Search Results

Search found 15389 results on 616 pages for 'external js'.

Page 547/616 | < Previous Page | 543 544 545 546 547 548 549 550 551 552 553 554  | Next Page >

  • Javascript (using jQuery) in a large Project... organization, passing data, private method, etc.

    - by gaoshan88
    I'm working on a large project that is organized like so: Multiple javascript files are included as needed and most code is wrapped in anonymous functions... // wutang.js //Included Files Go Here // Public stuff var MethodMan; // Private stuff (function() { var someVar1; MethodMan = function(){...}; var APrivateMethod = function(){...}; $(function(){ //jquery page load stuff here $('#meh').click(APrivateMethod); }); })(); I'm wondering about a few things here. Assuming that there are a number of these files included on a page, what has access to what and what is the best way to pass data between the files? For example, I assume that MethodMan() can be accessed by anything on any included page. It is public, yes? var someVar1 is only accessible to the methods inside that particular anonymous function and nowhere else, yes? Also true of var APrivateMethod(), yes? What if I want APrivateMethod() to make something available to some other method in a different anonymous wrapped method in a different included page. What's the best way to pass data between these private, anonymous functions on different included pages? Do I simply have to make whatever I want to use between them public? How about if I want to minimize global variables? What about the following: var PootyTang = function(){ someVar1 = $('#someid').text(); //some stuff }; and in another included file used by that same page I have: var TangyPoot = function(){ someVar1 = $('#someid').text(); //some completely different stuff }; What's the best way to share the value of someVar1 across these anonymous (they are wrapped as the first example) functions?

    Read the article

  • How to append html only if the div is empty in jQuery?

    - by johnnyb3000
    I have this code for displaying content for login and registration in my PHP file: <?php // LOGIN PART ?> <div class="login-part"></div> <?php // REGISTRATION PART ?> <div class="registration-part"></div> And this in my js file: $(document).ready( function() { // FOR REGISTRATION $('span.logreg.reg').click(function () { $('div.registration-part').append('<p>Registration</p>'); }); // FOR LOGIN $('span.logreg.log').click(function () { // insert html $('div.login-part').append('<p>Login</p>'); }); }); Now, everytime I click on a span it shows the text login or registration, according to which of the span was clicked. Thats OK, however I need to add it only once, so when the user click more times on the span it will be not adding more text. Remove() or empty() is not an option, as far as I know, because I need the information inside input boxes (there will be input boxes later for inserting user info) to stay there and not be deleted if the user click accidentally on the span again. It can however delete the html inside the div, if he clicks on another span. E.g. if span.log is active, after clicking on span.log nothing happens, but if he clicks on span.reg the html inside div.login-part will be removed and registration text will appear. How to do something like this?

    Read the article

  • Been asked a dozen times, but no luck from what I've read. Prevent Anchor Jumping on page load

    - by jasenmp
    I'm currently working with WP theme that can be found here: sanjay.dmediastudios.com I'm currently using 'smooth scroll' on my page, I'm attempting to have the page smoothly scroll to the requested section when coming from an external link (for instance coming from the blog page takes you to sanjay.dmediastudios.com/#portfolio) from there I want the page to start at the top and THEN scroll to the portfolio section. What's happening is it briefly displays the 'portfolio section' (anchor jump) and THEN resets to the top and scrolls down. It's driving me nuts :(. Here is the code I'm using: Click function for smooth scroll: $(function() { $('.menu li a').click(function() { if (location.pathname.replace(/^\//, '') == this.pathname.replace(/^\//, '') && location.hostname == this.hostname) { var target = $(this.hash); target = target.length ? target : $('[name=' + this.hash.slice(1) + ']'); if (target.length) { $root.animate({ scrollTop: target.offset().top - 75 }, 800, 'swing'); return false; } } }); //end of click function }); The page load function: $(window).on("load", function() { if (location.hash) { // do the test straight away window.scrollTo(0, 0); // execute it straight away setTimeout(function() { window.scrollTo(0, 0); // run it a bit later also for browser compatibility }, 1); } var urlHash = window.location.href.split("#")[1]; if (urlHash && $('#' + urlHash).length) $('html,body').animate({ scrollTop: $('#' + urlHash).offset().top - 75 }, 800, 'swing'); }); Any help would be MUCH appreciated.

    Read the article

  • performance issue: difference between select s.* vs select *

    - by kamil
    Recently I had some problem in performance of my query. The thing is described here: poor Hibernate select performance comparing to running directly - how debug? After long time of struggling, I've finally discovered that the query with select prefix like: select sth.* from Something as sth... Is 300x times slower then query started this way: select * from Something as sth.. Could somebody help me, and asnwer why is that so? Some external documents on this would be really useful. The table used for testing was: SALES_UNIT table contains some basic info abot sales unit node such as name and etc. The only association is to table SALES_UNIT_TYPE, as ManyToOne. The primary key is ID and field VALID_FROM_DTTM which is date. SALES_UNIT_RELATION contains relation PARENT-CHILD between sales unit nodes. Consists of SALES_UNIT_PARENT_ID, SALES_UNIT_CHILD_ID and VALID_TO_DTTM/VALID_FROM_DTTM. No association with any tables. The PK here is ..PARENT_ID, ..CHILD_ID and VALID_FROM_DTTM The actual query I've done was: select s.* from sales_unit s left join sales_unit_relation r on (s.sales_unit_id = r.sales_unit_child_id) where r.sales_unit_child_id is null select * from sales_unit s left join sales_unit_relation r on (s.sales_unit_id = r.sales_unit_child_id) where r.sales_unit_child_id is null Same query, both uses left join and only difference is with select.

    Read the article

  • Why is IE8 on XP not properly reading from XML using JQuery?

    - by dking
    Given this XML in data.xml <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <data> <bar>100</bar> </data> I want to display the content from the "bar" element using the following code in test.html <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.3.2/jquery.min.js"></script> </head> <body> <script type="text/javascript"> $.get('data.xml', function(xml) { var foo = $(xml).find('bar').text(); document.write("<span>foo: [" + foo + "]</span>"); }); </script> </body> </html> The output in webkit based browsers: foo: [100] The output in IE8 on XP: foo: [] Why do webkit browsers read the element's content correctly while IE8 interprets it as an empty string?

    Read the article

  • Git: HEAD has disappeared, want to merge it into master.

    - by samgoody
    The top image is the output of: git reflog. The bottom is what GITK in GIT GUI (msysgit) shows me when I look at all branch history. The last few commits do not show on GIT GUI. Why do they not show on GITK (at least as a branch or something)? How do I merge them into master? I gather this happened when I checked out tag 0.42. Why is that not the same as master? (I had tagged the master in its latest state) When I click push, why does the remote repo claim to be up to date.. shouldn't it try to update these commits into whatever branch they are in? The first of the questions is important - I would like to begin to understand what GIT is thinking. It's more oracle than logic at this point. If it makes a difference to see the earlier history, the project is a [pretty powerful] JS color picker that can be viewed here in its entirety.

    Read the article

  • Rails nested attributes with a join model, where one of the models being joined is a new record

    - by gzuki
    I'm trying to build a grid, in rails, for entering data. It has rows and columns, and rows and columns are joined by cells. In my view, I need for the grid to be able to handle having 'new' rows and columns on the edge, so that if you type in them and then submit, they are automatically generated, and their shared cells are connected to them correctly. I want to be able to do this without JS. Rails nested attributes fail to handle being mapped to both a new record and a new column, they can only do one or the other. The reason is that they are a nested specifically in one of the two models, and whichever one they aren't nested in will have no id (since it doesn't exist yet), and when pushed through accepts_nested_attributes_for on the top level Grid model, they will only be bound to the new object created for whatever they were nested in. How can I handle this? Do I have to override rails handling of nested attributes? My models look like this, btw: class Grid < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :rows has_many :columns has_many :cells, :through => :rows accepts_nested_attributes_for :rows, :allow_destroy => true, :reject_if => lambda {|a| a[:description].blank? } accepts_nested_attributes_for :columns, :allow_destroy => true, :reject_if => lambda {|a| a[:description].blank? } end class Column < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :grid has_many :cells, :dependent => :destroy has_many :rows, :through => :grid end class Row < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :grid has_many :cells, :dependent => :destroy has_many :columns, :through => :grid accepts_nested_attributes_for :cells end class Cell < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :row belongs_to :column has_one :grid, :through => :row end

    Read the article

  • CSS Square Div with an Inward Oval Shape

    - by user2813099
    I am trying to create a div in css with an inward oval shape to it like this. At the moment, I have a shape that is outward instead of inward (JS Fiddle Link). .shape { float: left; width: 100px; height: 50px; border: none; background: #CC0000; border-radius: 0 90px 0 0; -moz-border-radius: 0 90px 0 0; -webkit-border-radius: 0 90px 0 0; background-image: -webkit-gradient( linear, left top, right bottom, color-stop(0, #520C0C), color-stop(1, #CC0000) ); background-image: -o-linear-gradient(right bottom, #520C0C 0%, #CC0000 100%); background-image: -moz-linear-gradient(right bottom, #520C0C 0%, #CC0000 100%); background-image: -webkit-linear-gradient(right bottom, #520C0C 0%, #CC0000 100%); background-image: -ms-linear-gradient(right bottom, #520C0C 0%, #CC0000 100%); background-image: linear-gradient(to right bottom, #520C0C 0%, #CC0000 100%); } Any ideas on how to go about this?

    Read the article

  • load data from grid row into (pop up) form for editing

    - by user1495457
    I read in Ext JS in Action ( by J. Garcia) that if we have an instance of Ext.data.Record, we can use the form's loadRecord method to set the form's values. However, he does not give a working example of this (in the example that he uses data is loaded into a form through a file called data.php). I have searched many forums and found the following entry helpful as it gave me an idea on how to solve my problem by using form's loadRecord method: load data from grid to form Now the code for my store and grid is as follows: var userstore = Ext.create('Ext.data.Store', { storeId: 'viewUsersStore', model: 'Configs', autoLoad: true, proxy: { type: 'ajax', url: '/user/getuserviewdata.castle', reader: { type: 'json', root: 'users' }, listeners: { exception: function (proxy, response, operation, eOpts) { Ext.MessageBox.alert("Error", "Session has timed-out. Please re-login and try again."); } } } }); var grid = Ext.create('Ext.grid.Panel', { id: 'viewUsersGrid', title: 'List of all users', store: Ext.data.StoreManager.lookup('viewUsersStore'), columns: [ { header: 'Username', dataIndex: 'username' }, { header: 'Full Name', dataIndex: 'fullName' }, { header: 'Company', dataIndex: 'companyName' }, { header: 'Latest Time Login', dataIndex: 'lastLogin' }, { header: 'Current Status', dataIndex: 'status' }, { header: 'Edit', menuDisabled: true, sortable: false, xtype: 'actioncolumn', width: 50, items: [{ icon: '../../../Content/ext/img/icons/fam/user_edit.png', tooltip: 'Edit user', handler: function (grid, rowIndex, colIndex) { var rec = userstore.getAt(rowIndex); alert("Edit " + rec.get('username')+ "?"); EditUser(rec.get('id')); } }] }, ] }); function EditUser(id) { //I think I need to have this code here - I don't think it's complete/correct though var formpanel = Ext.getCmp('CreateUserForm'); formpanel.getForm().loadRecord(rec); } 'CreateUserForm' is the ID of a form that already exists and which should appear when user clicks on Edit icon. That pop-up form should then automatically be populated with the correct data from the grid row. However my code is not working. I get an error at the line 'formpanel.getForm().loadRecord(rec)' - it says 'Microsoft JScript runtime error: 'undefined' is null or not an object'. Any tips on how to solve this?

    Read the article

  • How to manage lifecycle in a ViewGroup-derived class?

    - by Scott Smith
    I had a bunch of code in an activity that displays a running graph of some external data. As the activity code was getting kind of cluttered, I decided to extract this code and create a GraphView class: public class GraphView extends LinearLayout { public GraphView(Context context, AttributeSet attrs) { super(context, attrs); LayoutInflater inflater = (LayoutInflater) context.getSystemService(Context.LAYOUT_INFLATER_SERVICE); inflater.inflate(R.layout.graph_view, this, true); } public void start() { // Perform initialization (bindings, timers, etc) here } public void stop() { // Unbind, destroy timers, yadda yadda } . . . } Moving stuff into this new LinearLayout-derived class was simple. But there was some lifecycle management code associated with creating and destroying timers and event listeners used by this graph (I didn't want this thing polling in the background if the activity was paused, for example). Coming from a MS Windows background, I kind of expected to find overridable onCreate() and onDestroy() methods or something similar, but I haven't found anything of the sort in LinearLayout (or any of its inherited members). Having to leave all of this initialization code in the Activity, and then having to pass it into the view seemed like it defeated the original purpose of encapsulating all of this code into a reusable view. I ended up adding two additional public methods to my view: start() and stop(). I make these calls from the activity's onResume() and onPause() methods respectively. This seems to work, but it feels like I'm using duct tape here. Does anyone know how this is typically done? I feel like I'm missing something...

    Read the article

  • Callbacks on GUI Thread

    - by miguel
    We have an external data provider which, in its construtor, takes a callback thread for returning data upon. There are some issues in the system which I am suspicious are related to threading, however, in theory they cannot be, due to the fact that the callbacks should all be returned on the same thread. My question is, does code like this require thread synchronisation? class Foo { ExternalDataProvider _provider; public Foo() { // This is the c'tor for the xternal data provider, taking a callback loop as param _provider = new ExternalDataProvider(UILoop); _provider.DataArrived += ExternalProviderCallbackMethod; } public ExternalProviderCallbackMethod() { var itemArray[] = new String[4] { "item1", "item2", "item3", "item4" }; for (int i = 0; i < itemArray.Length; i++) { string s = itemArray[i]; switch(s) { case "item1": DoItem1Action(); break; case "item2": DoItem2Action(); break; default: DoDefaultAction(); break; } } } } The issue is that, very infrequently, DoItem2Action is executingwhen DoItem1Action should be exectuing. Is it at all possible threading is at fault here? In theory, as all callbacks are arriving on the same thread, they should be serialized, right? So there should be no need for thread sync here?

    Read the article

  • Pass object from JSON into MVC Controller - its always null ?

    - by SteveCl
    Hi I have seen a few questions on here related to the a similar issue, I have read them, followed them, but still i have the same problem. I am basically creating an object in javascript and trying to call a method on the controller that will return a string of html. Not JSON. I've been playing around with dataType and contentType but still no joy. So apologies if the code snippets are a bit messy. Build the object in JS. function GetCardModel() { var card = {}; card.CardTitle = $("#CardTitle").val(); card.TopicTitle = $("#TopicTitle").val(); card.TopicBody = $("#TopicBody").data("tEditor").value(); card.CardClose = $("#CardClose").val(); card.CardFromName = $("#CardFromName").val(); return card; } Take a look at the object - all looks good and as it should in JSON. var model = GetCardModel(); alert(JSON.stringify(GetCardModel())); Make the call... $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "/Postcard/Create/Preview/", dataType: "json", //contentType: "application/json", date: GetCardModel(), processData: true, success: function (data) { alert("im back"); alert(data); }, error: function (xhr, ajaxOptions, error) { alert(xhr.status); alert("Error: " + xhr.responseText); //alert(error); } }); Always when I step into the controller, the object is ALWAYS there, but with null values for all the properties.

    Read the article

  • How to make chrome.tabs.update works with content script

    - by user1673772
    I work on a little extension on Google Chrome, I want to create a new tab, go on the url "sample"+i+".com", launch a content script on this url, update the current tab to "sample"+(i+1)+".com", and launch the same script. I looked the Q&A available on stackoverflow and I google it but I didn't found a solution who works. This is my actually code of background.js (it works), it creates two tabs (i=21 and i=22) and load my content script for each url, when I tried to do a chrome.tabs.update Chrome launchs directly a tab with i = 22 (and the script works only one time) : function extraction(tab) { for (var i =21; i<23;i++) { chrome.storage.sync.set({'extraction' : 1}, function() {}); //for my content script chrome.tabs.create({url: "http://example.com/"+i+".html"}, function() {}); } } chrome.browserAction.onClicked.addListener(function(tab) {extraction(tab);}); If anyone can help me, the content script and manifest.json are not the problem. I want to make that 15000 times so I can't do otherwise. Thank you.

    Read the article

  • Youtube Javascript API play(); not working.. what am I doing wrong?

    - by odpogn
    Hello, I'm playing around with YouTubes Javascript API. I've set up a test page on my local enviornment, but the play function is not working. The video loads, and I can press play on the yt video screen, but my link "play" isn't working. Can someone tell me what I'm doing wrong?? I've been following this: http://code.google.com/apis/youtube/js_api_reference.html <html> <head> <script type="text/javascript" src="public/javascripts/swfobject.js"></script> </head> <body> <div id="ytapiplayer"> You will need Flash 8 or better to view this content. </div> <script type="text/javascript"> var params = { allowScriptAccess: "always" }; var atts = { id: "myytplayer" }; swfobject.embedSWF("http://www.youtube.com/v/OQSNhk5ICTI&enablejsapi=1&playerapiid=ytplayer", "ytapiplayer", "425", "365", "8", null, null, params, atts); function onYouTubePlayerReady(playerId) { ytplayer = document.getElementById("myytplayer"); } function play() { if (ytplayer) { ytplayer.playVideo(); } } </script> <a href="javascript:void(0);" onclick="play();">Play</a> </body> </html>

    Read the article

  • Use of properties vs backing-field inside owner class

    - by whatispunk
    I love auto-implemented properties in C# but lately there's been this elephant standing in my cubicle and I don't know what to do with him. If I use auto-implemented properties (hereafter "aip") then I no longer have a private backing field to use internally. This is fine because the aip has no side-effects. But what if later on I need to add some extra processing in the get or set? Now I need to create a backing-field so I can expand my getters and setters. This is fine for external code using the class, because they won't notice the difference. But now all of the internal references to the aip are going to invoke these side-effects when they access the property. Now all internal access to the once aip must be refactored to use the backing-field. So my question is, what do most of you do? Do you use auto-implemented properties or do you prefer to always use a backing-field? What do you think about properties with side-effects?

    Read the article

  • PHP generating csv not sending correct new line feeds

    - by sjw
    I have a script that generates a csv file using the following code: header('Content-type: text/csv'); header('Content-Disposition: attachment; filename="'.date("Ymdhis").'.csv"'); print $content; The $content variable simply contains lines with fields separated by commas and then finalised with ."\n"; to generate a new line. When I open the file in csv it looks fine however, when I try to use the file to import into an external program (MYOB) it does not recognise the End Of Line (\n) character and assumes one long line of text. When I view the contents of the file in notepad, the end of line character (\n) is a small rectangle box which looks like the character code 0x7F. If I open the file and re-save it in excel, it removes this character and replaces it with a proper end of line character and I can import the file. What character do I need to be generating in PHP so that notepad recognises it as a valid End Of Line character? (\n) obviously doesn't do the job.

    Read the article

  • change value after ajax request!

    - by Lina
    if i have 3 html pages as follows: home.html: <form method="get"> <input class="someForm" type="radio" value="1" name="someForm" /> Name <input class="someForm" type="radio" value="2" name="someForm" /> Email <div id="container"></div> <input type="submit" /> </form> <script type="text/javascript" src="jquery.js"></script> <script> var ajaxResponse = new Object(); $(document).ready(function () { $('.someForm').click(function () { var rbVal = $(this).val(); var myContent; if (ajaxResponse[rbVal]) { //in cache myContent = ajaxResponse[rbVal]; $("#container").html(myContent); } else { // not in cache var urlForAjaxCall = "file" + rbVal + ".html"; $.get(urlForAjaxCall, function (myContent) { ajaxResponse[rbVal] = myContent; $("#container").html(myContent); }); } }); }); </script> file1.html: Name: <input type="text" name="1" value="myName" /> file2.html: Email: <input type="text" name="2" value="[email protected]" /> what i want to do is that when i write something in one of the textboxes and then click whichever radio button in home.html, the value attribute should be changed to the new value, any idea on how to do that? tia

    Read the article

  • Selenium - Wait for network traffic

    - by Joel
    We're using Selenium with the Java API and some Javascript user extensions. We use a lot of AJAX calls in our app. A lot of our tests fail randomly because sometimes the AJAX calls finish slower than other times so the page isn't fully loaded. We fix that by waiting for specific elements or Thread.sleep. I was trying to find a way to instead just wait for the network traffic to finish. So that we could do this: selenium.click("some JS button"); selenium.waitForNetwork(); assertTrue(something); That way we can get rid of the thread sleep and have tests pass faster when the server responds faster and not have so many tests fail due to timing issues. I haven't been able to find a way to do this searching Google. Does anyone have any ideas how we can accomplish this? (Preferably either through Javascript or the Java API but all suggestions are welcome). Note: the other variations of "waitFor" are not what I'm looking for. We're already using those in clicks and other things. I'm looking for something that waits for the NETWORK TRAFFIC. Thanks for all the feedback, I'll be trying out a couple of the suggestions, but I'm still open to other ideas. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Why wouldn't an embedded silverlight control work in a page?

    - by rsteckly
    Hi, I have a silverlight application project in my solution. The other project is a web application project that has a .xap file in ClientBin. When I created the silverlight project, it asked if I wanted the asp.net application to host it (and I said yes). In the root directory, there is a test page for the silverlight control. That loads the control. In another directory, I insert the SAME asp markup to get the silverlight control to launch again. Nothing happens. Why would the silverlight launch on one page and not on the other? Can people help point me to documentation about dependencies that I might not know about? I've put a reference to Silverlight.js on the page as well. Here's the markup: <div id="silverlightControlHost"> <object data="data:application/x-silverlight-2," type="application/x-silverlight-2" width="100%" height="100%"> <param name="source" value="../ClientBin/Editor.xap"/> <param name="onError" value="onSilverlightError" /> <param name="background" value="white" /> <param name="minRuntimeVersion" value="3.0.40818.0" /> <param name="autoUpgrade" value="true" /> <a href="http://go.microsoft.com/fwlink/?LinkID=149156&v=3.0.40818.0" style="text-decoration:none"> <img src="http://go.microsoft.com/fwlink/?LinkId=108181" alt="Get Microsoft Silverlight" style="border-style:none"/> </a> </object><iframe id="_sl_historyFrame" style="visibility:hidden;height:0px;width:0px;border:0px"></iframe></div> </div>

    Read the article

  • code is not compiling

    - by user323422
    template< class Type ,int Size = 3> class cStack { Type *m_array; int m_Top; int m_Size; public:cStack(); friend std::ostream& operator <<(std::ostream &, const cStack<Type,Size> &); }; template< class Type ,int Size > std::ostream& operator << ( std::ostream &os, const cStack<Type,Size> &s) { for( int i=0; i<=s.GetTop();i++) { os << s.m_array[i]; } return os; } on compilin it showing following error error LNK2019: unresolved external symbol "class std::basic_ostream<char,struct std::char_traits<char> > & __cdecl operator<<(class std::basic_ostream<char,struct std::char_traits<char> > &,class cStack<int,3> const &)" (??6@YAAAV?$basic_ostream@DU?$char_traits@D@std@@@std@@AAV01@ABV?$cStack@H$02@@@Z) referenced in function _main

    Read the article

  • Error handling approach on PHP

    - by Industrial
    Hi everybody, We have a web server that we're about to launch a number of applications onto. They will all share database and memcached servers, but each application has it's own mySQL database and all memcached keys per application, is prefixed. Possible scenario: If a memcached server in our cluster goes boom, we want someone (operative system admin) to be automatically contacted by email/iphone push notification or in any other appropriate way. If we we're about to install 150 identical applications for our customers on our servers, and a memcached server dies - all 150 applications will individually find this out and contact our system admin, which most certainly is going to think about getting a new job where he or she isn't about to be woken up by getting 150 messages sent 4:15 in the morning. Possible solution: One idea is to set up an external server for error handling that gets a $_POST or cURL request sent, and handles storage of the error message depending on the seriousness of the actual error message. It would of course check upon receiving the error call, that if the same memcached server have already been reported as offline, there would be no need to spam the system admin with additional reminders... The questions: What's a good approach on how to handle errors? How does the big guys in the industry handle this? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Move and rename file in android

    - by Andre Fróes
    I am trying to copy a file to another folder in the android, but so far, i got no success. I manage to do so with a selected image and when taking a photo, but not with files. I've read and tried several solutions passed by the community (searched over the forum and the internet), but none of it was able to solve my problem when copying. First things first. I added the permissions to my manifest: <uses-permission android:name="android.permission.WRITE_EXTERNAL_STORAGE" /> <uses-permission android:name="android.permission.READ_EXTERNAL_STORAGE" /> after that, before copying a file, i print its filepath and the directory file path: 06-10 11:11:11.700: I/System.out(1442): /mimetype/storage/sdcard/Misc/Javascript erros for Submit and Plan buttons in IE.doc 06-10 11:11:11.710: I/System.out(1442): /storage/sdcard/mywfm/checklist-files both exists: to copy the file to the expected folder I used the FileUtils: try { FileUtils.copyFile(selectedFile, dir); } catch (IOException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); } The problem is: I get no exception and the file isn't there. I tried this solution either: How to move/rename file from internal app storage to external storage on Android? same thing, no exception, but no file either.

    Read the article

  • When is it possible to override top-level bindings in (R7RS) scheme?

    - by Marc
    I have read the current draft of the forthcoming R7RS scheme standard (small language), but I don't understand under which conditions it is not an error to redefine top-level bindings. I guess that it is possible to define or set! a binding that has been introduced at the top-level of a program a second time. But what about imported bindings from an external library? Is it possible to override these bindings by the standard? On page 26/27 of the report, it says: The top level of a program may also include import declarations. In a library declaration, it is an error to import the same identifier more than once with different bindings, or to redefine or mutate an imported binding with define, define-syntax or set!. However, a REPL should permit these actions. Does it mean that redefining is only an error when it does happen in libraries for imported bindings? I understand that it prohibits optimisations by compilers if the compiler does not know whether, say + still means the built-in addition or is any other user-specified error. But from this perspective, it does not make sense to restrict forbidding to rebind on the library level, when it would also make sense (at least) for imported bindings in programs. P.S.: As this is all about the environment of a scheme program: am I right in saying that environments are not first class citizens because one cannot get hold of the current environment? (Which, in turn, allows a compiled program to forget about the chosen names of the bindings.)

    Read the article

  • ruby on rails implement search with auto complete

    - by user429400
    I've implemented a search box that searches the "Illnesses" table and the "symptoms" table in my DB. Now I want to add auto-complete to the search box. I've created a new controller called "auto_complete_controller" which returns the auto complete data. I'm just not sure how to combine the search functionality and the auto complete functionality: I want the "index" action in my search controller to return the search results, and the "index" action in my auto_complete controller to return the auto_complete data. Please guide me how to fix my html syntax and what to write in the js.coffee file. I'm using rails 3.x with the jquery UI for auto-complete, I prefer a server side solution, and this is my current code: main_page/index.html.erb: <p> <b>Syptoms / Illnesses</b> <%= form_tag search_path, :method => 'get' do %> <p> <%= text_field_tag :search, params[:search] %> <br/> <%= submit_tag "Search", :name => nil %> </p> <% end %> </p> auto_complete_controller.rb: class AutoCompleteController < ApplicationController def index @results = Illness.order(:name).where("name like ?", "%#{params[:term]}%") + Symptom.order(:name).where("name like ?", "%#{params[:term]}%") render json: @results.map(&:name) end end search_controller.rb: class SearchController < ApplicationController def index @results = Illness.search(params[:search]) + Symptom.search(params[:search]) respond_to do |format| format.html # index.html.erb format.json { render json: @results } end end end Thanks, Li

    Read the article

  • Rationale of C# iterators design (comparing to C++)

    - by macias
    I found similar topic: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/56347/iterators-in-c-stl-vs-java-is-there-a-conceptual-difference Which basically deals with Java iterator (which is similar to C#) being unable to going backward. So here I would like to focus on limits -- in C++ iterator does not know its limit, you have by yourself compare the given iterator with the limit. In C# iterator knows more -- you can tell without comparing to any external reference, if the iterator is valid or not. I prefer C++ way, because once having iterator you can set any iterator as a limit. In other words if you would like to get only few elements instead of entire collection, you don't have to alter the iterator (in C++). For me it is more "pure" (clear). But of course MS knew this and C++ while designing C#. So what are the advantages of C# way? Which approach is more powerful (which leads to more elegant functions based on iterators). What do I miss? If you have thoughts on C# vs. C++ iterators design other than their limits (boundaries), please also answer. Note: (just in case) please, keep the discussion strictly technical. No C++/C# flamewar.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 543 544 545 546 547 548 549 550 551 552 553 554  | Next Page >