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  • Why doesn't Default route work using Html.ActionLink in this case?

    - by StuperUser
    I have a rather perculiar issue with routing. Coming back to routing after not having to worry about configuration for it for a year, I am using the default route and ignore route for resources: routes.IgnoreRoute("{resource}.axd/{*pathInfo}"); routes.MapRoute( "Default", // Route name "{controller}/{action}/{id}", // URL with parameters new { controller = "Home", action = "Index", id = UrlParameter.Optional }); I have a RulesController with an action for Index and Lorem and a Index.aspx, Lorem.aspx in Views Rules directory. I have an ActionLink aimed at Rules/Index on the maseter page: <li><div><%: Html.ActionLink("linkText", "Index", "Rules")%></div></li> The link is being rendered as http://localhost:12345/Rules/ and am getting a 404. When I type Index into the URL the application routes it to the action. When I change the default route action from "Index" to "Lorem", the action link is being rendered as http://localhost:12345/Rules/Index adding the Index as it's no longer on the default route and the application routes to the Index action correctly. I have used Phil Haack's Routing Debugger, but entering the url http://localhost:12345/Rules/ is causing a 404 using that too. I think I've covered all of the rookie mistakes, relevant SO questions and basic RTFMs. I'm assuming that "Rules" isn't any sort of reserved word in routing. Other than updating the Routes and debuugging them, what can I look at?

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  • using dummy row with NOT NULL to solve DEFAULT NULL

    - by Tony38
    I know having DEFAULT NULLS is not a good practice but I have many optional lookup values which are FK in the system so to solve this issue here is what i am doing: I use NOT NULL for every FK / lookup colunms. I have the first row in every lookup table which is PK id = 1 as a dummy row with just "none" in all the columns. This way I can use NOT NULL in my schema and if needed reference to the none row values PK =1 for FKs which do not have any lookup value. Is this a good design or any other work arounds? EDIT: I have: Neighborhood table Postal table. Every neighborhood has a city, so the FK can be NOT NULL. But not every postal code belongs to a neighborhood. Some do, some don't depending on the country. So if i use NOT NULL for the FK between postal and neighborhood then I will be screwed as there has to be some value entered. So what i am doing in essence is: have a row in every table to be a dummy row just to link the FKs. This way row one in neighborhood table will be: n_id = 1 name =none etc... In postal table I can have: postal_code = 3456A3 FK (city) = Moscow FK (neighborhood_id)=1 as a NOT NULL. If I don't have a dummy row in the neighborhood lookup table then I have to declare FK (neighborhood_id) as a Default null column and store blanks in the table. This is an example but there is a huge number of values which will have blanks then in many tables.

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  • run time error wats the wrong?

    - by javacode
    I am getting run time error import javax.mail.*; import javax.mail.internet.*; import java.util.*; public class SendMail { public static void main(String [] args)throws MessagingException { SendMail sm=new SendMail(); sm.postMail(new String[]{"[email protected]"},"hi","hello","[email protected]"); } public void postMail( String recipients[ ], String subject, String message , String from) throws MessagingException { boolean debug = false; //Set the host smtp address Properties props = new Properties(); props.put("mail.smtp.host", "webmail.emailmyname.com"); // create some properties and get the default Session Session session = Session.getDefaultInstance(props, null); session.setDebug(debug); // create a message Message msg = new MimeMessage(session); // set the from and to address InternetAddress addressFrom = new InternetAddress(from); msg.setFrom(addressFrom); InternetAddress[] addressTo = new InternetAddress[recipients.length]; for (int i = 0; i < recipients.length; i++) { addressTo[i] = new InternetAddress(recipients[i]); } msg.setRecipients(Message.RecipientType.TO, addressTo); // Optional : You can also set your custom headers in the Email if you Want msg.addHeader("MyHeaderName", "myHeaderValue"); // Setting the Subject and Content Type msg.setSubject(subject); msg.setContent(message, "text/plain"); Transport.send(msg); } } Error Exception in thread "main" java.lang.NoClassDefFoundError: SendMail Caused by: java.lang.ClassNotFoundException: SendMail at java.net.URLClassLoader$1.run(Unknown Source) at java.security.AccessController.doPrivileged(Native Method) at java.net.URLClassLoader.findClass(Unknown Source) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(Unknown Source) at sun.misc.Launcher$AppClassLoader.loadClass(Unknown Source) at java.lang.ClassLoader.loadClass(Unknown Source) Could not find the main class: SendMail. Program will exit.

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  • XSLT how to merge some lists of parameters

    - by buggy1985
    Hi, I have an URL Structure like this: http://my.domain.com/generated.xml?param1=foo&param2=bar&xsl=path/to/my.xsl The generated XML will be transformed using the given XSL Stylesheet. The two other parameters are integrated too like this: <root> <params> <param name="param1">foo</param> <param name="param2">bar</param> </param> ... </root> Now I want to create with XSLT a link with a new URI that keeps the existing parameters and adds one or multiple new parameters like page=3 or sort=DESC. If the given parameter already exists, it should be replaced. I'm not sure how to do this. How to pass multiple (optional) parameters to a template. How to merge two lists of parameters. Any ideas? Thanks ;)

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  • C++ cin whitespace question

    - by buddyfox
    Programming novice here. I'm trying to allow a user to enter their name, firstName middleName lastName on one line in the console (ex. "John Jane Doe"). I want to make the middleName optional. So if the user enters "John Doe" it only saves the first and last name strings. If the user enters "John Jane Doe" it will save all three. I was going to use this: cin >> firstName >> middleName >> lastName; then I realized that if the user chooses to omit their middle name and enters "John Doe" the console will just wait for the user to enter a third string... I know I could accomplish this with one large string and breaking it up into two or three, but isn't there a simpler way to do it with three strings like above? I feel like I'm missing something simple here... Thanks in advance.

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  • How to create more complex Lucene query strings?

    - by boris callens
    This question is a spin-off from this question. My inquiry is two-fold, but because both are related I think it is a good idea to put them together. How to programmatically create queries. I know I could start creating strings and get that string parsed with the query parser. But as I gather bits and pieces of information from other resources, there is a programattical way to do this. What are the syntax rules for the Lucene queries? --EDIT-- I'll give a requirement example for a query I would like to make: Say I have 5 fields: First Name Last Name Age Address Everything All fields are optional, the last field should search over all the other fields. I go over every field and see if it's IsNullOrEmpty(). If it's not, I would like to append a part of my query so it adds the relevant search part. First name and last name should be exact matches and have more weight then the other fields. Age is a string and should exact match. Address can varry in order. Everything can also varry in order. How should I go about this?

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  • asp.net jquery how to use Plugin/Validation with web content

    - by Eyla
    I have a asp.net web content from that have a asp.net textbox and I want to use Plugin/Validation but it is not working with me here is my code: <%@ Page Title="" Language="C#" MasterPageFile="~/Master.Master" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeBehind="WebForm1.aspx.cs" Inherits="IMAM_APPLICATION.WebForm1" %> <%@ Register assembly="AjaxControlToolkit" namespace="AjaxControlToolkit" tagprefix="asp" %> <asp:Content ID="Content1" ContentPlaceHolderID="head" runat="server"> <script src="js/jquery-1.4.1.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="js/jquery.validate.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $.validator.addMethod("#<%=TextBox1.ClientID %>", function(value, element) { return this.optional(element) || /^(?=.*\d)(?=.*[a-z])(?=.*[A-Z]).{8,16}$/i.test(value); }, "Passwords are 8-16 characters with uppercase letters, lowercase letters and at least one number."); }); </script> </asp:Content> <asp:Content ID="Content2" ContentPlaceHolderID="ContentPlaceHolder1" runat="server"> </asp:Content> <asp:Content ID="Content3" ContentPlaceHolderID="ContentPlaceHolder2" runat="server"> <asp:TextBox ID="TextBox1" runat="server"></asp:TextBox> </asp:Content>

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  • C++ iterators, default initialization and what to use as an uninitialized sentinel.

    - by Hassan Syed
    The Context I have a custom template container class put together from a map and vector. The map resolves a string to an ordinal, and the vector resolves an ordinal (only an initial string to ordinal lookup is done, future references are to the vector) to the entry. The entries are modified intrusively to contain a a bool "assigned" and an iterator_type which is a const_iterator to the container class's map. My container class will use RCF's serialization code (which models boost::serialization) to serialize my container classes to nodes in a network. Serializing iterator's is not possible, or a can of worms, and I can easily regenerate them onces the vectors and maps are serialized on the remote site. The Question I need to default initialize, and be able to test that the iterator has not been assigned to (if it is assigned it is valid, if not it is invalid). Since map iterators are not invalidated upon operations performed on it (unless of course items are removed :D) am I to assume that map<x,y>::end() is a valid sentinel (regardless of the state of the map -- i.e., it could be empty) to initialize to ? I will always have access to the parent map, I'm just unsure wheather end() is the same as the map contents change. I don't want to use another level of indirection (--i.e., boost::optional) to achieve my goal, I'd rather forego compiler checks to correct logic, but it would be nice if I didn't need to. Misc This question exists, but most of its content seems non-sense. Assigning a NULL to an iterator is invalid according to g++ and clang++. This is another similar question, but it focuses on the common use-cases of iterators, which generally tends to be using the iterator to iterate, ofcourse in this use-case the state of the container isn't meant to change whilst iteration is going on.

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  • Creating a Ruby method that pads an Array

    - by CJ Johnson
    I'm working on creating a method that pads an array, and accepts 1. a desired value and 2. an optional string/integer value. Desired_size reflects the desired number of elements in the array. If a string/integer is passed in as the second value, this value is used to pad the array with extra elements. I understand there is a 'fill' method that can shortcut this - but that would be cheating for the homework I'm doing. The issue: no matter what I do, only the original array is returned. I started here: class Array def pad(desired_size, value = nil) desired_size >= self.length ? return self : (desired_size - self.length).times.do { |x| self << value } end end test_array = [1, 2, 3] test_array.pad(5) From what I researched the issue seemed to be around trying to alter self's array, so I learned about .inject and gave that a whirl: class Array def pad(desired_size, value = nil) if desired_size >= self.length return self else (desired_size - self.length).times.inject { |array, x| array << value } return array end end end test_array = [1, 2, 3] test_array.pad(5) The interwebs tell me the problem might be with any reference to self so I wiped that out altogether: class Array def pad(desired_size, value = nil) array = [] self.each { |x| array << x } if desired_size >= array.length return array else (desired_size - array.length).times.inject { |array, x| array << value } return array end end end test_array = [1, 2, 3] test_array.pad(5) I'm very new to classes and still trying to learn about them. Maybe I'm not even testing them the right way with my test_array? Otherwise, I think the issue is I get the method to recognize the desired_size value that's being passed in. I don't know where to go next. Any advice would be appreciated. Thanks in advance for your time.

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  • asp.net jquery how to use Plugin/Validation wormith web content

    - by Eyla
    I have a asp.net web content from that have a asp.net textbox and I want to use Plugin/Validation but it is not working with me here is my code: <%@ Page Title="" Language="C#" MasterPageFile="~/Master.Master" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeBehind="WebForm1.aspx.cs" Inherits="IMAM_APPLICATION.WebForm1" %> <%@ Register assembly="AjaxControlToolkit" namespace="AjaxControlToolkit" tagprefix="asp" %> <asp:Content ID="Content1" ContentPlaceHolderID="head" runat="server"> <script src="js/jquery-1.4.1.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="js/jquery.validate.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function() { $.validator.addMethod("#<%=TextBox1.ClientID %>", function(value, element) { return this.optional(element) || /^(?=.*\d)(?=.*[a-z])(?=.*[A-Z]).{8,16}$/i.test(value); }, "Passwords are 8-16 characters with uppercase letters, lowercase letters and at least one number."); </script> </asp:Content> <asp:Content ID="Content2" ContentPlaceHolderID="ContentPlaceHolder1" runat="server"> </asp:Content> <asp:Content ID="Content3" ContentPlaceHolderID="ContentPlaceHolder2" runat="server"> <asp:TextBox ID="TextBox1" runat="server"></asp:TextBox> </asp:Content>

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  • JPA concatenating table names for parent/child @OneToMany

    - by Robert
    We are trying to use a basic @OneToMany relationship: @Entity @Table(name = "PARENT_MESSAGE") public class ParentMessage { @Id @Column(name = "PARENT_ID") @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.IDENTITY) private Integer parentId; @OneToMany(fetch=FetchType.LAZY) private List childMessages; public List getChildMessages() { return this.childMessages; } ... } @Entity @Table(name = "CHILD_MSG_USER_MAP") public class ChildMessage { @Id @Column(name = "CHILD_ID") @GeneratedValue(strategy = GenerationType.IDENTITY) private Integer childId; @ManyToOne(optional=false,targetEntity=ParentMessage.class,cascade={CascadeType.REFRESH}, fetch=FetchType.LAZY) private ParentMessage parentMsg; public ParentMessage getParentMsg() { return parentMsg; } ... } ChildMessage child = new ChildMessage(); em.getTransaction().begin(); ParentMessage parentMessage = (ParentMessage) em.find(ParentMessage.class, parentId); child.setParentMsg(parentMessage); List list = parentMessage.getChildMessages(); if(list == null) list = new ArrayList(); list.add(child); em.getTransaction().commit(); We receive the following error. Why is OpenJPA concatenating the table names to APP.PARENT_MESSAGE_CHILD_MSG_USER_MAP? Of course that table doesn't exist.. the tables defined are APP.PARENT_MESSAGE and APP.CHILD_MSG_USER_MAP Caused by: org.apache.openjpa.lib.jdbc.ReportingSQLException: Table/View 'APP.PARENT_MESSAGE_CHILD_MSG_USER_MAP' does not exist. {SELECT t1.CHILD_ID, t1.PARENT_ID, t1.CREATED_TIME, t1.USER_ID FROM APP.PARENT_MESSAGE_CHILD_MSG_USER_MAP t0 INNER JOIN APP.CHILD_MSG_USER_MAP t1 ON t0.CHILDMESSAGES_CHILD_ID = t1.CHILD_ID WHERE t0.PARENTMESSAGE_PARENT_ID = ?} [code=30000, state=42X05]

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  • Disable validation in an object in Ruby on Rails

    - by J. Pablo Fernández
    I have an object which whether validation happens or not should depend on a boolean, or in another way, validation is optional. I haven't found a clean way to do it. What I'm currently doing is this (disclaimer: you cannot unsee, leave this page if you are too sensitive): def valid? if perform_validation super else super # Call valid? so that callbacks get called and things like encrypting passwords and generating salt in before_validation actually happen errors.clear # but then clear the errors true # and claim ourselves to be valid. This is super hacky! end end Any better ways? Before you point to the :if argument of many validations, this is for a user model which is using authlogic so it has a lot of validation rules. You can stop reading here if you belive me. If you don't, authlogic already sets some :ifs like: :if => :email_changed? which I have to turn into :if => Proc.new {|user| user.email_changed? and user.perform_validation} and in some other cases, since I'm also using authlogic-oid (OpenID) I just don't have control over the :if, authlogic-oid sets it in a way I cannot change it (in time) without further monkey patching. So I have to override seemingly unrelated functions, catch exceptions if a method doesn't exist, etc. The previous hacky solution if the best of my two attempts.

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  • JoinColumn name not used in sql

    - by Vladimir
    Hi! I have a problem with mapping many-to-one relationship without exact foreign key constraint set in database. I use OpenJPA implementation with MySql database, but the problem is with generated sql scripts for insert and select statements. I have LegalEntity table which contains RootId column (among others). I also have Address table which has LegalEntityId column which is not nullable, and which should contain values referencing LegalEntity's "RootId" column, but without any database constraint (foreign key) set. Address entity is mapped: @Entity @Table(name="address") public class Address implements Serializable { ... @ManyToOne(fetch=FetchType.LAZY, optional=false) @JoinColumn(referencedColumnName="RootId", name="LegalEntityId", nullable=false, insertable=true, updatable=true, table="LegalEntity") public LegalEntity getLegalEntity() { return this.legalEntity; } } SELECT statement (when fetching LegalEntity's addresses) and INSERT statment are generated: SELECT t0.Id, .., t0.LEGALENTITY_ID FROM address t0 WHERE t0.LEGALENTITY_ID = ? ORDER BY t0.Id DESC [params=(int) 2] INSERT INTO address (..., LEGALENTITY_ID) VALUES (..., ?) [params=..., (int) 2] If I omit table attribute from mentioned statements are generated: SELECT t0.Id, ... FROM address t0 INNER JOIN legalentity t1 ON t0.LegalEntityId = t1.RootId WHERE t1.Id = ? ORDER BY t0.Id DESC [params=(int) 2] INSERT INTO address (...) VALUES (...) [params=...] So, LegalEntityId is not included in any of the statements. Is it possible to have relationship based on such referencing (to column other than primary key, without foreign key in database)? Is there something else missing? Thanks in advance.

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  • Is there a good way to copy a Gtk widget?

    - by Jake
    Is there a way, using the Gtk library in C, to clone a Gtk button (for instance), and pack it somewhere else in the app. I know you can't pack the same widget twice. And that this code obviously wouldn't work, but shows what happens when I attempt a shallow copy of the button: GtkButton *a = g_object_new(GTK_TYPE_BUTTON, "label", "o_0", NULL); GtkButton *b = g_memdup(b, sizeof *b); gtk_box_pack_start_defaults(GTK_BOX(vbox), GTK_WIDGET(b)); There is surrounding code which creates a vbox and packs it in a window and runs gtk_main(). This will result in these hard to understand error messages: (main:6044): Gtk-CRITICAL **: gtk_widget_hide: assertion `GTK_IS_WIDGET (widget)' failed (main:6044): Gtk-CRITICAL **: gtk_widget_realize: assertion `GTK_WIDGET_ANCHORED (widget) || GTK_IS_INVISIBLE (widget)' failed ** Gtk:ERROR:/build/buildd/gtk+2.0-2.18.3/gtk/gtkwidget.c:8431:gtk_widget_real_map: assertion failed: (GTK_WIDGET_REALIZED (widget)) Along the same lines, if I were to write my own GObject (not necessarily a Gtk widget), is there a good way to write a copy constructor. Im thinking it should be an interface with optional hooks and based mostly on the properties, handling the class's hierarchy in some way. I'd want to do this: GtkButton *b = copyable_copy(COPYABLE(a)); If GtkButton could use a theoretical copyable interface.

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  • Maven - 'all' or 'parent' project for aggregation?

    - by disown
    For educational purposes I have set up a project layout like so (flat in order to suite eclipse better): -product | |-parent |-core |-opt |-all Parent contains an aggregate project with core, opt and all. Core implements the mandatory part of the application. Opt is an optional part. All is supposed to combine core with opt, and has these two modules listed as dependencies. I am now trying to make the following artifacts: product-core.jar product-core-src.jar product-core-with-dependencies.jar product-opt.jar product-opt-src.jar product-opt-with-dependencies.jar product-all.jar product-all-src.jar product-all-with-dependencies.jar Most of them are fairly straightforward to produce. I do have some problem with the aggregating artifacts though. I have managed to make the product-all-src.jar with a custom assembly descriptor in the 'all' module which downloads the sources for all non-transitive deps, and this works fine. This technique also allows me to make the product-all-with-dependencies.jar. I however recently found out that you can use the source:aggregate goal in the source plugin to aggregate sources of the entire aggregate project. This is also true for the javadoc plugin, which also aggregates through the usage of the parent project. So I am torn between my 'all' module approach and ditching the 'all' module and just use the 'parent' module for all aggregation. It feels unclean to have some aggregate artifacts produced in 'parent', and others produced in 'all'. Is there a way of making an 'product-all' jar in the parent project, or to aggregate javadoc in the 'all' project? Or should I just keep both? Thanks

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  • How to test if a doctrine records has any relations that are used

    - by murze
    Hi, I'm using a doctrine table that has several optional relations (of types Doctrine_Relation_Association and Doctrine_Relation_ForeignKey) with other tables. How can I test if a record from that table has connections with records from the related table. Here is an example to make my question more clear. Assume that you have a User and a user has a many to many relation with Usergroups and a User can have one Userrole How can I test if a give user is part of any Usergroups or has a role. The solution starts I believe with $relations = Doctrine_Core::getTable('User')->getRelations(); $user = Doctrine_Core::getTable('User')->findOne(1); foreach($relations as $relation) { //here should go a test if the user has a related record for this relation if ($relation instanceof Doctrine_Relation_Association) { //here the related table probably has more then one foreign key (ex. user_id and group_id) } if ($relation instanceof Doctrine_Relation_ForeignKey) { //here the related table probably has the primary key of this table (id) as a foreign key (user_id) } } //true or false echo $result I'm looking for a general solution that will work no matter how many relations there are between user and other tables. Thanks!

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  • Integrate OpenId into an existing site

    - by Andrea
    I have a working web application which already has a login and registration system. I'm looking for some advice on how to do it. Until now, users have a username, an email, a password and some optional fields. The registrartion is the usual process with email confirmation. Now I'd like to allow users to use OpenId. So I have added an openid field to the table. There are two different login forms, and users which are already registered can add their openid info and use either login form. The problem is with new users who come on the site for the first time and try to login with OpenId. I create a new user for them, and I don't need a password, but still I need at least a username, which is used on the site (I'm not sure if the email is needed). So my problems are: 1) How do I manage validation? Some fields are required for some users, (e.g. a password) but not for some others. I mean, I can do this, but it immediately gets messy. 2) Should I ask for a username and email on the first OpenId login? On the one hand I'd say yes, but I fear this vanishes the advantages of using OpenId, that is, not having to provide details. 3) I could get the details via SReg or AttributeExchange, but most providers have a bad support for those. For instance my Gmail OpenId account does not tell the email (!). Is there some place to learn more about the current support for these extensions?

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  • Asp.Net MVC - Binding of parameter to model value!

    - by Pino
    This seems like the model binding is causing me issues. Essentially I have a model called ProductOption and for the purpose of this question it has 2 fields ID (Int) PK ProductID (Int) FK I have a standard route set-up context.MapRoute( "Product_default", "Product/{controller}/{action}/{id}", new { controller = "Product", action = "Index", id = UrlParameter.Optional } ); and if the user wants to add an option the URL is, /Product/Options/Add/1 in the above URL 1 is the ProductID, I have the following code to return a blank model the the view, [HttpGet] public ActionResult Add(int id) { return View("Manage", new ProductOptionModel() { ProductID = id }); } Now in my view I keep a hidden field <%= Html.HiddenFor(x=>x.ID) %> This is used to determine (on submit) if we are editing or adding a new option. However the Model binder in .net seems to replace .ID (Which was 0 when leaving the above get actionresult) with 1 (or the value of the id parameter in the URL) How can I stop or work around this? ViewModel public class ProductExtraModel { //Database public int ID { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } public int ProductID { get; set; } public ProductModel Product { get; set; } }

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  • many to many and integrity when saving the null

    - by user369759
    I have two classes Software, Tag - they are related by ManyToMany. We CAN NOT create Software without putting the Tag to it. I want to write a test which check that: @Test public void createSoftwareWithNullTags() { List<Tag> tags = null; Software software = new Software("software1", "description1", tags); try { software.save(); fail("tags should not be null"); } catch (Exception ex) { // NEVER COME HERE !!! } } So, this test fails. I guess it is not good test for that case - because it even do not try to SAVE data to SOFTWARE_TAG table. Of course i could do validation manually but i want implement it with hibernate, using some annotation or something. Is it possible? Or how would you do this? My entities: @Entity public class Tag extends Model { public String title; public Tag(String title) { this.title = title; } @ManyToMany( cascade = {CascadeType.ALL}, mappedBy = "tags", targetEntity = Software.class ) public List<Software> softwares; } @Entity public class Software extends Model { public String title; public String description; @ManyToOne(optional = false) public Author author; @ManyToMany(cascade = CascadeType.ALL) @JoinTable( name = "SOFTWARE_TAG", joinColumns = @JoinColumn(name = "Software_id"), inverseJoinColumns = @JoinColumn(name = "Tag_id") ) public List<Tag> tags; public Software(String title, String description, Author author, List<Tag> tags) { this.title = title; this.description = description; this.author = author; this.tags = tags; } }

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  • Determine target architecture of binary file in Linux (library or executable)

    - by Fernando Miguélez
    We have an issue related to a Java application running under a (rather old) FC3 on a Advantech POS board with a Via C3 processor. The java application has several compiled shared libs that are accessed via JNI. Via C3 processor is suppossed to be i686 compatible. Some time ago after installing Ubuntu 6.10 on a MiniItx board with the same processor I found out that the previous statement is not 100% true. The Ubuntu kernel hanged on startup due to the lack of some specific and optional instructions of the i686 set in the C3 processor. These instructions missing in C3 implementation of i686 set are used by default by GCC compiler when using i686 optimizations. The solution in this case was to go with a i386 compiled version of Ubuntu distribution. The base problem with the Java application is that the FC3 distribution was installed on the HD by cloning from an image of the HD of another PC, this time an Intel P4. Afterwards the distribution needed some hacking to have it running such as replacing some packages (such as the kernel one) with the i383 compiled version. The problem is that after working for a while the system completely hangs without a trace. I am afraid that some i686 code is left somewhere in the system and could be executed randomly at any time (for example after recovering from suspend mode or something like that). My question is: Is there any tool or way to find out at what specific architecture is an binary file (executable or library) aimed provided that "file" does not give so much information?

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  • Best way to determine variable type and treat each one differently in F#

    - by James Black
    I have a function that will create a select where clause, but right now everything has to be a string. I would like to look at the variable passed in and determine what type it is and then treat it properly. For example, numeric values don't have single quotes around them, option type will either be null or have some value and boolean will actually be zero or one. member self.BuildSelectWhereQuery (oldUser:'a) = let properties = List.zip oldUser.ToSqlValuesList sqlColumnList let init = false, new StringBuilder() let anyChange, (formatted:StringBuilder) = properties |> Seq.fold (fun (anyChange, sb) (oldVal, name) -> match(anyChange) with | true -> true, sb.AppendFormat(" AND {0} = '{1}'", name, oldVal) | _ -> true, sb.AppendFormat("{0} = '{1}'", name, oldVal) ) init formatted.ToString() Here is one entity: type CityType() = inherit BaseType() let mutable name = "" let mutable stateId = 0 member this.Name with get() = name and set restnameval=name <- restnameval member this.StateId with get() = stateId and set stateidval=stateId <- stateidval override this.ToSqlValuesList = [this.Name; this.StateId.ToString()] So, if name was some other value besides a string, or stateId can be optional, then I have two changes to make: How do I modify ToSqlValuesList to have the variable so I can tell the variable type? How do I change my select function to handle this? I am thinking that I need a new function does the processing, but what is the best FP way to do this, rather than using something like typeof?

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  • [PHP] Weird problem with dynamic method invocation

    - by Rolf
    Hi everyone, this time, I'm facing a really weird problem. I've the following code: $xml = simplexml_load_file($this->interception_file); foreach($xml->children() as $class) { $path = str_replace('__CLASS_DIR__',CLASS_DIR,$class['path']); if(!is_file($path)) { throw new Exception('Bad configuration: file '.$path.' not found'); } $className = pathinfo($path,PATHINFO_FILENAME); foreach($class as $method) { $method_name = $method['name']; $obj = new $className(); var_dump(in_array($method_name,get_class_methods($className)));exit; echo $obj->$method_name();### not a method ??? } } As you can see, I get the class name and method name from an XML file. I can create an instance of the class without any problem. The var_dump at the end returns true, that means $method_name (which has 2 optional parameters) is a method of $className. BUT, and I am pretty sure the syntax is correct, when I try: $obj-$method_name() I get: Fatal error: Method name must be a string If you have any ideas, pleaaaaase tell me :) Thanks in advance, Rolf

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  • Does Hibernate support one-to-one associations as pkeys?

    - by Andrzej Doyle
    Hi all, Can anyone tell me whether Hibernate supports associations as the pkey of an entity? I thought that this would be supported but I am having a lot of trouble getting any kind of mapping that represents this to work. In particular, with the straight mapping below: @Entity public class EntityBar { @Id @OneToOne(optional = false, mappedBy = "bar") EntityFoo foo // other stuff } I get an org.hibernate.MappingException: "Could not determine type for: EntityFoo, at table: ENTITY_BAR, for columns: [org.hibernate.mapping.Column(foo)]" Diving into the code it seems the ID is always considered a Value type; i.e. "anything that is persisted by value, instead of by reference. It is essentially a Hibernate Type, together with zero or more columns." I could make my EntityFoo a value type by declaring it serializable, but I wouldn't expect this would lead to the right outcome either. I would have thought that Hibernate would consider the type of the column to be integer (or whatever the actual type of the parent's ID is), just like it would with a normal one-to-one link, but this doesn't appear to kick in when I also declare it an ID. Am I going beyond what is possible by trying to combine @OneToOne with @Id? And if so, how could one model this relationship sensibly?

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  • Forms authentication: disable redirect to the login page

    - by codeka
    I have an application that uses ASP.NET Forms Authentication. For the most part, it's working great, but I'm trying to add support for a simple API via an .ashx file. I want the ashx file to have optional authentication (i.e. if you don't supply an Authentication header, then it just works anonymously). But, depending on what you do, I want to require authentication under certain conditions. I thought it would be a simple matter of responding with status code 401 if the required authentication was not supplied, but it seems like the Forms Authentcation module is intercepting that and responding with a redirect to the login page instead. What I mean is, if my ProcessRequest method looks like this: public void ProcessRequest(HttpContext context) { Response.StatusCode = 401; Response.StatusDescription = "Authentication required"; } Then instead of getting a 401 error code on the client, like I expect, I'm actually getting a 302 redirect to the login page. For nornal HTTP traffic, I can see how that would be useful, but for my API page, I want the 401 to go through unmodified so that the client-side caller can respond to it programmatically instead. Is there any way to do that?

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  • Regex expression is too greedy

    - by alastairs
    I'm writing a regular expression to match data from the IMDb soundtracks data file. My regexes are mostly working, although they are in places slurping too much text into my named groups. Take the following regex for example: "^ Performed by '?(?<performer>.*)('? \(qv\))?$" The performer group includes the string ' (qv) as well as the performer's name. Unfortunately, because the records are not consistently formatted, some performers' names are surrounded by single quotation marks whilst others are not. This means they are optional as far as the regex is concerned. I've tried marking the last group as a greedy group using the ?> group specifier, but this appeared to have no effect on the results. I can improve the results by changing the performer group to match a small range of characters, but this reduces my chances of parsing the name out correctly. Furthermore, if I were to just exclude the apostrophe character, I would then be unable to parse, e.g., band names containing apostrophes, such as Elia's Lonely Friends Band who performed Run For Your Life featured in Resident Evil: Apocalypse.

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