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  • ASP.Net FormsAuthentication Redirect Loses the cookie between Redirect and Application_AuthenticateR

    - by Joel Etherton
    I have a FormsAuthentication cookie that is persistent and works independently in a development, test, and production environment. I have a user that can authenticate, the user object is created, the authentication cookie is added to the response: 'Custom object to grab the TLD from the url authCookie.Domain = myTicketModule.GetTopLevelDomain(Request.ServerVariables("HTTP_HOST")) FormsAuthentication.SetAuthCookie(authTicket.Name, False) Response.SetCookie(authCookie) The user gets processed a little bit to check for a first time login, security questions, etc, and is then redirected with the following tidbit: Session.Add("ForceRedirect", "/FirstTimeLogin.aspx") Response.Redirect("~/FirstTimeLogin.aspx", True) With a debug break, I can verify that the cookie collection holds both a cookie not related to authentication that I set for a different purpose and the formsauthentication cookie. Then the next step in the process occurs at the ApplicationAuthenticateRequest in the global.asax: Sub Application_AuthenticateRequest(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As EventArgs) Dim formsCookieName As String = myConfigurationManager.AppSettings("FormsCookieName") Dim authCookie As HttpCookie = Request.Cookies(formsCookieName) At this point, for this ONE user authCookie is nothing. I have 15,000 other users who are not impacted in this manner. However, for one user the cookie just vanishes without a trace. I've seen this before with w3wp.exe exceptions, state server exceptions and other IIS process related exceptions, but I'm getting no exceptions in the event log. w3wp.exe is not crashing, the state server has some timeouts but they appear unrelated (as verified by timestamps) and it only happens to this one user on this one domain (this code is used across 2 different TLDs with approximately 10 other subdomains). One avenue I'm investigating is that the cookie might just be too large. I would think that there would be a check for the size of the cookie going into the response, and I wouldn't think it would impact it this way. Any ideas why the request might dumping the cookie? NOTE: The secondary cookie I mentioned that I set also gets dumped (and it's very tiny). EDIT-NOTE: The session token is NOT lost when this happens. However, since the authentication cookie is lost, it is ignored and replaced on a subsequent login.

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  • C# WPF XAML DataTable binding to relation

    - by LnDCobra
    I have 2 tables: COmpany {CompanyID, CompanyName} Deal {CompanyID, Value} And I have a listbox: <ListBox Name="Deals" Height="100" Width="420" Margin="0,20,0,0" HorizontalAlignment="Left" VerticalAlignment="Top" Visibility="Visible" IsSynchronizedWithCurrentItem="True" ItemsSource="{Binding}" SelectionChanged="Deals_SelectionChanged"> <ListBox.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <StackPanel Orientation="Horizontal"> <TextBlock Text="{Binding companyRowByBuyFromCompanyFK.CompanyName}" FontWeight="Bold" /> <TextBlock Text=" -> TGS -> " /> <TextBlock Text="{Binding BuyFrom}" FontWeight="Bold" /> </StackPanel> </DataTemplate> </ListBox.ItemTemplate> </ListBox> As you can see, I want to display the CompanyName rather then the ID which is a foreign Key. The relation "companyRowByBuyFromCompanyFK" exists, as in Deals_SelectionChanged I can access companyRowByBuyFromCompanyFK property of the Deals row, and I also can access the CompanyName propert of that row. Is the reason why this is not working because XAML binding uses the [] indexer? Rather than properties on the CompanyRows in my DataTable? At the moment im getting values such as - TGS - 3 - TGS - 4 Any ideas? Edit: I still can't get this to work, What would be the best way to accomplish this? Make a converter to convert foreign keys using Table being referenced as custom parameter. Create Table View for each table? This would be long winded as I have quite a large number of tables that have foreign keys.

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  • How to get friendly device name from DEV_BROADCAST_DEVICEINTERFACE and Device Instance ID

    - by snicker
    I've registered a window with RegisterDeviceNotification and can successfully recieve DEV_BROADCAST_DEVICEINTERFACE messages. However, the dbcc_name field in the returned struct is always empty. The struct I have is defined as such: [StructLayout(LayoutKind.Sequential)] public struct DEV_BROADCAST_DEVICEINTERFACE { public int dbcc_size; public int dbcc_devicetype; public int dbcc_reserved; public Guid dbcc_classguid; [MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.LPStr)] public string dbcc_name; } And I'm using Marshal.PtrToStructure on the LParam of the WM_DEVICECHANGE message. Should this be working? Or even better... Is there an alternative way to get the name of a device upon connection? EDIT (02/05/2010 20:56GMT): I found out how to get the dbcc_name field to populate by doing this: [StructLayout(LayoutKind.Sequential, CharSet = CharSet.Auto)] public struct DEV_BROADCAST_DEVICEINTERFACE { public int dbcc_size; public int dbcc_devicetype; public int dbcc_reserved; public Guid dbcc_classguid; [MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.ByValTStr, SizeConst=255)] public string dbcc_name; } but I still need a way to get a "Friendly" name from what is int dbcc_name. It looks like the following: \?\USB#VID_05AC&PID_1294&MI_00#0#{6bdd1fc6-810f-11d0-bec7-08002be2092f} And I really just want it to say "Apple iPhone" (which is what the device is in this case).

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  • I/O error(socket error): [Errno 111] Connection refused

    - by Schitti
    I have a program that uses urllib to periodically fetch a url, and I see intermittent errors like : I/O error(socket error): [Errno 111] Connection refused. It works 90% of the time, but the othe r10% it fails. If retry the fetch immediately after it fails, it succeeds. I'm unable to figure out why this is so. I tried to see if any ports are available, and they are. Any debugging ideas? For additional info, the stack trace is: File "/usr/lib/python2.6/urllib.py", line 235, in retrieve fp = self.open(url, data) File "/usr/lib/python2.6/urllib.py", line 203, in open return getattr(self, name)(url) File "/usr/lib/python2.6/urllib.py", line 342, in open_http h.endheaders() File "/usr/lib/python2.6/httplib.py", line 868, in endheaders self._send_output() File "/usr/lib/python2.6/httplib.py", line 740, in _send_output self.send(msg) File "/usr/lib/python2.6/httplib.py", line 699, in send self.connect() File "/usr/lib/python2.6/httplib.py", line 683, in connect self.timeout) File "/usr/lib/python2.6/socket.py", line 512, in create_connection raise error, msg Edit - A google search isn't very helpful, what I got out of it is that the server I'm fetching from sometimes refuses connections, how can I verify its not a bug in my code and this is indeed the case?

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  • UIButton in UITableViewCell events not working

    - by Tristan
    I see this problem all over the net, and none of the solutions listed work for me! I have added UIButton to a UITableViewCell in IB. I have assigned a custom UITableViewCell class to the UITableViewCell. My custom UITableViewCell class has an IBAction that im connecting to the Touch Up Inside event (I have tried other events they all don't work) but the IBAction function is never called! There is nothing else in the UITableViewCell, I have added the UIButton directly into the Content View. And everything has user interaction enabled! It is as simple as that I have nothing complex going on! What is is about a UITableViewCell that stops buttons working? EDIT: By request the code where I initialize my UITableViewCells the custom class is called DownloadCell - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)aTableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { static NSString *CellIdentifier = @"DownloadCell"; DownloadCell *cell = (DownloadCell *)[aTableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:CellIdentifier]; if (cell == nil) { UIViewController * cellController = [[UIViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"DownloadCell" bundle:nil]; cell = (DownloadCell *)cellController.view; [cellController release]; } SoundLibrarianIPhoneAppDelegate * del = (SoundLibrarianIPhoneAppDelegate *)[UIApplication sharedApplication].delegate; DownloadQueue * dq = del.downloadQueue; DownloadJob * job = [dq getDownloadJob: indexPath.row]; [job setDelegate:self]; SoundInfo * info = [job sound]; NSArray * seperated = [info.fileName componentsSeparatedByString: @"."]; NSString * displayName = [seperated objectAtIndex:0]; displayName = [displayName stringByReplacingOccurrencesOfString:@"_" withString:@" "]; displayName = [displayName capitalizedString]; [cell.titleLabel setText: displayName]; cell.progressBar.progress = job.percentCompleted; [cell.progressLabel setText: [job getProgessText]]; cell.selectionStyle = UITableViewCellSelectionStyleNone; cell.userInteractionEnabled = YES; [cell setDelegate:self]; return cell; }

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  • Ajax Asynchronous in IE - Error "The Data Necessary to Complete This Operation is Not Yet Available"

    - by Supernovah
    Hey there. I have a 100% valid Ajax model written in Javascript with a few inputs I use being, Get or Post method, What page to communicate with, What String to send to that page and What element on my own page I might be fiddling with when I receive my response. The problem is that, should I set the request to Asynchronous (Hence Ajax), IE returns the error "The Data Necessary to Complete This Operation is Not Yet Available" in the onreadystatechange event where all I do is check if the readystate is 4 and the status is 200. The error doesn't come up in Firefox or Chrome as I would exepect as the Ajax is Asynchronous. Heres a snippet from the Post method xmlhttp.open("POST", commPage, true); xmlhttp.setRequestHeader("Content-Type","application/x-www-form-urlencoded; charset=UTF-8"); xmlhttp.onreadystatechange = function() { if (xmlhttp.readyState == 4 && xmlhttp.status == 200) { j = xmlhttp.responseText; i.innerHTML = j; } } xmlhttp.send(str); Edit: I should point out that in IE, I'm using the ActiveX Control - Msxml2.XMLHTTP or Microsoft.XMLHTTP or whichever returns true first.

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  • Developer certificate vs purchased certificate for WCF

    - by RemotecUk
    I understsand that if I want to use authentication in WCF then I need to install a certificate on my server which WCF will use to encrypt data passing between my server and client. For development purposes I believe I can use the makecert.exe util. to make a development certificate. What is the worst that can happen if I use this certificate on the production environment? and... Why cant I use this certificate on the production environment? and ... What is the certificate actually going to do in this scenario? [Edit: Added another question] finally... In a scenario where the website has a certificate installed to provide HTTPS support can the same certificate be used for the WCF services as well? Note on my application: Its a NetTCP client and server service. The users will log in using the same username and password which they use for the website which is passed in clear text. I would be happy to pass the u/n + p/w in cleartext to WCF but this isnt allowed by the framework and a certificate must be in place. However, I dont want to buy an certificate due to budget constraints! (Sorry for the possibly stupid question but I really dont understand this so would welcome some help with this).

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  • What's the best way to refresh a UITableView within a UINavigationController hierarchy

    - by Steve Neal
    Hi, I'm pretty new to iPhone development and have struggled to find what I consider to be a neat way around this problem. I have a user interface where a summary of record data is displayed in a table inside a navigation controller. When the user clicks the accessory button for a row, a new view is pushed onto the navigation controller revealing a view where the user can edit the data in the corresponding record. Once done, the editing view is popped from the navigation controller's stack and the user is returned to the table view. My problem is that when the user returns to the table view, the table still shows the state of the data before the record was edited. I must therefore reload the table data to show the changes. It doesn't seem possible to reload the table data before it is displayed as the call only updates displayed records. Reloading it after the table has been displayed results in the old data changing before the user's eyes, which I'm not too happy with. This seems to me like a pretty normal thing to want to do in an iPhone app. Can anyone please suggest the best practice approach to doing this? I feel like I'm missing something. Cheers - Steve.

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  • Change the default SqlCommand CommandTimeout with configuration rather than recompile?

    - by robertc
    I am supporting an ASP.Net 3.5 web application and users are experiencing a timeout error after 30 seconds when trying to run a report. Looking around the web it seems it's easy enough to change the timeout in the code, unfortunately I'm not able to access the code and recompile. Is there anyway to configure the default for either the web app, the worker process, IIS or the whole machine? Here is the stack trace up to the point where it's in System.Data in case I'm missing some other problem: [SqlException (0x80131904): Timeout expired. The timeout period elapsed prior to completion of the operation or the server is not responding.] System.Data.SqlClient.SqlConnection.OnError(SqlException exception, Boolean breakConnection) +1948826 System.Data.SqlClient.SqlInternalConnection.OnError(SqlException exception, Boolean breakConnection) +4844747 System.Data.SqlClient.TdsParser.ThrowExceptionAndWarning(TdsParserStateObject stateObj) +194 System.Data.SqlClient.TdsParser.Run(RunBehavior runBehavior, SqlCommand cmdHandler, SqlDataReader dataStream, BulkCopySimpleResultSet bulkCopyHandler, TdsParserStateObject stateObj) +2392 System.Data.SqlClient.SqlDataReader.ConsumeMetaData() +33 System.Data.SqlClient.SqlDataReader.get_MetaData() +83 System.Data.SqlClient.SqlCommand.FinishExecuteReader(SqlDataReader ds, RunBehavior runBehavior, String resetOptionsString) +297 System.Data.SqlClient.SqlCommand.RunExecuteReaderTds(CommandBehavior cmdBehavior, RunBehavior runBehavior, Boolean returnStream, Boolean async) +954 System.Data.SqlClient.SqlCommand.RunExecuteReader(CommandBehavior cmdBehavior, RunBehavior runBehavior, Boolean returnStream, String method, DbAsyncResult result) +162 System.Data.SqlClient.SqlCommand.RunExecuteReader(CommandBehavior cmdBehavior, RunBehavior runBehavior, Boolean returnStream, String method) +32 System.Data.SqlClient.SqlCommand.ExecuteReader(CommandBehavior behavior, String method) +141 System.Data.SqlClient.SqlCommand.ExecuteDbDataReader(CommandBehavior behavior) +12 System.Data.Common.DbCommand.System.Data.IDbCommand.ExecuteReader(CommandBehavior behavior) +10 System.Data.Common.DbDataAdapter.FillInternal(DataSet dataset, DataTable[] datatables, Int32 startRecord, Int32 maxRecords, String srcTable, IDbCommand command, CommandBehavior behavior) +130 System.Data.Common.DbDataAdapter.Fill(DataTable[] dataTables, Int32 startRecord, Int32 maxRecords, IDbCommand command, CommandBehavior behavior) +162 System.Data.Common.DbDataAdapter.Fill(DataTable dataTable) +115 --Edit There must be something outside the code itself - I've downloaded the database and run it against the same web site installed on a test server and it runs for longer than 30 seconds and returns the report. I've compared the machine.config and web.config files from the .Net directory on the live and test and they seem the same, compared the two IIS setups, also looked at the SQL Server configuration and the only difference is that the live server is clustered on 64bit W2K3 while the test server is on 32bit.

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  • Problem with Informix JDBC, MONEY and decimal separator in string literals

    - by Michal Niklas
    I have problem with JDBC application that uses MONEY data type. When I insert into MONEY column: insert into _money_test (amt) values ('123.45') I got exception: Character to numeric conversion error The same SQL works from native Windows application using ODBC driver. I live in Poland and have Polish locale and in my country comma separates decimal part of number, so I tried: insert into _money_test (amt) values ('123,45') And it worked. I checked that in PreparedStatement I must use dot separator: 123.45. And of course I can use: insert into _money_test (amt) values (123.45) But some code is "general", it imports data from csv file and it was safe to put number into string literal. How to force JDBC to use DBMONEY (or simply dot) in literals? My workstation is WinXP. I have ODBC and JDBC Informix client in version 3.50 TC5/JC5. I have set DBMONEY to just dot: DBMONEY=. EDIT: Test code in Jython: import sys import traceback from java.sql import DriverManager from java.lang import Class Class.forName("com.informix.jdbc.IfxDriver") QUERY = "insert into _money_test (amt) values ('123.45')" def test_money(driver, db_url, usr, passwd): try: print("\n\n%s\n--------------" % (driver)) db = DriverManager.getConnection(db_url, usr, passwd) c = db.createStatement() c.execute("delete from _money_test") c.execute(QUERY) rs = c.executeQuery("select amt from _money_test") while (rs.next()): print('[%s]' % (rs.getString(1))) rs.close() c.close() db.close() except: print("there were errors!") s = traceback.format_exc() sys.stderr.write("%s\n" % (s)) print(QUERY) test_money("com.informix.jdbc.IfxDriver", 'jdbc:informix-sqli://169.0.1.225:9088/test:informixserver=ol_225;DB_LOCALE=pl_PL.CP1250;CLIENT_LOCALE=pl_PL.CP1250;charSet=CP1250', 'informix', 'passwd') test_money("sun.jdbc.odbc.JdbcOdbcDriver", 'jdbc:odbc:test', 'informix', 'passwd') Results when I run money literal with dot and comma: C:\db_examples>jython ifx_jdbc_money.py insert into _money_test (amt) values ('123,45') com.informix.jdbc.IfxDriver -------------- [123.45] sun.jdbc.odbc.JdbcOdbcDriver -------------- there were errors! Traceback (most recent call last): File "ifx_jdbc_money.py", line 16, in test_money c.execute(QUERY) SQLException: java.sql.SQLException: [Informix][Informix ODBC Driver][Informix]Character to numeric conversion error C:\db_examples>jython ifx_jdbc_money.py insert into _money_test (amt) values ('123.45') com.informix.jdbc.IfxDriver -------------- there were errors! Traceback (most recent call last): File "ifx_jdbc_money.py", line 16, in test_money c.execute(QUERY) SQLException: java.sql.SQLException: Character to numeric conversion error sun.jdbc.odbc.JdbcOdbcDriver -------------- [123.45]

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  • Oracle & Active Directory : A love/hate relationship

    - by Frank
    Hi SO'ers, I'm currently trying to access Active Directory via the dbms_ldap API in Pl/Sql (Oracle). The trouble is that I'm not able to connect with my own username and password or anynoymously. However, in C# I can connect anonymously with this code : DirectoryEntry ldap = new DirectoryEntry("LDAP://Hostname"); DirectorySearcher searcher = new DirectorySearcher(ldap); searcher.Filter = "(SAMAccountName=username)"; SearchResult result = searcher.FindOne(); If I try to connect anonymously in Oracle, I only get the error(ORA-31202 : LDAP client/server error) when I try to search (and the result code for the bind is SUCCESS)... my_session := dbms_ldap.init('HOST','389'); retval := dbms_ldap.simple_bind_s(my_session, '', ''); retval := dbms_ldap.search_s(my_session, ldap_base, dbms_ldap.scope_subtree, 'objectclass=*', my_attrs, 0, my_message); Why is the anonymous connection is C# works but doesn't work in Pl/Sql? Do you have any other idea to connect to Active Directory via Oracle? Help me reunite them together. Thanks. Edit When I bind with anonymous credentials I get : ORA-31202: DBMS_LDAP: LDAP client/server error 00000000: LdapErr: DSID-0C090627, comment: In order to perform this operation a successful bind must be completed on the connection And if I try to connect with my credentials, which are supposed to be valid since I'm connected to the domain with it... I get : ORA-31202: DBMS_LDAP: LDAP client/server error Invalid credentials 80090308: LdapErr: DSID-0C090334, comment: AcceptSecurityContext error

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  • How to get record value from LinqDataSource via Code Behind

    - by rockinthesixstring
    I've got a LinqDataSource that retrieves a single record. Protected Sub LinqDataSource1_Selecting(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.Web.UI.WebControls.LinqDataSourceSelectEventArgs) Handles LinqDataSource1.Selecting Dim BizForSaleDC As New DAL.BizForSaleDataContext e.Result = BizForSaleDC.bt_BizForSale_GetByID(e.WhereParameters("ID")).FirstOrDefault End Sub I'd like to be able to retrieve the values of said DataSource using the Page_Load function. Protected Sub Page_Load(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As EventArgs) Handles Me.Load 'Get the right usercontrol' Dim ctrl As UserControl Select Case DataBinder.Eval(LINQDATASOURCE_SOMETHING.DataItem, "AdType") Case 1 : ctrl = DirectCast(Me.FindControl("Default1"), UserControl) Case 2 : ctrl = DirectCast(Me.FindControl("Default1"), UserControl) Case 3 : ctrl = DirectCast(Me.FindControl("ValuPro1"), UserControl) Case 4 : ctrl = DirectCast(Me.FindControl("ValuPro1"), UserControl) Case Else : ctrl = Nothing End Select 'set the control to visible' ctrl.Visible = True End Sub But obviously the code above doesn't work... I'm just wondering if there's a way to make it work. Here is the full markup <body> <form id="form1" runat="server"> <asp:LinqDataSource ID="LinqDataSource1" runat="server"> <WhereParameters> <asp:QueryStringParameter ConvertEmptyStringToNull="true" Name="ID" QueryStringField="ID" Type="Int32" /> </WhereParameters> </asp:LinqDataSource> <uc:Default ID="Default1" runat="server" Visible="false" /> <uc:ValuPro ID="ValuPro1" runat="server" Visible="false" /> </form> </body> </html> Basically what happens is the appropriate usercontrol is enabled and that usercontrol inherits the LinqDataSource and displays the appropriate information. EDIT: It's working now with the code below, however, since I'm really not into hitting the database multiple times for the same info, I'd prefer to get the value from the DataSource. 'Query the database' Dim _ID As Integer = Convert.ToInt32(Request.QueryString("ID")) Dim BizForSaleDC As New BizForSaleDataContext Dim results = BizForSaleDC.bt_BizForSale_GetByID(_ID).FirstOrDefault 'Get the right usercontrol' Dim ctrl As UserControl Select Case results.AdType Case 1 : ctrl = DirectCast(Me.FindControl("Default1"), UserControl) Case 2 : ctrl = DirectCast(Me.FindControl("Default1"), UserControl) Case 3 : ctrl = DirectCast(Me.FindControl("ValuPro1"), UserControl) Case 4 : ctrl = DirectCast(Me.FindControl("ValuPro1"), UserControl) Case Else : ctrl = Nothing End Select

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  • How to let Tomcat publish WSDL for the WS it provides (CXF 2.2, Spring 3, Tomcat6)

    - by Zwei Steinen
    Hi, I am trying to implement a simple web service provider using Tomcat6, CXF 2.2, Spring 3, and actually the service itself runs fine (I can call web methods using the original WSDL and SoapUI). However, Tomcat returns a blank page on "?wsdl" requests. Also, when I try to manipulate the (would-be) published WSDL by adding a publishedEndpointURL property to the jaxws:endpoint element, Tomcat will issue a XML parse exception (something like property publishedEndpointURL is not allowed in element jaxws:endpoint) <jaxws:endpoint id="service" implementor="org.sample.ServiceImpl" implementorClass="org.sample.ServiceImpl" address="/service" publishedEndpointURL="http://localhost:8080/MyService/service"> I used "contract first" style. EDIT: What I did so far: Setup tomcat6 with Spring3 Generate CXF implementation class by using maven Provide web.xml (only relevant part shown) <listener> <listener-class>org.springframework.web.context.ContextLoaderListener </listener-class> </listener> <servlet> <servlet-name>cxf</servlet-name> <servlet-class> org.apache.cxf.transport.servlet.CXFServlet </servlet-class> <load-on-startup>1</load-on-startup> </servlet> <servlet-mapping> <servlet-name>cxf</servlet-name> <url-pattern>/*</url-pattern> </servlet-mapping> Provide applicationContext.xml (only relevant part is shown) Package generated stuff into war and deploy

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  • Retrieving the COM class factory for component error while generating word document

    - by TheDPQ
    Hello, I am trying to edit a word document from VB.NET using for the most part this code: How to automate Word from Visual Basic .NET to create a new document http://support.microsoft.com/kb/316383 It works fine on my machine but when i publish to the server i get the following error. Retrieving the COM class factory for component with CLSID {000209FF-0000-0000-C000-000000000046} failed due to the following error: 80070005. Description: An unhandled exception occurred during the execution of the current web request. Please review the stack trace for more information about the error and where it originated in the code. Exception Details: System.UnauthorizedAccessException: Retrieving the COM class factory for component with CLSID {000209FF-0000-0000-C000-000000000046} failed due to the following error: 80070005. The actual error happens when i try to just create a word application object Dim oWord As New Word.Application Using Visual Studio 2008 and VB.NET 3.5. I made a reference to the "Microsoft Word 10.0 Object Library" and i see Interop.Word.dll file in the bin directory. Using MS Office 2003 on development machine and Windows Server 2003 Still fairly new to .NET and don't have much knowledge about window server, but "UnauthorizedAccessException" sounds like a permission issue. I'm wondering if someone could point me in the right direction on what i might need to do to give my little application access to use word. Thank you so much for your time.

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  • File path for J2ME FileConnection?

    - by Kilnr
    Hi, I'm writing a MIDlet which needs to write file. I'm using FileConnection from JSR-75 to accomplish this. The intention is to have this MIDlet runnning on as much devices as possible (all MIDP 2.0 devices with JSR-75 support, ideally). On several emulators and an HTC Touch Pro2, I can perfectly use the following code to get the root of the filesystem: Enumeration drives = FileSystemRegistry.listRoots(); String root = (String) drives.nextElement(); String path = "file:///" + root; However, on a Nokia S60 5th edition emulator, trying to open a FileConnection to this path throws a java.lang.SecurityException. Apparently S60 devices do not allow connections to the root of the filesystem. I realise I can use something like System.getProperty("fileconn.dir.photos"), but that isn't supported on all devices either. So, my actual question: what is the best approach to get a path to create a FileConnection with, that allows for maximum portability? Thanks. Edit: I suppose I could iterate over all the roots in the Enumeration, and check for a writable one, but that's hardly optimal for two reasons. First, there aren't necessarily any writable roots. Second, this could be the phone memory or a memory card, so the storage method wouldn't be consistent across devices, which is rather ugly.

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  • OAuthWebSecurity.VerifyAuthentication IsSuccessful returns false how do I to determine the reason?

    - by Eonasdan
    I'm using DotNetOpenAuth with a MVC 4 application. All the sudden Google auth is failing (MS is working). The stock code does this: [AllowAnonymous] public ActionResult ExternalLoginCallback(string returnUrl) { var result = OAuthWebSecurity.VerifyAuthentication(Url.Action("ExternalLoginCallback", new { ReturnUrl = returnUrl })); if (!result.IsSuccessful) { return RedirectToAction("ExternalLoginFailure"); } I know that result.IsSuccessful is false, but how do I get the reason? result.Error is null. I also looked at this page to use log4net. I do get a log on the local dev box but not when I deploy it to a remote server. log4net webconfig: <log4net> <appender name="RollingFileAppender" type="log4net.Appender.RollingFileAppender"> <file value="RelyingParty.log" /> <appendToFile value="true" /> <rollingStyle value="Size" /> <maxSizeRollBackups value="10" /> <maximumFileSize value="100KB" /> <staticLogFileName value="true" /> <layout type="log4net.Layout.PatternLayout"> <conversionPattern value="%date (GMT%date{%z}) [%thread] %-5level %logger - %message%newline" /> </layout> </appender> <!-- Setup the root category, add the appenders and set the default level --> <root> <level value="INFO" /> <appender-ref ref="RollingFileAppender" /> </root> <!-- Specify the level for some specific categories --> <logger name="DotNetOpenAuth"> <level value="ALL" /> </logger> </log4net> Edit I also tried log4net to a sql db but it still didn't log anything

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  • Microsoft JScript runtime error: Sys.InvalidOperationException: Two components with the same id.

    - by Irwin
    I'm working in ASP .NET dynamic data. In one of my edit controls I wanted to allow the user to add records from a related table to the current page. (Literally, if you are on the orders page, you would be allowed to add a new customer to the system on this page as well, and then associate it with that order). So, I have a DetailsView set to InsertMode, nested inside of an UpdatePanel, which is shown by a ModalPopupExtender which is invoked when 'add new' is clicked. This doohickey works the first time i execute this process, that is, a customer is added (and i update the dropdown list as well). However, I realized it didn't work (properly) again until I refreshed the entire page. When I attached my debugger, my worst fears were realized (ok, not really). But an exception was being thrown: "Microsoft JScript runtime error: Sys.InvalidOperationException: Two components with the same id." Which seemed to be complaining about a Calendar Extender Control that is part of the details view. Any guidance on what's going on here would be great. Thanks.

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  • Programmatically controlling Chart in Silverlight toolkit

    - by Manoj
    Hi, I want to control the x and y axis of a multi series line charts available in Silverlight toolkit from the C# code. I am not able to find any appropriate example using google. Any kind of example or pointers would be appreciated! EDIT: This is what I have done so far: <toolkit:Chart Canvas.Left="104" Canvas.Top="18" Name="chartCompare" Title="Compare Series" Height="285" Width="892"> <toolkit:LineSeries Title="SP1" Name="Series1"/> </toolkit:Chart> And in the code behind I am trying this: Series1.ItemsSource = ObjectList; Series1.IndependentValuePath = "Val1"; Series1.DependentValuePath = "Val2"; Where ObjectList is a List of Objects which has val1 and val2 as its property. But it is throwing an error when I run this in Line "Series1.ItemsSource = ObjectList;" saying "Object reference not set to an instance of an object..". I have initialised and set its value just in the line before it. Actually I have set this as an item source for a data grid in the line before it and it works fine.

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  • Find the "largest" dense sub matrix in a large sparse matrix

    - by BCS
    Given a large sparse matrix (say 10k+ by 1M+) I need to find a subset, not necessarily continuous, of the rows and columns that form a dense matrix (all non-zero elements). I want this sub matrix to be as large as possible (not the largest sum, but the largest number of elements) within some aspect ratio constraints. Are there any known exact or aproxamate solutions to this problem? A quick scan on Google seems to give a lot of close-but-not-exactly results. What terms should I be looking for? edit: Just to clarify; the sub matrix need not be continuous. In fact the row and column order is completely arbitrary so adjacency is completely irrelevant. A thought based on Chad Okere's idea Order the rows from largest count to smallest count (not necessary but might help perf) Select two rows that have a "large" overlap Add all other rows that won't reduce the overlap Record that set Add whatever row reduces the overlap by the least Repeat at #3 until the result gets to small Start over at #2 with a different starting pair Continue until you decide the result is good enough

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  • Force Postback from code behind? Or reload JavaScript from an Asynchronous Postback?

    - by sah302
    Hi all, I've got a Jquery UI dialog that pops up to confirm the creation of an item after filling out a form. I have the form in an update panel due to various needs of the form, and especially because I want validation being done on the form without reloading the page. JavaScript appears to not reload on an asynchronoous postback. This means when the form is a success and I change the variable 'formSubmitPass' to true, it does not get passed to the Javascript via <%= formSubmitPass %. If I add a trigger to the submit button to do a full postback, it works. However I don't want the submit button to do a full postback as I said so I can validate the form within the update panel. How can I have this so my form validates asynchronously, but my javaScript will properly reload when the form is completed successfully and the item is saved to the database? Javascript: var formSubmitPass = '<%= formSubmitPass %>'; var redirectUrl = '<%= redirectUrl %>'; function pageLoad() { $('#formPassBox').dialog({ autoOpen: false, width: 400, resizable: false, modal: true, draggable: false, buttons: { "Ok": function() { window.location.href = redirectUrl; } }, open: function(event, ui) { $(".ui-dialog-titlebar-close").hide(); var t = window.setTimeout("goToUrl()", 5000); } }); if(formSubmitPass == 'True') { $('#formPassBox').dialog({ autoOpen: true }); } So how can I force a postback from the code behind, or reload the JavaScript on an Asynchronous Postback, or do this in a way that will work such that I can continue to do Async form validation? Edit: I change formSubmitPass at the very end of the code behind: If errorCount = 0 Then formSubmitPass = True upForm.Update() Else formSubmitPass = False End If So on a full postback, the value does change.

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  • RadTabControl and MVVM

    - by Jeff
    First, so you know, Silverlight 4 and VS 2010 both RC and RIA services. I'm also new to Silverlight... I have a page that has a Telerik RadTabControl on it. It will always have six tabs, i.e. the number of tabs is not data driven. The tabs are used for various admin functions. One tab for managing users with a grid and edit view, another that will have basic company info - just a few text boxes on it. The other tabs are similar to these two. I'm trying to use MVVM and can't decide on the best approach. I don't think I want one big ViewModel that handles all six tabs - that would be big, ugly and harder to maintain. Any recommendations for approaches on how to break this out? Perhaps have a ViewModel for each tab? If so, how would I (generally) go about implementing something like that? Or is there another approach that makes more sense? Thanks, Jeff

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  • shell_exec escaping quotes in php for Twitter API --> Getting CURL to work with obscure twitter api

    - by yc10
    I'm using shell_exec() to execute a Twitter API Call. shell_exec('curl -u user:password -d "id=3191321" http://api.twitter.com/1/twitterapi/twitterlist/members.xml'); That works fine when I authenticate correctly and put in a number for the id. But when I try to put in a variable ($id), it screws up. $addtolist = shell_exec('curl -u pxlist:Weekend1 -d "id='.$id.'" http://twitter.com/username/twitterlist/members.xml'); I tried flipping the quote types $addtolist = shell_exec("curl -u pxlist:Weekend1 -d 'id=$id' http://twitter.com/username/twitterlist/members.xml"); I tried using double quotes and escaping them $addtolist = shell_exec("curl -u pxlist:Weekend1 -d \"id=$id\" http://twitter.com/username/twitterlist/members.xml"); None of them worked. What am I doing wrong? EDIT: The purists say I should be using PHP's built in curl methods, not the shell_exec. That's not working either. $url = 'http://twitter.com/user/list/members.xml'; // Set up and execute the curl process $curl_handle = curl_init(); curl_setopt($curl_handle, CURLOPT_URL, "$url"); curl_setopt($curl_handle, CURLOPT_CONNECTTIMEOUT, 2); curl_setopt($curl_handle, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, 1); curl_setopt($curl_handle, CURLOPT_POST, 1); curl_setopt($curl_handle, CURLOPT_POSTFIELDS, "id=$id"); curl_setopt($curl_handle, CURLOPT_USERPWD, "user:pw"); $buffer = curl_exec($curl_handle); curl_close($curl_handle); It returns bool(false), and doesn't properly update the Twitter List in question (the whole point of the exercise)

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  • how to get all group images in facebook using FACEBOOK API

    - by From.ME.to.YOU
    Hello i'm trying to get all the images from a facebook group using facebook API i have a problem i can't get all the photos using $facebook->api_client->call_method('Photos.get', array('subj_id' => $uid)); http://wiki.developers.facebook.com/index.php/Photos.get what i'm using now is the method $albums = $facebook->api_client->photos_getAlbums($uid, NULL); http://wiki.developers.facebook.com/index.php/Photos.getAlbums and then loop for ever album on $facebook->api_client->call_method('Photos.get', array('subj_id' => $uid)); then i add every new array results to my big array $big_array = array_merge($big_array,$result_array_from_that_call); 2 problems occurs here : 1- sometimes this calls fails - i think because of too many calls per second - 2- the request takes a v.long time to process is there a better way to do that? Thanks guys Cheers EDIT :: i tried to get all the images using $facebook->api_client->call_method('Photos.get', array('subj_id' => $uid)); and using $uid as the group ID but that's doesn't work " don't know why maybe because all the images is listed in groups "

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  • Default Transaction Timeout

    - by MattH
    I used to set Transaction timeouts by using TransactionOptions.Timeout, but have decided for ease of maintenance to use the config approach: <system.transactions> <defaultSettings timeout="00:01:00" /> </system.transactions> Of course, after putting this in, I wanted to test it was working, so reduced the timeout to 5 seconds, then ran a test that lasted longer than this - but the transaction does not appear to abort! If I adjust the test to set TransactionOptions.Timeout to 5 seconds, the test works as expected After Investigating I think the problem appears to relate to TransactionOptions.Timeout, even though I'm no longer using it. I still need to use TransactionOptions so I can set IsolationLevel, but I no longer set the Timeout value, if I look at this object after I create it, the timeout value is 00:00:00, which equates to infinity. Does this mean my value set in the config file is being ignored? To summarise: Is it impossible to mix the config setting, and use of TransactionOptions If not, is there any way to extract the config setting at runtime, and use this to set the Timeout property [Edit] OR Set the default isolation-level without using TransactionOptions

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  • Modify python USB device driver to only use vendor_id and product_id, excluding BCD

    - by Tony
    I'm trying to modify the Android device driver for calibre (an e-book management program) so that it identifies devices by only vendor id and product id, and excludes BCD. The driver is a fairly simply python plugin, and is currently set up to use all three numbers, but apparently, when Android devices use custom Android builds (ie CyanogenMod for the Nexus One), it changes the BCD so calibre stops recognizing it. The current code looks like this, with a simple list of vendor id's, that then have allowed product id's and BCD's with them: VENDOR_ID = { 0x0bb4 : { 0x0c02 : [0x100], 0x0c01 : [0x100]}, 0x22b8 : { 0x41d9 : [0x216]}, 0x18d1 : { 0x4e11 : [0x0100], 0x4e12: [0x0100]}, 0x04e8 : { 0x681d : [0x0222]}, } The line I'm specifically trying to change is: 0x18d1 : { 0x4e11 : [0x0100], 0x4e12: [0x0100]}, Which is, the line for identifying a Nexus One. My N1, running CyanogenMod 5.0.5, has the BCD 0x0226, and rather than just adding it to the list, I'd prefer to eliminate the BCD from the recognition process, so that any device with vendor id 0x18d1 and product id 0x4e11 or 0x4e12 would be recognized. The custom Android rom doesn't change enough for the specifics to matter. The syntax seems to require the BCD in brackets. How can I edit this so that it matches anything in that field?

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