Search Results

Search found 16021 results on 641 pages for 'mr nothing'.

Page 543/641 | < Previous Page | 539 540 541 542 543 544 545 546 547 548 549 550  | Next Page >

  • PDFBox Pagebreak strange Nullpointer exception

    - by schneiti
    I currently try printing out text on multiple pages. For this, I count the number of rows and when they reach a fixed amount a method called pagebreakis executed. After the first pagebreak, when I try setting a font using contentstream.setFont(PDType1Font.HELVETICA, 12); it yields the following errormessage occuring at the described setFont-row. java.lang.NullPointerException at org.apache.pdfbox.pdmodel.edit.PDPageContentStream.setFont(PDPageContentStream.java:321) at com.xy.deu.xy.abc.db.schemavergleich.PDFDocumenter.drawBGCS(PDFDocumenter.java:781) at com.xy.deu.xy.abc.db.schemavergleich.PDFDocumenter.createPDFDocumentation(PDFDocumenter.java:205) at com.xy.deu.xy.abc.db.schemavergleich.MainClass.createPDFandOutput(MainClass.java:361) at com.xy.deu.xy.abc.db.schemavergleich.MainClass.start(MainClass.java:231) at com.xy.deu.xy.abc.db.schemavergleich.MainClass.main(MainClass.java:180) Below is the code that gets executed as the error occurs. ... // If Table gets to long for a page -> pagebreak: if(currentLines > 37) { pageBreak(currentLinePos); // TODO Currently causing app to crash } ... private void pageBreak(int currentLine) throws Exception { contentStream.endText(); contentStream.close(); // Create new page page = new PDPage(PDPage.PAGE_SIZE_A4); doc.addPage( page ); // Create a new font object selecting one of the PDF base fonts font = PDType1Font.HELVETICA; // Start a new content stream which will "hold" the to be created content contentStream = new PDPageContentStream(doc, page); currentLines = 0; mediabox = page.findMediaBox(); contentStream.beginText(); contentStream.moveTextPositionByAmount(startX, startY); contentStream.setFont(PDType1Font.HELVETICA, 12); } Now comes the strange thing: Debugging yields into nothing that is not set. I'll attach a screenshot for you right at the position where the error occurs:

    Read the article

  • form submit button moves cutting image

    - by flavour404
    Hi I have a submit button and am styling it using the following css: .subm { background-color:Transparent; background-image:url(Images/Button_Send.png); background-repeat:no-repeat; width:82px; height:30px; display:block; border:none; outline:none; overflow:visible;} .subm:hover { background-color:Transparent; background-image:url(Images/Button_Send_Over.png); background-repeat:no-repeat; width:82px; height:30px; display:block; border:none; outline:none; overflow:visible; } Here is the html: <input type="submit" class="subm" value="" /> Nothing surprising. However, what annoys me is that when the submit button is clicked in IE it moves the image up a couple of pixels cutting them off which makes it look, hmm, good word, 'naff.' How can I compensate or stop this? I have tried expanding the image and leaving a couple of blank pixels at the top but it still does the same thing! Thanks R.

    Read the article

  • local vs core contoller

    - by latvian
    Hi, I am adding new column and action in the local admin app/code/local/Mage/Adminhtml/Block/Catalog/Product/Grid.php which works fine, however. The local controller/app/code/local/Mage/Adminhtml/Block/Catalog/Product.php is not being used or is not overloading the admin one /app/code/core/Mage/Adminhtml/Block/Catalog/Product.php. This is almost fresh install of Magento 1.4.0.1. I am the only one working, so i know it is not overloaded by some custom controller. I have disabled all custom modules. I have rolled back most of my changes. I have checked /etc/Modules/Mage_Catalog.xml. Refreshed cache all possible ways, loged in and out. Nothing....still using the core contoller copy. why? How do you troubleshoot, meaning, at what moment magento decides using between core or local copies? ...its even more strange because it does not parse local Adminhtml config.xml but uses local Adminthml copy of Blocks. Any pointer would help. I would like to keep everything in local code. Thank You, Margots

    Read the article

  • How can I add SOAP Headers to a WSDL generated Borland C++ Builder 6 application.

    - by MJG
    Using a WSDL that requires a SOAP HEADER for Authentication (fragment below) code that gets generated when creating a web service client via the "WSDL Importer" has no concept of the Authentication Headers and there are no examples in BCB6 C++ Examples/WebServices directories that show how, and nothing on Web that I can find. Anyone with BCB6 C++ (not Delphi) have an example of adding SOAP Headers to a TRemotable subclass? <s:element name="AuthenticationHeader" type="tns:AuthenticationHeader"/> <s:complexType name="AuthenticationHeader"> <s:complexContent mixed="false"> <s:extension base="tns:UserAuthHeader"> <s:sequence> <s:element minOccurs="0" maxOccurs="1" name="Function" type="s:string"/> <s:element minOccurs="1" maxOccurs="1" name="TimeOutMilliSec" type="s:int"/> </s:sequence> </s:extension> </s:complexContent> </s:complexType> <s:complexType name="UserAuthHeader"> <s:sequence> <s:element minOccurs="0" maxOccurs="1" name="Username" type="s:string"/> <s:element minOccurs="0" maxOccurs="1" name="Password" type="s:string"/> </s:sequence> <s:anyAttribute/> </s:complexType>

    Read the article

  • Problem: Movie Clip contains just one frame

    - by Doug
    I'm a newbie at Flash, so started playing with a pretty standard code sample: one layer contains a movie clip with a flying rectangle, another layer has a button to control it. All script code is in Main.as file. The rectangle was named square1 through the Property window. Here is the problem: the constructor for Main has a line: square1.stop(); to prevent clip from playing, but it doesn't help - it plays. I know the constructor fires, because it has trace("stuff") in it. The code does check that the stage has been created. What strange is that square1.currentFrame always returns 1, and square1.totalFrames returns 1 as well. The layer has 24 frames on the timeline. I tried a tween with just 2 keyframes, then converted whole tween into frames - same result. I mean, the thing is flying before my eyes, how can it be 1 frame??? I even added a listener: square1.addEventListener(Event.ENTER_FRAME, onFrameChange); The event fires all the time, i.e. the frames change, but currentFrame is still 1. Also, tried to name individual frames and use square1.gotoAndStop("begin") and stuff like that. Nothing helps. I am really stuck with this stupid problem.

    Read the article

  • kernel get stack when signalled

    - by yoavstr
    hi there i write readers and writers where the kernel have to syncronize between them and block writer who already read a massage when i am in the queue waiting I get signal so I do the fallowing while (i_Allready_Read(myf) == ALLREADY_READ || isExistWriter == false ) //while (!(i_Allready_Read(aliveProc,current->pid))) { int i, is_sig = 0; printk(KERN_INFO "\n\n*****entered set in read ******\n\n" ); if (i_Allready_Read(myf) == ALLREADY_READ ) wait_event_interruptible (readWaitQ1, !i_Allready_Read(myf)); else wait_event_interruptible (readWaitQ1, isExistWriter); //printk(KERN_INFO "Read Wakeup %d\n",current->pid); for (i = 0; i < _NSIG_WORDS && !is_sig; i++) { is_sig = current->pending.signal.sig[i] & ~current->blocked.sig[i]; } if (is_sig) { handledClose(myf); module_put (THIS_MODULE); return -EINTR; } } return 0;//success } inline void handledClose(struct file *myf)//v { /* *if we close the writer other writer *would be able to enter to permissiones */ if (myf == writerpid ) { isExistWriter = DOESNT_EXIST; //printk(KERN_INFO "procfs_close : this is pid that just closed %d \n", writerpid); } /* *else its a reader so our numofreaders *need to decremented */ else { removeFromArr(myf); numOfReaders--; } } and my close does nothing ... what did i do wrong?

    Read the article

  • Adding a Way To preserve A Comma In A CSV To DataTable Function

    - by Nick LaMarca
    I have a function that converts a .csv file to a datatable. One of the columns I am converting is is a field of names that have a comma in them i.e. "Doe, John" when converting the function treats this as 2 seperate fields because of the comma. I need the datatable to hold this as one field Doe, John in the datatable. Function CSV2DataTable(ByVal filename As String, ByVal sepChar As String) As DataTable Dim reader As System.IO.StreamReader Dim table As New DataTable Dim colAdded As Boolean = False Try ''# open a reader for the input file, and read line by line reader = New System.IO.StreamReader(filename) Do While reader.Peek() >= 0 ''# read a line and split it into tokens, divided by the specified ''# separators Dim tokens As String() = System.Text.RegularExpressions.Regex.Split _ (reader.ReadLine(), sepChar) ''# add the columns if this is the first line If Not colAdded Then For Each token As String In tokens table.Columns.Add(token) Next colAdded = True Else ''# create a new empty row Dim row As DataRow = table.NewRow() ''# fill the new row with the token extracted from the current ''# line For i As Integer = 0 To table.Columns.Count - 1 row(i) = tokens(i) Next ''# add the row to the DataTable table.Rows.Add(row) End If Loop Return table Finally If Not reader Is Nothing Then reader.Close() End Try End Function

    Read the article

  • Multiple jQuery includes in a document

    - by bah
    Hi, I have a document which uses old jQuery and I need new jQuery for a particular plug-in. My document structure looks like this: <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript" src="jQuery.old.js"></script> </head> <body> <script> $("#elem").doSomething(); // use old jQuery </script> <!-------- My plugin begins --------> <script type="text/javascript" src="jQuery.new.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="jQuery.doSomething.js"></script> <script> $().ready(function(){ $("#elem").doSomething(); // use new jQuery }); </script> <div id="elem"></div> <!-------- My plugin ends ----------> <script> $("#elem").doSomething(); // use old jQuery </script> </body> </html> I have googled for this question but found nothing that would look like my case (I need first to load old javascript (in the head) and THEN new (in the body). By the way, in the Firefox looks like old jQuery lib loads and scripts that depends on it works, but script that uses new version, and in IE and Chrome everything is exactly opposite.

    Read the article

  • Portable Eclipse

    - by Jeach
    I'm trying to port my entire 'workspace' to a USB key (including the Eclipse executable) so that I can carry my work anywhere with me and work off the key directly. My directory hierarchy is similar to this: /workspace/eclipse - Where my current eclipse binary is stored /workspace/codebase - Where I keep the root of all my eclipse projects /workspace/resources - Where I keep all project files (images, docs, libs, etc.) It all works perfectly fine on one system. But when I change over to another system, the USB key gets mounted on another drive. For example, on my laptop, I get 'E:\', on my PC, I get 'K:\' and at work I get 'F:\', etc, etc. This means that because Eclipse (for 'some' reason) seems to only use full path names (including driver letters) in every single one of its configuration files (such as .classpath), nothing ever works when I want to work on another system. I put a 'libs' directory in the base of every project and populate it with its dependent JAR files. Why doesn't it use relative names instead, so that I could specify something like "../../libs/log4j.jar"? Anyone know how to fix this problem? Does anyone know of a workaround for this? For some reason, I really doubt I'm the first developer to do this! Thanks for your help and any suggestions.

    Read the article

  • Visual Studio 2010 Bootstrap Folder?

    - by Matma
    We currently run a VS2005 app/environment and im investigating upgrading to 2010. But before i can say yes its all good, go buy bossman... I have to confirm that a bootstrap for a thridparty driver install which is included on our installation cd can be used/included (its a usb security dongle so drivers MUST be included/setup for our app to run). It is in the list of available pre-reqs but i didnt put it in the vs2010 bootstrap folder so is this coming from my vs2005 install? or the fact that i had previously selected it in the installer and its saved/loaded that in vs2010? Either way its got a little error icon and says its not found so i get errors on build. I want to resolve this and have it in the list of available pre-reqs as we did for 2005. i.e. copy it to the C:\Program Files (x86)\Microsoft Visual Studio 8\SDK\v2.0\BootStrapper folder... But i cant seem to find where the bootstraps are for vs2010? does it not use them? Naturally ive searched the entire vs folder structure for appropriate files/folders but nothing? Where/How is this now done?

    Read the article

  • A generic C++ library that provides QtConcurrent functionality?

    - by Lucas
    QtConcurrent is awesome. I'll let the Qt docs speak for themselves: QtConcurrent includes functional programming style APIs for parallel list processing, including a MapReduce and FilterReduce implementation for shared-memory (non-distributed) systems, and classes for managing asynchronous computations in GUI applications. For instance, you give QtConcurrent::map() an iterable sequence and a function that accepts items of the type stored in the sequence, and that function is applied to all the items in the collection. This is done in a multi-threaded manner, with a thread pool equal to the number of logical CPU's on the system. There are plenty of other function in QtConcurrent, like filter(), filteredReduced() etc. The standard CompSci map/reduce functions and the like. I'm totally in love with this, but I'm starting work on an OSS project that will not be using the Qt framework. It's a library, and I don't want to force others to depend on such a large framework like Qt. I'm trying to keep external dependencies to a minimum (it's the decent thing to do). I'm looking for a generic C++ framework that provides me with the same/similar high-level primitives that QtConcurrent does. AFAIK boost has nothing like this (I may be wrong though). boost::thread is very low-level compared to what I'm looking for. I know C# has something very similar with their Parallel Extensions so I know this isn't a Qt-only idea. What do you suggest I use?

    Read the article

  • Django Many-to-Many Question

    - by DZ
    My questions seems like a common problem that when I have seen any questions on it is never really asked right or not answered. So Im going to try to get the question right, and maybe someone knows how to resolve the issue, or correct my understanding. The problem: When you have a many-to-many relation ship (related_name not through) and you are trying to use the admin interface you are required to input one of the rleationships even though it does not have to exsist for you to create the first entry. Meaning you have to assign a group to an event to create the group. Wow that sounds complicated. So I can see why the question is not getting answered. Lets try the non code explanation example... First and important versions: Django 1.1.1 Phython 2.6 So I have a model where I created a many-to-many realtionship and Im using the related_name Im creating an app that is an event organizer, for simplicty lets say events although they could be anytype). For this first post Im going to stay away from the code and just try to explain. A few keys: (explaining comment) ** - many-to-many So in the model we have 1) The Main Event (this is main model) 2) Groups (link to events and their can be many events for a group) a) Events** I have simplified this example a little becuase I recognize that what does it matter. Just create the event first... But there are specific varations where that will not work. What the many-to-many related_name does it created another table with the indecies of the two other tables. Nothing says that this extra table HAS to be populated. Becuase if I look in the database and work within myPHPadmin I can create a group with out registering an event, since the connection between the two is a seperate table the DB does not care. How do I make the admin interface this realize it? Ok I know thats a lot so I hope I have explained it clearly. Thank you anyone for your comments/thoughts/advice

    Read the article

  • What is the correct install process to setup Node.js with Windows Azure Emulator

    - by PazoozaTest Pazman
    This question is related to this question: Node.js running under IIS Express Keeps Crashing to which I need help with reinstalling and getting node.js up and running in windows emulator working. Hello I am reinstalling my machine: Toshiha Laptop 2 GB Ram 32 bit processor What is the correct procedure from start to finish to get node.js development working, so far nothing has worked and the emulator (IIS Express) worker processor keeps crashing. No matter how many instances they all end up crashing. Up until two weeks ago my node development was working fine, but I had to do a reinstall, and since then I haven't been doing any node.js development on windows emulator because the latest June 2012 Azure SDK for Node.js is buggy. These are the steps I have taken: 1) Reformat HD 2) Insert Windows 7 N SP1 CD 3) Reboot machine into CD installation 4) Follow and wait until Windows 7 installed 5) Run Add/Remove programs + enable IIS + IIS management tools 6) Run Windows Update (installed about 53 updates) 7) Go here http://www.windowsazure.com/en-us/develop/nodejs/ 8) Click Windows Installer June 2012 and install Windows Azure SDK for Node.js - June 2012 9) Run Azure Powershell 10) Navigate to c:\node\testSite\webrole1 11) launch site: start-azureemulator -launch 12) Play around on website (then crash!) Problem signature: Problem Event Name: APPCRASH Application Name: iisexpress.exe Application Version: 8.0.8298.0 Application Timestamp: 4f620349 Fault Module Name: iiscore.dll Fault Module Version: 8.0.8298.0 Fault Module Timestamp: 4f63b65c Exception Code: c0000005 Exception Offset: 00021767 OS Version: 6.1.7601.2.1.0.256.28 Locale ID: 1033 Additional Information 1: f66d Additional Information 2: f66d807b515d6b2dc6f28f66db769a01 Additional Information 3: 7b2f Additional Information 4: 7b2f6797d07ebc2c23f2b227e779722e Am I missing a step in my resintall process? Do I have all the required files to do node.js windows azure emulator development? Why is IIS Express crashing all the time? Can I still do node.js windows azure emulator development without using IIS Express and use my local Windows 7 N (SP1) IIS 7.x that comes shipped?

    Read the article

  • ASP.Net - Help with datagrid/checkboxes/double submit

    - by Gareth D
    We have a simple datagrid. Each row has a checkbox. The checkbox is set to autopostback, and the code-behind has an event handler for the checkbox check-changed event. This all works as expected, nothing complicated. However, we want to disable the checkboxes as soon as one is checked to prevent a double submit i.e. check box checked, all checkboxes are disabled via client side javascript, form submitted. To achieve this I we are injecting some code into the onclick event as follows (note that the alert is just for testing!): Protected Sub DgAccounts_ItemCreated(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.Web.UI.WebControls.DataGridItemEventArgs) Handles DgAccounts.ItemCreated If e.Item.ItemType = ListItemType.Item Or e.Item.ItemType = ListItemType.AlternatingItem Then Dim chk As CheckBox = CType(e.Item.FindControl("chkItemChecked"), CheckBox) chk.Attributes.Add("onclick", "alert('fired ...');DisableAllDataGridCheckBoxes();") End If End Sub When inspecting the source of the rendered page we get the following: <input id="DgAccounts__ctl2_chkItemChecked" type="checkbox" name="DgAccounts:_ctl2:chkItemChecked" onclick="alert('fired ...');DisableAllDataGridCheckBoxes();setTimeout('__doPostBack(\'DgAccounts$_ctl2$chkItemChecked\',\'\')', 0)" language="javascript" /> It all appears in order, however the server side event does not fire – I believe this is due to the checkbox being disabled, as if we just leave the alert in and remove the call to disable the checkbox it all works fine. Can I force the check-changed event to fire even though the check box is disabled?

    Read the article

  • Calling a WPF Appliaction and modify exposed properties?

    - by Justin
    I have a WPF Keyboard Application, it is developed in such a way that an application could call it and modify its properties to adapt the Keyboard to do what it needs to. Right now I have a file *.Keys.Set which tells the appliaction (on open) to style itself according to that new style. I know this file could be passed as a command line argument into the appliaction. That would not be a problem. My concern is, is thier a way via a managed environment to change the properties of the executable as long as they are exposed properly, an example: 'Creates a new instance of the Keyboard Appliaction Dim e_key as new WpfAppliaction("C:\egt\components\keyboard.exe") 'Sets the style path e_key.SetStylePath("c:\users\joe\apps\me\default.keys.set") e_key.Refresh() 'Applies the style e_key.HideMenu() 'Hides the menu e_key.ShowDeck("PIN") 'Shows the custom "deck" of keyboard keys the developer 'Created in the style appliaction. ''work with events and resposne 'Clear the instance from memory e_key.close e_key.dispose e_key = nothing This would allow my application to become easily accessible to other Touch Screen Application Developers, allowing them to use my key_board and keep the functionality they need. It seems like it might be possible because (name of executable).application shows all the exposed functions, properties, and values. I just have never done this before. Any help would be appreciated, thank you in advance.

    Read the article

  • What is a recommended Android utility class collection?

    - by Sebastian Roth
    I often find myself writing very similar code across projects. And more often than not, I copy stuff over from old projects. Things like: Create images with round corners read density into a static variable & re-use. 4 lines.. disable / hide multiple views / remote views at once. Example: } public static void disableViews(RemoteViews views, int... ids) { for (int id : ids) { views.setInt(id, SET_VISIBILITY, View.GONE); } } public static void showViews(RemoteViews views, int... ids) { for (int id : ids) { views.setInt(id, SET_VISIBILITY, View.VISIBLE); } } I'd love to package these kind of functions into 1 letter / 2 letter class names, i.e. V.showViews(RemoteViews views, int... ids) would be easy to write & remember I hope. I'm searching for Github recommendations, links and if nothing is found, I perhaps will start a small project on github to collect.

    Read the article

  • Displaying cookies as key=value for all domains?

    - by OverTheRainbow
    Hello, This question pertains to the use of the cookie-capable WebClient derived class presented in the How can I get the WebClient to use Cookies? question. I'd like to use a ListBox to... 1) display each cookie individually as "key=value" (the For Each loop displays all of them as one string), and 2) be able to display all cookies, regardless of the domain from which they came ("www.google.com", here): Imports System.IO Imports System.Net Public Class Form1 Private Sub Button1_Click(ByVal sender As System.Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles Button1.Click Dim webClient As New CookieAwareWebClient Const URL = "http://www.google.com" Dim response As String response = webClient.DownloadString(URL) RichTextBox1.Text = response 'How to display cookies as key/value in ListBox? 'PREF=ID=5e770c1a9f279d5f:TM=1274032511:LM=1274032511:S=1RDPaKJKpoMT9T54 For Each mycc In webClient.cc.GetCookies(New Uri(URL)) ListBox1.Items.Add(mycc.ToString) Next End Sub End Class Public Class CookieAwareWebClient Inherits WebClient Public cc As New CookieContainer() Private lastPage As String Protected Overrides Function GetWebRequest(ByVal address As System.Uri) As System.Net.WebRequest Dim R = MyBase.GetWebRequest(address) If TypeOf R Is HttpWebRequest Then With DirectCast(R, HttpWebRequest) .CookieContainer = cc If Not lastPage Is Nothing Then .Referer = lastPage End If End With End If lastPage = address.ToString() Return R End Function End Class Thank you.

    Read the article

  • java /TableModel of Objects/Update Object"

    - by Tomás Ó Briain
    I've a collection of Stock objects that I'm updating about 10/15 variables for in real-time. I'm accessing each Stock by its ID in the collection. I'm also trying to display this in a JTable and have implemented an AbstractTablemodel. It's not working too well. I've a RowMap that I add each ID to as Stocks are added to the TableModel. To update the prices and variables of all the stocks in the TableModel, I want to send a Stock object to an updateModel(Stock s) method. I can find the relevant row by searching the map, but how do I handle this nicely, so I don't have to start iterating through table columns and comparing the values of the cells to the variables of the object to see whether there are any differences?? Basically, i want to send a Stock object to the TableModel and update cells if there are changes and do nothing if there aren't. Any ideas about how to implement a TableModel that might do this? Any pointeres at all would be appreciated. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • WinRT 8.1 Phone - ListView reordering

    - by Jan Kratochvil
    I need to create a reorderable ListView in a Windows Phone 8.1 app created using WinRT. The XAML is the following (it binds to an ObservableDictionary in the codebehind): <Grid Margin="24"> <ListView x:Name="MainListView" CanDragItems="True" CanReorderItems="True" AllowDrop="True" VerticalAlignment="Stretch" HorizontalAlignment="Stretch" > <ListView.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <Border Padding="24" Margin="16" Background="CadetBlue"> <TextBlock Text="{Binding}" /> </Border> </DataTemplate> </ListView.ItemTemplate> </ListView> </Grid> The ListView does nothing when I try to reorder the items (it looks like the "reordering mode" is not activated). When I run this sample in Windows 8.1 (the XAML is shared) it works as expected. According to the documentation Windows Phone 8.1 should be supported. Is this functionality supported on the phone (and the documentation wrong) or do I need to do something special for the phone?

    Read the article

  • How do I "rebind" the click event after unbind('click') ?

    - by Ben
    I have an anchor tag <a class="next">next</a> made into a "button". Sometimes, this tag needs to be hidden if there is nothing new to show. All works fine if I simply hide the button with .hide() and re-display it with .show(). But I wanted to uses .fadeIn() and .fadeOut() instead. The problem I'm having is that if the user clicks on the button during the fadeOut animation, it can cause problems with the logic I have running the show. The solution I found was to unbind the click event from the button after the original click function begins, and then re-bind it after the animation is complete. $('a.next').click(function() { $(this).unbind('click'); ... // calls some functions, one of which fades out the a.next if needed ... $(this).bind('click'); } the last part of the above example does not work. The click event is not actually re-bound to the anchor. does anyone know the correct way to accomplish this? I'm a self-taught jquery guy, so some of the higher level things like unbind() and bind() are over my head, and the jquery documentation isn't really simple enough for me to understand.

    Read the article

  • Silverlight Not Rendering On Navigation

    - by Azmath
    I'm trying to create a site that requires login. Its entirely designed in silverlight. So my first page, home.xaml loads in mysite.aspx and it basically has a login page. AFter login, the user is redirected to another page user.aspx. in that page, i've embedded another silverlight control called nav.xaml. so now when user.aspx loads it is supposed to load a silverlight control. i've programmed app.xaml.vb such that it loads nav.xaml in the rootlayout when the page requesting is user.aspx. but for some reason its not working. my app.xaml.vb code: Private Sub Application_Startup(ByVal o As Object, ByVal e As StartupEventArgs) Handles Me.Startup If e.InitParams.ContainsKey("ReqPage") Then If e.InitParams("ReqPage") = "userpage" Then Me.RootVisual = New Nav() End If Else Me.RootVisual = New Home() End If End Sub in IE, half of the nav.xaml is rendered. but in firefox nothing is rendered. so wats going on exactly? pls help!

    Read the article

  • ASP .NET: Cannot call Page WebMethod using jQuery

    - by John
    I created a WebMethod in the code-behind file of my page as such: [System.Web.Services.WebMethod()] public static string Test() { return "TEST"; } I created the following HTML page to test it out: <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.4.2/jquery.min.js"/></script> <script type="text/javascript"> function test() { $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "http://localhost/TestApp/TestPage.aspx/Test", data: "{}", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "text", success: function(msg) { alert(msg.d); } }); } </script> </head> <body> <button onclick="test();">Click Me</button> </body> </html> When I click the button, the AJAX fires off, but nothing is returned. When I debug my code, the method Test() doesn't even get called. Any ideas?

    Read the article

  • Facebook connect with iPhone not working?

    - by Atulkumar V. Jain
    Hi Everybody, I am trying to use Facebook connect in my application, but its not working as I desire. When I am trying to use the API Key and the API SecretKey of my application which I have registered with the facebook its not working. I have downloaded the code for the facebook. In the SessionViewController.m file when I pass my key values its not working. What I am trying to achieve is, when the app launches the first page is the Facebook Login Page. The user enters his username and password and then the next view should display. But nothing is happening, even the label doesn't display the username. Heres the code which I am using - (void)request:(FBRequest*)request didLoad:(id)result { NSArray* users = result; NSDictionary* user = [users objectAtIndex:0]; NSString* name = [user objectForKey:@"name"]; _label.text = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"Logged in as %@",name]; NSLog(@"Username is :- %@",name); FrontController *main = [[FrontController alloc] init]; [self.view addSubview:main.view]; [main release]; } I am not able to figure out what is wrong with this code. When I try with some other key values such as the key for connect application its working fine. Can anyone help me with this... Thanx in advance...

    Read the article

  • Is this a safe way to release resources in Java?

    - by palto
    Usually when code needs some resource that needs to be released I see it done like this: InputStream in = null; try{ in = new FileInputStream("myfile.txt"); doSomethingWithStream(in); }finally{ if(in != null){ in.close(); } } What I don't like is that you have to initialize the variable to null and after that set it to another value and in the finally block check if the resource was initialized by checking if it is null. If it is not null, it needs to be released. I know I'm nitpicking, but I feel like this could be done cleaner. What I would like to do is this: InputStream in = new FileInputStream("myfile.txt"); try{ doSomethingWithStream(in); }finally{ in.close(); } To my eyes this looks almost as safe as the previous one. If resource initialization fails and it throws an exception, there's nothing to be done(since I didn't get the resource) so it doesn't have to be inside the try block. The only thing I'm worried is if there is some way(I'm not Java certified) that an exception or error can be thrown between operations? Even simpler example: Inputstream in = new FileInputStream("myfile.txt"); in.close(); Is there any way the stream would be left open that a try-finally block would prevent?

    Read the article

  • How do I compare two PropertyInfos or methods reliably?

    - by Rob Ashton
    Same for methods too: I am given two instances of PropertyInfo or methods which have been extracted from the class they sit on via GetProperty or GetMember etc, (or from a MemberExpression maybe). I want to determine if they are in fact referring to the same Property or the same Method so (propertyOne == propertyTwo) or (methodOne == methodTwo) Clearly that isn't going to actually work, you might be looking at the same property, but it might have been extracted from different levels of the class hierarchy (in which case generally, propertyOne != propertyTwo) Of course, I could look at DeclaringType, and re-request the property, but this starts getting a bit confusing when you start thinking about Properties/Methods declared on interfaces and implemented on classes Properties/Methods declared on a base class (virtually) and overridden on derived classes Properties/Methods declared on a base class, overridden with 'new' (in IL world this is nothing special iirc) At the end of the day, I just want to be able to do an intelligent equality check between two properties or two methods, I'm 80% sure that the above bullet points don't cover all of the edge cases, and while I could just sit down, write a bunch of tests and start playing about, I'm well aware that my low level knowledge of how these concepts are actually implemented is not excellent, and I'm hoping this is an already answered topic and I just suck at searching. The best answer would give me a couple of methods that achieve the above, explaining what edge cases have been taken care of and why :-)

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 539 540 541 542 543 544 545 546 547 548 549 550  | Next Page >