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• Unit testing a 'legacy' WPF Application

  - by sc_ray

  The product I have been working on has been in development for the past six years. It started as a generic data entry portal into an insanely complex part WPF/part legacy application. The system has been developed for all these years without a single Unit test in its fold. Now, the point has been raised for a comprehensive unit testing framework. I have been recruited recently to work on this product and have been tasked to get the 'Testing' in order. Since the team that worked on the product for the last six years adopted 'Agile', the project lacks any documentation of the business rules or any design documents. I have been trying to write unit tests for some of the modules. But I am not sure what to Mock, how to setup my Test fixture and eventually what to Test for, since a casual glance of the methods does not reveal its intentions. Also, it has come to my attention that the code was not developed with a particular methodology in mind. Given the situation, I was wondering if the good people of Stackoverflow could provide me with some advise on how to salvage this situation. I have heard about the book 'Working with Legacy Code' that has something to say about this general situation but I was thinking about getting some pointers from individuals who have encountered similar situations within the technology stack(C#,VB,C++,.NET 3.5,WCF,SQL Server 2005).

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• How can I split abstract testcases in JUnit?

  - by Willi Schönborn

  I have an abstract testcase "AbstractATest" for an interface "A". It has several test methods (@Test) and one abstract method: protected abstract A unit(); which provides the unit under testing. No i have multiple implementations of "A", e.g. "DefaultA", "ConcurrentA", etc. My problem: The testcase is huge (~1500 loc) and it's growing. So i wanted to split it into multiple testcases. How can organize/structure this in Junit 4 without the need to have a concrete testcase for every implementation and abstract testcase. I want e.g. "AInitializeTest", "AExectueTest" and "AStopTest". Each being abstract and containing multiple tests. But for my concrete "ConcurrentA", i only want to have one concrete testcase "ConcurrentATest". I hope my "problem" is clear. EDIT Looks like my description was not that clear. Is it possible to pass a reference to a test? I know parameterized tests, but these require static methods, which is not applicable to my setup. Subclasses of an abstract testcase decide about the parameter.

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• How can I link two Java serialised objects back together?

  - by Kidburla

  Sometimes (quite a lot, actually) we get a situation in Java where two objects are pointing to the same thing. Now if we serialise these separately it is quite appropriate that the serialised forms have separate copies of the object as it should be possible to open one without the other. However if we now deserialise them both, we find that they are still separated. Is there any way to link them back together? Example follows. public class Example { private static class ContainerClass implements java.io.Serializable { private ReferencedClass obj; public ReferencedClass get() { return obj; } public void set(ReferencedClass obj) { this.obj = obj; } } private static class ReferencedClass implements java.io.Serializable { private int i = 0; public int get() { return i; } public void set(int i) { this.i = i; } } public static void main(String[] args) throws Exception { //Initialise the classes ContainerClass test1 = new ContainerClass(); ContainerClass test2 = new ContainerClass(); ReferencedClass ref = new ReferencedClass(); //Make both container class point to the same reference test1.set(ref); test2.set(ref); //This does what we expect: setting the integer in one (way of accessing the) referenced class sets it in the other one test1.get().set(1234); System.out.println(Integer.toString(test2.get().get())); //Now serialise the container classes java.io.ObjectOutputStream os = new java.io.ObjectOutputStream(new java.io.FileOutputStream("C:\\Users\\Public\\test1.ser")); os.writeObject(test1); os.close(); os = new java.io.ObjectOutputStream(new java.io.FileOutputStream("C:\\Users\\Public\\test2.ser")); os.writeObject(test2); os.close(); //And deserialise them java.io.ObjectInputStream is = new java.io.ObjectInputStream(new java.io.FileInputStream("C:\\Users\\Public\\test1.ser")); ContainerClass test3 = (ContainerClass)is.readObject(); is.close(); is = new java.io.ObjectInputStream(new java.io.FileInputStream("C:\\Users\\Public\\test2.ser")); ContainerClass test4 = (ContainerClass)is.readObject(); is.close(); //We expect the same thing as before, and would expect a result of 4321, but this doesn't happen as the referenced objects are now separate instances test3.get().set(4321); System.out.println(Integer.toString(test4.get().get())); } }

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• Css For Gridview paging

  - by arunendra

  Hi My question is, can I control the style of the paging element separately of top and bottom, I have set the paging to appear in both top and bottom of the gridview, and I want to see that the top pagination is little high up in the page, to do that I used the cssClass and set margin-top:20px and made the position: absolute, this does change the position of the top paging area and set it rightly for me, but the bottom pagination has also come up as a result and now sits inside the grid data!! Is there any way to solve this? Thanks and regards Arunendra

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• SQL Server 2005:charindex starting from the end

  - by Shuo

  Hey,everyone I have a string 'some.file.name',I want to grab 'some.file'. To do that,I need to find the last occurrence of '.' in a string. My solution is : declare @someStr varchar(20) declare @reversedStr varchar(20) declare @index int set @someStr = '001.002.003' set @reversedStr = reverse(@someStr) set @index = len(@someStr) - charindex('.',@reversedStr) select left(@someStr,@index) Well,isn't it too complicated?I was just intented to using 'some.file' in a where-clause. Anyone has a good idea?

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• Reordering columns (fields) in a ADO Recordset

  - by Sukotto

  I have a classic asp webpage written in vbscript that outputs the results from a third-party stored procedure. My user wants the page to display the columns of data in a different order than they come in from the database. Is there an easy and safe way to re-order the columns in an ADO recordset? I did not write this page and cannot change the SP. What is the minimum change I can make here to get the job done and not risk screwing up all the other stuff in the page? The code looks something like dim Conn, strSQL, RS Set Conn = Server.CreateObject("ADODB.Connection") Conn.Open ServerName Set strSQL = "EXEC storedProc @foo = " & Request("fooParam") 'This stored procedure returns a date column, an arbitrary ' ' number of data columns, and two summation columns. We ' ' want the two summation columns to move so they appear ' ' immediately after the data column ' Set RS = Server.CreateObject("ADODB.RecordSet") RS.ActiveConnection = Nothing RS.CursorLocation = adUseClient RS.CursorType = adOpenStatic RS.LockType = adLockBatchOptimistic RS.Open strSQL, Conn, adOpenDynamic, adLockOptimistic dim A ' ----- ' ' Insert some code here to move the columns of the RS around ' ' to suit the whim of my user ' ' ----- ' ' Several blocks of code that iterate over the RS and display it various ways ' RS.MoveFirst For A = 0 To RS.Fields.Count -1 ' do stuff ' Next ... RS.MoveFirst For A = 0 To RS.Fields.Count -1 ' do more stuff ' Next RS.Close : Set RS = Nothing Conn.Close : Set Conn = Nothing

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• How to send and retrieve in the controller

  - by user281180

  I have the folowing code in my view, however, I can see that I don`t have the values in the controller. What is wrong? In the view I have, <% using (Html.BeginForm()) {%> <%=Html.TextBox("Addresses[0].Line1") %> <%=Html.TextBox("Addresses[0].Line2")%> <%=Html.TextBox("Addresses[1].Line1")%> <%=Html.TextBox("Addresses[1].Line2")%> <input type="submit" name="submitForm" value="Save products" /> <% } %> My classes are as follows: public class Customer { public string FirstName { get; set; } public string Lastname { get; set; } public List<Address> Addresses { get; set; } public Customer() { Addresses = new List<Address>(); } } public class Address { public int Line1 { get; set; } public int Line2 { get; set; } } My controller as follows: public ActionResult Index() { return View(); } [HttpPost] public ActionResult Index(Customer customer) { return View(); }

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• PHP setting cookies in a child class

  - by steve

  I am writing a custom session handler and for the life of me I cannot get a cookie to set in it. I'm not outputting anything to the browser before I set the cookie but it still doesn't work. Its killing me. The cookie will set if I set it in the script I define and call on the session handler with. If necessary I will post code. Any ideas people? <?php /* require the needed classes comment out what is not needed */ require_once("classes/sessionmanager.php"); require_once("classes/template.php"); require_once("classes/database.php"); $title=" "; //titlebar of the web browser $description=" "; $keywords=" "; //meta keywords $menutype="default"; //default or customer, customer is elevated $pagetitle="dflsfsf "; //title of the webpage $pagebody=" "; //body of the webpage $template=template::def_instance(); $database=database::def_instance(); $session=sessionmanager::def_instance(); $session->sessions(); session_start(); ?> and this is the one that actually sets the cookie for the session function write($session_id,$session_data) { $session_id = mysql_real_escape_string($session_id); $session_data = mysql_real_escape_string(serialize($session_data)); $expires = time() + 3600; $user_ip = $_SERVER['REMOTE_ADDR']; $bol = FALSE; $time = time(); $newsession = FALSE; $auth = FALSE; $query = "SELECT * FROM 'sessions' WHERE 'expires' > '$time'"; $sessions_result = $this->query($query); $newsession = $this->newsession_check($session_id,$sessions_result); while($sessions_array = mysql_fetch_array($sessions_result) AND $auth = FALSE) { $session_array = $this->strip($session_array); $auth = $this->auth_check($session_array,$session_id); } /* this is an authentic session. build queries and update it */ if($auth = TRUE AND $newsession = FALSE) { $session_data = mysql_real_escape_string($session_data); $update_query1 = "UPDATE 'sessions' SET 'user_ip' = '$user_ip' WHERE 'session_id' = '$session_id'"; $update_query2 = "UPDATE 'sessions' SET 'data' = '$session_data' WHERE 'session_id = '$session_id'"; $update_query3 = "UPDATE 'sessions' SET 'expires' = '$expires' WHERE 'session_id' = '$session_id'"; $this->query($update_query1); $this->query($update_query2); $this->query($update_query3); $bol = TRUE; } elseif($newsession = TRUE) { /* this is a new session, build and create it */ $random_number = $this->obtain_random(); $cookieval = hash("sha512",$random_number); setcookie("rndn",$cookieval); $query = "INSERT INTO sessions VALUES('$session_id','0','$user_ip','$random_number','$session_data','$expires')"; $this->query($query); //echo $cookieval."this is the cookie <<"; $bol = TRUE; } return $bol; }

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• Fastest algorithm to check if a number is pandigital?

  - by medopal

  Pandigital number is a number that contains the digits 1..number length. For example 123, 4312 and 967412385. I have solved many Project Euler problems, but the Pandigital problems always exceed the one minute rule. This is my pandigital function: private boolean isPandigital(int n){ Set<Character> set= new TreeSet<Character>(); String string = n+""; for (char c:string.toCharArray()){ if (c=='0') return false; set.add(c); } return set.size()==string.length(); } Create your own function and test it with this method int pans=0; for (int i=123456789;i<=123987654;i++){ if (isPandigital(i)){ pans++; } } Using this loop, you should get 720 pandigital numbers. My average time was 500 millisecond. I'm using Java, but the question is open to any language.

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• Weird Rails database errors

  - by Jason Swett

  I've had some trouble getting my Rails app to connect to PostgreSQL so I decided to just say screw it and use SQLite for now. (I'm using the tutorial here: http://guides.rubyonrails.org/getting_started.html) I started a BRAND NEW, fresh Rails app from this tutorial. When I visit my app in the browser after deleting public/index.html, I get this the first time: Please install the pg adapter: `gem install activerecord-pg-adapter` (no such file to load -- active_record/connection_adapters/pg_adapter) That's odd to me because I'm not mentioning PostgreSQL anywhere. Here's my databases.yml: # SQLite version 3.x # gem install sqlite3-ruby (not necessary on OS X Leopard) development: adapter: sqlite3 database: db/development.sqlite3 pool: 5 timeout: 5000 # Warning: The database defined as "test" will be erased and # re-generated from your development database when you run "rake". # Do not set this db to the same as development or production. test: adapter: sqlite3 database: db/test.sqlite3 pool: 5 timeout: 5000 production: adapter: sqlite3 database: db/production.sqlite3 pool: 5 timeout: 5000 To make things more confusing, I only get that "pg adapter" error on the first load. For every subsequent page request, I get this error: ActiveRecord::ConnectionNotEstablished So even though I removed all mention of PostgreSQL, I'm still getting errors. What could be going on?

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• jQuery ajax response not operating correctly

  - by mmarceau

  Ok this is frustrating... The code below works "correctly" as far as sending the email address to the SaveEmail URL and it gets saved correctly each time I change the drop down. However it only outputs the "Successful" message once, no matter how many times I change the value in the drop down. The "data" that is returned is "Successful". I would like to show the message for a couple seconds, then fade it out. It works correctly the first time I change the drop down, after that the change happens and the value gets saved, but the "Successful" message doesn't display. jQuery code: $('#AgentEmails').change(function() { var NewAddress = $('#AgentEmails').val(); $.post('SaveEmail.aspx', { email: NewAddress }, function(data) { $('#SelectMsg').html("<b>" + data + "</b>").fadeOut(); }); }); HTML code: <select ID='AgentEmails' runat='server'> <option value="[email protected]">TEST</option> </select><span id='SelectMsg'></span> What needs to be changed in my code to make this operate correctly? Thanks for the help.

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• mvc partial views loses track of the images folder when using jquery

  - by jvelez

  This is what I have and it works: $(function(){ $('.slide-out-div').tabSlideOut({ tabHandle: '.handle', //class of the element that will become your tab pathToTabImage: 'http://mhmiisdev2/images/contact_tab.gif', //path to the image for the tab //Optionally can be set using css imageHeight: '122px', //height of tab image //Optionally can be set using css imageWidth: '40px', //width of tab image //Optionally can be set using css tabLocation: 'right', //side of screen where tab lives, top, right, bottom, or left speed: 300, //speed of animation action: 'click', //options: 'click' or 'hover', action to trigger animation topPos: '200px', //position from the top/ use if tabLocation is left or right leftPos: '20px', //position from left/ use if tabLocation is bottom or top fixedPosition: true //options: true makes it stick(fixed position) on scroll }); }); This is what I want and it doesnt work when I change from one controller to another controller. NOTICE THE IMAGE PATH IS NOT ABSOLUTE $(function(){ $('.slide-out-div').tabSlideOut({ tabHandle: '.handle', //class of the element that will become your tab pathToTabImage: '/images/contact_tab.gif', //path to the image for the tab //Optionally can be set using css imageHeight: '122px', //height of tab image //Optionally can be set using css imageWidth: '40px', //width of tab image //Optionally can be set using css tabLocation: 'right', //side of screen where tab lives, top, right, bottom, or left speed: 300, //speed of animation action: 'click', //options: 'click' or 'hover', action to trigger animation topPos: '200px', //position from the top/ use if tabLocation is left or right leftPos: '20px', //position from left/ use if tabLocation is bottom or top fixedPosition: true //options: true makes it stick(fixed position) on scroll }); }); the html for completeness.... <div class="slide-out-div"> <a class="handle" href="http://link-for-non-js-users.html">Content</a> <h3>Medical Variance Reports</h3> <div> <ul> <li><a href="http://mhmssrs2/Reports/Pages/Report.aspx?" target="_blank">Individual Medicines</a></li> </ul> </div> </div> I suspect somehow pathToTabImage: /images/contact_tab.gif' loses its context when browsing throught controllers. Help me understand...

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• Changing overflow from div dynamically [closed]

  - by user552669

  Hello comunnity! I am filling a div using JQuery. This div has the CSS property 'overflow' set to 'auto' (to display scrollbars because the div has a lot of HTML inside). But the DIV doesn't display the scrollbars. I think that the problem is that I'm setting the CSS property using CSS and the DIV is filling dynamically. How can I do to display scrollbars if the HTML inside the DIV doesn't fit, but dynamically? I'm trying to set the property manually after fill the div, but didn't work: function createWB(tag){ // Fill the div // ... // Set the scrollbars $('.tab_content').css('overflow','auto'); } If a set the property to 'scroll', the scrollbars appear, but disabled. Thanks in advance! :)

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• WPF UserControl event called only once?

  - by 742

  Hi Everyone, I need to bind two-way a property of a user control to a property of a containing user control. I also need to set a default value to the property from code in the child (cannot be done easily from XAML tags). If I call my code from the child constructor, the value is set in the parent but the change callback routine is not triggered (my understanding is that the parent doesn't yet exist at the time the child is created). My current workaround is to catch the Loaded event of the child and to call the code from the handler. Howver as Loaded is called more than once, I need to set a flag to set the property only the first time. I don't like this way, but I don't know if there is a single shot event that could be used, or if this can be done otherwise. Any feedback based on your experience?

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• WPF Converter to look up in generic list

  - by user310046

  I have a list of data where I keep e.g. countries with code, name and some other data. List<Country> countries = <deserialized objects from file> which consist of objects like this: public class Country { public string Code { get; set;} public string Name { get; set;} } The object which use as a DataContext may look like this: public class Address { public string StreetName{ get; set;} public string CountryCode { get; set;} } Then in my XAML I want to do something like this to show the name of the country <TextBlock Text="{Binding Path=CountryCode, Converter={StaticResource CountryNameLookupConverter}}"/> But how can I make the CountryNameLookupConverter use the countries list I read from the xml file?

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• Sharepoint 2010 start workflow programmatically error

  - by user522429

  I have a workflow associated with a content type. I try to kick it off from code from within the event receiver on the same content type, so when an item is updated, if there is a certain condition (status = ready for review) I start it. //This line does find the workflow association var assoc = properties.Web.ContentTypes["Experiment Document Set"].WorkflowAssociations.GetAssociationByName("Experiment Review Workflow", ultureInfo.CurrentUICulture); //I had tried to use this line from something I found online, but it would return null //var assoc = properties.Web.WorkflowAssociations.GetAssociationByName("Experiment Review Workflow", CultureInfo.CurrentUICulture); var result = properties.Web.Site.WorkflowManager.StartWorkflow(properties.ListItem, assoc, string.Empty, SPWorkflowRunOptions.Synchronous); //The line above gives me this error: System.ArgumentException: Workflow failed to start because the workflow is associated with a content type that does not exist in a list. Before re-starting the workflow, the content type must be added to the list. To check this, I was looking at the content type of the list item being updated and it is correct properties.ListItem.ContentType.Name "Experiment Document Set" So basically I have a workfow associated with the content type "Experiment Document Set". When I try to start a workflow from an event receiver in "Experiment Document Set", I get an error saying the content type "Experiment Document Set" does not exist in the list which doesn't make sense.

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• MVC JsonResult with the [Authorize] attribute going to Logon but not displaying the view

  - by likestoski

  I am seeing odd behavior with MVC 3 methods that return a JsonResult when used with the Authorize attribute. What looks like happens is the Authorize is correctly evaluated when I am not logged in but instead of redirecting to the logon form the Json response is the logon form. Is there an addition attribute that directs the response to not return a value but instead redirect the user to the logon form, preferebly with the correct returnUrl value? What I did as a demo was to setup a new MVC3 site and added AspNetMembership to my DB using the aspnet_regsql.exe command. All that is setup and logging me in correctly. The behavior of the JsonResult doesn't seem right and I'm hoping I have just missed an attribute to make it work properly. Any help is greatly appreciated, thanks in advance. Here is the Account Controller (leaving out the Post action which is not part of this question). public class AccountController : Controller { public ActionResult LogOn() { return View(); } [Authorize] public JsonResult AuthorizedAction() { return Json("Only returns if I am authorized"); } } Here is the Html markup: <script src="@Url.Content("~/Scripts/jquery-ui-1.8.11.min.js")" type="text/javascript"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function () { $("#btnTest").click(function () { $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "Account/AuthorizedAction", data: {}, success: function (result) { $("#testMe").html(result); }, error: function (result) { $("#testMe").html('Something broke in the ajax request'); } }); }); }); </script> <input type="button" id="btnTest" value="Test me" /> <div id="testMe">I have initial text</div> The Result: 1) When logged in I get 'Only returns if I am authorized' in my test div 2) When not logged and I have a break point in my Logon() method I see this value Request["returnUrl"] "/Account/AuthorizedAction" The test div I have displays the logon form :) this seems like I'm just not handling this properly.

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• Setting a ViewController's properties after instantiation

  - by Craig

  I'm creating an instance of a viewController, and then trying to set the text on of it's properties, a UILabel. BoyController *boyViewController = [[BoyController alloc] initWithNibName:@"BoyView" bundle:nil]; NSString *newText = [astrology getSignWithMonth:month withDay:day]; boyViewController.sign.text = newText; NSLog(@" the boyviewcontroller.sign.text is now set to: %@", boyViewController.sign.text); [newText release]; I tried this, but it didn't work... So I tried the following: BoyController *boyViewController = [[BoyController alloc] initWithNibName:@"BoyView" bundle:nil]; UILabel *newUILabel = [[UILabel alloc] init]; newUILabel.text = [astrology getSignWithMonth:month withDay:day]; boyViewController.sign = newUILabel; NSLog(@" the boyviewcontroller.sign.text is now set to: %@", newUILabel.text); [newUILabel release]; But no avail.. I'm not sure why I can't set the text property of the UILabel "sign" in boyViewController..

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• Entity Framework: a proxy collection for displaying a subset of data

  - by Jefim

  Imagine I have an entity called Product and a repository for it: public class Product { public int Id { get; set; } public bool IsHidden { get; set; } } public class ProductRepository { public ObservableCollection<Product> AllProducts { get; set; } public ObservableCollection<Product> HiddenProducts { get; set; } } All products contains every single Product in the database, while HiddenProducts must only contain those, whose IsHidden == true. I wrote the type as ObservableCollection<Product>, but it does not have to be that. The goal is to have HiddenProducts collection be like a proxy to AllProducts with filtering capabilities and for it to refresh every time when IsHidden attribute of a Product is changed. Is there a normal way to do this? Or maybe my logic is wrong and this could be done is a better way?

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• JLabel wont change color twice

  - by Aly

  Hi, I have the following code: public class Test extends JFrame implements ActionListener{ private static final Color TRANSP_WHITE = new Color(new Float(1), new Float(1), new Float(1), new Float(0.5)); private static final Color TRANSP_RED = new Color(new Float(1), new Float(0), new Float(0), new Float(0.1)); private static final Color[] COLORS = new Color[]{ TRANSP_RED, TRANSP_WHITE}; private int index = 0; private JLabel label; private JButton button; public Test(){ super(); setLayout(new BoxLayout(getContentPane(), BoxLayout.Y_AXIS)); label = new JLabel("hello world"); label.setOpaque(true); label.setBackground(TRANSP_WHITE); getContentPane().add(label); button = new JButton("Click Me"); button.addActionListener(this); getContentPane().add(button); pack(); setVisible(true); } @Override public void actionPerformed(ActionEvent e) { if(e.getSource().equals(button)){ label.setBackground(COLORS[index % (COLORS.length - 1)]); } } public static void main(String[] args) { new Test(); } } When I run it I get the label with the TRANSP_WHITE background and then when I click the button this color changes to TRANSP_RED but when I click it again I see no change in color. Does anyone know why? Thanks

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• Faster or more memory-efficient solution in Python for this Codejam problem.

  - by jeroen.vangoey

  I tried my hand at this Google Codejam Africa problem (the contest is already finished, I just did it to improve my programming skills). The Problem: You are hosting a party with G guests and notice that there is an odd number of guests! When planning the party you deliberately invited only couples and gave each couple a unique number C on their invitation. You would like to single out whoever came alone by asking all of the guests for their invitation numbers. The Input: The first line of input gives the number of cases, N. N test cases follow. For each test case there will be: One line containing the value G the number of guests. One line containing a space-separated list of G integers. Each integer C indicates the invitation code of a guest. Output For each test case, output one line containing "Case #x: " followed by the number C of the guest who is alone. The Limits: 1 = N = 50 0 < C = 2147483647 Small dataset 3 = G < 100 Large dataset 3 = G < 1000 Sample Input: 3 3 1 2147483647 2147483647 5 3 4 7 4 3 5 2 10 2 10 5 Sample Output: Case #1: 1 Case #2: 7 Case #3: 5 This is the solution that I came up with: with open('A-large-practice.in') as f: lines = f.readlines() with open('A-large-practice.out', 'w') as output: N = int(lines[0]) for testcase, i in enumerate(range(1,2*N,2)): G = int(lines[i]) for guest in range(G): codes = map(int, lines[i+1].split(' ')) alone = (c for c in codes if codes.count(c)==1) output.write("Case #%d: %d\n" % (testcase+1, alone.next())) It runs in 12 seconds on my machine with the large input. Now, my question is, can this solution be improved in Python to run in a shorter time or use less memory? The analysis of the problem gives some pointers on how to do this in Java and C++ but I can't translate those solutions back to Python.

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• g++ fails mysteriously only if a .h is in a certain directory

  - by ggambett

  I'm experiencing an extremely weird problem in a fresh OSX 10.4.11 + Xcode 2.5 installation. I've reduced it to a minimal test case. Here's test.cpp: #include "macros.h" int main (void) { return 1; } And here's macros.h: #ifndef __JUST_TESTING__ #define __JUST_TESTING__ template<typename T> void swap (T& pT1, T& pT2) { T pTmp = pT1; pT1 = pT2; pT2 = pTmp; } #endif //__JUST_TESTING__ This compiles and works just fine if both files are in the same directory. HOWEVER, if I put macros.h in /usr/include/gfc2 (it's part of a custom library I use) and change the #include in test.cpp, compilation fails with this error : /usr/include/gfc2/macros.h:4: error: template with C linkage I researched that error and most of the comments point to a "dangling extern C", which doesn't seem to be the case at all. I'm at a complete loss here. Is g++ for some reason assuming everything in /usr/include/gfc2 is C even though it's included from a .cpp file that doesn't say extern "C" anywhere? Any ideas? EDIT : It does compile if I use the full path in the #include, ie #include "/usr/include/gfc2/macros.h" EDIT2 : It's not including the wrong header. I've verified this using cpp, g++ -E, and renaming macros.h to foobarmacros.h

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• Is there an easier way to get start of current day time than this?

  - by Seymour Cakes

  I basically want to get zero or beginning hour for currrent day. def today = Calendar.instance today.set(Calendar.HOUR_OF_DAY, 0) today.set(Calendar.MINUTE, 0) today.set(Calendar.SECOND, 0) println today // Mon Mar 15 00:00:00 SGT 2010

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• Z-Order in javafx

  - by Scaraffe

  How do i set z-order for VBox in JavaFX

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• Properly obsoleting old members in an XML Serializable class in C# VB .NET

  - by George

  Hi! Some time ago I defined a class that was serialized using XML. That class contained a serializable propertyA of integer type. Now I have extended and updated this class, whereby a new propertyB was added, whose type is another class that also has several serializable properties. The new propertyB is now supposed to play the role of propertyA, that is since type of propertyB is another class, one of its members would contain the value that previously propertyA contained, thus making peroptyA obsolete. What I am trying to figure out is how do I make sure that when I desireliaze the OLD version of this class (without propertyB in it), I make sure that the desreializer would take the value of propertyA from the old calss and set it as a value of one of the members of propertyB in a new class? Private WithEvents _Position As Position = New Position(Alignment.MiddleMiddle, 0, True, 0, True) Public Property Position() As Position 'NEW composite property that holds the value of the obsolted property, i.e. Alignment Get Return _Position End Get Set(ByVal value As Position) _Position = value End Set End Property Private _Alignment As Alignment = Alignment.MiddleMiddle <Xml.Serialization.XmlIgnore(), Obsolete("Use Position property instead.")> _ Public Property Alignment() As Alignment'The old, obsoleted property that I guess must be left for compliance with deserializing the old version of this class Get Return _Alignment End Get Set(ByVal value As Alignment) _Alignment = value End Set End Property Can you help me, please?

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