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  • C# language questions

    - by Water Cooler v2
    1) What is int? Is it any different from the struct System.Int32? I understand that the former is a C# alias (typedef or #define equivalant) for the CLR type System.Int32. Is this understanding correct? 2) When we say: IComparable x = 10; Is that like saying: IComparable x = new System.Int32(); But we can't new a struct, right? or in C like syntax: struct System.In32 *x; x=>someThing = 10; 3) What is String with a capitalized S? I see in Reflector that it is the sealed String class, which, of course, is a reference type, unlike the System.Int32 above, which is a value type. What is string, with an uncapitalized s, though? Is that also the C# alias for this class? Why can I not see the alias definitions in Reflector? 4) Try to follow me down this subtle train of thought, if you please. We know that a storage location of a particular type can only access properties and members on its interface. That means: Person p = new Customer(); p.Name = "Water Cooler v2"; // legal because as Name is defined on Person. but // illegal without an explicit cast even though the backing // store is a Customer, the storage location is of type // Person, which doesn't support the member/method being // accessed/called. p.GetTotalValueOfOrdersMade(); Now, with that inference, consider this scenario: int i = 10; // obvious System.object defines no member to // store an integer value or any other value in. // So, my question really is, when the integer is // boxed, what is the *type* it is actually boxed to. // In other words, what is the type that forms the // backing store on the heap, for this operation? object x = i;

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  • PHP Multi-Domain Sessions; ini_set Not Working?

    - by SumWon
    Hello, I'm trying to set it up so if you log in to my website the session carries over to all sub-domains of my website. For example, if you go to domain.com and log in, then go to sub.domain.com, you'll already be logged in at sub.domain.com. To my understanding, you would want to use ini_set('session.cookie_domain','.domain.com') and then session_start(), then set your session variables, but this isn't working. Example of what I'm doing: Code for domain.com: <?php ini_set('session.cookie_domain','.domain.com'); session_start(); $_SESSION['variable'] = 1; ?> Code for sub.domain.com: <?php session_start(); echo $_SESSION['variable']; ?> But $_SESSION['variable'] isn't set. I've also tried using ini_set() in the sub.domain.com code, but it made no difference. I've verified that setting session.cookie_domain is working by using ini_get(). What am I doing wrong? Thanks!

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  • Adding an keyUp-event to form objects

    - by reporter
    Hello folks, I've got the issue to add a browser event to some input fields. The challenge I have to face is, that one parameter of my target function is the 'event'-variable and the second one an object. For a better understanding here some codes:The HTML object: <div id="1_dateFieldAdvanced" class="xp set"> <div id="1_dateFieldAdvanced_label" class="label">Birthday</div> <div id="1_dateFieldAdvanced_value" class="value date"> <input class="day" name="dayOfBirth" value="66" maxlength="2" type="text"> <input class="month" name="monthOfBirth" value="67" maxlength="2" type="text"> <input class="year" name="yearOfBirth" value="" maxlength="4" type="text"> </div> </div> The source code of target method is like below: function advancedDateFields(currentFieldAsObject, nextField, currentValueLength, ev){} Unfortunatly the HTML and the Javascript code is generated automatically, so I'm unable to refactore the code. My question is, how can I pass the key word 'event' and the other parameters? My tries did always fail. :-(

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  • What happens when you create an instance of an object containing no state in C#?

    - by liquorice
    I am I think ok at algorithmic programming, if that is the right term? I used to play with turbo pascal and 8086 assembly language back in the 1980s as a hobby. But only very small projects and I haven't really done any programming in the 20ish years since then. So I am struggling for understanding like a drowning swimmer. So maybe this is a very niave question or I'm just making no sense at all, but say I have an object kind of like this: class Something : IDoer { void Do(ISomethingElse x) { x.DoWhatEverYouWant(42); } } And then I do var Thing1 = new Something(); var Thing2 = new Something(); Thing1.Do(blah); Thing2.Do(blah); does Thing1 = Thing2? does "new Something()" create anything? Or is it not much different different from having a static class, except I can pass it around and swap it out etc. Is the "Do" procedure in the same location in memory for both the Thing1(blah) and Thing2(blah) objects? I mean when executing it, does it mean there are two Something.Do procedures or just one?

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  • Quantifying the Performance of Garbage Collection vs. Explicit Memory Management

    - by EmbeddedProg
    I found this article here: Quantifying the Performance of Garbage Collection vs. Explicit Memory Management http://www.cs.umass.edu/~emery/pubs/gcvsmalloc.pdf In the conclusion section, it reads: Comparing runtime, space consumption, and virtual memory footprints over a range of benchmarks, we show that the runtime performance of the best-performing garbage collector is competitive with explicit memory management when given enough memory. In particular, when garbage collection has five times as much memory as required, its runtime performance matches or slightly exceeds that of explicit memory management. However, garbage collection’s performance degrades substantially when it must use smaller heaps. With three times as much memory, it runs 17% slower on average, and with twice as much memory, it runs 70% slower. Garbage collection also is more susceptible to paging when physical memory is scarce. In such conditions, all of the garbage collectors we examine here suffer order-of-magnitude performance penalties relative to explicit memory management. So, if my understanding is correct: if I have an app written in native C++ requiring 100 MB of memory, to achieve the same performance with a "managed" (i.e. garbage collector based) language (e.g. Java, C#), the app should require 5*100 MB = 500 MB? (And with 2*100 MB = 200 MB, the managed app would run 70% slower than the native app?) Do you know if current (i.e. latest Java VM's and .NET 4.0's) garbage collectors suffer the same problems described in the aforementioned article? Has the performance of modern garbage collectors improved? Thanks.

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  • What kind of online hosting do I need for a WCF-based service?

    - by mafutrct
    First of all, I'm not sure if SO is the right place to ask. Please migrate me if needed. I would like to host a WCF-based service so it is available for everyone. While hosting it on my personal, local servers succeeded, I would prefer to move it to an external service provider for various reasons. I'll be blunt: I have no clue about hosting providers. I know there are webhosters, virtual and root servers and several other services. What I would like to know is what kind of hosting I need in my case. I understand that a root server would easily fulfill my requirements, but that is not exactly cheap. The program I'd like to run on the server requires .NET 4, preferably on a windows machine. Access to a folder in the file system is much appreciated (1 GB storage is enough by far). Communication with clients (in form of an applications written in .NET) via opening a port on the server. Traffic is low (<<1 GB/month?) There is no website. Having the provider perform updates would be nice. My understanding is that a virtual server would be a possible solution. Prices seem start at around 5€/month, which is ok for me. However, I read that for these cheap solutions RAM is severely limited (~400 MB), and I'm not confident that is enough to run windows and a .NET application.

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  • Removing index.php on MAMP

    - by djeetee
    this questions was asked before and has had many responses. The problem is nothing i tried worked. Background: i use MAMP and all of my web project are located under WebProjects which I relocated out of its standard location within the MAMP folder in Applications. so my structure is something like this: Documents/WebProjects/GreatSite/Application/... What happened so far: my understanding is that removing index.php can be done either through httpd.conf or .htaccess. anytime i touched httpd.conf, Apache refuses to start. I tried various edits to .htaccess including the one in codeigniter.com/wiki/mod-rewrite and the last one from a post on SO which is this: RewriteEngine On RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteRule ^(.*)$ /index.php?/$1 [L] this give me the following error when i access the site: An Error Was Encountered Unable to determine what should be displayed. A default route has not been specified in the routing file. I have updated config.php to have $config['index_page'] = ''; and i have placed the .htaccess file in the GreatSite folder. One other note, my CI system folder is up a level from GreatSite. Not sure if this has any impact. also, apache has the module loaded. so, I'm hoping someone has successfully done this on MAMP and could provide direction specifically around the content of their .htaccess (or even httpd.conf), it's location and any other mods they had to make to get this going. thanks

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  • Good C++ array class for dealing with large arrays of data in a fast and memory efficient way?

    - by Shane MacLaughlin
    Following on from a previous question relating to heap usage restrictions, I'm looking for a good standard C++ class for dealing with big arrays of data in a way that is both memory efficient and speed efficient. I had been allocating the array using a single malloc/HealAlloc but after multiple trys using various calls, keep falling foul of heap fragmentation. So the conclusion I've come to, other than porting to 64 bit, is to use a mechanism that allows me to have a large array spanning multiple smaller memory fragments. I don't want an alloc per element as that is very memory inefficient, so the plan is to write a class that overrides the [] operator and select an appropriate element based on the index. Is there already a decent class out there to do this, or am I better off rolling my own? From my understanding, and some googling, a 32 bit Windows process should theoretically be able address up to 2GB. Now assuming I've 2GB installed, and various other processes and services are hogging about 400MB, how much usable memory do you think my program can reasonably expect to get from the heap? I'm currently using various flavours of Visual C++.

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  • Custom collision

    - by bali182
    I was recently assigned to create a siple game using the Corona SDK. The main pillar of the game would be a simple event: the user should put a ball in a basket, and I should be able to handle this event. Here is a picture for better understanding: I successfully managed to create the collision shape for the basket, but i have trouble with the collision of the inside of this basket. My first thought was the following: create a new shape size and position it to fit the "belly" of this basket add it to the physics-world, and listen to the collision. With hybrid drawing it looks like this: But there is a problem: if i add this shape to the physics, it wouldn't let the ball fall into the, basket, it will handle this shape as a solid object as well. So my question is: How could I get this custom object to collide, without blocking the ball to fall through it? I have read a lots of forum post with similar questions but none of them got a proper answer. There must be a way to do this in an elegant way. And one note: Please don't suggest checking the collision manually, with rectangle intersection, because in this simple case it would work, but later I may need to change the shape of the basket, and then it will be useless!

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  • What are good examples of perfectly acceptable approaches to development that are NOT test driven development (TDD)?

    - by markbruns
    The TDD cycle is test, code, refactor, (repeat) and then ship. TDD implies development that is driven by testing, specifically that means understanding requirements and then writing tests first before developing or writing code. My natural inclination is a philosophical bias in favor of TDD; I would like to be convinced that there are other approaches that now work well or even better than TDD so I have asked this question. What are examples of perfectly acceptable approaches that NOT test driven development? I can think of plenty approaches that are not TDD but could be a lot more trouble than what they are worth ... it's not moral judgement, it's just that they are cost more than they are worth ... the following are simply examples of things that might be ok as learning exercises, but approaches I'd find to be NOT acceptable in serious production and NOT TDD might include: Inspecting quality into your product -- Focusing efforts on developing a proficiency in testing/QA can be problematic, especially if you don't work on the requirements and development side first ... symptom of this include bug triaging where the developers have so many different bugs to deal with it, it is necessary to employ a form of triage -- each development cycle gets worse and worse, programmers work more and more hours, sleep less and less, struggle to keep going in death march until they are consumed. Superstition ... believing in things that you don't understand -- this would involve borrowing code that you believe has been proven or tested from somewhere, e.g. legacy code, a magic code starter wizard or an open source project, and you go forward hacking up a storm of modifications, sliding FaceBook Connect into your the user interface, inventing some new magic features on the fly (e.g. a mashup using the Twitter API, GoogleMaps API and maybe Zappos API), showing off your cool new "product" to a few people and then writing up a simple "specification" and list of "test cases" and turning that over to Mechanical Turk for testing.

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  • What is the common way to program action listeners?

    - by Roman
    I just started to learn how to use action listeners. To my understanding it works in the following way: There are some classes which contains "addActionListener" method by default (for example classes for buttons). Using this method we add an action listener to an object. For example: listenedObject.addActionListener(listeningObject). When an action with the "listenedObject" is performed, the "actionPerformed" method of the "listeningObject" will be called. So, it means that when we program a class for the listeningObject, we need to put there "actionPerformed" method. What is not clear to me, should we create a new class for every object that we want to listen. It does not seem to me as an elegant solution. On the other hand, if we have one action listener class for all (or at least many) object, than we have a problem since a instance of this class will not know which object is calling the "actionPerformed" method (and we need to know that since actions performed by the actionPerformed differs depending on who is called for this method). In my opinion, for every listened object we need to create are "personal" action listener and we can do it by setting a specific value to the corresponding field of the action listener. But I am not sure that it is a standard way to go? How do usually people do it?

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  • Override one css class with another?

    - by user246114
    Hi, I have a list, with an li style defined. I want to replace the style of an individual element, but it doesn't seem to have any visual effect. Example: .myList li { background-color: yellow; } .foo { background-color: green; } <ul class='myList'> <li>Hello</li> </ul> When I add an item to the list, it has the .myList li style applied properly. I try now to remove all styles and apply the foo style to a single item (using jquery): $(item).removeClass(); $(item).addClass("foo"); the item does not change color to green though, but this reports the class is set to 'foo': alert($(item).attr('class')); so I guess I'm not understanding css rules here, looks like the li class definition is just overriding whatever else I do, however I want the reverse to be true, I want to override the li style definition with foo. How do we do this? Thanks

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  • Why is it possible to enumerate a LinqToSql query after calling Dispose() on the DataContext?

    - by DanM
    I'm using the Repository Pattern with some LinqToSql objects. My repository objects all implement IDisposable, and the Dispose() method does only thing--calls Dispose() on the DataContext. Whenever I use a repository, I wrap it in a using person, like this: public IEnumerable<Person> SelectPersons() { using (var repository = _repositorySource.GetNew<Person>(dc => dc.Person)) { return repository.GetAll(); } } This method returns an IEnumerable<Person>, so if my understanding is correct, no querying of the database actually takes place until Enumerable<Person> is traversed (e.g., by converting it to a list or array or by using it in a foreach loop), as in this example: var persons = gateway.SelectPersons(); // Dispose() is fired here var personViewModels = ( from b in persons select new PersonViewModel { Id = b.Id, Name = b.Name, Age = b.Age, OrdersCount = b.Order.Count() }).ToList(); // executes queries In this example, Dispose() gets called immediately after setting persons, which is an IEnumerable<Person>, and that's the only time it gets called. So, a couple questions: How does this work? How can a disposed DataContext still query the database for results when I walk the IEnumerable<Person>? What does Dispose() actually do? I've heard that it is not necessary (e.g., see this question) to dispose of a DataContext, but my impression was that it's not a bad idea. Is there any reason not to dispose of it?

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  • Are there concurrency problems when using -performSelector:withObject:afterDelay: ?

    - by mystify
    For example, I often use this: [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:someDelay]; Now, lets say I call this 10 times to perform at the exact same delay, like: [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; - (void)doSomethingAfterDelay:(id)someObject { /* access an array, read stuff, write stuff, do different things that would suffer in multithreaded environments .... all operations are nonatomic! */ } I have observed pretty strange behavior when doing things like this. For my understanding, this method schedules a timer to fire on the current thread, so in this case the main thread. But since it doesn't create new threads, it actually should not be possible to run into concurrency problems, right?

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  • Are there concurrency problems when using -performSelector:withObject:afterDelay: ?

    - by mystify
    For example, I often use this: [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:someDelay]; Now, lets say I call this 10 times to perform at the exact same delay, like: [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; [self performSelector:@selector(doSomethingAfterDelay:) withObject:someObject afterDelay:2.0]; - (void)doSomethingAfterDelay:(id)someObject { /* access an array, read stuff, write stuff, do different things that would suffer in multithreaded environments .... all operations are nonatomic! */ } I have observed pretty strange behavior when doing things like this. For my understanding, this method schedules a timer to fire on the current thread, so in this case the main thread. But since it doesn't create new threads, it actually should not be possible to run into concurrency problems, right?

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  • Name lookup for names not dependent on template parameter in VC++2008 Express. Is it a bug?

    - by Maciej H
    While experimenting a bit with C++ templates I managed to produce this simple code, for which the output is different, than I expected according to my understanding of C++ rules. void bar(double d) { std::cout << "bar(double) function called" << std::endl; } template <typename T> void foo(T t) { bar(3); } void bar(int i) { std::cout << "bar(int) function called" << std::endl; } int main() { foo(3); return 0; } When I compile this code is VC++2008 Express function bar(int) gets called. That would be the behaviour I would expect if bar(3);in the template body was dependent on the template parameter. But it's not. The rule I found here says "The C++ standard prescribes that all names that are not dependent on template parameters are bound to their present definitions when parsing a template function or class". Am I wrong, that "present definition" of bar when parsing the template function foo is the definition of void bar(double d);? Why it's not the case if I am wrong. There are no forward declarations of bar in this compilation unit.

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  • Having trouble with multiple Jquery libraries

    - by user3716971
    I've seen the posts about the no conflict but I'm not very code savvy and can't figure it out alone. I'm having trouble making two libraries work together. At the top I have the 1.9.1 library which controls a news ticker, and a carousel. Near the bottom there is a library 1.6.1, which controls a Dribbble feed. If I remove 1.6.1 everything but the dribbble feed works, and if I remove the 1.9.1 the dribbble feed is the only thing that works. I uploaded the website for you guys to check out. If you could edit my code to make it work that would be amazing, I don't have much knowledge of jquery. This version has a working dribbble feed at the very bottom http://michaelcullenbenson.com/MichaelCullenBenson.com/index.html and this version has a broken feed and everything else works. http://michaelcullenbenson.com/MichaelCullenBenson.com/index2.html Help would be AMAZING as the dribbble feed is the last element I'm trying to finish on my homepage and I'll be able to move on. <script type="text/javascript" src="js/jquery-1.9.1.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="js/jquery.innerfade.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready( function(){ $('#news').innerfade({ animationtype: 'slide', speed: 600, timeout: 6000, type: 'random', containerheight: '1em' }); }); </script> <!-- Include all compiled plugins (below), or include individual files as needed --> <script src="utilcarousel-files/utilcarousel/jquery.utilcarousel.min.js"></script> <script src="utilcarousel-files/magnific-popup/jquery.magnific-popup.js"></script> <script src="js/responsive-nav.js"></script> <script> $(function() { $('#fullwidth').utilCarousel({ breakPoints : [[600, 1], [800, 2], [1000, 3], [1300, 4],], mouseWheel : false, rewind : true, autoPlay : true, pagination : false }); $('#fullwidth2').utilCarousel({ breakPoints : [[600, 1], [800, 2], [1000, 3], [1300, 4],], mouseWheel : false, rewind : true, autoPlay : true, pagination : false }); }); </script> <script> $(document).ready(function() { var movementStrength = 25; var height = movementStrength / $(window).height(); var width = movementStrength / $(window).width(); $("#aboutarea").mousemove(function(e){ var pageX = e.pageX - ($(window).width() / 2); var pageY = e.pageY - ($(window).height() / 2); var newvalueX = width * pageX * -1 - 25; var newvalueY = height * pageY * -1 - 50; $('#aboutarea').css("background-position", newvalueX+"px "+newvalueY+"px"); }); }); </script> <script src="//ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.6.1/jquery.min.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="dribbble.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(function () { $('#user').dribbble({ player: 'MCBDesign', total: 1 }); }); </script>

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  • Difference between std::result_of and decltype

    - by Luc Touraille
    I have some trouble understanding the need for std::result_of in C++0x. If I understood correctly, result_of is used to obtain the resulting type of invoking a function object with certain types of parameters. For example: template <typename F, typename Arg> typename std::result_of<F(Arg)> invoke(F f, Arg a) { return f(a); } I don't really see the difference with the following code: template <typename F, typename Arg> auto invoke(F f, Arg a) -> decltype(f(a)) //uses the f parameter { return f(a); } or template <typename F, typename Arg> auto invoke(F f, Arg a) -> decltype(F()(a)); //"constructs" an F { return f(a); } The only problem I can see with these two solutions is that we need to either: have an instance of the functor to use it in the expression passed to decltype. know a defined constructor for the functor. Am I right in thinking that the only difference between decltype and result_of is that the first one needs an expression whereas the second does not?

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  • Why do you program? Why do you do what you do? [closed]

    - by Pirate for Profit
    To me, writing a new program is like a puzzle. Before you write any code for a large system, you have to carefully craft each piece in your mind and imagine how all the pieces will fit together. If you don't, your solution may end up being undefined. What I mean is, I often don't know what I'm doing so I'll come to this site and beg for a code snippet, and then somehow try to hack it into my projects. I started writing GW-Basic when I was around 8 years old. Then it progressed from there, went to california university and did some Python and C++, but really didn't learn anything(college = highsk00l++). I've mostly been self-taught, took awhile to break bad habits and I'd say only in recent years would I consider myself understanding of design patterns and all that stuff (no but honestly procedural dudes, I would not want to design and maintain a large system procedurally, yous crazy). And despite my username, money has NOT been a big motivator. I've gone from job to job, I can usually get the work done perfect very quickly, any delays on my part are understandable (well about as understandable as it gets in the industry). But I ain't gonna work for peanuts because I got mouths to feed. Why do you program? Why do you do what you do?

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  • Force calling the derived class implementation within a generic function in C#?

    - by Adam Hardy
    Ok so I'm currently working with a set of classes that I don't have control over in some pretty generic functions using these objects. Instead of writing literally tens of functions that essentially do the same thing for each class I decided to use a generic function instead. Now the classes I'm dealing with are a little weird in that the derived classes share many of the same properties but the base class that they are derived from doesn't. One such property example is .Parent which exists on a huge number of derived classes but not on the base class and it is this property that I need to use. For ease of understanding I've created a small example as follows: class StandardBaseClass {} // These are simulating the SMO objects class StandardDerivedClass : StandardBaseClass { public object Parent { get; set; } } static class Extensions { public static object GetParent(this StandardDerivedClass sdc) { return sdc.Parent; } public static object GetParent(this StandardBaseClass sbc) { throw new NotImplementedException("StandardBaseClass does not contain a property Parent"); } // This is the Generic function I'm trying to write and need the Parent property. public static void DoSomething<T>(T foo) where T : StandardBaseClass { object Parent = ((T)foo).GetParent(); } } In the above example calling DoSomething() will throw the NotImplemented Exception in the base class's implementation of GetParent(), even though I'm forcing the cast to T which is a StandardDerivedClass. This is contrary to other casting behaviour where by downcasting will force the use of the base class's implementation. I see this behaviour as a bug. Has anyone else out there encountered this?

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  • How can I get 100% test coverage in a Perl module that uses DBI?

    - by BrianH
    I am a bit new to the Devel::Cover module, but have found it very useful in making sure I am not missing tests. A problem I am running into is understanding the report from Devel::Cover. I've looked at the documentation, but can't figure out what I need to test to get 100% coverage. Here is the output from the cover report: line err stmt bran cond sub pod time code ... 36 sub connect_database { 37 3 3 1 1126 my $self = shift; 38 3 100 24 if ( !$self->{dsn} ) { 39 1 7 croak 'dsn not supplied - cannot connect'; 40 } 41 *** 2 33 21 $self->{dbh} = DBI->connect( $self->{dsn}, q{}, q{} ) 42 || croak "$DBI::errstr"; 43 1 11 return $self; 44 } ... line err % l !l&&r !l&&!r expr ----- --- ------ ------ ------ ------ ---- 41 *** 33 1 0 0 'DBI'->connect($$self{'dsn'}, '', '') || croak("$DBI::errstr") And here is and example of my code that tests this specific line: my $database = MyModule::Database->new( { dsn => 'Invalid DSN' }); throws_ok( sub { $database->connect_database() }, qr/Can't connect to data source/, 'Test connection exception (invalid dsn)' ); This test passes - the connect does throw an error and fulfills my "throws_ok" test. I do have some tests that test for a successful connection, which is why I think I have 33% coverage, but if I'm reading it correctly, cover thinks I am not testing the "|| croak" part of the statement. I thought I was, with the "throws_ok" test, but obviously I am missing something. Does anyone have advice on how I can test my DBI-connect line successfully? Thanks!

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  • GTK+ and GdkPixbuf

    - by Daniel
    Hi all, I think I've got an understanding problem of GTK. My simple application has a stream of images and I'd like to display them within my GTK Window. Up to now, it looks like this: GdkPixbuf *pb = gdk_pixbuf_new_from_data(img2, GDK_COLORSPACE_RGB, FALSE, 24/3, 320, 240, 320*3, NULL, NULL); if(pb == NULL) fprintf(stderr, "Pixbuf is null!\n"); if(image != NULL) gtk_container_remove(GTK_CONTAINER(window), image); image = gtk_image_new_from_pixbuf(pb); gtk_container_add(GTK_CONTAINER(window), image); printf("Updated!\n"); img2 is my (rgb) buffer that gets updated from a stream each time. I guess gtk_container_remove and gtk_container_add might be stupid to use for this? Here's what I've got in addition: GtkWidget *window; GtkWidget *image; gtk_init(&argc, &argv); window = gtk_window_new(GTK_WINDOW_TOPLEVEL); gtk_signal_connect(GTK_OBJECT(window), "destroy", GTK_SIGNAL_FUNC(destroy), NULL); /* ... */ start_routine_for_stream_that_calls_the_above(...) /* ... */ gtk_widget_show_all(window); gtk_main(); My problem is that it's not working this way... either I see only the last GdkPixbuf image or I see none, which is the correct behaviour ... But how do I manage it to show an (stream of) updated GdkPixbuf? Thanks for help

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  • Need Explanation of couchdb reduce function

    - by Alan
    From http://wiki.apache.org/couchdb/Introduction_to_CouchDB_views The couchdb reduce function is defined as function (key, values, rereduce) { return sum(values); } key will be an array whose elements are arrays of the form [key,id] values will be an array of the values emitted for the respective elements in keys i.e. reduce([ [key1,id1], [key2,id2], [key3,id3] ], [value1,value2,value3], false) I am having trouble understanding when/why the array of keys would contain different key values. If the array of keys does contain different key values, how would I deal with it? As an example, assume that my database contains movements between accounts of the form. {"amount":100, "CreditAccount":"account_number", "DebitAccount":"account_number"} I want a view that gives the balance of an account. My map function does: emit( doc.CreditAccount, doc.amount ) emit( doc.DebitAccount, -doc.amount ) My reduce function does: return sum(values); I seem to get the expected results, however I can't reconcile this with the possibility that my reduce function gets different key values. Is my reduce function supposed to group key values first? What kind of result would I return in that case?

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  • '<=' operator is not working in sql server 2000

    - by Lalit
    Hello, Scenario is, database is in the maintenance phase. this database is not developed by ours developer. it is an existing database developed by the 'xyz' company in sql server 2000. This is real time database, where i am working now. I wanted to write the stored procedure which will retrieve me the records From date1 to date 2.so query is : Select * from MyTableName Where colDate>= '3-May-2010' and colDate<= '5-Oct-2010' and colName='xyzName' whereas my understanding I must get data including upper bound date as well as lower bound date. but somehow I am getting records from '3-May-2010' (which is fine but) to '10-Oct-2010' As i observe in table design , for ColDate, developer had used 'varchar' to store the date. i know this is wrong remedy by them. so in my stored procedure I have also used varchar parameters as @FromDate1 and @ToDate to get inputs for SP. this is giving me result which i have explained. i tried to take the parameter type as 'Datetime' but it is showing error while saving/altering the stored procedure that "@FromDate1 has invalid datatype", same for "@ToDate". situation is that, I can not change the table design at all. what i have to do here ? i know we can use user defined table in sql server 2008 , but there is version sql server 2000. which does not support the same. Please guide me for this scenario. **Edited** I am trying to write like this SP: CREATE PROCEDURE USP_Data (@Location varchar(100), @FromDate DATETIME, @ToDate DATETIME) AS SELECT * FROM dbo.TableName Where CAST(Dt AS DATETIME) >=@fromDate and CAST(Dt AS DATETIME)<=@ToDate and Location=@Location GO but getting Error: Arithmetic overflow error converting expression to data type datetime. in sql server 2000 What should be that ? is i am wrong some where ? also (202 row(s) affected) is changes every time in circular manner means first time sayin (122 row(s) affected) run again saying (80 row(s) affected) if again (202 row(s) affected) if again (122 row(s) affected) I can not understand what is going on ?

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  • Cookies NULL On Some ASP.NET Pages (even though it IS there!)

    - by DaveDev
    Hi folks I'm working on an ASP.NET application and I'm having difficulty in understanding why a cookie appears to be null. On one page (results.aspx) I create a cookie, adding entries every time the user clicks a checkbox. When the user clicks a button, they're taken to another page (graph.aspx) where the contents of that cookie is read. The problem is that the cookie doesn't seem to exist on graph.aspx. The following code returns null: Request.Cookies["MyCookie"]; The weird thing is this is only an issue on our staging server. This app is deployed to a production server and it's fine. It also works perfectly locally. I've put debug code on both pages: StringBuilder sb = new StringBuilder(); foreach (string cookie in Request.Cookies.AllKeys) { sb.Append(cookie.ToString() + "<br />"); } this.divDebugOutput.InnerHtml = sb.ToString(); On results.aspx (where there are no problems), I can see the cookies are: MyCookie __utma __utmb __utmz _csoot _csuid ASP.NET_SessionId __utmc On graph.aspx, you can see there is no 'MyCookie' __utma __utmb __utmz _csoot _csuid ASP.NET_SessionId __utmc With that said, if I take a look with my FireCookie, I can see that the same cookie does in fact exist on BOTH pages! WTF?!?!?!?! (ok, rant over :-) ) Has anyone seen something like this before? Why would ASP.NET claim that a cookie is null on one page, and not null on another?

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