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  • Async run for javascript by using listeners

    - by CharlieShi
    I have two functions, the names are Function3, Function4, Function3 will send request to server side to get jsondata by using ajax, which, however, will take about 3 seconds to complete. Function4 is a common function which will wait for Function3's result and then action. My code puts below: function ajaxRequest(container) { $.ajax({ url: "Home/GetResult", type: "post", success: function (data) { container.append(data.message); } }); } var eventable = { on: function (event, cb) { $(this).on(event, cb); }, trigger: function (event) { $(this).trigger(event); } } var Function3 = { run: function () { var self = this; setTimeout(function () { ajaxRequest($(".container1")); self.trigger('done'); }, 500); } } var Function4 = { run: function () { var self = this; setTimeout(function () { $(".container1").append("Function4 complete"); self.trigger('done'); },500); } } $.extend(Function3, eventable); $.extend(Function4, eventable); Function3.on('done', function (event) { Function4.run(); }); Function4.on('done', function () { $(".container1").append("All done"); }); Function3.run(); but now the problem is, when I start the code , it always show me the result as : first will appear "Function4 complete", then "All done" follows, 3 seconds later, "Function3 complete" will appear. That's out of my expection because my expection is "Function3 complete" comes first, "Function4 complete" comes second and "All done" is expected as the last one. Anyone can help me on this? thx in advice. EDIT: I have included all the functions above now. Also, you can check the js script in JSFIDDER: http://jsfiddle.net/sporto/FYBjc/light/ I have replaced the function in JSFIDDER from a common array push action to ajax request.

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  • HTTPS causes jQuery to ignore request

    - by Josh
    I have an odd bug, this jQuery code executes correctly when calling the page via HTTP, but once I connect to the page via HTTPS it doesn't execute. The code basically tracks when a link is clicked. <html> <head> <title>Test Page</title> <script type="text/javascript" src="/scripts/jquery-1.4.2.min.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready( function() { $('.fbspb').click(function() { $.get("/services/lt.ashx?ac=fbspb"); return true; }); }); </script> </head> <body> <a href="http://www.facebook.com" class="fbspb" target="_blank">Facebook</a> </body> </html> I've tried updating the URL in the get use a full HTTPS path with no success. No error is raised when I try to HTTPS.

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  • redirecting _top page from asp:login control in iframe onloggedin

    - by jumpdart
    So yeah, Im building a little authenticated content(.NET app) to a large html site managed by another group. They are only comfortable with managing html so all my app content will be contained in iframes. Everything is working fine as far as navigation and calling services and whatnot but i cant bust out of the frame with my asp:login control. Im trying to register some JS on logged in but with no success. Thanks protected void login_LoggedIn(object sender, EventArgs e) { StringBuilder strScript = new StringBuilder(); strScript.Append("<script language='javascript'>"); string sHome = ConfigurationManager.AppSettings["AppHomePageURL"].ToString(); //strScript.AppendFormat("window.navigate('{0}');", sHome); //strScript.AppendFormat("parent.location.href='{0}';", sHome); //strScript.AppendFormat("window.open('{0}', '_top', '', false);", sHome); strScript.AppendFormat("top.location.href='{0}';", sHome); strScript.Append("WTF_let_me_outa_here();"); strScript.Append("</script>"); ClientScript.RegisterClientScriptBlock(typeof(Page), "LoginGO", strScript.ToString()); }

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  • using variable in DATA of getJASON Callback function

    - by asilloo
    Hi, My problem is manage the code which get the tag and use is as variable (var searchterm= ??????). With JSON I want first get the "location" tags with tagthe and show the relate photos from flickr. <!DOCTYPE html> <html> <head> <style>img{ height: 100px; float: left; }</style> <script src="http://code.jquery.com/jquery-latest.min.js"></script> </head> <body> <div id="images"> </div> <script> $.getJSON("http://tagthe.net/api/?url=http://www.knallgrau.at/en&view=json&callback=MyFunc",function(data){ var searchterm=data[location]; }); $.getJSON("http://api.flickr.com/services/feeds/photos_public.gne?tags="+searchterm+"&tagmode=any&format=json&jsoncallback=?", function(data){ $.each(data.items, function(i,item){ $("<img/>").attr("src", item.media.m).appendTo("#images"); if ( i == 3 ) return false; }); });</script> </body> </html>

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  • Ajax request ERROR on IE

    - by tinti
    Hello all! I have a small problem on IE browser (actually on Google Chrome too) I have this js code function createDoc(url) { var xhttp = ajaxRequest(); var currentLocationBase = window.location.href; currentLocationBase = currentLocationBase.substr(0,currentLocationBase.lastIndexOf("/") + 1); var u = currentLocationBase + url; xhttp.open("GET", u, false); xhttp.send(null); var xml = xhttp.responseXML; return xml; } /** * Builds an AJAX reques handler. * * @return The handler. */ function ajaxRequest() { var xhttp = null; if (window.XMLHttpRequest) { xhttp = new XMLHttpRequest(); } else if (window.ActiveXObject){ // Internet Explorer 5/6 xhttp = new ActiveXObject("Microsoft.XMLHTTP"); } else { } return xhttp; } In Firefox this code works great, but not in IE and Google Chrome Seems that the error is given at the line xhttp.open("GET", u, false); Can anyone help me to understand what i'm doing wrong? Thanks

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  • how to trigger a script located on a machine in one domain from a machine on another domain

    - by user326814
    Hi, I am basically from QA. What we testers do each day is 1. Open a web browser. Type in http://11.12.13.27.8080/cruisecontrol (since we are in a particular network, only we can access this) 2. Check if the latest nightly build has been successful. If it is successful, deploy it on a test environment by clicking on 'Deploy this build' link. This deploying takes around 1-1.5 hours. During this time we cannot use our machines to work on anything else. Only after this deploying can we begin to test. Now, i wanted to know if its possible to do the below. When at home in the morning, i use something which will trigger a script (which will be on my machine at workplace). This script will inturn automatically deploy the build. I already have such a similar script. What i want to know is how is it possible to trigger this script from my home machine? Is it even possible? For e.g the external trigger will say "Deploy xxx branch on yyy test environment". So the script on my workplace machine will be invoked and it will automatically deploy it before i actually come to my desk. Please help. I am from QA and have no idea about all this.

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  • Accessing "pseudo-globals" by their name as a string

    - by rob
    I am now in the process of removing most globals from my code by enclosing everything in a function, turning the globals into "pseudo globals," that are all accessible from anywhere inside that function block. (function(){ var g = 1; var func f1 = function () { alert (g); } var func f2= function () { f1(); } })(); (technically this is only for my "release version", where I append all my files together into a single file and surround them with the above....my dev version still has typically one global per js file) This all works great except for one thing...there is one important place where I need to access some of these "globals" by string name. Previously, I could have done this: var name = "g"; alert (window[name]); and it did the same as alert(g); Now -- from inside the block -- I would like to do the same, on my pseudo-globals. But I can't, since they are no longer members of any parent object ("window"), even though are in scope. Any way to access them by string? Thanks...

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  • Automated browser testing: How to test JavaScript in web pages?

    - by Dave
    I am trying to write an application that will test a series of web-pages programmatically. The web pages being tested have JavaScript embedded within them which alter the structure of the HTML when they complete execution. It is then the goal to take the final HTML (post-execution of the embedded JavaScript) and compare it against a known output. Essentially, the Input --- Output for the test application is: URL ---[retrieve HTML]--- HTML ---[execute JS, then compare]--- PASS/FAIL Here is the challenge: I have been unable to find a solution that is able to take the HTML I retrieve from the URL and process the JavaScript, as a browser would, and generate the final HTML a user might see from "View Source" on the same page within the browser. It would be very surprising if this sort of approach has not been made before, so I'm hoping someone out there knows of a fitting solution for this application/problem? If at all possible, I'm hoping for a solution that integrates with .NET (I've tried using the WebBrowser, with no luck). However, if there is an existing 3rd party application that can do exactly this, that would be quite acceptable. Thanks in advance for the suggestions! Dave

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  • (Java) Is there a type of object that can handle anything from primitives to arrays?

    - by Michael
    I'm pretty new to Java, so I'm hoping one of you guys knows how to do this. I'm having the user specify both the type and value of arguments, in any XML-like way, to be passed to methods that are external to my application. Example: javac myAppsName externalJavaClass methodofExternalClass [parameters] Of course, to find the proper method, we have to have the proper parameter types as the method may be overloaded and that's the only way to tell the difference between the different versions. Parameters are currently formatted in this manner: (type)value(/type), e.g. (int)71(/int) (string)This is my string that I'm passing as a parameter!(/string) I parse them, getting the constructor for whatever type is indicated, then execute that constructor by running its method, newInstance(<String value>), loading the new instance into an Object. This works fine and dandy, but as we all know, some methods take arrays, or even multi-dimensional arrays. I could handle the argument formatting like so: (array)(array)(int)0(/int)(int)1(/int)(/array)(array)(int)2(/int)(int)3(/int)(/array)(/array)... or perhaps even better... {{(int)0(/int)(int)1(/int)}{(int)2(/int)(int)3(/int)}}. The question is, how can this be implemented? Do I have to start wrapping everything in an Object[] array so I can handle primitives, etc. as argObj[0], but load an array as I normally would? (Unfortunately, I would have to make it an Object[][] array if I wanted to support two-dimensional arrays. This implementation wouldn't be very pretty.)

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  • Run function in current element by get short code inside

    - by happi
    In stead of adding an ID (IdAddMore) to run script inside ID(widget1) like that : <div class="widget" id="widget1"> <div class="content"> <div id="IdAddMore"></div> <script type='text/javascript'> $("#IdAddMore").selectme({ Numpost:3, Postyle : "Enter your style", }); </script> </div> </div> (widget is added automatically when I add more new widget, It means I can have widget3, widget10, ....Index(3,10..) is any and is not sorted.) Widget is a HTML/JS widget. I want run selectme by short code instead of repeating script in each widget. <div class="widget" id="widget1"> <div class="content"> [3][mystyle] </div> </div> <div class="widget" id="widget50"> <div class="content"> [4][yourstyle] </div> </div> ........... How can I write only script to catch short code in current element is added : I write script below but it does not work. Check for me, thanks your help. <script type='text/javascript'> var getdata = document.getElementsByClassName(".content").innerText || document.getElementById(".content").textContent; var thevalue = []; getdata.replace(/\[(.*?)\]/g, function(g0,g1){thevalue.push(g1);}); $(".widget").selectme({ Numpost:thevalue[0], Postyle: ""+thevalue[1]+"", }); </script>

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  • CodeIgniter subfolders and URI routing

    - by shummel7845
    I’ve read the manual on URI routing and views and something is not clicking with me. In my views folder, I have a subfolder called products. In there is a file called product_view. In my controller, I have: function index() { $data['title'] = 'Product Overview'; $data['main_content'] = 'products/product_view'; $this->load->view('templates/main.php', $data); } The template loads a header view, a footer view and a navigation view, plus the view as a main content variable. In my URI routing, I have: $route['products/product-overview'] = 'products/product_view']; This causes a 404 error when I try to go to domain.com/products/product-overview. Do I need to do something with my .htaccess? If so, what? Here is my .htaccess: Options +FollowSymLinks Options -Indexes DirectoryIndex index.php RewriteEngine on RewriteCond $1 !^(index\.php|resources|images|css|js|robots\.txt|favicon\.ico) RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteRule ^(.*)$ index.php?/$1 [L,QSA] I’d appreciate some specific help, as the documentation isn’t specific on how to address this. I’ve done a little searching in the forums, and didn’t see anything, but I’m posting this while I keep looking.

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  • Getting a `free()` error when deallocating with `delete` in the backtrace

    - by wonko
    I got the following error from gdb: *** glibc detected *** /.root0/autohome/u132/hsreekum/ipopt/ipopt/debug/Ipopt/examples/ex3/ex3: free(): invalid next size (fast): 0x0000000120052b60 *** Here's the backtrace: #0 0x000000555626b264 in raise () from /lib/libc.so.6 #1 0x000000555626cc6c in abort () from /lib/libc.so.6 #2 0x00000055562a7b9c in __libc_message () from /lib/libc.so.6 #3 0x00000055562aeabc in malloc_printerr () from /lib/libc.so.6 #4 0x00000055562b036c in free () from /lib/libc.so.6 #5 0x000000555561ddd0 in Ipopt::TNLPAdapter::~TNLPAdapter () from /home/ba01/u132/hsreekum/ipopt/ipopt/build/lib/libipopt.so.1 #6 0x00000055556a9910 in Ipopt::GradientScaling::~GradientScaling () from /home/ba01/u132/hsreekum/ipopt/ipopt/build/lib/libipopt.so.1 #7 0x00000055557241b8 in Ipopt::OrigIpoptNLP::~OrigIpoptNLP () from /home/ba01/u132/hsreekum/ipopt/ipopt/build/lib/libipopt.so.1 #8 0x00000055556ae7f0 in Ipopt::IpoptAlgorithm::~IpoptAlgorithm () from /home/ba01/u132/hsreekum/ipopt/ipopt/build/lib/libipopt.so.1 #9 0x0000005555602278 in Ipopt::IpoptApplication::~IpoptApplication () from /home/ba01/u132/hsreekum/ipopt/ipopt/build/lib/libipopt.so.1 #10 0x0000005555614428 in FreeIpoptProblem () from /home/ba01/u132/hsreekum/ipopt/ipopt/build/lib/libipopt.so.1 #11 0x0000000120001610 in main () at ex3.c:169` And here's the code for Ipopt::TNLPAdapter::~TNLPAdapter () TNLPAdapter::~TNLPAdapter() { delete [] full_x_; delete [] full_lambda_; delete [] full_g_; delete [] jac_g_; delete [] c_rhs_; delete [] jac_idx_map_; delete [] h_idx_map_; delete [] x_fixed_map_; delete [] findiff_jac_ia_; delete [] findiff_jac_ja_; delete [] findiff_jac_postriplet_; delete [] findiff_x_l_; delete [] findiff_x_u_; } My question is : why does free() throw an error when ~TNLPAdapter() uses delete[]? Also, I would like to step through ~TNLPAdapter() so I can see which deallocation causes the error. I believe the error occurs in the external library (IPOPT) but I have compiled it with debug flags on ; is this sufficient?

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  • Real time content editing html5

    - by Mark Lauzon
    So I've seen things like WordPress and FCKEditor, and basically a bunch of stuff that uses external code that I can't see or edit. Whenever I ask about editing and saving the content of a page in real time I just get referenced to an API or I get handed code that only changes the page until it's reloaded. What I want to know is how do I code it myself? I want to add real time content editing to a page without the use of someone else's code. I've checked out code for various forums and wikipedia and whatnot, and all of it references code I don't have access to. Is this a thing? Can I edit a page in real time? I thought of writing the edited text to a file on the server, and then when they click save, reading it back into the code to the section they were editing, but I don't know how to do that or if it's even possible. As a side note, I'm very new to html, but not new to coding. EDIT: The structure can be very much like Wikipedia, it doesn't have to be real time, it just has to work

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  • Jquery - $.(post) data response not consistent with PHP

    - by Sasha
    Jquery code: var code = $('#code'), id = $('input[name=id]').val(), url = '<?php echo base_url() ?>mali_oglasi/mgl_check_paid'; code.on('focusout', function(){ var code_value = $(this).val(); if(code_value.length != 16 ) { if ($('p[role=code_msg]').length != 0 ) $('p[role=code_msg]').remove() ; code.after('<p role=code_msg>Pogrešan kod je unešen.</p>'); } else { if ($('p[role=code_msg]').length != 0 ) $('p[role=code_msg]').remove() ; $.post(url, {id : id, code : code_value}, function(data){ if(data != 'TRUE'){ code.after('<p role=code_msg>Uneti kod je neispravan.</p>'); } else { code.after('<p role=code_msg>Status malog oglasa je promenjen.</p>'); code.after(create_image()); code.remove(); } }); } }); PHP (Codeigniter) code: function mgl_check_paid() { $code = $this->input->post('code'); $id = $this->input->post('id'); echo ($this->mgl->mgl_check_paid($code, $id)) ? 'TRUE' : 'FALSE'; } Problem is following: When code is sent and if it is correct, PHP part will echo TRUE, and JS will execute ELSE part (after post), but for some reason it is not doing that (it is executing the first part of the statment)? What is wrong with this code?

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  • PHP is truncating MSSQL Blob data (4096b), even after setting INI values. Am I missing one?

    - by Dutchie432
    I am writing a PHP script that goes through a table and extracts the varbinary(max) blob data from each record into an external file. The code is working perfectly, except when a file is over 4096b - the data is truncated at exactly 4096. I've modified the values for mssql.textlimit, mssql.textsize, and odbc.defaultlrl without any success. Am I missing something here? <?php ini_set("mssql.textlimit" , "2147483647"); ini_set("mssql.textsize" , "2147483647"); ini_set("odbc.defaultlrl", "0"); include_once('common.php'); $id=$_REQUEST['i']; $q = odbc_exec($connect, "Select id,filename,documentBin from Projectdocuments where id = $id"); if (odbc_fetch_row($q)){ echo "Trying $filename ... "; $fileName="projectPhotos/docs/".odbc_result($q,"filename"); if (file_exists($fileName)){ unlink($fileName); } if($fh = fopen($fileName, "wb")) { $binData=odbc_result($q,"documentBin"); fwrite($fh, $binData) ; fclose($fh); $size = filesize($fileName); echo ("$fileName<br />Done ($size)<br><br>"); }else { echo ("$fileName Failed<br>"); } } ?> OUTPUT Trying ... projectPhotos/docs/file1.pdf Done (4096) Trying ... projectPhotos/docs/file2.zip Done (4096) Trying ... projectPhotos/docsv3.pdf Done (4096) etc..

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  • Populate an Object Model from a data dataTable(C#3.0)

    - by Newbie
    I have a situation I am getting data from some external sources and is populating into the datatable. The data looks like this DATE WEEK FACTOR 3/26/2010 1 RM_GLOBAL_EQUITY 3/26/2010 1 RM_GLOBAL_GROWTH 3/26/2010 2 RM_GLOBAL_VALUE 3/26/2010 2 RM_GLOBAL_SIZE 3/26/2010 2 RM_GLOBAL_MOMENTUM 3/26/2010 3 RM_GLOBAL_HIST_BETA I have a object model like this public class FactorReturn { public int WeekNo { get; set; } public DateTime WeekDate { get; set; } public Dictionary<string, decimal> FactorCollection { get; set; } } As can be seen that the Date field is always constant. And a single(means unique) week can have multiple FACTORS. i.e. For a date(3/26/2010), for Week No. 1, there are two FACTORS(RM_GLOBAL_EQUITY and RM_GLOBAL_GROWTH). Similarly, For a date(3/26/2010), for Week No. 2, there are three FACTORS(RM_GLOBAL_VALUE , RM_GLOBAL_SIZE and RM_GLOBAL_MOMENTUM ). Now we need to populate this data into our object model. The final output will be WeekDate: 3/26/2010 WeekNo : 1 FactorCollection : RM_GLOBAL_EQUITY FactorCollection : RM_GLOBAL_GROWTH WeekNo : 2 FactorCollection : RM_GLOBAL_VALUE FactorCollection : RM_GLOBAL_SIZE FactorCollection : RM_GLOBAL_MOMENTUM WeekNo : 3 FactorCollection : RM_GLOBAL_HIST_BETA That is, overall only 1 single collection, where the Factor type will vary depending on week numbers. I have tried but of useless. Nothing works. Could you please help me?. I feel it is very tough I am using C# 3.0 Thanks

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  • Wordpress curl save Images

    - by Jeton Ramadani
    I am working on saving images from external sites into a folder in my wordpress theme. And I was wondering if its Ok to call curl twice or can it be done with one time. Example: $data = get_url('http://www.veoh.com/watch/v19935546Y8hZPgbZ'); // getting the url first curl instance preg_match('/fullHighResImagePath="(.*?)"/', $data, $thumbnail); // find the image from content savePhoto($thumbnail, $post->ID); //2nd instance of curl to save the image function get_url($url) { $user_agent = "Mozilla/5.0 (Windows; U; Windows NT 6.1; en-US; rv:1.9.2)"; $ytc = curl_init(); // initialize curl handle curl_setopt($ytc, CURLOPT_URL, $url); // set url to post to curl_setopt($ytc, CURLOPT_FAILONERROR, 1); // Fail on errors curl_setopt($ytc, CURLOPT_FOLLOWLOCATION, 1); // allow redirects curl_setopt($ytc, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, 1); // return into a variable curl_setopt($ytc, CURLOPT_PORT, 80); //Set the port number curl_setopt($ytc, CURLOPT_TIMEOUT, 15); // times out after 15s curl_setopt($ytc, CURLOPT_HEADER, 1); // include HTTP headers curl_setopt($ytc, CURLOPT_USERAGENT, $user_agent); $source = curl_exec($ytc); curl_close($ytc); $data = trim( $source ); return $data; } function savePhoto($remoteImage, $isbn) { $ch = curl_init(); curl_setopt ($ch, CURLOPT_URL, $remoteImage); curl_setopt ($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, 1); curl_setopt ($ch, CURLOPT_CONNECTTIMEOUT, 0); $fileContents = curl_exec($ch); curl_close($ch); if (DIRECTORY_SEPARATOR=='/'){ $absolute_path = dirname(__FILE__).'/'; } else { $absolute_path = str_replace('\\', '/', dirname(__FILE__)).'/'; } $newImg = imagecreatefromstring($fileContents); return imagejpeg($newImg, $absolute_path ."video_images/{$isbn}.jpg",100); }

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  • Make a div content (googlemap) fullscreen

    - by lena2211
    Hi iam trying to make a button that will turn the googlemap div into fullscreen.. this is what i have untill now, but it is not working correctly .. problem is: the map will only half loaded the code is below, and a screenshot how can i repair this? where is the problem? thanks in advance http://img32.imageshack.us/img32/9365/halfload.gif <html> <head> <meta name="viewport" content="initial-scale=1.0, user-scalable=no" /> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://maps.google.com/maps/api/js?sensor=false"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> function initialize() { var latlng = new google.maps.LatLng(-34.397, 150.644); var myOptions = { zoom: 8, center: latlng, mapTypeId: google.maps.MapTypeId.ROADMAP }; var map = new google.maps.Map(document.getElementById("map_canvas"), myOptions); } function fs() { var elem = document.getElementById("map_canvas"); elem.style.position="absolute"; elem.style.width="100%"; elem.style.height="100%"; elem.style.top="0px"; document.body.style.overflow = "hidden"; } </script> </head> <body onload="initialize()"> <div id="map_canvas" style="width:400px; height:300px"></div> <a href="#" onclick ="fs()">makefullscreen</a> </body> </html>

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  • Make All Types Constant by Default in C++

    - by Jon Purdy
    What is the simplest and least obtrusive way to indicate to the compiler, whether by means of compiler options, #defines, typedefs, or templates, that every time I say T, I really mean T const? I would prefer not to make use of an external preprocessor. Since I don't use the mutable keyword, that would be acceptable to repurpose to indicate mutable state. Potential (suboptimal) solutions so far: // I presume redefinition of keywords is implementation-defined or illegal. #define int int const #define ptr * const int i(0); int ptr j(&i); typedef int const Int; typedef int const* const Intp; Int i(0); Intp j(&i); template<class T> struct C { typedef T const type; typedef T const* const ptr; }; C<int>::type i(0); C<int>::ptr j(&i);

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  • Travelling software. Is that a concept?

    - by Bubba88
    Hi! This is barely a sensible question. I would like to ask if there existed a program, which were intended to travel (for example following some physical forces) across the planet, possibly occupying and freeing computational resources/nodes. Literally that means that some agent-based system is just regularly changing it's location and (inevitably to some extent) configuration. An example would be: suppose you have external sensors, and free computers - nodes - across the space; would it make sense to self-replicate agents to follow the initializers from sensors, but in such restrictive manner that the computation is only localized at where the physical business is going on. I want to stress that this question is just for 'theoretical' fun, cause I cannot see any practical benefits of the restrictions mentioned, apart from the optimization of 'outdated' (outplaced?) agent disposal. But maybe it could be of some interest. Thank you! EDIT: It's obvious that a virus is fitting example, although the deletion of such agents is rarely of concern of the developers. More precisely, I'm interested in 'travelling' software - that is, when the count (or at least order) of the agents is kind of constant, and it's just the whole system who travels.

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  • Application crash

    - by Ovi
    I have an application that, as any other app, crashes once in a while for various reasons. When it crashes, it does it gracefully and the users get a nice message of the crash. At the same time the crash is reported on the server for analysis so it can be fixed in future versions. However, I would like that the app keeps working through the crash. What that means is that I would like to run the forms in an 'atomic' way. If it goes down, it doesn't take down the entire app. The users should just need to start over the work done with the particular form. Is this something that can be done through architecture? Or maybe the new framework versions has something to aid this? The application is build mostly in C# over the 3.5 framework, but it also uses some external references, some COMs and web service references. I am not interested in an answer: 'well fix the crashes'. Me and my team and the testing team are working round the clock for this.

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  • Sanitizing user input before adding it to the DOM in Javascript

    - by I GIVE TERRIBLE ADVICE
    I'm writing the JS for a chat application I'm working on in my free time, and I need to have HTML identifiers that change according to user submitted data. This is usually something conceptually shaky enough that I would not even attempt it, but I don't see myself having much of a choice this time. What I need to do then is to escape the HTML id to make sure it won't allow for XSS or breaking HTML. Here's the code: var user_id = escape(id) var txt = '<div class="chut">'+ '<div class="log" id="chut_'+user_id+'"></div>'+ '<textarea id="chut_'+user_id+'_msg"></textarea>'+ '<label for="chut_'+user_id+'_to">To:</label>'+ '<input type="text" id="chut_'+user_id+'_to" value='+user_id+' readonly="readonly" />'+ '<input type="submit" id="chut_'+user_id+'_send" value="Message"/>'+ '</div>'; What would be the best way to escape id to avoid any kind of problem mentioned above? As you can see, right now I'm using the built-in escape() function, but I'm not sure of how good this is supposed to be compared to other alternatives. I'm mostly used to sanitizing input before it goes in a text node, not an id itself.

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  • ObjectDataSource firing twice, or on its own

    - by LoveMeSomeCode
    Can someone explain exactly how/when an ObjectDataSource fires? I have an ASP.NET page, with a GridView, which is referencing an ODS. I put a breakpoint in the method the ODS is using, and noticed it was firing twice. I looked into the code and the answer seemed obvious at first. I had Page_Load() { if(!Page.IsPostBack) { MethodA(); MethodB(); } } where MethodA and MethodB were both eventually calling gv.DataBind(). This made sense because I assume that each call to GridView.DataBind() would result in asking the ODS for data, and therefore running my data access method. The weird thing is that when comment out the call to MethodA, it still fires twice. Checking the call stack shows the method being run first as a result of MethodB, and then again, with no trail except [External Code]. This mystery load does not happen when I let MethodA and MethodB both execute. Any idea what's going on here? Any idea what other code I might have that is asking the ODS for data? I'm starting to think all these 'no code' data controls are more obfuscation and BS than they're worth.

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  • Getting a Script Error Every Time I Click a Link

    - by Flip4Life
    I have everything working perfectly on my site, but for some reason, I get an error message in console whenever I click a link anywhere on my site. The error has to do with this line of coding here: jQuery(function($){ $('.navbar a, .scroll a, .smoothscroll a').bind('click',function(event){ var $anchor = $(this); $('html, body').stop().animate({ scrollTop: $($anchor.attr('href')).offset().top }, 850,'easeInOutExpo'); event.preventDefault(); }); }); And the error I am getting is this: "SCRIPT5007: Unable to get value of the property 'top': object is null or undefined custom.min.js, line 6 character 197" The exact code it is highlighting is this part of the above code: $('html, body').stop().animate({ scrollTop: $($anchor.attr('href')).offset().top }, 850,'easeInOutExpo') All I know is that when I remove the above code, my scroll-to links stop working on pages such as these: http://www.northtownsremodeling.com/things-to-know.php You can see the popup error happen and stay in the console easily by going to a page with a filter like this: http://www.northtownsremodeling.com/bathroom/ And clicking one of the filter buttons. Ultimately, I am trying to make it so my scroll-to setting still works, but not have that error come up anymore. I made this script a long time ago, and I'm really confused as to what could be causing this error when everything is functioning perfectly otherwise? Thanks!

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  • How to use scrollTop in jQuery when scrolling within a div?

    - by sharataka
    I am trying to get the scrollTop using jQuery to work when the content I am trying to scroll to is located in within a div. The current implementation doesn't do anything javascript <script src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.5.1/jquery.min.js"></script> <script> $(document).ready(function (){ //$(this).animate(function(){ $('html, body').animate({ scrollTop: $("#test4").offset().top }, 2000); //}); }); </script> html <div class="row"> <div class = "span12"> <div class = "row"> <div class = "span2"> <div style="height:480px;font:12px Georgia, Garamond, Serif;overflow:auto;"> <div id = "test1">Test1</div> <div id = "test2">Test2</div> <div id = "test3">Test3</div> <div id = "test4">Test4</div> </div> </div> <div class = "row"> <div class = "span8"> Other content on the page </div> </div> </div> </div> </div>

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