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  • Howto use predicates in LINQ to Entities for Entity Framework objects

    - by user274947
    I'm using LINQ to Entities for Entity Framework objects in my Data Access Layer. My goal is to filter as much as I can from the database, without applying filtering logic on in-memory results. For that purpose Business Logic Layer passes a predicate to Data Access Layer. I mean Func<MyEntity, bool> So, if I use this predicate directly, like public IQueryable<MyEntity> GetAllMatchedEntities(Func<MyEntity, Boolean> isMatched) { return qry = _Context.MyEntities.Where(x => isMatched(x)); } I'm getting the exception [System.NotSupportedException] --- {"The LINQ expression node type 'Invoke' is not supported in LINQ to Entities."} Solution in that question suggests to use AsExpandable() method from LINQKit library. But again, using public IQueryable<MyEntity> GetAllMatchedEntities(Func<MyEntity, Boolean> isMatched) { return qry = _Context.MyEntities.AsExpandable().Where(x => isMatched(x)); } I'm getting the exception Unable to cast object of type 'System.Linq.Expressions.FieldExpression' to type 'System.Linq.Expressions.LambdaExpression' Is there way to use predicate in LINQ to Entities query for Entity Framework objects, so that it is correctly transformed it into a SQL statement. Thank you.

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  • "rsAccessDenied" error for SSRS 2008

    - by JackLocke
    Hi All, I have been trying to access SSRS Web Service URL hxxp://myServer:80/ReportServer (from Reporting Service Configuration Manager), but my IE always shows "rsAccessDenied" message saying that my account doesn't have privilage required to view. Here are my system specs. Its my laptop with Windows 7 x64, and SQL Server 2008 with SP1 and I am using Mixed Mode Authentication with My account as SysAdmin privilages and this is what I have been trying / tried ... (ofcourse with restarting the service everytime I make any change in configuration), I changed service account from Reporting Service Configuration Manager to make it use My account but nothing happend. I tried running my IE as admin, by RUN AS ADMIN but still same message. Then I read somewhere I have to delete/recreate my encryption keys as well, so I tried again with that, then it was asking me to enter ID/PWD to access server here I am totally blank because it was not accepting my account credentials !!!. Weird thing is I can see my existing reports if I follow this URL hxxp://myServer:80/Reports , for which My guess is solely used to view reports. I have read post here about kind of same problem, but it seems that OP just left forum after asking question... Also, MSDN does have these helps hxxp://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms156034.aspx hxxp://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb630430.aspx but both of this didn't workout for me. I will really appriciate it if any one can help me out. Jack p.s. I was not allowed to post more than 1 URL because of my "reputation" so I had to change the string a bit. Please replace hxxp wih http in URLs.

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  • Are programming languages and methods inefficient? (assembler and C knowledge needed)

    - by b-gen-jack-o-neill
    Hi, for a long time, I am thinking and studying output of C language compiler in assembler form, as well as CPU architecture. I know this may be silly to you, but it seems to me that something is very ineffective. Please, don´t be angry if I am wrong, and there is some reason I do not see for all these principles. I will be very glad if you tell me why is it designed this way. I actually truly believe I am wrong, I know the genius minds of people which get PCs together knew a reason to do so. What exactly, do you ask? I´ll tell you right away, I use C as a example: 1: Stack local scope memory allocation: So, typical local memory allocation uses stack. Just copy esp to ebp and than allocate all the memory via ebp. OK, I would understand this if you explicitly need allocate RAM by default stack values, but if I do understand it correctly, modern OS use paging as a translation layer between application and physical RAM, when address you desire is further translated before reaching actual RAM byte. So why don´t just say 0x00000000 is int a,0x00000004 is int b and so? And access them just by mov 0x00000000,#10? Because you wont actually access memory blocks 0x00000000 and 0x00000004 but those your OS set the paging tables to. Actually, since memory allocation by ebp and esp use indirect addressing, "my" way would be even faster. 2: Variable allocation duplicity: When you run application, Loader load its code into RAM. When you create variable, or string, compiler generates code that pushes these values on the top o stack when created in main. So there is actual instruction for do so, and that actual number in memory. So, there are 2 entries of the same value in RAM. One in form of instruction, second in form of actual bytes in the RAM. But why? Why not to just when declaring variable count at which memory block it would be, than when used, just insert this memory location?

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  • Listen to Response on HTML Form embedded in GWT View?

    - by confile
    I have a HTML like the following: <div> <form> <input type="text" /> <button class="sendForm" value="Send form" /> </form> </div> <script> // post the form with Jquery post // register a callback that handles the response </script> I use this type of form a lot with a JavaScript/JQuery overlay that displays the form. That could be handled for example with plugins like FancyBox. I also want to use this form embedded into a GWT view. Lets assume that the for cannot be created on client side because it has some server based markup language inside to set up some model data. If I want to use this form in GWT I have to do the following. Tell GWT the form request url and use a RequestBuilder to query the html content of this form. Then I can insert it into a div generated by GWT. So far so good. Problem: When the user hits the send button the response is handled my the JQuery callback that is inside the script under the form. Is there a way to access this callback from within GWT? Is there a way to overwrite the JQuery send action? Since, the code is HTML and comes from the server I cannot place ui-binder UiFields inside to get access to these DOM elements. I need to get the response if the submitted form accessible to GWT. Is there a way how I can achieve this with JSNI?

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  • How to check whether user is login in web application?

    - by Morgan Cheng
    I want to learn the whole details of web application authentication. So, I decided to write a CodeIgniter authentication library from scratch. Now, I have to make design decision about how to determine whether one user is login. Basically, after user input username & password pair. A cookie is set for this session, following navigations in the web application will not require username & password. The server side will check whether the session cookie is valid to determine whether current user is login. The question is: how to determine whether cookie is valid cookie issued from server side? I can image the most simple way is to have the cookie value stored in session status as well. For each HTTP request, compare the value from cookie and the value from server session. (Since CodeIgniter session library store session variables in cookies, it is not applicable without some tweak.) This method requires storage in server side. For huge web application that is deployed in multiple datacenters. It is possible that user input username & password when browsing in one datacenter, while he/she access the web application in another datacenter later. The expected behavior is that user just input username & password once. As a result, all datacenters should be able to access the session status. That is possible not applicable even the session status is stored in external storage such as database. I tried Google. I login Google with Asian proxy which is supposed to direct me to datacenters in Asian. Then I switch to North American proxy which should direct me to datacenters in North America. It recognize my login without asking username and password again. So, is there any way to determine whether user is login without server side session status?

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  • connecting to secure database from website host

    - by jim
    Hello all, I've got a requirement to both read and write data via a .net webservice to a sqlserver database that's on a private network. this database is currently accessed via a vpn connection by remote client software (on standard desktop machines) to get latest product prices and to upload product stock sales. I've been tasked with finding a way to centralise this access from a webservice that the clients then access, rather than them using the vpn route to connect directly to the database. My question is related to my .net service's relationship to the sqlserver database. What are the options for connecting to a private network vpn from a domain host in order to achive the functionality of allowing the webservice to both read and write data to the database. For now, I'm not too concerned about the client connectivity and security (tho i appreciate that this will have to be worked out too), I'm really just interested in discovering the options available in order to allow my .net webservice to connect to the private network in as painless and transparent a way as posible. The option of switching the database onto public hosting is not an option, so I have to work with the sdcenario as described above for now, unless there's a compelling rationale presented to do otherwise. thanks all... jim

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  • Connect Rails model to non-rails database

    - by the_snitch
    I'm creating a new web application (Rails 3 beta), of which pieces of it will access data from a legacy mysql database that a current php application is using. I do not wish to modify the legacy db schema, I just want to be able to read/write to it, as well as the rails application having it's own database using activerecord for the newer stuff. I'm using mysql for the rails app, so I have the adapter installed. How is the best way to do this? For example, I want contacts to come from the old database. Should I create a contacts controller, and manually call sql to get the variables for the views? Or should I create a Contact model, and define attributes that match the fields in the database, and am I able to use it like Contact.mail_address to have it call "SELECT mailaddr FROM contacts WHERE id=Contact.id". Sorry, I've never done much in Rails outside of the standard stuff that is documented well. I'm not sure of what the best approach would be. Ideally, I want the contacts to be presented to my rails application as native as possible, so that I can expose them RESTfully for API access. Any suggestions and code examples would be much appreciated

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  • SQLBrowser will not start

    - by Oliver
    SQL Server 2005 x64 on Windows Server 2003 x64, with multiple instances (default + 2 named). Engineers moved server to a different domain. Since then, cannot get SQLBrowser to start. Still able to query the default instance, and can access named instances by port (TCP:hostname,port#). When on server, can use SSMS to connect to the instances, all is well from that perspective. No errors in the SQL Server logs. As SQLBrowser is starting, an entry in EventViewer.Application says that one of the named instances has an invalid configuration, but I haven't been able to figure out what is invalid. Startup continues, and next message says "The SQLBrowser service was unable to establish SQL instance and connectivity discovery." Next, it enables instance and connectivity discovery support; next, another message about that same named instance having an invalid configuration; then an event says that SQLBrowser has started; last, an event shows the SQLBrowser service has shutdown. I got SQLBrowser to get past the issue with the first named instance by temporarily renaming a registry entry, and now the second named instance can be accessed by name rather than port. Still, cannot access the first named instance by name. Advice?

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  • Lazy loading is not working for one to many

    - by Shire
    Any 1-M that use the primary key of the parent table, but any 1-M that uses a different column does not work. It generates the SQL correctly, but put the value of the key into the SQL instead of the column value I want. Example mapping: public TemplateMap() { Table("IMPORT"); LazyLoad(); Id(x => x.ImportId).Column("IMPORT_ID").GeneratedBy.Assigned(); Map(x => x.ImportSetId).Column("IMPORTSET_ID"); HasMany(x => x.GoodChildren) .Access.CamelCaseField() .KeyColumns.Add("IMPORT_ID") .Cascade.Delete() .Inverse(); HasMany(x => x.BadChildren) .Access.CamelCaseField() .KeyColumns.Add("IMPORTSET_ID") .Cascade.Delete() .Inverse(); } Lazy loading works for GoodChildren, but not for BadChildren. The SQL statement is correct for both children. But the wrong values are use. If the value of IMPORT_ID is 10 and the value of IMPORTSET_ID is 12. The value 10 will be used for the IMPORTSET_ID in the SQL for BadChildren instead of 12. Anyone have any ideas what I need to change to get BadChildren to work correctly? Note: GoodChildren links to IMPORT_ID on Template BadChildren links to IMPORTSET_ID on Template

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  • TextArea component is null on applicationComplete event

    - by Alan G.
    I have a weird issue (weird because it is specific to one component) with applicationComplete in a fairly simple application. All the UI components are declared in MXML. I can access them all in applicationComplete, but not a spark.components.TextArea component, named taStatus here; it is null in the handler. MXML looks sort of like this (there are lots of other components, but nothing special) <s:Application xmlns:fx="http://ns.adobe.com/mxml/2009" xmlns:s="library://ns.adobe.com/flex/spark" xmlns:mx="library://ns.adobe.com/flex/mx" minWidth="710" minHeight="640" applicationComplete="onApplicationComplete(event)" width="710" height="640"> <mx:TabNavigator left="15" right="15" top="15" bottom="340" paddingTop="0"> <s:NavigatorContent label="General" width="100%" height="100%"> <s:Label x="93" y="71" text="Label" id="lblTest"/> </s:NavigatorContent> <s:NavigatorContent label="Status" width="100%" height="100%"> <s:TextArea id="taStatus" width="100%" height="100%" text="Startup." editable="false"/> </s:NavigatorContent> </mx:TabNavigator> <fx:Script source="main.as" /> </s:Application> Here is the handler in main.as protected function onApplicationComplete(event: FlexEvent) : void { lblTest.text = 'abc789'; // OK taStatus.text = 'abc789'; // Fail } TypeError: Error #1009: Cannot access a property or method of a null object reference. So taStatus is null... What is so special about this TextArea?

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  • Best practice accessing an array set within a class

    - by user350599
    I have created a basic class for a customer. I haven't done this before and want to know the best way to access the data. Should I have a get() method for every field in the customer array or should I simply pass the customer array back and access with the page. i.e. Just return the array class Customer { protected $id; protected $customer; public function __construct($customer_id) { $this->id = $customer_id; $this->set_customer(); } protected function set_customer() { $query = mysql_query("SELECT * FROM customer WHERE id = '$this->id'"); $this->customer = mysql_fetch_row($query); } public function get_customer() { return $this->customer; } } versus create a method for each item in the array class Customer { protected $id; protected $customer; public function __construct($customer_id) { $this->id = $customer_id; $this->set_customer(); } protected function set_customer() { $query = mysql_query("SELECT * FROM customer WHERE id = '$this->id'"); $this->customer = mysql_fetch_row($query); } public function get_customer_name() { return $this->customer->customer_name; } ... ... } versus option 3 based on Tobias' feedback: (not sure if syntax is correct) class Customer { protected $id; protected $customer; public function __construct($customer_id) { $this->id = $customer_id; return $this->set_customer(); } protected function set_customer() { $query = mysql_query("SELECT * FROM customer WHERE id = '$this->id'"); return mysql_fetch_row($query); } }

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  • Can not open ports in iptables on CentOS 5??

    - by abszero
    I am trying to open up ports in CentOS's firewall and am having a terrible go at it. I have followed the "HowTo" here: http://wiki.centos.org/HowTos/Network/IPTables as well as a few other places on the Net but I still can't get the bloody thing to work. Basically I wanted to get two things working: VNC and Apache over the internal network. The problem is that the firewall is blocking all attempts to connect to these services. Now if I issue service iptables stop and then try to access the server via VNC or hit the webserver everything works as expected. However the moment I turn iptables back on all of my access is blocked. Below is a truncated version of my iptables file as it appears in vi -A RH-Firewall-1-INPUT -p tcp -m state --state NEW -m tcp --dport 5801 -j ACCEPT -A RH-Firewall-1-INPUT -p tcp -m state --state NEW -m tcp --dport 5901 -j ACCEPT -A RH-Firewall-1-INPUT -p tcp -m state --state NEW -m tcp --dport 6001 -j ACCEPT -A RH-Firewall-1-INPUT -p tcp -m state --state NEW -m tcp --dport 5900 -j ACCEPT -A RH-Firewall-1-INPUT -p tcp -m state --state NEW -m tcp --dport 80 -j ACCEPT Really I would just be happy if I could get port 80 opened up for Apache since I can do most stuff via putty but if I could figure out VNC as well that would be cool. As far as VNC goes there is just a single/user desktop that I am trying to connect to via: [ipaddress]:1 Any help would be greatly appreciated!

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  • Serving static media in django application

    - by Ed
    I notice that when I reference my java scripts and static image files from my templates, they show up in development, but not from the production server. From development, I access them as such: <img src="/my_proj/media/css/images/collapsed.png" /> but from production, I have to remove the project directory: <img src="/media/css/images/collapsed.png" /> I'm assuming I'm doing something wrong with regard to serving static media. I'm caught between a number of seemingly different options for serving static media in Django. On one hand, it's been recommended that I use django-staticfiles to serve media. On the other I see reference to STATIC_ROOT and STATIC_URL in the documentation (with caveats about use in production). I have small .png files of "plus" and "minus" symbols for use in some of my jQuery scripts. In addition, the scripts themselves need to be referenced. 1) Am I correctly categorizing scripts and site images as static media? 2) What is the best method to access this media (from production)?

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  • How would I go about sharing variables in a C++ class with Lua?

    - by Nicholas Flynt
    I'm fairly new to Lua, I've been working on trying to implement Lua scripting for logic in a Game Engine I'm putting together. I've had no trouble so far getting Lua up and running through the engine, and I'm able to call Lua functions from C and C functions from Lua. The way the engine works now, each Object class contains a set of variables that the engine can quickly iterate over to draw or process for physics. While game objects all need to access and manipulate these variables in order for the Game Engine itself to see any changes, they are free to create their own variables, a Lua is exceedingly flexible about this so I don't forsee any issues. Anyway, currently the Game Engine side of things are sitting in C land, and I really want them to stay there for performance reasons. So in an ideal world, when spawning a new game object, I'd need to be able to give Lua read/write access to this standard set of variables as part of the Lua object's base class, which its game logic could then proceed to run wild with. So far, I'm keeping two separate tables of objects in place-- Lua spawns a new game object which adds itself to a numerically indexed global table of objects, and then proceeds to call a C++ function, which creates a new GameObject class and registers the Lua index (an int) with the class. So far so good, C++ functions can now see the Lua object and easily perform operations or call functions in Lua land using dostring. What I need to do now is take the C++ variables, part of the GameObject class, and expose them to Lua, and this is where google is failing me. I've encountered a very nice method here which details the process using tags, but I've read that this method is deprecated in favor of metatables. What is the ideal way to accomplish this? Is it worth the hassle of learning how to pass class definitions around using libBind or some equivalent method, or is there a simple way I can just register each variable (once, at spawn time) with the global lua object? What's the "current" best way to do this, as of Lua 5.1.4?

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  • Silverlight, Flash, or JavaScript for web app that runs client-side, or just stick with C#?

    - by Sootah
    Silverlight, Flash, and JavaScript, oh my.. I have a couple of applications that I need to develop for one of my business partners that will be distributed to dozens of people. These applications will need to be able to query information from the internet (query via Google, grab feeds from our other sites, just general web access) and save files to their computer. The reason I want to host the application is so that it all can be centrally managed, and any updates would be instantly deployed to everyone that uses the service. There always seems to be headaches with developing a pure desktop app in a language like C# with regards to making sure people use the latest version, don't have some odd problem with the installer, etc. Since we don't want to tie up our server's CPU I want effectively all of the processing done client-side. Meaning that they would log into their account, access the app, and then all the work done within the app is all handled by their machine. Only specific data would be sent back to the server. So - which language is best for this? Microsoft's Silverlight, Adobe's Flash, or Sun's JavaScript? I've heard a lot of good things about Silverlight and have wanted to try it for some time. I've only done extremely limited JavaScript programming, and absolutely none with Flash. Or, with my main requirement being that the client does all of its own processing should I just stick with C#? Also, is there any way to integrate a C# app into a webpage? I've never even considered it (or have any idea if it's even possible) until just now. Thanks in advance! -Sootah

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  • Error accessing uncompiled pages using ISA Server 2006 SP1

    - by Bravax
    We are in the processing of configuring a portal to use ISA Server as our front end security provider. So we are using ISA Server 2006 SP1. Unfortunately when we access .net applications through ISA Server, the first time they are accessed. i.e. They are not compiled yet, the following error appears: Error Code: 500 Internal Server Error. The parameter is incorrect. (87) In the ISA Monitoring logs, this shows: Failed Connection Attempt Log type: Web Proxy (Reverse) Status: 87 The parameter is incorrect. Once the application is compiled, the error never appears. Does anyone know how to resolve this, so the site works correctly the first time? Some additional information: The websites accessed are running on windows server 2008 64 bit - standard edition, and occurs for Sharepoint as well as standard .net websites. ISA Server is running on Windows server 2003 R2 SP2 Standard eidtion The firewall on the windows server 2008 box allows all access. (To rule this out.) Nothing odd appears in the IIS logs or firewall logs.

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  • What about race condition in multithreaded reading?

    - by themoob
    Hi, According to an article on IBM.com, "a race condition is a situation in which two or more threads or processes are reading or writing some shared data, and the final result depends on the timing of how the threads are scheduled. Race conditions can lead to unpredictable results and subtle program bugs." . Although the article concerns Java, I have in general been taught the same definition. As far as I know, simple operation of reading from RAM is composed of setting the states of specific input lines (address, read etc.) and reading the states of output lines. This is an operation that obviously cannot be executed simultaneously by two devices and has to be serialized. Now let's suppose we have a situation when a couple of threads access an object in memory. In theory, this access should be serialized in order to prevent race conditions. But e.g. the readers/writers algorithm assumes that an arbitrary number of readers can use the shared memory at the same time. So, the question is: does one have to implement an exclusive lock for read when using multithreading (in WinAPI e.g.)? If not, why? Where is this control implemented - OS, hardware? Best regards, Kuba

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  • how to share a variable between two threads

    - by prmatta
    I just inherited some code, two threads within this code need to perform a system task. One thread should do the system task before the other thread. They should not be performing the system task together. The two threads do not have references to each other. Now, I know I can use some sort of a semaphore to achieve this. But my question is what is the right way to get both threads to access this semaphore. I could create a static variable/method a new class : public class SharedSemaphore { private static Semaphore s = new Semaphore (1, true); public static void performSystemTask () { s.acquire(); } public static void donePerformingSystemTask() { s.release(); } } This would work (right?) but this doesn't seem like the right thing to do. Because, the threads now have access to a semaphore, without ever having a reference to it. This sort of thing doesn't seem like a good programming practice. Am I wrong?

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  • how to make a software and preserve database integrity and correctness and please help confused

    - by user287745
    i have made an application project in vs 08 c#, sql server from vs 08. the database has like 20 tables and many fields in each have made an interface for adding deleting editting and retrieving data according to predefined needs of the users. now i have to 1) make to project in to a software which i can deliver to professor. that is he can just double click the icon and the software simply starts. no vs 08 needed to start the debugging 2) the database will be on one powerful computer (dual core latest everything win xp) and the user will access it from another computer connected using LAN i am able to change the connection string to the shared database using vs 08/ debugger whenever the server changes but how am i supposed to do that when its a software? 3)there will by many clients am i supposed to give the same software to every one, so they all can connect to the database, how will the integrity and correctness of the database be maintained? i mean the db.mdf file will be in a folder which will be shared with read and write access. so its not necessary that only one user will write at a time. so is there any coding for this or? please help me out here i am stuck do not know what to do i have no practical experience, would appreciate all the help thank you

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  • connecting to secure database on private network from website host

    - by jim
    Hello all, I've got a requirement to both read and write data via a .net webservice to a sqlserver database that's on a private network. this database is currently accessed via a vpn connection by remote client software (on standard desktop machines) to get latest product prices and to upload product stock sales. I've been tasked with finding a way to centralise this access from a webservice that the clients then access, rather than them using the vpn route to connect directly to the database. My question is related to my .net service's relationship to the sqlserver database. What are the options for connecting to a private network vpn from a domain host in order to achive the functionality of allowing the webservice to both read and write data to the database. For now, I'm not too concerned about the client connectivity and security (tho i appreciate that this will have to be worked out too), I'm really just interested in discovering the options available in order to allow my .net webservice to connect to the private network in as painless and transparent a way as posible. [edit] the webservice will also be available to the retail website in order for it to lookup product info as well as allocate stock transfers to the same sqlserver db. it will therefore be located on the same domain as the retail site The option of switching the database onto public hosting is not feasible, so I have to work with the scenario as described above for now, unless there's a compelling rationale presented to do otherwise. thanks all... jim

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  • Accessing global variables of custom controls in ASP.NET

    - by CL4NCY
    Hi, I have built lots of custom asp.net controls which work really well separately but I want to somehow allow global access to all their variables from anywhere on the page. I have a central control called the ContentManager which I can use to store these variables. The problem I have is that all the controls are bound at different times so I only want the variables available after they're bound. For example I have many custom repeaters on the page which when bound I want to add a reference in the content manager so all their variables are then available to use. <Custom:ContentManager ID="cm" runat="server"/> <Custom:Repeater ID="r1" runat="server"/> <Custom:Repeater ID="r2" runat="server"/> <Custom:Repeater ID="r3" runat="server"/> Then I want a tag which can access all variables from any of these controls. <%= cm.controls["r1"].Items[0]["name"] %> The problem with this is that the variable isn't available until the repeater is bound so I might need to use events to push out the value to tags on the page like so: <Custom:Var ID="v1" control="r1" value="Items[0]["name"]" runat="server"/> Is this possible or can you recommend a better approach?

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  • Validation on ManyToManyField before Save in Models.py

    - by Heyl1
    I have the following models: class Application(models.Model): users = models.ManyToManyField(User, through='Permission') folder = models.ForeignKey(Folder) class Folder(models.Model): company = models.ManyToManyField(Compnay) class UserProfile(models.Model): user = models.OneToOneField(User, related_name='profile') company = models.ManyToManyField(Company) What I would like to do is to check whether one of the users of the Application has the same company as the Application (via Folder). If this is the case the Application instance should not be saved. The problem is that the ManyToManyFields aren't updated until after the 'post-save' signal. The only option seems to be the new m2m_changed signal. But I'm not sure how I then roll back the save that has already happened. Another option would be to rewrite the save function (in models.py, because I'm talking about the admin here), but I'm not sure how I could access the manytomanyfield content. Finally I've read something about rewriting the save function in the admin of the model in admin.py, however I still wouldn't know how you would access the manytomanyfield content. I have been searching for this everywhere but nothing I come across seems to work for me. If anything is unclear, please tell me. Thanks for your help! Heleen

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  • Service reference not generating client types

    - by Cranialsurge
    I am trying to consume a WCF service in a class library by adding a service reference to it. In one of the class libraries it gets consumed properly and I can access the client types in order to generate a proxy off of them. However in my second class library (or even in a console test app), when i add the same service reference, it only exposes the types that are involved in the contract operations and not the client type for me to generate a proxy against. e.g. Endpoint has 2 services exposed - ISvc1 and ISvc2. When I add a service reference to this endpoint in the first class library I get ISvc1Client andf ISvc2Client to generate proxies off of in order to use the operations exposed via those 2 contracts. In addition to these clients the service reference also exposes the types involved in the operations like (type 1, type 2 etc.) this is what I need. However when i try to add a service reference to the same endpoing in another console application or class library only Type 1, Type 2 etc. are exposed and not ISvc1Client and ISvc2Client because of which I cannot generate a proxy to access the operations I need. I am unable to determine why the service reference gets properly generated in one class library but not in the other or the test console app.

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  • C#: HTTPWebResponse using application/x-www-form-urlencoded

    - by CSharpened
    So I sent an HTTPWebRequest using application/x-www-form-urlencoded as my content type. I assume that this means the reponse will be returned in a similar type? (EDIT: Have now been told this isn't the case) My question is this. How do I access the different key/value pairs returned in the response. My code so far looks like this. I can of course read the string but surely there is a better way to access the data other than ripping the string apart. HttpWebResponse response = SendPOSTRequest("https://site/page?Service=foo", content.ToString(), "", "", true); string responseCode = response.StatusCode.ToString(); string responseStatusDescription = response.StatusDescription; StreamReader sr = new StreamReader(response.GetResponseStream()); string result = sr.ReadToEnd(); I tried using XML/linq to read the elements into an XDocument but of course it is not being returned in XML form. Assume I have 3 or 4 different pieces of information in there how could I read them out? EDIT: I have just checked and the data is being returned as text/plain. How can this be processed easily? EDIT: The response string once retrieved via a streamreader is: VPSProtocol=2.23 Status=OK StatusDetail=Server transaction registered successfully. VPSTxId={FDC93F3D-FC64-400D-875F-0B7E855AD81F} SecurityKey=***** NextURL=https://foo.com/PaymentPage.asp?TransactionID={875F-0B7E855AD81F}

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  • How do you get an object associated with a Future Actor?

    - by Bruce Ferguson
    I would like to be able to get access to the object that is being returned from spawning a future import scala.actors.Future import scala.actors.Futures._ class Object1(i:Int) { def getAValue(): Int = {i} } object Test { def main( args: Array[String] ) = { var tests = List[Future[Object1]]() for(i <- 0 until 10) { val test = future { val obj1 = new Object1(i) println("Processing " + i + "...") Thread.sleep(1000) println("Processed " + i) obj1 } tests = tests ::: List(test) } val timeout = 1000 * 60 * 5 // wait up to 5 minutes val futureTests = awaitAll(timeout,tests: _*) futureTests.foreach(test => println("result: " + future())) } } The output from one run of this code is: Processing 0... Processing 1... Processing 2... Processing 3... Processed 0 Processing 4... Processed 1 Processing 5... Processed 2 Processing 6... Processed 3 Processing 7... Processed 4 Processing 8... Processed 6 Processing 9... Processed 5 Processed 7 Processed 8 Processed 9 result: <function0> result: <function0> result: <function0> result: <function0> result: <function0> result: <function0> result: <function0> result: <function0> result: <function0> result: <function0> I've tried future().getClass(), and the output is result: class scala.actors.FutureActor What I'm looking to be able to access is the obj1 objects. Thanks Bruce

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