume I would develop cubes with the Cube Designer application; what would I develop a UDM with?

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• Tips on managing dependencies for a release?

  - by Andrew Murray

  Our system comprises many .NET websites, class libraries, and a MSSQL database. We use SVN for source control and TeamCity to automatically build to a Test server. Our team is normally working on 4 or 5 projects at a time. We try to lump many changes into a largish rollout every 2-4 weeks. My problem is with keeping track of all the dependencies for a rollout. Example: Website A cannot go live until we've rolled out Branch X of Class library B, built in turn against the Trunk of Class library C, which needs Config Updates Y and Z and Database Update D, which needs Migration Script E... It gets even more complex - like making sure each developer's project is actually compatible with the others and are building against the same versions. Yes, this is a management issue as much as a technical issue. Currently our non-optimal solution is: a whiteboard listing features that haven't gone live yet relying on our memory and intuition when planning the rollout, until we're pretty sure we've thought of everything... a dry-run on our Staging environment. It's a good indication but we're often not sure if Staging is 100% in sync with Live - part of the problem I'm hoping to solve. some amount of winging it on rollout day. So far so good, minus a few close calls. But as our system grows, I'd like a more scientific release management system allowing for more flexibility, like being able to roll out a single change or bugfix on it's own, safe in the knowledge that it won't break anything else. I'm guessing the best solution involves some sort of version numbering system, and perhaps using a project management tool. We're a start-up, so we're not too hot on religiously sticking to rigid processes, but we're happy to start, providing it doesn't add more overhead than it's worth. I'd love to hear advice from other teams who have solved this problem.

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• TimeoutException when WCF Host and Client are in the same process

  - by Pharao2k

  I've ran into a really weird problem. I am building a heavily distributed application where each app instance can either be a Host and/or Client to a WCF-Service (very p2p-like). Everything works fine, as long as the Client and the targeted Host (By which I mean the app, not the Host, since currently everything runs on a single computer (so no Firewall problems etc.)) are NOT the same. IF they are the same, then the app hangs for exactly 1 Minute and then throws a TimeoutException. WCF-Logging did not produce anything helpful. Here is a small app which demonstrates the Problem: public partial class MainWindow : Window { public MainWindow() { InitializeComponent(); } private void button1_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { var binding = new NetTcpBinding(); var baseAddress = new Uri(@"net.tcp://localhost:4000/Test"); ServiceHost host = new ServiceHost(typeof(TestService), baseAddress); host.AddServiceEndpoint(typeof(ITestService), binding, baseAddress); var debug = host.Description.Behaviors.Find<ServiceDebugBehavior>(); if (debug == null) host.Description.Behaviors.Add(new ServiceDebugBehavior { IncludeExceptionDetailInFaults = true }); else debug.IncludeExceptionDetailInFaults = true; host.Open(); var clientBinding = new NetTcpBinding(); var testProxy = new TestProxy(clientBinding, new EndpointAddress(baseAddress)); testProxy.Test(); } } [ServiceContract] public interface ITestService { [OperationContract] void Test(); } public class TestService : ITestService { public void Test() { MessageBox.Show("foo"); } } public class TestProxy : ClientBase<ITestService>, ITestService { public TestProxy(NetTcpBinding binding, EndpointAddress remoteAddress) : base(binding, remoteAddress) { } public void Test() { Channel.Test(); } } What am I doing wrong? Regards, Pharao2k

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• ASP.NET NamingContainer naming convention

  - by EOLeary

  The Background Hello! I'm working on a project in which the client has required a lot of things to happen on a single page, and this has resulted in a rather large blob of HTML being rendered out to the client browser. The main issue is with input tags (where runat="server" attribute is set), these tend to cause a drastic increase in markup size due to validation, updatepanel triggers, viewstate, and the control markup itself. I've done what I can to reduce the amount of triggers I'm using, I'm compressing the viewstate (to something like 8% of the original viewstate size), I've gotten rid of a lot of ASP.NET Validators and rolled my own, and and I've been using ClientIdMode to reduce the length of the ID attributes of many asp.net elements. All of these combined significantly reduces the amount of HTML being sent to the client, (for example going from 2 megabytes for a request down to 500-600 kb - these are HUGE pages, mind you). The Issue One area which I've been having trouble reducing is simply the auto-generated 'name' attribute of input elements. <input name="ctl00$ctl00$ctl00$_main$_main$_bodyMatterPhase$_phaseTree$ctl00$_taskTree$ctl00$_taskDetails$_detailList$ctrl0$_row$_descriptionText" type="text" value="Investigation Week 1" maxlength="100" id="_taskTree_0__taskDetails_0__detailList_0__row_0__descriptionText_0" style="width:170px;"> As you can see above, the name attribute is 139 out of 297 characters, that's almost 50% of the tag markup taken up by that HUGE name. Does anyone have any ideas on how to stick a hook in somewhere in ASP.NET where I can somehow translate these or generate them differently; say instead of ctl00$ctl00$ctl00$_main$_main$_bodyMatterPhase$_phaseTree$ctl00$_taskTree$ctl00$_taskDetails$_detailList$ctrl0$_row$_descriptionText, it could be a GUID like 0x0AEED4B6445A11E08F873606E0D72085, which is 105 characters shorter. Any help would be greatly appreciated!

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• change image use javascript DOM

  - by user289346

  <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript"> var curimage = "cottage_small.jpg"; var curtext = "View large image"; function changeSrc() { if (curtext == "View large image"||curimage == "cottage_small.jpg") { document.getElementById("boldStuff").innerHTML = "View small image"; curtext="View small image"; document.getElementById("myImage")= "cottage_large.jpg"; curimage = "cottage_large.jpg"; } else { document.getElementById("boldStuff").innerHTML = "View large image"; curtext = "View large image"; document.getElementById("myImage")= "cottage_small.jpg"; curimage = "cottage_small.jpg"; } } </script> </head> <body> <!-- Your page here --> <h1> Pink Knoll Properties</h1> <h2> Single Family Homes</h2> <p> Cottage:<strong>$149,000</strong><br/> 2 bed, 1 bath, 1,189 square feet, 1.11 acres <br/><br/> <a href="#" onclick="changeSrc()"><b id="boldStuff" />View large image</a> </p> <p><img id="myImage" src="cottage_small.jpg" alt="Photo of a cottage" /></p> </body> </html> This is my coding I need to change the image and text the same time when I click it. I use LTS, it shows the line document.getElementById("myImage")= "cottage_large.jpg"; is a wrong number of arquments or invalid property assigment. Dose someone can help? Bianca

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• Boost::Mutex & Malloc

  - by M. Tibbits

  Hi all, I'm trying to use a faster memory allocator in C++. I can't use Hoard due to licensing / cost. I was using NEDMalloc in a single threaded setting and got excellent performance, but I'm wondering if I should switch to something else -- as I understand things, NEDMalloc is just a replacement for C-based malloc() & free(), not the C++-based new & delete operators (which I use extensively). The problem is that I now need to be thread-safe, so I'm trying to malloc an object which is reference counted (to prevent excess copying), but which also contains a mutex pointer. That way, if you're about to delete the last copy, you first need to lock the pointer, then free the object, and lastly unlock & free the mutex. However, using malloc to create a boost::mutex appears impossible because I can't initialize the private object as calling the constructor directly ist verboten. So I'm left with this odd situation, where I'm using new to allocate the lock and nedmalloc to allocate everything else. But when I allocate a large amount of memory, I run into allocation errors (which disappear when I switch to malloc instead of nedmalloc ~ but the performance is terrible). My guess is that this is due to fragmentation in the memory and an inability of nedmalloc and new to place nice side by side. There has to be a better solution. What would you suggest?

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• Javascript: Multiple mouseout events triggered

  - by Channel72

  I'm aware of the different event models in Javascript (the WC3 model versus the Microsoft model), as well as the difference between bubbling and capturing. However, after a few hours reading various articles about this issue, I'm still unsure how to properly code the following seemingly simple behavior: If I have an outer div and an inner div element, I want a single mouse-out event to be triggered when the mouse leaves the outer-div. When the mouse crosses from the inner-div to the outer-div, nothing should happen, and when the mouse crosses from the outer-div to the inner-div nothing should happen. The event should only fire if the mouse moves from the outer-div to the surrounding page. <div id="outer" style = "width:20em; height:20em; border:1px solid #F00" align = "center" onmouseout="alert('mouseout event!')" > <div id="inner" style = "width:18em; height:18em; border:1px solid #000"></div> </div> Now, if I place the "mouseout" event on the outer-div, two mouse-out events are fired when the mouse moves from the inner-div to the surrounding page, because the event fires once when the mouse moves from inner to outer, and then again when it moves from outer to the surrounding page. I know I can cancel the event using ev.stopPropagation(), so I tried registering an event handler with the inner-div to cancel the event propagation. However, this won't prevent the event from firing when the mouse moves from the outer-div to the inner-div. So, unless I'm overlooking something, it seems to me this behavior can't be accomplished without complex mouse-tracking functions. In the future, I plan to reimplement a lot of this code using a more advanced framework, like JQuery, but for now, I'm wondering if there is a simple way to implement the above behavior in regular Javascript.

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