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• Will IOC solve our problems?

  - by user127954

  Just trying to implement unit testing into a brownfield type system. Be aware i'm relatively new into the unit testing world. Its going to be a gradual migration of course because there are just so many areas of pain. The current problem i'm trying to solve is we followed a lot of bad practices from our VB6 days and in the conversion of our app to .Net. We have LOT AN LOTS of shared/static functions which call other shared functions and those call others and so on. Sometimes depedencies are passed in as parameters and sometimes they are just newed up within the calling function. I've already instructed our developers to stop creating shared functions and instead create instance members and only use those instance members off of interfaces but that doesn't alleviate the current situation. So you must recursively pass in each and every dependency at the top layer for each function in your code path and method signatures are turning into a mess. I'm hoping this is something that IOC will fix. Currently we are using NUnit/Moq and i'm starting to investigate StructureMap. So far i understand that you pretty much tell StructureMap for x interface i want to default to the concrete class y: ObjectFactory.Initialize(x=>{x.ForRequestType<IInterface>().TheDefaultIsConcreteType<MyClass>()}); Then to runtime: var mytype = ObjectFactory.GetInstance<IInterface>(); the IOC container will initialize the correct type for you. Not sure yet how to swap a fake in for the concrete type but hopefully thats simple. Again will IOC solve the problems i was talking about above? Is there a specific IOC framework that will do it better than StructureMap or can they all handle this situation. Any help would be much appreciated.

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• UIAlertViewDelegate method didDismissWithButtonIndex gets called while the phone is sleeping/locked.

  - by Rob

  I have a UIAlertView who's didDismissWithButtonIndex delegate method calls pops the view controller (same class, it's the alertview delegate and the viewcontroller) to return the user to the previous screen. The issue is that when you lock the phone before the [alert show]; is called, something is calling didDismissWithButtonIndex while the phone is locked. Since the response to that is to pop the view controller, which releases and deallocs it, I crash on the callback. What is causing this phantom button press? Seems like a framework bug, but I hate jumping to that conclusion. I'm definitely not hitting the button, because I hit a breakpoint in my code right before it's displayed. Then I lock the phone. Then I continue. I see it do the show, return to the event loop, and then, while the phone is still locked, hit my breakpoint in didDismissWithButtonIndex. There are a few internet/forum postings about similar spurious delegate calls, but no concrete answers. This is on the simulator, and the device, both OS 2.2 and OS 3.0. I'm assuming I'm missing something, but what? Update: Yeah, I created a simple project with just two view controllers, where when the 2nd view controller displays it creates the alert, and shows it. Then I NSLog in the delegate method, and when the phone is locked, it fires once while locked, and then again when it's unlocked and the button is clicked...2 log messages. But when not locked, there's only one. I guess I'll open an issue, but it seems awfully obvious to have survived this long without anyone complaining. :-) I'm going to try and work around it by making an isActive flag value when the willResignActive/didBecomeActive notifications arrive, and if the app isn't active skipping the delegate body. Update I went ahead in July after I posted this and created radar 7097363 for this issue. There's been no response. The workaround in practice works quite well, checking the active status when processing the delegate, and skipping the action if the the app is inactive.

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• UIImagePickerController image editing not working

  - by Greg Reichow

  I am having a problem with implementing UIImagePickerController. When the controller loads, it displays modally, and allows the user to select the image. Good so far. Yet, then when it moves to the editing phase, it often displays somewhat corrupted view (the image cropping box is halfway off the top of the screen) and their is no image. It does not crash, but all UI interaction is blocked. The strange part is that this only happens when I compile with Release settings. Under debug compile settings, the image editing works fine! I have tried checking for memory warnings during this time, but none are showing up. Here is the code calling the image picker controller for reference. When I use the camera (the first method), it always works fine. It is just when selecting images from the Library (called from the second method below) does it fail as described above. And again, only on release build, and with various different types of images. - (IBAction) showCameraController:(id)sender { self.imagePicker =[[UIImagePickerController alloc] init]; self.imagePicker.sourceType=UIImagePickerControllerSourceTypeCamera; self.imagePicker.delegate=self; self.imagePicker.allowsEditing=YES; [self presentModalViewController:self.imagePicker animated:YES]; } - (IBAction) showPictureAlbumController:(id)sender { self.imagePicker =[[UIImagePickerController alloc] init]; self.imagePicker.sourceType=UIImagePickerControllerSourceTypePhotoLibrary; self.imagePicker.delegate=self; self.imagePicker.allowsEditing=YES; [self presentModalViewController:self.imagePicker animated:YES]; } The delegate methods are properly implemented, yet, during the problem I am describing, the controller is not yet calling those methods. It is failing when displaying the editing screen before the user is able to select cancel or save. It is just locking up with no crash. Please help!

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• WPF Style Override breaks Validation Error event propagation

  - by Ben McMillan

  I have a custom control that overrides Window: public class Window : System.Windows.Window { static Window() { DefaultStyleKeyProperty.OverrideMetadata(typeof(Window), new System.Windows.FrameworkPropertyMetadata(typeof(Window))); } ... } It also has a style: <Style TargetType="{x:Type Controls:Window}" BasedOn="{StaticResource {x:Type Window}}"> <Setter Property="WindowStyle" Value="None" /> <Setter Property="Padding" Value="5" /> <Setter Property="Template"> <Setter.Value> <ControlTemplate TargetType="{x:Type Controls:Window}"> ... Unfortunately, this breaks the propagation of the Validation.ErrorEvent for my window's contents. That is, my window can receive the event just fine, but I don't know what to do with it to mimic how a standard Window (or whoever) deals with it. If the validating controls are placed in a standard window, they work. They also work if I just take out the OverrideMetadata call (leaving them inside my custom window). Why is this happening, and how can I get the stock functionality for handling these validation error events working again? Thanks!

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• Executing a modified expression

  - by Sam

  I found this brief demo: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb546136.aspx Which discusses modifying an expression. However the code starts with a Expression<Func<string, bool>> and ends up with a Expression so it's not complete. How do I take that expression and make it typed as Expression<Func<string,bool>> again? All the examples I have have found on executing an expression all involve dynamically created expressions which is not what this case has. Here the original expression is defined at compile time. And the code I want to write to do this won't know much about the expression, ideally as little as possible. I definately can't see how I would know what "Paramaters" to pass to Expression.LambdaExpression... In my particular case I want to search for any references to a particular propery of type A and swap them out with a reference to a property of type B then pass the expression to a call to IEnumerable.Where. ie. p=>p.Name == "Sam" where P is Foo1 becomes p=>p.FirstName == "Sam" where p is Foo2

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• Design patter to keep track UITableView rows correspondance to underlying data in constant time.

  - by DenNukem

  When my model changes I want to animate changes in UITableView by inserting/deleting rows. For that I need to know the ordinal of the given row (so I can construct NSIndexPath), which I find hard to do in better-than-linear time. For example, consider that I have a list of addressbook entries which are manualy sorted by the user, i.e. there is no ordering "key" that represents the sort order. There is also a corresponding UITableView that shows one row per addressbook entry. When UITableView queries the datasource I query the NSMUtableArray populated with my entries and return required data in constant time for each row. However, if there is a change in underlying model I am getting a notification "Joe Smith, id#123 has been removed". Now I have a dilemma. A naive approach would be to scan the array, determine the index at which Joe Smith is and then ask UITableView to remove that precise row from the view, also removing it form the array. However, the scan will take linear time to finish. Now I could have an NSDictionary which allows me to find Joe Smith in constant time, but that doesn't do me a lot of good because I still need to find his ordinal index within the array in order to instruct UITableView to remove that row, which is again a linear search. I could further decide to store each object's ordinal inside the object itself to make it constant, but it will become outdated after first such update as all subsequent index values will have changed due to removal of an object. So what is the correct design pattern to accurately reflect model changes in the UITableView in costant (or at least logarithmic) time?

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• flex and jsf access the same instance of bean

  - by David

  i integrate a flex app in a jsf-icefaces app (in a jspx site with the ice:outputmedia-tag) and want to access the same instance of a bean from flex by remote, that jsf inject. i already connect with blazeds to a java-bean. this bean - like all other beans - get other beans by injection of jsf, but when i access the bean by remote from flex it doesnt hold the injected beans (like localizer and accesmanager, both session scoped) and i can't connect to the jsf session (FacesContext.getCurrentInstance() is null). this is because flex create a new instance of the bean and it’s not the same current instance, that jsf inject, i think. i can connect from flex to the database by create a new entity manager in the java bean, but that's not what i want, because it's again another entity manager...i want persist and get data over the accessmanager-bean. i know exadel fiji and flamingo, but i couldn't work with fiji, because my jsf app include the icefaces components and then it doesn't work with richfaces which fiji needs. and flamingo work only with jboss seam and spring. is it right? i also read about the spring-flex-integration, but the jsf application did not create with spring and i don't want to integrate spring in such a large jsf app. yesterday i read about the FlexFactory interface. this interface i have to implement in my own Factory and set it in the service-config.xml of blazeds as a factory read this. i still implement my own factory but i only get application scoped beans over the servlet context which i get over FlexContext.getServletContext().getAttribute("Bean"); and not session scoped beans... i hope there is a chance to connect throw flex and jsf... thanks!

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• WebBrowser control won't display an https site that IE8 on the same PC will

  - by Velika

  In IE8, I get the follow warning, but if I choose to continue the site displays properly. There is a problem with this website's security certificate. The security certificate presented by this website was issued for a different website's address. Security certificate problems may indicate an attempt to fool you or intercept any data you send to the server. We recommend that you close this webpage and do not continue to this website. Click here to close this webpage. Continue to this website (not recommended). More information In the WebBrowser control, I get this at first: Navigation to the webpage was canceled What you can try: Refresh the page. When I hit the refresh teh page, this time, I get the same wanting as I originally get in IE8, but when I click "Continue to this website (not recommended)", the page refresh again, displaying the same warning. What can I do to get the site to display in the WebBrowser control as it does in IE8. I would've thought that the control would be using the same core logic and therefore expected the same result.

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• How do I keep a CALayer, sublayer of a CATiledLayer, from changing it's scale after a zoom ?

  - by David

  I have a CATiledLayer that is used to display a PDF page (this CATiledLayer is the layer type of my UIView which is a subview of a UIScrollView). I want to add overlay markers on this page. So I add a sublayer to my CATiledLayer. This sublayer again hosts the different marker's layers and acts as a grouping layer. So graphically, I have: (keep in mind that I have multiple markers which are CALayers also, this is ascii art after all) pdf page (CATiledLayer) ---------------------- | CALayer | | +---------+ | | | +----+ | | | | |mker| | | | | +----+ | | | +---------+ | | | ---------------------- I have set up the canonical drawLayer:inContext: in my view for drawing the pdf. When I zoom to have more detail, the pdf gets rendered correctly, but the markers get scaled. No matter what I do to the bounds of the CALayer, my markers always become bigger and appear jagged. I would like to have the markers always the same size, as when they were initialized and first shown when the view was drawn. Is this possible ? or am I using a wrong approach ? Should I do special drawing for my contained CALayer in the drawLAyer:inContext: message ? As you see, there are things that I am missing to resolve my problem. Thank you for any help you provide.

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• jQuery not and classes

  - by Giles B

  Hi Guys, I have 2 anchor links (a.selector) and when one is clicked it has a class applied to it of 'active-arrow' and the click also removes the class of the same name from the other anchor as well as lowering the opacity to 0.2. I then want to have a fade effect when the user hovers over the anchor that doesn't have 'active-arrow' applied to it so that it goes to full opacity when mouseenters and back to 0.2 when mouseleaves. The problem im having is that both .not and :not don't seem to be working as expected, the hover effect works but if I click on the anchor whilst hovering the 'active-arrow' class is applied but when mouseleaves the opacity is faded down to 0.2 again even though the 'active-arrow' class is applied. Also the hover then doesn't work for the other a link which has had 'active-arrow' removed. Bit of a hard one to explain so heres some code that hopefully helps a bit. *//If a.selector doesn't have the class 'active-arrow' then run the hoverFade function* $("a.selector").not(".active-arrow").hoverFade(); //Functions for first element $('a.selector-1').click(function () { $('a.selector-2').removeClass('active-arrow'); //Remove background image from corresponding element $('ul#storage-items-2').fadeOut(1200).addClass('hide'); //Fade out then hide corresponding list $(this).addClass('active-arrow', 'fast'); //Add background image to current element $('ul#storage-items-1').removeClass('hide').fadeIn(1800); //Unhide and fade in the list $('a.selector-2').fadeTo(500, 0.2); //Fade corresponding element $(this).fadeTo(800, 1);//Fade this element to full opacity }); I only included the code for teh first anchor (a.selector-1) as the code for the second anchor is identical but just changes the class names to a.selector-2. Also the hoverFade function is in a seperate file so we can re-use it. jQuery.fn.hoverFade = function() { return this.each(function(){ $(this).hover( function () { $(this).fadeTo(500, 0.8); }, function () { $(this).fadeTo(500, 0.2); }); }); } Each anchor link fades in and fades out a UL as well. Any help is most appreciated Thanks Giles

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• How to Determine The Module a Particular Exception Class is Defined In

  - by doug

  Note: i edited my Q (in the title) so that it better reflects what i actually want to know. In the original title and in the text of my Q, i referred to the source of the thrown exception; what i meant, and what i should have referred to, as pointed out in one of the high-strung but otherwise helpful response below, is the module that the exception class is defined in. This is evidenced by the fact that, again, as pointed out in one of the answers below the answer to the original Q is that the exceptions were thrown from calls to cursor.execute and cursor.next, respectively--which of course, isn't the information you need to write the try/except block. For instance (the Q has nothing specifically to do with SQLite or the PySQLite module): from pysqlite2 import dbapi2 as SQ try: cursor.execute('CREATE TABLE pname (id INTEGER PRIMARY KEY, name VARCHARS(50)') except SQ.OperationalError: print("{0}, {1}".format("table already exists", "... 'CREATE' ignored")) # cursor.execute('SELECT * FROM pname') while 1: try: print(cursor.next()) except StopIteration: break # i let both snippets error out to see the exception thrown, then coded the try/finally blocks--but that didn't tell me anything about which module the exception class is defined. In my example, there's only a single imported module, but where there are many more, i am interested to know how an experienced pythonista identifies the exception source (search-the-docs-till-i-happen-to-find-it is my current method). [And yes i am aware there's a nearly identical question on SO--but for C# rather than python, plus if you read the author's edited version, you'll see he's got a different problem in mind.]

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• Long running stats process - thoughts on language choice?

  - by Josh

  I am on a LAMP stack for a website I am managing. There is a need to roll up usage statistics (a variety of things related to our desktop product), and I initially tackled the problem with PHP (being that I had a bunch of classes to work with the data already). All worked well on my dev box which was using 5.3 Long story short, 5.1 memory management seems to suck a lot worse, and I've had to do a lot of fooling to get the long term roll up scripts to run in a fixed memory space. Our server guys are unwilling to upgrade php at this time. I've since moved my dev server back to 5.1 so I don't run into this problem again... For mining of mysql databases to roll up statistics for different periods and resolutions, potentially running a process that does this all the time in the future (as opposed to on a cron schedule), what language choice do you recommend? I was looking at python (I know it more or less), java (don't know it that well), sticking it out with php (know it quite well). Thanks for any suggestions. Josh

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• Apache and backslashes in mod_rewrite

  - by NuCalTone

  I want to process all incoming requests through a single script (index.php in web-root). So, the following is what currently happens: http://localhost/foo/bar/baz Is routed by Apache (through .htaccess) to: http://localhost/index.php?url=foo/bar/baz This works well, however, in Firefox I am able to do this: http://localhost/foo\ - notice the backslash. And Apache, instead of doing: /index.php?url=foo\ Emits a generic error page saying: Object not found! The requested URL was not found on this server. If you entered the URL manually please check your spelling and try again. If you think this is a server error, please contact the webmaster. Error 404 localhost Apache/2.2.14 (Win32) DAV/2 mod_ssl/2.2.14 OpenSSL/0.9.8l mod_autoindex_color PHP/5.3.1 mod_apreq2-20090110/2.7.1 mod_perl/2.0.4 Perl/v5.10.1 Directly going to: http://localhost/index.php?url=foo\ works without issues, however. All the sites that I've seen on the internet seem to be able to handle backslashes gracefully (e.g., http://stackoverflow.com/tags/php\\\\\). I consider this behavior a bug and I want to force Apache to forward backslashes correctly. Here's my .htaccess file in its entirety: RewriteEngine On RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteRule ^(.*)$ index.php?url=$1 [L] How can I make this work properly?

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• Problem with Tapestry palette's arrow icons in IE8

  - by JellyHead

  I'm using Tapestry to create pages for a web app, and have been using the palette component to add/delete items to/from a group. The page looks great in Firefox (Tapestry seems biased towards Firefox), but my customers will all be using Internet Explorer (any versions from 6, 7, & 8) and in IE8, the disabled arrow buttons look awful. In Firefox, they are faded, using an opacity setting of 25%, but this doesn't work in IE8 and instead you get a faded image with an ugly black border around the image. In tapestry-core's stylesheet (default.css), you have the following for a disabled arrow button. DIV.t-palette-controls BUTTON[disabled] IMG { filter: alpha(opacity = 25); -moz-opacity: .25; } These are clearly out of date, as -moz-opacity is no longer supported by Firefox (use opacity: 25 instead). The problem is with filter: "alpha(opacity = 25);". If I remove this, the arrows look fine in IE8, but they are not faded. I got the magic instruction: -ms-filter:"progid:DXImageTransform.Microsoft.Alpha(opacity=25)"; from various websites, but putting this in does not work either - the arrow icons are ugly again. The icon itself (distributed with Tapestry) just seems to be a regular PNG, but I'm not an expert on image formats, so maybe there's a problem there? Anyone else had this problem?

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• DDD: Aggregate Roots

  - by Mosh

  Hello, I need help with finding my aggregate root and boundary. I have 3 Entities: Plan, PlannedRole and PlannedTraining. Each Plan can include many PlannedRoles and PlannedTrainings. Solution 1: At first I thought Plan is the aggregate root because PlannedRole and PlannedTraining do not make sense out of the context of a Plan. They are always within a plan. Also, we have a business rule that says each Plan can have a maximum of 3 PlannedRoles and 5 PlannedTrainings. So I thought by nominating the Plan as the aggregate root, I can enforce this invariant. However, we have a Search page where the user searches for Plans. The results shows a few properties of the Plan itself (and none of its PlannedRoles or PlannedTrainings). I thought if I have to load the entire aggregate, it would have a lot of overhead. There are nearly 3000 plans and each may have a few children. Loading all these objects together and then ignoring PlannedRoles and PlannedTrainings in the search page doesn't make sense to me. Solution 2: I just realized the user wants 2 more search pages where they can search for Planned Roles or Planned Trainings. That made me realize they are trying to access these objects independently and "out of" the context of Plan. So I thought I was wrong about my initial design and that is how I came up with this solution. So, I thought to have 3 aggregates here, 1 for each Entity. This approach enables me to search for each Entity independently and also resolves the performance issue in solution 1. However, using this approach I cannot enforce the invariant I mentioned earlier. There is also another invariant that states a Plan can be changed only if it is of a certain status. So, I shouldn't be able to add any PlannedRoles or PlannedTrainings to a Plan that is not in that status. Again, I can't enforce this invariant with the second approach. Any advice would be greatly appreciated. Cheers, Mosh

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• Visual studio not detecting that exe is out of date after perforce revert

  - by CHaskell2

  This is a bit of an odd situation. Here's what's happening. So, we have a VS2008 project which outputs to a number of files under perforce control. These files have the always writable flag set. I compile the project in VS, which gives me up to date binaries on my machine. If I then revert those binaries via perforce, I have the version of the binaries that were up on perforce (ie, old ones.) Despite this, compiling the project again at this point detects no changes and will not remake those binaries. In a way, this makes sense, since none of the code or obj files have changed, but it's not really what I want to happen. This comes up in an edge case on our automated build server. I can think of tons of different little hacks I could do to fix this, but I'm thinking I could be missing something fundamental here. The actual build process uses the Unreal build tool, so there is a bit of magic going on behind the scenes that I'm not entirely familiar with too. Edit: This is a C/C++ project, forgot to mention that.

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• How do DP and CC change in Piet?

  - by Paul Butcher

  According to the specification, Black colour blocks and the edges of the program restrict program flow. If the Piet interpreter attempts to move into a black block or off an edge, it is stopped and the CC is toggled. The interpreter then attempts to move from its current block again. If it fails a second time, the DP is moved clockwise one step. These attempts are repeated, with the CC and DP being changed between alternate attempts. If after eight attempts the interpreter cannot leave its current colour block, there is no way out and the program terminates. Unless I'm reading it incorrectly, this is at odds with the behaviour of the Fibonacci sequence example here: http://www.dangermouse.net/esoteric/piet/fibbig1.gif (from: http://www.dangermouse.net/esoteric/piet/samples.html) Specifically, why does the DP turn left at (0,3) ((0,0) being (top, left)) when it hits the left edge? At this point, both DP and CC are LEFT, so, by my reading, the sequence should then be: Attempt (and fail) to leave the block by going off the edge at (0,4), Toggle CC to RIGHT, Attempt (and fail) to leave the block by going off the edge at (0,2). Rotate DP to UP, Attempt (and succeed) to leave the block at (1,2) by entering the white block at (1,1) The behaviour indicated by the trace seems to be that DP gets rotated all the way, leaving CC at LEFT. What have I misunderstood?

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• How should I handle persistence in a Java MUD? OptimisticLockException handling

  - by Chase

  I'm re-implementing a old BBS MUD game in Java with permission from the original developers. Currently I'm using Java EE 6 with EJB Session facades for the game logic and JPA for the persistence. A big reason I picked session beans is JTA. I'm more experienced with web apps in which if you get an OptimisticLockException you just catch it and tell the user their data is stale and they need to re-apply/re-submit. Responding with "try again" all the time in a multi-user game would make for a horrible experience. Given that I'd expect several people to be targeting a single monster during a fight I think the chance of an OptimisticLockException would be high. My view code, the part presenting a telnet CLI, is the EJB client. Should I be catching the PersistenceExceptions and TransactionRolledbackLocalExceptions and just retrying? How do you decide when to stop? Should I switch to pessimistic locking? Is persisting after every user command overkill? Should I be loading the entire world in RAM and dumping the state every couple of minutes? Do I make my session facade a EJB 3.1 singleton which would function as a choke point and therefore eliminating the need to do any type of JPA locking? EJB 3.1 singletons function as a multiple reader/single writer design (you annotate the methods as readers and writers). Basically, what is the best design and java persistence API for highly concurrent data changes in an application where it is not acceptable to present resubmit/retry prompts to the user?

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• Windows-mobile app won't run after being closed by Task Manager

  - by pithyless

  I've inherited some windows-mobile code that I've been bringing up-to-date. I've come across a weird bug, and I was hoping that even though a bit vague, maybe it will spark someone's memory: Running the app (which is basically a glorified Forms app with P/Invoke gps code), I switch to the task manager, and close the app via End Task. Seems to exit fine (no errors and disappears from Task Manager). Unfortunately, the app refuses to start a second time until I reboot the phone or reinstall the CAB. What's worse: this bug is reproducible on a HTC Diamond, but works fine (ie. can run again after EndTask) on an HTC HD2. The only thing I can think of is some kind of timing race between a Dispose() and the Task Manager. Any ideas? I'm also thinking of a workaround - I do have a working "Exit Application" routine that correctly cleans up the app; can I catch the EndTask event in the c# code in order to complete a proper cleanup? Maybe I'm just missing the pain point... all ideas welcome :)

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• MySQL Unique hash insertion

  - by Jesse

  So, imagine a mysql table with a few simple columns, an auto increment, and a hash (varchar, UNIQUE). Is it possible to give mysql a query that will add a column, and generate a unique hash without multiple queries? Currently, the only way I can think of to achieve this is with a while, which I worry would become more and more processor intensive the more entries were in the db. Here's some pseudo-php, obviously untested, but gets the general idea across: while(!query("INSERT INTO table (hash) VALUES (".generate_hash().");")){ //found conflict, try again. } In the above example, the hash column would be UNIQUE, and so the query would fail. The problem is, say there's 500,000 entries in the db and I'm working off of a base36 hash generator, with 4 characters. The likelyhood of a conflict would be almost 1 in 3, and I definitely can't be running 160,000 queries. In fact, any more than 5 I would consider unacceptable. So, can I do this with pure SQL? I would need to generate a base62, 6 char string (like: "j8Du7X", chars a-z, A-Z, and 0-9), and either update the last_insert_id with it, or even better, generate it during the insert. I can handle basic CRUD with MySQL, but even JOINs are a little outside of my MySQL comfort zone, so excuse my ignorance if this is cake. Any ideas? I'd prefer to use either pure MySQL or PHP & MySQL, but hell, if another language can get this done cleanly, I'd build a script and AJAX it too. Thanks!

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• Binary stream 'NN' does not contain a valid BinaryHeader. Possible causes are invalid stream or obje

  - by FinancialRadDeveloper

  I am passing user defined classes over sockets. The SendObject code is below. It works on my local machine, but when I publish to the WebServer which is then communicating with the App Server on my own machine it fails. public bool SendObject(Object obj, ref string sErrMsg) { try { MemoryStream ms = new MemoryStream(); BinaryFormatter bf1 = new BinaryFormatter(); bf1.Serialize(ms, obj); byte[] byArr = ms.ToArray(); int len = byArr.Length; m_socClient.Send(byArr); return true; } catch (Exception e) { sErrMsg = "SendObject Error: " + e.Message; return false; } } I can do this fine if it is one class in my tools project and the other class about UserData just doesn't want to know. Frustrating! Ohh. I think its because the UserData class has a DataSet inside it. Funnily enough I have seen this work, but then after 1 request it goes loopy and I can't get it to work again. Anyone know why this might be? I have looked at comparing the dlls to make sure they are the same on the WebServer and on my local machine and they look to be so as I have turned on versioning in the AssemblyInfo.cs to double check. Edit: Ok it seems that the problem is with size. If I keep it under 1024 byes ( I am guessing here) it works on the web server and doesnt if it has a DataSet inside it.k In fact this is so puzzling I converted the DataSet to a string using ds.GetXml() and this also causes it to blow up. :( So it seems that across the network something with my sockets is wrong and doesn't want to read in the data. JonSkeet where are you. ha ha. I would offer Rep but I don't have any. Grr

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• ClickOnce Deployment Error - Access to the Path is Denied

  - by michael.lukatchik

  I have a WPF app that I'm deploying to a network path using ClickOnce deployment. After the app is deployed to a network location, I use the ClickOnce html page to launch the installation process. I am successfully able to download and install the app. However, my users are not able to download and install the app. When a user navigates to the ClickOnce html page and clicks to begin the installation process, the following error message is received: ERROR SUMMARY Below is a summary of the errors, details of these errors are listed later in the log. * Activation of http://software.mycompany.com/myapp/myapp.application resulted in exception. Following failure messages were detected: + Downloading file://dev/webs/software/myapp/myapp.application did not succeed. * [4/5/2010 1:56:59 PM] System.Deployment.Application.DeploymentDownloadException (Unknown subtype) - Downloading file://dev/Webs/software/myapp/myapp.application did not succeed. All signs point to this being a security issue. So, I've done the following: Ensured that "Everyone" had read access to the files that were being deployed as part of my project Ensured that "Everyone" had read access to the network location where the app was deployed (//dev/webs/software/myapp) Ensured that "Everyone" had read access to the IIS path where the ClickOnce html page is located In each of these cases, I've made no progress in getting the app to successfully deploy via ClickOnce. Again, the odd thing is that I am able to successfully walk through the process of downloading and installing the app. It's my users, though, that need the ability to download and install the app. I've looked extensively on the web for answers, but there hasn't been much. I'd like to resolve the issue without "re-installing" or "rigging" anything. I need a solid answer. Thank you all for your input!! Mike

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• Getting a new session key after Facebook offline_access permission

  - by Richard

  I have a mobile application that I'm using with Facebook connect. I'm having trouble getting an offline_access session key after a user has granted extended permissions. Here's the user flow: User goes to my site for the first time I send them to m.facebook.com/tos.php? and pass my api key and secret The user logs in using Facebook connect Facebook returns them to a page in my site, mysite/login-success.php with an auth_token in the query string On mysite/login-success.php I instantiate the FB api client and check to see if I already have an offline_access session key for them: $facebook = new Facebook($appapikey, $appsecret); If they haven't already provided offline_access FB gives me a temporary session key I need to get offline_access permission from the user so I forward them on to www.facebook.com/connect/prompt_permissions.php? and pass offline_access in the querystring. The user authorizes offline_access and get forwarded to mysite/permissions-success.php The problem I'm having is that after instantiating the API client on permissions-success.php the session key I have is still the temporary session key, not a new offline_access session key. The only way I've found to get the offline_access key is to delete all cookies for the user and then have them login again using Facebook connect. A fairly poor user experience. Can anyone shed some light on how to use the Facebook api to generate a new session key even if one already exists (in my case a temporary session key)?

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• Lambdas within Extension methods: Possible memory leak?

  - by Oliver

  I just gave an answer to a quite simple question by using an extension method. But after writing it down i remembered that you can't unsubscribe a lambda from an event handler. So far no big problem. But how does all this behave within an extension method?? Below is my code snipped again. So can anyone enlighten me, if this will lead to myriads of timers hanging around in memory if you call this extension method multiple times? I would say no, cause the scope of the timer is limited within this function. So after leaving it no one else has a reference to this object. I'm just a little unsure, cause we're here within a static function in a static class. public static class LabelExtensions { public static Label BlinkText(this Label label, int duration) { Timer timer = new Timer(); timer.Interval = duration; timer.Tick += (sender, e) => { timer.Stop(); label.Font = new Font(label.Font, label.Font.Style ^ FontStyle.Bold); }; label.Font = new Font(label.Font, label.Font.Style | FontStyle.Bold); timer.Start(); return label; } }

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• What is the scope of StaticResource within a WPF ResourceDictionary?

  - by Nicolas Webb

  I have a WPF ResourceDictionary with the following TextBlock: <TextBlock Visibility="{Binding Converter={StaticResource MyBoolProp ResourceKey=BoolToVis}}"> </TextBlock> The ResourceDictionary is included in App.xaml under MergedDictionaries: <Application.Resources> <ResourceDictionary> <ResourceDictionary.MergedDictionaries> <ResourceDictionary Source="MyResourceDictionary.xaml"/> Within the App.xaml I have defined the BoolToVis converter (again, under Application.Resources) <BooleanToVisibilityConverter x:Key="BoolToVis" /> When I start my app up - I get the following XamlParseException: "Provide value on 'System.Windows.Markup.StaticResourceHolder' threw an exception." The InnerException is: "Cannot find resource named 'BoolToVis'. Resource names are case sensitive." I'm able to refer to this converter directly with App.xaml (in fact, the particular XAML declaration is identical) and within other UserControls with no problems. This particular bit of code also worked fine under the .NET 4.0 RC (and Beta2). This error only started happening when I upgraded to the .NET 4.0 RTM. I'm able to work around it by declaring another BooleanToVisibilityConverter within MyResourceDictionary.xaml and referring to it like so: <TextBlock Visibility="{Binding Converter={StaticResource MyBoolProp ResourceKey=BoolToVis2}}"> </TextBlock> Any reason why I should need to do this?

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