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  • Loosely coupled implicit conversion

    - by ltjax
    Implicit conversion can be really useful when types are semantically equivalent. For example, imagine two libraries that implement a type identically, but in different namespaces. Or just a type that is mostly identical, except for some semantic-sugar here and there. Now you cannot pass one type into a function (in one of those libraries) that was designed to use the other, unless that function is a template. If it's not, you have to somehow convert one type into the other. This should be trivial (or otherwise the types are not so identical after-all!) but calling the conversion explicitly bloats your code with mostly meaningless function-calls. While such conversion functions might actually copy some values around, they essentially do nothing from a high-level "programmers" point-of-view. Implicit conversion constructors and operators could obviously help, but they introduce coupling, so that one of those types has to know about the other. Usually, at least when dealing with libraries, that is not the case, because the presence of one of those types makes the other one redundant. Also, you cannot always change libraries. Now I see two options on how to make implicit conversion work in user-code: The first would be to provide a proxy-type, that implements conversion-operators and conversion-constructors (and assignments) for all the involved types, and always use that. The second requires a minimal change to the libraries, but allows great flexibility: Add a conversion-constructor for each involved type that can be externally optionally enabled. For example, for a type A add a constructor: template <class T> A( const T& src, typename boost::enable_if<conversion_enabled<T,A>>::type* ignore=0 ) { *this = convert(src); } and a template template <class X, class Y> struct conversion_enabled : public boost::mpl::false_ {}; that disables the implicit conversion by default. Then to enable conversion between two types, specialize the template: template <> struct conversion_enabled<OtherA, A> : public boost::mpl::true_ {}; and implement a convert function that can be found through ADL. I would personally prefer to use the second variant, unless there are strong arguments against it. Now to the actual question(s): What's the preferred way to associate types for implicit conversion? Are my suggestions good ideas? Are there any downsides to either approach? Is allowing conversions like that dangerous? Should library implementers in-general supply the second method when it's likely that their type will be replicated in software they are most likely beeing used with (I'm thinking of 3d-rendering middle-ware here, where most of those packages implement a 3D vector).

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  • Is it Bad Practice to use C++ only for the STL containers?

    - by gmatt
    First a little background ... In what follows, I use C,C++ and Java for coding (general) algorithms, not gui's and fancy program's with interfaces, but simple command line algorithms and libraries. I started out learning about programming in Java. I got pretty good with Java and I learned to use the Java containers a lot as they tend to reduce complexity of book keeping while guaranteeing great performance. I intermittently used C++, but I was definitely not as good with it as with Java and it felt cumbersome. I did not know C++ enough to work in it without having to look up every single function and so I quickly reverted back to sticking to Java as much as possible. I then made a sudden transition into cracking and hacking in assembly language, because I felt I was concentrated too much attention on a much too high level language and I needed more experience with how a CPU interacts with memory and whats really going on with the 1's and 0's. I have to admit this was one of the most educational and fun experiences I've had with computers to date. For obviously reasons, I could not use assembly language to code on a daily basis, it was mostly reserved for fun diversions. After learning more about the computer through this experience I then realized that C++ is so much closer to the "level of 1's and 0's" than Java was, but I still felt it to be incredibly obtuse, like a swiss army knife with far too many gizmos to do any one task with elegance. I decided to give plain vanilla C a try, and I quickly fell in love. It was a happy medium between simplicity and enough "micromanagent" to not abstract what is really going on. However, I did miss one thing about Java: the containers. In particular, a simple container (like the stl vector) that expands dynamically in size is incredibly useful, but quite a pain to have to implement in C every time. Hence my code currently looks like almost entirely C with containers from C++ thrown in, the only feature I use from C++. I'd like to know if its consider okay in practice to use just one feature of C++, and ignore the rest in favor of C type code?

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  • BeanCreationException in Spring Framework .WAR deploy to Tomcat 6 on Ubuntu 9.10

    - by JediPotPie
    I am in the process of switching from a Windows box to Ubunutu and I want to run my own local instance of Tomcat 6. I have installed Tomcat 6 without any basic issues. When I try to deploy a .war file that I had running on the Tomcat 6 instance on my Windows box I am getting the following error.... Apr 26, 2010 3:30:27 PM org.apache.catalina.core.ApplicationContext log INFO: Initializing Spring root WebApplicationContext Apr 26, 2010 3:30:27 PM org.apache.catalina.core.StandardContext listenerStart SEVERE: Exception sending context initialized event to listener instance of class org.springframework.web.context.ContextLoaderListener org.springframework.beans.factory.CannotLoadBeanClassException: Cannot find class [com.ameren.eam.ldap.LdapDAONovellImpl] for bean with name 'testNovellDao' defined in ServletContext resource [/WEB-INF/applicationContext.xml]; nested exception is java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: com.ameren.eam.ldap.LdapDAONovellImpl at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.AbstractBeanFactory.resolveBeanClass(AbstractBeanFactory.java:1173) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.predictBeanType(AbstractAutowireCapableBeanFactory.java:479) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.AbstractBeanFactory.isFactoryBean(AbstractBeanFactory.java:787) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.DefaultListableBeanFactory.preInstantiateSingletons(DefaultListableBeanFactory.java:393) at org.springframework.context.support.AbstractApplicationContext.finishBeanFactoryInitialization(AbstractApplicationContext.java:736) at org.springframework.context.support.AbstractApplicationContext.refresh(AbstractApplicationContext.java:369) at org.springframework.web.context.ContextLoader.createWebApplicationContext(ContextLoader.java:261) at org.springframework.web.context.ContextLoader.initWebApplicationContext(ContextLoader.java:199) at org.springframework.web.context.ContextLoaderListener.contextInitialized(ContextLoaderListener.java:45) at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardContext.listenerStart(StandardContext.java:3934) at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardContext.start(StandardContext.java:4429) at org.apache.catalina.manager.ManagerServlet.start(ManagerServlet.java:1249) at org.apache.catalina.manager.HTMLManagerServlet.start(HTMLManagerServlet.java:612) at org.apache.catalina.manager.HTMLManagerServlet.doGet(HTMLManagerServlet.java:136) at javax.servlet.http.HttpServlet.service(HttpServlet.java:617) at javax.servlet.http.HttpServlet.service(HttpServlet.java:717) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke0(Native Method) at sun.reflect.NativeMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(NativeMethodAccessorImpl.java:57) at sun.reflect.DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.invoke(DelegatingMethodAccessorImpl.java:43) at java.lang.reflect.Method.invoke(Method.java:616) at org.apache.catalina.security.SecurityUtil$1.run(SecurityUtil.java:269) at java.security.AccessController.doPrivileged(Native Method) at javax.security.auth.Subject.doAsPrivileged(Subject.java:537) at org.apache.catalina.security.SecurityUtil.execute(SecurityUtil.java:301) at org.apache.catalina.security.SecurityUtil.doAsPrivilege(SecurityUtil.java:162) at org.apache.catalina.core.ApplicationFilterChain.internalDoFilter(ApplicationFilterChain.java:283) at org.apache.catalina.core.ApplicationFilterChain.access$000(ApplicationFilterChain.java:56) at org.apache.catalina.core.ApplicationFilterChain$1.run(ApplicationFilterChain.java:189) at java.security.AccessController.doPrivileged(Native Method) at org.apache.catalina.core.ApplicationFilterChain.doFilter(ApplicationFilterChain.java:185) at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardWrapperValve.invoke(StandardWrapperValve.java:233) at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardContextValve.invoke(StandardContextValve.java:191) at org.apache.catalina.authenticator.AuthenticatorBase.invoke(AuthenticatorBase.java:525) at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardHostValve.invoke(StandardHostValve.java:128) at org.apache.catalina.valves.ErrorReportValve.invoke(ErrorReportValve.java:102) at org.apache.catalina.core.StandardEngineValve.invoke(StandardEngineValve.java:109) at org.apache.catalina.connector.CoyoteAdapter.service(CoyoteAdapter.java:293) at org.apache.coyote.http11.Http11Processor.process(Http11Processor.java:849) at org.apache.coyote.http11.Http11Protocol$Http11ConnectionHandler.process(Http11Protocol.java:583) at org.apache.tomcat.util.net.JIoEndpoint$Worker.run(JIoEndpoint.java:454) at java.lang.Thread.run(Thread.java:636) Caused by: java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: com.ameren.eam.ldap.LdapDAONovellImpl at org.apache.catalina.loader.WebappClassLoader.loadClass(WebappClassLoader.java:1399) at org.apache.catalina.loader.WebappClassLoader.loadClass(WebappClassLoader.java:1245) at org.springframework.util.ClassUtils.forName(ClassUtils.java:230) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.AbstractBeanDefinition.resolveBeanClass(AbstractBeanDefinition.java:381) at org.springframework.beans.factory.support.AbstractBeanFactory.resolveBeanClass(AbstractBeanFactory.java:1170) ... 40 more The class that is not being found is located at /WEB-INF/classes/com/ameren/eam/ldap/LdapDAONovellImpl.class relative to /WEB-INF/applicationContext.xml. I cannot figure out why it cannot find the class? Any ideas would be great.

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  • how to bind the image dynamically for datagrid in.cs

    - by prince23
    hi, this is my xaml code. <sdk:DataGrid x:Name="dgMarks" CanUserResizeColumns="False" SelectionMode="Single" AutoGenerateColumns="False" VerticalAlignment="Top" IsReadOnly="True" Margin="13,44,0,0" RowDetailsVisibilityChanged="dgMarks_RowDetailsVisibilityChanged" RowDetailsVisibilityMode="Collapsed" Height="391" HorizontalAlignment="Left" Width="965" SelectionChanged="dgMarks_SelectionChanged" VerticalScrollBarVisibility="Visible" > <sdk:DataGrid.Columns> <sdk:DataGridTemplateColumn> <sdk:DataGridTemplateColumn.CellTemplate> <DataTemplate> <Button x:Name="myButton" Click="ExpandMarks_Click"> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Level}" TextWrapping="NoWrap" ></TextBlock> <Image x:Name="imgMarks" Stretch="None"/> </Button> </DataTemplate> </sdk:DataGridTemplateColumn.CellTemplate> </sdk:DataGridTemplateColumn> <sdk:DataGridTemplateColumn Header="Name" Visibility="Collapsed"> <sdk:DataGridTemplateColumn.CellTemplate> <DataTemplate > <sdk:Label Content="{Binding Name}"/> </DataTemplate> </sdk:DataGridTemplateColumn.CellTemplate> </sdk:DataGridTemplateColumn> <sdk:DataGridTemplateColumn Header="Marks" Width="80"> <sdk:DataGridTemplateColumn.CellTemplate> <DataTemplate> <sdk:Label Content="{Binding Marks}"/> </DataTemplate> </sdk:DataGridTemplateColumn.CellTemplate> </sdk:DataGridTemplateColumn> </sdk:DataGrid.Columns> </sdk:DataGrid> from database i am getting these values name marks Level abc 23 0 xyz 67 1 yu 56 0 aa 89 1 here i am binding these values for datagrid. i have an tricky thing to be done .based on the level i should be binding image if level value is 1 then bind the image. if level value is 0 then do not bind the image for that row i know this is how we need to handle but where should i write this code in which events? Image imgLevel = (Image)templateTrendScore.FindName("imgMarks"); if (level1==1) { imgLevel .Source = new BitmapImage(new Uri("/Images/image1.JPG", UriKind.Relative)); } any help would be great thanks in advance

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  • My code gets an argument error, expecting 1 but got 0 - AS3

    - by Louis Cottier
    I've got this code with a variable of platform, which I'm trying to link with the actual object of Platform in my .fla file but I get this error when I run it; ArgumentError: Error #1063: Argument count mismatch on Code(). Expected 1, got 0. In my output window. package { import flash.display.MovieClip; import flash.events.MouseEvent; import flash.events.KeyboardEvent; import flash.events.Event; import flash.ui.Keyboard; public class Code extends MovieClip { var charSpeed:int = 0; var velocity:int = 0; var gravity:Number = 1; var Jump:Boolean = false; public function startGame(){ stage.addEventListener(KeyboardEvent.KEY_DOWN, checkKeyDown); stage.addEventListener(KeyboardEvent.KEY_UP, checkKeyUp); stage.addEventListener(Event.ENTER_FRAME, loop); } private var platform:Platform; public function Code(value:Platform) { platform = value; } function checkKeyDown(evt:KeyboardEvent){ if (evt.keyCode == Keyboard.LEFT){ charSpeed -= 10; } if (evt.keyCode == Keyboard.RIGHT){ charSpeed += 10; } if (evt.keyCode == Keyboard.DOWN){ if(!Jump){ velocity -= 14; Jump = true; } } } function checkKeyUp(evt:KeyboardEvent){ if (evt.keyCode == Keyboard.LEFT){ charSpeed = 0; } if (evt.keyCode == Keyboard.RIGHT){ charSpeed = 0; } } function loop(evt:Event){ player.x = velocity; if (player.x < 0){ player.x = 0; } if (player.x > 550){ player.x = 550; } velocity += gravity; var Platform:Array = new Array(platform) if (!Platform.hitTestPoint(player.x, player.y, true)){ player.y += velocity; } for (var i = 0; i < 10; i++){ if (Platform.hitTestPoint(player.x, player.y, true)){ player.y--; velocity = 0; Jump = false; } } } } } The as3 file name is Code, and the fla file name is Game. My objective is to get my player to move around on the platform using the arrow keys. The linkage of my platform is "Platform". If anyone could help that would be great

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  • How can I append and execute a script inside an iframe in a cross browser way (specifically IE!)?

    - by agmin
    Background: I need to load ad scripts after the DOM has loaded. Because many of the scripts use document.write() and other potentially bad functions to run after the DOM has loaded, I want to load the scripts inside an iframe. So when the ad needs to be shown, an event is triggered which does the following: var iframe = document.createElement('iframe'); iframe.setAttribute('id', 'iframeId'); iframe.setAttribute('src', 'about:blank'); var adContainer = document.getElementById('AdContainer'); adContainer.appendChild(iframe); var val = '<html><head></head><body>'; val += '<scr' + 'ipt type="text/javascript" src="' + url + '"></scr' + 'ipt>'; val += '</body></html>'; If I don't assign the html and body tags to val, the script automatically gets appended to the head of the iframe and fails to execute in FF. In IE, the script doesn't execute with or without the head/body/html tags. var doc = iframe.contentWindow || iframe.contentDocument; if (doc.document){ doc = doc.document } doc.open(); doc.write(val); doc.close(); I found this last bit of code here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1591135/why-does-appending-a-script-to-a-dynamically-created-iframe-seem-to-run-the-s. I do NOT want to load jquery in the iframe though, I just want to append a script and have it execute. My current solution seems to work great in FF and Webkit. However, IE doesn't execute the script. The script is written to the page, but doesn't start running. Is there a better way to append the script to the iframe so it will run cross browser? Or is it possible to tell IE to run the script? I know that I could load an external document with the ad script via the iframe, but I don't want to make the extra call to my server if I can do this dynamically. Also, I've tried using appendChild() on the iframe's body to insert the script, but since the script element is created outside the iframe's DOM this doesn't seem to work.

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  • Need Help with Page Life Cycle(I think it is screwing me up)

    - by chobo2
    Hi I have dragged a empty asp.net table onto my webform. I generate all the rows in the code behind those. Now my table gets filled up and has dropdown lists. When the user hits save I go through all the rows and update the values from the dropdownlist in the db. This works all great. However if 2 columns have each have "Present" then those 2 columns should be not be shown anymore and 2 new columns get put in its place with other dropdown lists. This all works. However you have to refresh the entire page to for the 2 columns that should go away to go away. So what I tried to do is at the end of the button click event. Clear the whole table and then regenerate it. However when I do this then my values are not saved to the database anymore for whatever reason. if (IsPostBack == false) { // check if dummy variables exist in db- If true just generate tables with values in db. If not generate them. } else { // grab the values from the database // generate tables with the values } btn click event { go through all rows in table(foreach loop) update each column in the database with cells in each row. while in foreach loop. //done } So this is how it goes and it works expect(all correct values are saved) the table is just not updated to the user. Does not work if (IsPostBack == false) { // same code as above } // if postback is true do nothing. By the time it gets to the click event it says there is zero rows in the table so nothing happens. btn click event { // same code } Fails also. if (IsPostBack == false) { // same code as above } else { // same code as above but moved into its own method. gernerateTable(); } btn click event { // update all rows // once done clear the Tables rows // call generateTable() } This last one does nothing as for some reason it does not update anything. I don't understand why. So what am I doing wrong with this life cycle something in my process is wrong. The code works just not when I want the table to be updated right away.

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  • How do I map a one-to-one value type association in an joined-subclass?

    - by David Rubin
    I've got a class hierarchy mapped using table-per-subclass, and it's been working out great: class BasicReport { ... } class SpecificReport : BasicReport { ... } With mappings: <class name="BasicReport" table="reports"> <id name="Id" column="id">...</id> <!-- some common properties --> </class> <joined-subclass name="SpecificReport" table="specificReports" extends="BasicReport"> <key column="id"/> <!-- some special properties --> </joined-subclass> So far, so good. The problem I'm struggling with is how to add a property to one of my subclasses that's both a value type for which I have an IUserType implemented and also mapped via an association: class OtherReport : BasicReport { public SpecialValue V { get; set; } } class SpecialValueUserType : IUserType { ... } What I'd like to do is: <joined-subclass name="OtherReport" table="otherReports" extends="BasicReport"> <key column="id"/> <join table="rptValues" fetch="join"> <key column="rptId"/> <property name="V" column="value" type="SpecialValueUserType"/> </join> </joined-subclass> This accurately reflects the intent, and the pre-existing database schema I'm tied to: the SpecialValue instance is a property of the OtherReport, but is stored in a separate table ("rptValues"). Unfortunately, it seems as though I can't do this, because <join> elements can't be used in <joined-subclass> mappings. <one-to-one> would require creating a class mapping for SpecialValue, which doesn't make any sense given that SpecialValue is just a meaningful scalar. So what can I do? Do I have any options? Right now I'm playing a game with sets: class OtherReport : BasicReport { public SpecialValue V { get { return _values.Count() > 0 ? _values.First() : null; } set { _values.Clear(); _values.Add(value); } } private ICollection<SpecialValue> _values; } With mapping: <joined-subclass name="OtherReport" table="otherReports" extends="BasicReport"> <key column="id"/> <set name="_values" access="field" table="rptValues" cascade="all-delete-orphan"> <key column="rptId" /> <element column="value" type="SpecialValueUserType"/> </set> </joined-subclass> Thanks in advance for the help! I've been banging my head into my desk for several days now.

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  • Commitment to Zend Framework - any arguments against?

    - by Pekka
    I am refurbishing a big CMS that I have been working on for quite a number of years now. The product itself is great, but some components, the Database and translation classes for example, need urgent replacing - partly self-made as far back as 2002, grown into a bit of a chaos over time, and might have trouble surviving a security audit. So, I've been looking closely at a number of frameworks (or, more exactly, component Libraries, as I do not intend to change the basic structure of the CMS) and ended up with liking Zend Framework the best. They offer a solid MVC model but don't force you into it, and they offer a lot of professional components that have obviously received a lot of attention (Did you know there are multiple plurals in Russian, and you can't translate them using a simple ($number == 0) or ($number > 1) switch? I didn't, but Zend_Translate can handle it. Just to illustrate the level of thorougness the library seems to have been built with.) I am now literally at the point of no return, starting to replace key components of the system by the Zend-made ones. I'm not really having second thoughts - and I am surely not looking to incite a flame war - but before going onward, I would like to step back for a moment and look whether there is anything speaking against tying a big system closely to Zend Framework. What I like about Zend: As far as I can see, very high quality code Extremely well documented, at least regarding introductions to how things work (Haven't had to use detailed API documentation yet) Backed by a company that has an interest in seeing the framework prosper Well received in the community, has a considerable user base Employs coding standards I like Comes with a full set of unit tests Feels to me like the right choice to make - or at least, one of the right choices - in terms of modern, professional PHP development. I have been thinking about encapsulating and abstracting ZF's functionality into own classes to be able to switch frameworks more easily, but have come to the conclusion that this would not be a good idea because: it would be an unnecessary level of abstraction it could cost performance the big advantage of using a framework - the existence of a developer base that is familiar with its components - would partly be cancelled out therefore, the commitment to ZF would be a deep one. Thus my question: Is there anything substantial speaking against committing to the Zend Framework? Do you have insider knowledge of plans of Zend Inc.'s to go evil in 2011, and make it a closed source library? Is Zend Inc. run by vampires? Are there conceptual flaws in the code base you start to notice when you've transitioned all your projects to it? Is the appearance of quality code an illusion? Does the code look good, but run terribly slow on anything below my quad-core workstation?

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  • How to store multiple scroll positions for scrolling div element depending on active View in MultiView (asp.net webform

    - by Spence
    confusing title but the best way I can put it. Basically I am currently using a single div with overflow:auto that contains different GridViews. The GridViews are swapped by using a MultiView with each indiviudal view containing a single GridView. I would like to be able to store the scroll position of each view so that I can set the div's scroll position depending on the view that will be switched to. Here is how my page is set up. <div id="scrollingDiv" style="height:100%; overflow:auto;"> <div id="gridWrap"> <asp:UpdatePanel ID="UpdatePanel1" runat="server" RenderMode="Inline"> <ContentTemplate> <asp:MultiView ID="MultiView1" runat="server"> <asp:View ID="view1" runat="server"> <asp:GridView ID="gridView1" runat="server"> </asp:GridView> </asp:View> <asp:View ID="view2" runat="server"> <asp:GridView ID="gridView2" runat="server"> </asp:GridView> </asp:View> </asp:Multiview> </ContentTemplate> </asp:UpdatePanel> </div> </div> So scrollingDiv will contain all the Views and will scroll for each one of the GridViews. To switch between views I have a drop down connected to an protected void DropDownList_SelectedIndexChanged(object sender, EventArgs e) { switch (DownList.SelectedItem.Value) { case "view1": MultiView1.SetActiveView(view1); break; case "view2": MultiView1.SetActiveView(view2); break; } } I have been looking around and can't quite find something specific to my case. I would like to be able to use just the one overflow div but would understand if I had to make a separate overflow div for each view. Any help would be great, Thanks.

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  • Need Help Figuring Out Why Text Is Overflowing My Page

    - by Brian
    Like the title says, I am having issues with a VERY long string overflowing my page. I tried some overflow techniques, but none seem to work. I had previously posted this as a Primefaces problem, but have since learned that it is not a Primefaces issue. Anyway, if anybody has any suggestions on how I can fix this, I would appreciate it. I will post my HTML below so you can see what I am talking about. Thanks for taking the time to read, and have a great day. :-) <!DOCTYPE html> <html> <head> <title> problem </title> <style type="text/css"> span.troubleSpan { overflow: scroll; } </style> </head> <body> <h4> problem </h4> <div> <table border="1"> <tr> <td> <span>cell</span> </td> <td> <span>&nbsp;</span> </td> <td> <span>cell</span> </td> <td> <span class="troubleSpan">asdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdfasdf</span> </td> <td> <span>&nbsp;</span> </td> </tr> </table> </div> </body> </html>

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  • Layout issue regarding a JQuery smoothDivScroll

    - by MichaelMcCabe
    Hi all. I have been scratching my head for a while on this one. I dont really play around with HTML formatting that often. I have a smoothDivScroll using JQuery (http://maaki.com/thomas/SmoothDivScroll/) to scroll through dynamically generated images. What I want it for, is to have multiple small images lined up right next to each other, and each image has a section of writting underneath. about 25 images, 140px width each in a 7560px span. I acheived this great by putting a table inside the div, and each image inside a<td>.This works problem i have, is that i need the slider to start from the furthest RIGHT image, and slide automatically left. This is acheived by (if you look at the link above) - startAtElementId: But if I am using a table inside the div, it is taking the TABLE as a element and not the TD... so it doesnt work. I know this because if I change every image to be inside tables (i.e 25 tables), it works... but obviously then the formatting is not how I want. Can anyone think of a way I can use this slider (modifications to the js code or not), with 25 images that NEED to be right next to each other, no gap. I guess this is more of a formatting question, than about the slider. Because I only know ONE way of doing what I want, and thats to have below which will not alow me to set startAtElementId. <div class="scrollableArea"> <table width="7560px" class="index-body"> <tr> <td width="140px"><center><a onclick="__doPostBack('getEarlierDate');" ><img src="../images/olderGraphs.gif" width="140" height="60"></a>Click for more</center></td> <td width="300px"><center><a onclick="__doPostBack('chartClicked25');" ><cewolf:img chartid="verticalbar25" renderer="cewolf" width="300" height="60"/></a><c:out value="${date25}"/></center></td> <td width="300px"><center><a onclick="__doPostBack('chartClicked24');" ><cewolf:img chartid="verticalbar24" renderer="cewolf" width="300" height="60"/></a><c:out value="${date24}"/></center></td> and so on

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  • jQuery action being called when selector isn't met?

    - by dougoftheabaci
    I've been working on a prototype for a client's web site and I've run into a rather significant snag. You can view the prototype here. As you can see, the way it works is you can scroll a set of slides horizontally and, by clicking one, open a stack containing yet more slides. If you then click again on an image in that stack it opens up a lightbox. Clicking on another stack or the close button will close that stack (and open another, as case may be). That all works great. However you get some weird behavior if you do the following: Click to open any stack. Click to open an image's light box (this works best if you click on the image that's level with the main list). Close the light box and the stack either by clicking the close button or clicking on another stack. Click back to the first stack. Instead of reopening the stack, you get the lightbox. This confuses me as the light box should only ever be called if there is a class on the containing UL and that class is removed when the lightbox is closed. I've checked and double-checked this, it's definitely missing. Here are the respective functions: $("ul.hide a.lightbox").live("click",function(){ $("ul.show").removeClass("show").addClass("hide"); $(this).parent().parent().removeClass("hide").addClass("show"); $("ul.hide").animate({opacity: 0.2}); $("ul.show").animate({opacity: 1}); $("#next").animate({opacity: 0.2}); $("#prev").animate({opacity: 0.2}); return false; }); $("ul.show a.lightbox").live("click",function(){ $(this).fancybox().trigger("click"); return false; }); As you can see, in order for the lightbox to be called the containing UL has to have the class of show. However, if you check it with Firebug it won't. For those who are curious, the added .trigger("click"); is because the lightbox will require a double-click to launch otherwise. Any idea how I can fix this?

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  • Hibernate - EhCache - Which region to Cache associations/sets/collections ??

    - by lifeisnotfair
    Hi all, I am a newcomer to hibernate. It would be great if someone could comment over the following query that i have: Say i have a parent class and each parent has multiple children. So the mapping file of parent class would be something like: parent.hbm.xml <hibernate-mapping > <class name="org.demo.parent" table="parent" lazy="true"> <cache usage="read-write" region="org.demo.parent"/> <id name="id" column="id" type="integer" length="10"> <generator class="native"> </generator> </id> <property name="name" column="name" type="string" length="50"/> <set name="children" lazy="true"> <cache usage="read-write" region="org.demo.parent.children" /> <key column="parent_id"/> <one-to-many class="org.demo.children"/> </set> </class> </hibernate-mapping> children.hbm.xml <hibernate-mapping > <class name="org.demo.children" table="children" lazy="true"> <cache usage="read-write" region="org.demo.children"/> <id name="id" column="id" type="integer" length="10"> <generator class="native"> </generator> </id> <property name="name" column="name" type="string" length="50"/> <many-to-one name="parent_id" column="parent_id" type="integer" length="10" not-null="true"/> </class> </hibernate-mapping> So for the set children, should we specify the region org.demo.parent.children where it should cache the association or should we use the cache region of org.demo.children where the children would be getting cached. I am using EHCache as the 2nd level cache provider. I tried to search for the answer to this question but couldnt find any answer in this direction. It makes more sense to use org.demo.children but I dont know in which scenarios one should use a separate cache region for associations/sets/collections as in the above case. Kindly provide your inputs also let me know if I am not clear in my question. Thanks all.

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  • EXC_MEMORY_ACCESS when trying to delete from Core Data ($cash solution)

    - by llloydxmas
    I have an application that downloads an xml file, parses the file, and creates core data objects while doing so. In the parse code I have a function called 'emptydatacontext' that removes all items from Core Data before creating replacements items from the xml data. This method looks like this: -(void) emptyDataContext { NSFetchRequest * allCon = [[NSFetchRequest alloc] init]; [allCon setEntity:[NSEntityDescription entityForName:@"Condition" inManagedObjectContext:managedObjectContext]]; NSError * error = nil; NSArray * conditions = [managedObjectContext executeFetchRequest:allCon error:&error]; DebugLog(@"ERROR: %@",error); DebugLog(@"RETRIEVED: %@", conditions); [allCon release]; for (NSManagedObject * condition in conditions) { [managedObjectContext deleteObject:condition]; } // Update the data model effectivly removing the objects we removed above. //NSError *error; if (![managedObjectContext save:&error]) { DebugLog(@"%@", [error domain]); } } The first time this runs it deletes all objects and functions as it should - creating new objects from the xml file. I created a 'update' button that starts the exact same process of retrieving the file the proceeding with the parse & build. All is well until its time to delete the core data objects. This 'deleteObject' call creates a "EXC_BAD_ACCESS" error each time. This only happens on the second time through. Captured errors return null. If I log the 'conditions' array I get a list of NSManagedObjects on the first run. On the second this log request causes a crash exactly as the deleteObject call does. I have a feeling it is something very simple I'm missing or not doing correctly to cause this behavior. The data works great on my tableviews - its only when trying to update I get the crashes. I have spent days & days on this trying numerous alternative methods. Whats left of my hair is falling out. I'd be willing to ante up some cash for anyone willing to look at my code and see what I'm doing wrong. Just need to get past this hurdle. Thanks in advance for the help!

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  • Calling managed code from unmanaged win32 assembly dll - crash

    - by JustGreg
    I'm developing a serial port dll in win32 assembly (MASM32). It has its own thread checking multiple events and at a specified buffer treshold it'd notify the managed main application by calling a callback function. It just a call with no arguments/return value. At startup the main application stores the callback function's address by calling a function in the dll: pCallBackFunction dd 0 SetCallBackPointer proc pcb:DWORD mov eax, pcb mov pCallBackFunction, eax call DWORD ptr pCallBackFunction ; verify it immediately ret SetCallBackPointer endp The upper function immediately calls back the managed application callback routine for verification purposes. It is working fine. However, when I place the call instruction to other functions in the dll it crashes the application. It doesn't matter if the call is in a simple function or in the threadproc of the dll. For example: OpenPort proc pn:byte,br:dword, inputbuffersize: dword, outputbuffersize:dword, tresholdsize: dword LOCAL dcb: DCB LOCAL SerialTimeOuts: COMMTIMEOUTS call DWORD ptr pCallBackFunction xor eax, eax mov al, pn mov [com_port+3],al etc. etc. will crash at call DWORD ptr pCallBackFunction always. Since I call SetCallBackPointer first to store a valid address in pCallBackFunction, it should have a valid address. My managed app is written in C# and the relevant part is: public partial class Form1 : Form { public delegate void CallBackDelegate(); public static CallBackDelegate mydelegate; [DllImport("serialport.dll")] private static extern void SetCallBackPointer(CallBackDelegate Delegate); [DllImport("serialport.dll")] public static extern int OpenPort(byte com, uint br, uint inbufsize, uint outbufsize, uint treshsize); public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); mydelegate =new CallBackDelegate(CallbackFunction); SetCallBackPointer(mydelegate); unsafe { int sysstat; int hResult; hResult = OpenPort(Convert.ToByte('5'), 9600, 306, 4, 4); } } public static void CallbackFunction() { MessageBox.Show( "CallBack Function Called by Windows DLL"); } The VS debugger reported that the dll had tried to read/write from/to a protected memory address. But when calling SetCallBackPointer there is no such problem. What am I doing wrong here? Any tips would be great!

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  • How can I fix this touch event / draw loop "deadlock"?

    - by Josh
    Just want to start out by saying this seems like a great site, hope you guys can help! I'm trying to use the structure laid out in LunarLander to create a simple game in which the user can drag some bitmaps around on the screen (the actual game is more complex, but that's not important). I ripped out the irrelevant parts of LanderLander, and set up my own bitmap drawing, something like BoardThread (an inner class of BoardView): run() { while(mRun) { canvas = lockSurfaceHolder... syncronized(mSurfaceHolder) { /* drawStuff using member position fields in BoardView */ } unlockSurfaceHolder } } My drawStuff simply walks through some arrays and throws bitmaps onto the canvas. All that works fine. Then I wanted to start handling touch events so that when the user presses a bitmap, it is selected, when the user unpresses a bitmap, it is deselected, and if a bitmap is selected during a touch move event, the bitmap is dragged. I did this stuff by listening for touch events in the BoardView's parent, BoardActivity, and passing them down into the BoardView. Something like In BoardView handleTouchEvent(MotionEvent e) { synchronized(mSurfaceHolder) { /* Modify shared member fields in BoardView so BoardThread can render the bitmaps */ } } This ALSO works fine. I can drag my tiles around the screen no problem. However, every once in a while, when the app first starts up and I trigger my first touch event, the handleTouchEvent stops executing at the synchronized line (as viewed in DDMS). The drawing loop is active during this time (I can tell because a timer changes onscreen), and it usually takes several seconds or more before a bunch of touch events come through the pipeline and everything is fine again. This doesn't seem like deadlock to me, since the draw loop is constantly going in and out of its syncronized block. Shouldn't this allow the event handling thread to grab a lock on mSurfaceHolder? What's going on here? Anyone have suggestions for improving how I've structured this? Some other info. This "hang" only ever occurs on first touch event after activity start. This includes on orientation change after restoreState has been called. Also, I can remove EVERYTHING within the syncronized block in the event handler, and it will still get hung up at the syncronized call. Thanks!

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  • SQLiteOpenHelper getWritableDatabse() fails with no Exception

    - by Michal K
    I have a very strange problem. It only shows from time to time, on several devices. Can't seem to reproduce it when I want, but had it so many times, that I think I know where I get it. So I have a Loader which connects to sqlite through a singleton SQLiteOpenHelper: try{ Log.i(TAG, "Get details offline / db helper: "+DatabaseHelper.getInstance(getContext())); SQLiteDatabase db=DatabaseHelper.getInstance(this.getContext()).getWritableDatabase(); Log.i(TAG, "Get details offline / db: "+db); //doing some work on the db //... } catch(SQLiteException e){ e.printStackTrace(); return null; } catch(Exception e){ e.printStackTrace(); return null; //trying everything to grab some exception or whatever } My SQLIteOpenHelper looks something like this: public class DatabaseHelper extends SQLiteOpenHelper { private static DatabaseHelper mInstance = null; private static Context mCxt; public static DatabaseHelper getInstance(Context cxt) { //using app context ass suggested by CommonsWare Log.i("DBHELPER1", "cxt"+mCxt+" / instance: "+mInstance); if (mInstance == null) { mInstance = new DatabaseHelper(cxt.getApplicationContext()); } Log.i("DBHELPER2", "cxt"+mCxt+" / instance: "+mInstance); mCxt = cxt; return mInstance; } //private constructor private DatabaseHelper(Context context) { super(context, DATABASE_NAME, null, DATABASE_VERSION); this.mCxt = context; } @Override public void onCreate(SQLiteDatabase db) { //some tables created here } @Override public void onUpgrade(SQLiteDatabase db, int oldVersion, int newVersion) { //upgrade code here } It really works great in most cases. But from time to time I get a log similar to this: 06-10 23:49:59.621: I/DBHELPER1(26499): cxtcom.bananout.Bananout@407152c8 / instance: com.bananout.helpers.DatabaseHelper@40827560 06-10 23:49:59.631: I/DBHELPER2(26499): cxtcom.bananout.Bananout@407152c8 / instance: com.bananout.helpers.DatabaseHelper@40827560 06-10 23:49:59.631: I/DetailsLoader(26499): Get event details offline / db helper: com.bananout.helpers.DatabaseHelper@40827560 06-10 23:49:59.631: I/DBHELPER1(26499): cxtcom.bananout.Bananout@407152c8 / instance: com.bananout.helpers.DatabaseHelper@40827560 06-10 23:49:59.651: I/DBHELPER2(26499): cxtcom.bananout.Bananout@407152c8 / instance: com.bananout.helpers.DatabaseHelper@40827560 This line Log.i(TAG, "Get details offline / db: "+db); never gets called! No Exceptions, silence. Plus, the thread with the Loader is not running anymore. So nothing past this line SQLiteDatabase db=DatabaseHelper.getInstance(this.getContext()).getWritableDatabase(); gets executed. What can possibly go wrong on this line?

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  • Serialize JavaScript's navigator object

    - by kappa
    Hi, I'm creating a page to help diagnose the problem our users are experiencing with our web pages (you know, asking a user "What browser are you using?" usually leads to "Internet"). This page already submits to me all the HTTP headers and now I'm trying to have JavaScript give some more informations, so I thought it would be great to have the user's navigator JavaScript object and I started looking how to serialize it so I can submit it through a form. The problem is I'm not able to serialize the navigator object using any JSON library I know of, everyone returns an empty object (?!), so I decided to write an ad-hoc serializer. You can find the code here: <!DOCTYPE html> <html> <head> <script src="https://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.5.0/jquery.min.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> function serialize (object) { var type = typeof object; if (object === null) { return '"nullValue"'; } if (type == 'string' || type === 'number' || type === 'boolean') { return '"' + object + '"'; } else if (type === 'function') { return '"functionValue"'; } else if (type === 'object') { var output = '{'; for (var item in object) { if (item !== 'enabledPlugin') { output += '"' + item + '":' + serialize(object[item]) + ','; } } return output.replace(/\,$/, '') + '}'; } else if (type === 'undefined') { return '"undefinedError"'; } else { return '"unknownTypeError"'; } }; $(document).ready(function () { $('#navigator').text(serialize(navigator)); }); </script> <style type="text/css"> #navigator { font-family: monospaced; } </style> <title>Serialize</title> </head> <body> <h1>Serialize</h1> <p id="navigator"></p> </body> </html> This code seems to work perfectly in Firefox, Opera, Chrome and Safari but (obviously) doesn't work in Internet Explorer (at least version 8.0), it complains that "Property or method not supported by the object" at line for (var item in object) {. Do you have any hint on how to fix the code or how to reach the goal (serialize the navigator object) by other means?

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  • Primary language - QtC++, C#, Java?

    - by Airjoe
    I'm looking for some input, but let me start with a bit of background (for tl;dr skip to end). I'm an IT major with a concentration in networking. While I'm not a CS major nor do I want to program as a vocation, I do consider myself a programmer and do pretty well with the concepts involved. I've been programming since about 6th grade, started out with a proprietary game creation language that made my transition into C++ at college pretty easy. I like to make programs for myself and friends, and have been paid to program for local businesses. A bit about that- I wrote some programs for a couple local businesses in my senior year in high school. I wrote management systems for local shops (inventory, phone/pos orders, timeclock, customer info, and more stuff I can't remember). It definitely turned out to be over my head, as I had never had any formal programming education. It was a great learning experience, but damn was it crappy code. Oh yeah, by the way, it was all vb6. So, I've used vb6 pretty extensively, I've used c++ in my classes (intro to programming up to algorithms), used Java a little bit in another class (had to write a ping client program, pretty easy) and used Java for some simple Project Euler problems to help learn syntax and such when writing the program for the class. I've also used C# a bit for my own simple personal projects (simple programs, one which would just generate an HTTP request on a list of websites and notify if one responded unexpectedly or not at all, and another which just held a list of things to do and periodically reminded me to do them), things I would've written in vb6 a year or two ago. I've just started using Qt C++ for some undergrad research I'm working on. Now I've had some formal education, I [think I] understand organization in programming a lot better (I didn't even use classes in my vb6 programs where I really should have), how it's important to structure code, split into functions where appropriate, document properly, efficiency both in memory and speed, dynamic and modular programming etc. I was looking for some input on which language to pick up as my "primary". As I'm not a "real programmer", it will be mostly hobby projects, but will include some 'real' projects I'm sure. From my perspective: QtC++ and Java are cross platform, which is cool. Java and C# run in a virtual machine, but I'm not sure if that's a big deal (something extra to distribute, possibly a bit slower? I think Qt would require additional distributables too, right?). I don't really know too much more than this, so I appreciate any help, thanks! TL;DR Am an avocational programmer looking for a language, want quick and straight forward development, liked vb6, will be working with database driven GUI apps- should I go with QtC++, Java, C#, or perhaps something else?

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  • Patterns for dynamic CMS components (event driven?)

    - by CitrusTree
    Sorry my title is not great, this is my first real punt at moving 100% to OO as I've been procedural for more years than I can remember. I'm finding it hard to understand if what I'm trying to do is possible. Depending on people's thoughts on the 2 following points, I'll go down that route. The CMS I'm putting together is quote small, however focuses very much on different types of content. I could easily use Drupal which I'm very comfortable with, but I want to give myself a really good reasons to move myself into design patterns / OO-PHP 1) I have created a base 'content' class which I wish to be able to extend to handle different types of content. The base class, for example, handles HTML content, and extensions might handle XML or PDF output instead. On the other hand, at some point I may wish to extend the base class for a given project completely. I.e. if class 'content-v2' extended class 'content' for that site, any calls to that class should actually call 'content-v2' instead. Is that possible? If the code instantiates an object of type 'content' - I actually want it to instantiate one of type 'content-v2'... I can see how to do it using inheritance, but that appears to involve referring to the class explicitly, I can't see how to link the class I want it to use instead dynamically. 2) Secondly, the way I'm building this at the moment is horrible, I'm not happy with it. It feels very linear indeed - i.e. get session details get content build navigation theme page publish. To do this all the objects are called 1-by-1 which is all very static. I'd like it to be more dynamic so that I can add to it at a later date (very closely related to first question). Is there a way that instead of my orchestrator class calling all the other classes 1-by-1, then building the whole thing up at the end, that instead each of the other classes can 'listen' for specific events, then at the applicable point jump in and do their but? That way the orchestrator class would not need to know what other classes were required, and call them 1-by-1. Sorry if I've got this all twisted in my head. I'm trying to build this so it's really flexible.

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  • A few problems with Delphi involving Mail Merge, SQL + Databases.

    - by Daniel
    My first problem is with mail merge. I have created a a Data File and a table, yet I am not able to fill my table with information from my Data File. The << just seems to be inserted after wherever the cursor is on the page, which is not where the table is. All that is entered into the actual table is a '59'. Therefore I think I either need to to change the code or be able to move the cursor. Here is the code I am currently using: wrdDoc.Tables.Add(wrdSelection.Range, ADOTable1.FieldCount, 3); wrdDoc.Tables.Item(1).Columns.Item(1).SetWidth(51,wdAdjustNone); wrdDoc.Tables.Item(1).Columns.Item(2).SetWidth(20,wdAdjustNone); wrdDoc.Tables.Item(1).Columns.Item(3).SetWidth(100,wdAdjustNone); // Set the shading on the first row to light gray wrdDoc.Tables.Item(1).Rows.Item(1).Cells .Shading.BackgroundPatternColorIndex := wdGray25; // BOLD the first row wrdDoc.Tables.Item(1).Rows.Item(1).Range.Bold := True; // Center the text in Cell (1,1) wrdDoc.Tables.Item(1).Cell(1,1).Range.Paragraphs.Alignment := wdAlignParagraphCenter; // Fill each row of the table with data wrdDoc.Tables.Item(1).Cell(1, 1).Range.InsertAfter('Time'); wrdDoc.Tables.Item(1).Cell(1, 2).Range.InsertAfter(''); wrdDoc.Tables.Item(1).Cell(1, 3).Range.InsertAfter('Teacher'); For Count := 1 to (ADOTable1.FieldCount - 1) do begin wrdDoc.Tables.Item(1).Cell((Count + 1), 1).Range.InsertAfter(wrdSelection.Range,'Time' + IntToStr(Count)); wrdDoc.Tables.Item(1).Cell((Count + 1), 2).Range.InsertAfter(wrdSelection.Range,'THonorific' + IntToStr(Count)); wrdDoc.Tables.Item(1).Cell((Count + 1), 3).Range.InsertAfter(wrdSelection.Range,'TSurname' + IntToStr(Count)); end; My second problem is that I do not know what the correct SQL syntax is for editing the name of a column in the database (I am using Delphi 7 and Microsoft Jet Engine if that makes a difference). The third problem is that when I add a new column to my database manually (which I need to do) I get a 'violation' error in one of my units when I activate an ADOTable. This only happens on one unit and it happens when I add a column with any name anywhere in the table. I know that is vague but I can't seem to narrow down the problem any further than that. If you could help with me with any of those it would be great. Thanks.

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  • EXC_BAD_ACCESS when simply casting a pointer in Obj-C

    - by AlexChilcott
    Hi all, Frequent visitor but first post here on StackOverflow, I'm hoping that you guys might be able to help me out with this. I'm fairly new to Obj-C and XCode, and I'm faced with this really... weird... problem. Googling hasn't turned up anything whatsoever. Basically, I get an EXC_BAD_ACCESS signal on a line that doesn't do any dereferencing or anything like that that I can see. Wondering if you guys have any idea where to look for this. I've found a work around, but no idea why this works... The line the broken version barfs out on is the line: LevelEntity *le = entity; where I get my bad access signal. Here goes: THIS VERSION WORKS NSArray *contacts = [self.body getContacts]; for (PhysicsContact *contact in contacts) { PhysicsBody *otherBody; if (contact.bodyA == self.body) { otherBody = contact.bodyB; } if (contact.bodyB == self.body) { otherBody = contact.bodyA; } id entity = [otherBody userData]; if (entity != nil) { LevelEntity *le = entity; CGPoint point = [contact contactPointOnBody:otherBody]; } } THIS VERSION DOESNT WORK NSArray *contacts = [self.body getContacts]; for (NSUInteger i = 0; i < [contacts count]; i++) { PhysicsContact *contact = [contacts objectAtIndex:i]; PhysicsBody *otherBody; if (contact.bodyA == self.body) { otherBody = contact.bodyB; } if (contact.bodyB == self.body) { otherBody = contact.bodyA; } id entity = [otherBody userData]; if (entity != nil) { LevelEntity *le = entity; CGPoint point = [contact contactPointOnBody:otherBody]; } } Here, the only difference between the two examples is the way I enumerate through my array. In the first version (which works) I use for (... in ...), where as in the second I use for (...; ...; ...). As far as I can see, these should be the same. This is seriously weirding me out. Anyone have any similar experience or idea whats going on here? Would be really great :) Cheers, Alex

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  • NHibernate does not update entity when repository is passed by constructor

    - by Alex
    Hi everybody, I am developing with NHibernate for the first time in conjunction with ASP.NET MVC and StructureMap. The CodeCampServer serves as a great example for me. I really like the different concepts which were implemented there and I can learn a lot from it. In my controllers I use Constructur Dependency Injection to get an instance of the specific repository needed. My problem is: If I change an attribute of the customer the customer's data is not updated in the database, although Commit() is called on the transaction object (by a HttpModule). public class AccountsController : Controller { private readonly ICustomerRepository repository; public AccountsController(ICustomerRepository repository) { this.repository = repository; } public ActionResult Save(Customer customer) { Customer customerToUpdate = repository .GetById(customer.Id); customerToUpdate.GivenName = "test"; //<-- customer does not get updated in database return View(); } } On the other hand this is working: public class AccountsController : Controller { [LoadCurrentCustomer] public ActionResult Save(Customer customer) { customer.GivenName = "test"; //<-- Customer gets updated return View(); } } public class LoadCurrentCustomer : ActionFilterAttribute { public override void OnActionExecuting(ActionExecutingContext filterContext) { const string parameterName = "Customer"; if (filterContext.ActionParameters.ContainsKey(parameterName)) { if (filterContext.HttpContext.User.Identity.IsAuthenticated) { Customer CurrentCustomer = DependencyResolverFactory .GetDefault() .Resolve<IUserSession>() .GetCurrentUser(); filterContext.ActionParameters[parameterName] = CurrentCustomer; } } base.OnActionExecuting(filterContext); } } public class UserSession : IUserSession { private readonly ICustomerRepository repository; public UserSession(ICustomerRepository customerRepository) { repository = customerRepository; } public Customer GetCurrentUser() { var identity = HttpContext.Current.User.Identity; if (!identity.IsAuthenticated) { return null; } Customer customer = repository.GetByEmailAddress(identity.Name); return customer; } } I also tried to call update on the repository like the following code shows. But this leads to an NHibernateException which says "Illegal attempt to associate a collection with two open sessions". Actually there is only one. public ActionResult Save(Customer customer) { Customer customerToUpdate = repository .GetById(customer.Id); customer.GivenName = "test"; repository.Update(customerToUpdate); return View(); } Does somebody have an idea why the customer is not updated in the first example but is updated in the second example? Why does NHibernate say that there are two open sessions?

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  • how to invoke an activity of a library project from an android apps

    - by Austin
    I have an open source android code that I need to use in my android apps. It has all the source code as well as resource files, manifest files and class path. It can be compiled as a separate android apps. I have constraints for using the open source. 1. I can't change a single line of code. 2. I can't use it as a separate apps. These constraints are non negotiable. What I have done is I have compiled the open source as class library(in Eclipse: Project Properties-Android- Tick check box Is Library). This has resulted in generation of .class files(in bin) for the java files and resource files. This open source has an android activity that i want to open from my application. So I have linked the directory of these sets of class files in the source section of my java build path( in .classpath). I have declared the activity in my manifest file with proper action intent filters. Now when I am trying to call activity from my code, its not working. Cleaning and rebuilding doesn't help. However, if I build the open source project and my apps in the same workspace of eclipse and link the open source in my apps in exact same manner it works fine. I am not able to identify the difference. All settings seems to be same(all files are identical in both the cases). But only in the second case it works. I have tried it as jar file also. I have build the open source as project library and exported it into a jar file(excluding manifest file). But in that case I am getting the following error UNEXPECTED TOP-LEVEL EXCEPTION: java.lang.IllegalArgumentException: already added: .... Conversion to Dalvik format failed with error 1 This I guess is coming because the android library(2.2) has been included twice in my apps( one for building my apps & another for building the open source). I dont know how to avoid this. Cleaning the project doesn't help. What i require is to use the open source and invoking it's activities in my apps without violating the constraints. If i can use the open source as bunch of .class files then great, or else any other way will do fine. Please look into it and let me know. Thanks

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