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  • Codeigniter: Base_url doesn't seem to be working

    - by Dwayne
    I have developed a simple site that fetches tweets from the Twitter public timeline, caches them for 60 seconds and so on. I have recently moved hosts from Hostgator to Mediatemple and my site was previously working fine on Hostgator. My application doesn't use a database connection, nor does it use any form of flat-file database either. Tweets are cached in an XML file stored in the root directory, not that most of that is important. The url helper is being included as can be seen below (this is my helpers line from autoload.php): $autoload['helper'] = array('url'); I have also removed my index.php file from the URL using .htaccess directives and once again this was previously working on Hostgator (see my .htaccess code below): RewriteEngine On RewriteRule ^(application) - [F,L] RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteRule .* index.php/$0 [PT,L] In my home.php view file which is in the views folder inside of application, I am using the function base_url() which was previously working on Hostgator inside of my view files and appending it a base href value in my header: <base href="<?php echo base_url(); ?>" /> Here is what my base_url value looks like in the config.php file: $config['base_url'] = "http://threetune.com/"; Although what appears to be happening is that the base_url is not to be seen at all. It doesn't appear to be echoing out the value of base_url as it appears to be empty for some reason. What makes things weirder is that I have a link in another view file called 'fetch.php' and for some reason it appears to be stripping out the value (XSS filtering is off): <a href="threetune/show"><img src="assets/images/cookie.jpg" /></a> The threetune/show part is not to be seen and I only see an empty href value like this <a href=""><img src="assets/images/cookie.jpg" /></a> Can anyone possibly see anything wrong that I may have done, some kind of Mediatemple server limitation or PHP.ini flag that needs to be set? Thank you and I hope I was descriptive enough.

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  • How do you find a functions virtual call address in assembly?

    - by Daniel
    I've googled around but i'm not sure i am asking the right question or not and i couldn't find much regardless, perhaps a link would be helpful. I made a c++ program that shows a message box, then I opened it up with Ollydbg and went to the part where it calls MessageBoxW. The call address of MessageBoxW changes each time i run the app as windows is updating my Imports table to have the correct address of MessageBoxW. So my question is how do i find the virtual addres of MessageBoxW to my imports table and also how can i use this in ollydbg? Basically I'm trying to make a code cave in assembly to call MessageBoxW again. I got fairly close once by searching the executable with a hex editor and found the position of the call, and I think I found the virtual address. But when i call that virtual address in olly and saved it to the executable, the next time i opened it the call was replaced with a bunch of DB xyz (which looked like the virtual address but why did the call get removed? Sorry if my terminology is off as i'm new to this so i'm not quite sure what to call things.

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  • Application doesn't exit with 0 threads

    - by Bryce Wagner
    We have a WinForms desktop application, which is heavily multithreaded. 3 threads run with Application.Run and a bunch of other background worker threads. Getting all the threads to shut down properly was kind of tricky, but I thought I finally got it right. But when we actually deployed the application, users started experiencing the application not exiting. There's a System.Threading.Mutex to prevent them from running the app multiple times, so they have to go into task manager and kill the old one before they can run it again. Every thread gets a Thread.Join before the main thread exits, and I added logging to each thread I spawn. According to the log, every single thread that starts also exits, and the main thread also exits. Even stranger, running SysInternals ProcessExplorer show all the threads disappear when the application exits. As in, there are 0 threads (managed or unmanaged), but the process is still running. I can't reproduce this on any developers computers or our test environment, and so far I've only seen it happen on Windows XP (not Vista or Windows 7 or any Windows Server). How can a process keep running with 0 threads?

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  • cl.exe Difference in object files when /E output is the same and flags are the same

    - by madiyaan damha
    Hello: I am using Visual Studio 2005's cl.exe compiler. I call it with a bunch of /I /D and some compilation/optimization flags (example: /Ehsc). I have two compilation scripts, and both differ only in the /I flags (include directories are different). All other flags are the same. These scripts produce different object files (and not just a timestamp difference as noted below). The strange thing is that the /E output of both scripts is the same. That means that the include files are not causing the difference in object files, but then again, where is the difference coming from? Can anyone elucidate on how I am seeing two different object files in my situation. If the include files are causing the difference, how come I see identical /E output? PS. The object files are different not only in the timestamp, but in the code sections also. In fact the behavior of my final executable is different in both cases. Edit: PSS: I even looked at the /includeFiles output of cl.exe and that output is identical. The object files, however, differ in more than just the timestamp (in fact, one is 1KB bigger than another!)

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  • Android SQLite database locale, locking, and version

    - by gdoten
    In some books and online I see these method calls being made after a database is created: db.setLocale(Locale.getDefault()); db.setLockingEnabled(true); db.setVersion(DB_VERSION); Why is this done? As far as I can tell, after creating a new database, the system adds a table named android_metadata with one field named locale and that table has one row with the locale field set to "en_US". Now I assume the column has that value because I am using a U.S. phone, and if I were using a phone from a different region then the locale field would be set appropriately. Can anyone confirm this? I'm guessing that the setLocale method would only be useful in the case that you install a pre-built database onto a phone and then want to change the locale to match the phone's locale. Sound right? The documentation for setLockingEnabled says it defaults to true so there's no need to make that call, right? Lastly, what's with the call to setVersion? I can't find a table that contains this information so I've been assuming that the database file itself stores the version number somewhere. So when I create a database, which requires you to have already specified the version number in the call to the SQLiteOpenHelper constructor, there's no point in calling setVersion. Again, perhaps this method exists for the case of installing a pre-built database to a device and you then wish to change the database's version (though I can't think of when doing this would make sense). Thanks for any insight!

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  • Appending html data when item in html select list is selected

    - by Workoholic
    I have a selector that could look like this: <label for="testselector">Test</label><br /> <select id="testselector" name="test[]" size="5" multiple="multiple"> <option name="test_1" value="1">Test Entry X</option> <option name="test_3" value="2">Test Entry Y</option> <option name="test_5" value="5">Test Entry Z</option> </select> <div id="fieldcontainer"></div> When an entry from the above fields is selected, I want two form fields to appear. I use jquery to add them: $("#fieldcontainer").append("<div><label for=\"testurl\">Test Url</label><br /><input name=\"testurl[]\" type=\"text\" id=\"testurl_1\" value=\"\" /></div>"); $("#fieldcontainer").append("<div><label for=\"testpath\">Test Path</label><br /><input name=\"testpath[]\" type=\"text\" id=\"testpath_1\" value=\"\" /></div>"); I can easily add a click handler to make those form fields appear. But how would I keep track of what form fields were already added? When multiple fields are selected, the appropriate number of input fields needs to be added to the fieldcontainer div. And if they are unselected, the input fields need to be removed again. I also need to retrieve the value from the options in the select list to add them as identifier in the added input fields...

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  • Why isn't my UITableView in a popover appearing in the correct scroll position?

    - by zbrimhall
    I have a split view-based app that presents a master-detail interface, and uses a popover to present the master list when in portrait mode. The popover presents a sectioned table view that ultimately gets populated by a subclass of NSFetchedResultsController. I can tap the tool bar button to present the master list, scroll to whatever row, and tap the row to dismiss the popover. My problem is that if the table is scrolled past the top of the second section, when I dismiss the popover and then later tap the toolbar button to re-present it, the table's scroll position is always set such that the first row of the second section is at the top of the list. If I haven't scrolled past the top of the second section, it correctly remembers its scroll position when the table is presented again. Similarly, in landscape mode, if I scroll the table past the top of the third section and then rotate to portrait, when I come back to landscape the scroll position is always set such that the first row of the third section is at the top of the list. I tried calling -scrollToNearestSelectedRowAtScrollPosition:animated in both the master view controller's -viewWillAppear, as well as in the split view delegate's splitViewController:popoverController:willPresentViewController:, to no effect. Anybody have a clue what I might be doing wrong?

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  • xcode 5.1: libCordova.a architecture problems

    - by inorganik
    Yesterday (3/10/14) when iOS 7.1 was released I also upgraded to Xcode 5.1 and found that my PhoneGap/Cordova project would no longer compile to my iPhone 5s. I also upgraded Cordova to the most recent release: v 3.4.0-0.1.3. I have read many different solutions on SO that relate so changing active architectures and building only active architectures, and none of them work. So here's what I've tried and the errors I get. Initially I got the error: missing required architecture arm64 in file <long file path omitted> libCordova.a Undefined symbols for architecture arm64 So I tried the following. I selected the CordovaLib sub-project in my project, and in both the project and target, I went to Build Settings under Architectures and made sure that arm64 was not included in any of the Debug or Release architectures. At this time Build Active Architecture Only is set to "Yes". That resulted in the following error: file was built for archive which is not the architecture being linked (armv7): <long file path omitted> libCordova.a Undefined symbols for architecture armv7 Setting Build Active Architecture Only to "No", the error again becomes: missing required architecture arm64 in file <long file path omitted> libCordova.a Undefined symbols for architecture arm64 I'm not sure what else to try. The project's architecture settings only includes the key "Base SDK" which is set to iOS 7.1. The project's target does not have architectures settings. Anyway I'm fairly certain the problem lies with the embedded CordovaLib sub-project. What can I do to make this thing compile to my device successfully? Update: same issue on Apache's Jira: https://issues.apache.org/jira/browse/CB-6223

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  • Map large integer to a phrase

    - by Alexander Gladysh
    I have a large and "unique" integer (actually a SHA1 hash). I want (for no other reason than to have fun) to find an algorithm to convert that SHA1 hash to a (pseudo-)English phrase. The conversion should be reversible (i.e., knowing the algorithm, one must be able to convert the phrase back to SHA1 hash.) The possible usage of the generated phrase: the human readable version of Git commit ID, like a motto for a given program version (which is built from that commit). (As I said, this is "for fun". I don't claim that this is very practical — or be much more readable than the SHA1 itself.) A better algorithm would produce shorter, more natural-looking, more unique phrases. The phrase need not make sense. I would even settle for a whole paragraph of nonsense. (Though quality — englishness — of a paragraph should probably be better than for a mere phrase.) A variation: it is OK if I will be able to work only with a part of hash. Say, first six digits is OK. Possible approach: In the past I've attempted to build a probability table (of words), and generate phrases as Markov chains, seeding the generator (picking branches from probability tree), according to the bits I read from the SHA. This was not very successful, the resulting phrases were too long and ugly. I'm not sure if this was a bug, or the general flaw in the algorithm, since I had to abandon it early enough. Now I'm thinking about attempting to solve the problem once again. Any advice on how to approach this? Do you think Markov chain approach can work here? Something else?

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  • Programmatical Creation of NSMappingModel

    - by enchilada
    I want to programmatically (without Lightweight Migration) create a mapping model between two models that are exactly the same, except one of the entities (there are a bunch of entities) has different attributes. Let's call this entity "Person". And let's say the destination model has 1) added a new attribute called "address" 2) deleted an attribute called "eyeColor" 3) kept (i.e. not done anything with) an attribute called "name" How would you create an NSMappingModel between these models programmatically? I happen to have some explicit questions that might help me do this by myself: Q1) Do I have to create NSEntityMapping objects for all of the entities other than "Person", even if they remain unchanged? Q2) How do I deal with the "address" attribute in "Person", which is a new one being created? Should I create an NSPropertyMapping for that somehow, that turns nothing into something ("address")? Q3) How do I deal with the "name" attribute in "Person"? Do I have to create an NSPropertyMapping for that, even though it simply stays the same? Q4) For the NSEntityMapping corresponding to "Person", is not creating any NSPropertyMapping for "eyeColor" a proper way to get it deleted? Or should I create an NSPropertyMapping for "eyeColor"? If yes, how would this object be created, i.e. what would determine that its purpose is to get rid of "eyeColor"? Thank you in advance, and I apologize not being able to answer these questions myself, as the documenation really has no good example of how to create NSMappingModels programmatically. Note again that I'm not allowed to use Lightweight Migration. I must do this manually.

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  • How Does MVC Handle Missing Data Requirements

    - by Don Bakke
    I'm teaching myself MVC concepts in hopes of applying them to a non-OO/procedural development environment. I am pretty sure I understand simple View - Request - Controller - Request - Model - Response - Controller - Response - View flow. What I am struggling with is understanding more complex scenarios. For instance, let's say I have a shopping cart form with a button for 'Calculate Shipping'. Normally a click on this button will follow the above flow. But what if there is missing data, like the zip code? Should the View verify this first and alert the user before making a 'Calculate Shipping' request? Or should the request be made and the Model returns a notification that critical data is missing? If the latter, does the Controller instruct the View to alert the user? What if I wanted to prompt the user for the missing zip code (perhaps in a popup input display) and then automatically request the 'Calculate Shipping' method again? I suppose this gets into the question of how smart a View ought to be. It seems that MVC has evolved due to richer UI and automation (such as with data-binding) and this muddies the water from a purist MVC perspective. Any thoughts are greatly appreciated.

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  • Get a JQuery function to execute after and independently of onLoad

    - by lewicki
    Is is possible to execute a JQuery function by injecting it into the page? IT CAN'T be attached to the .ready function. The reason is that the user will be uploading an image via iframe. I need JCrop to execute after I display the uploaded image. echo "<script>$('#pictures_step1_right_bottom1', window.parent.document).html('<img id=\"cropbox\" src=\"../../box/" . 'THM' . $filenameAlt . '.jpg' . "\">');</script>"; echo "<script>jQuery(function(){jQuery('#cropbox').Jcrop();});</script>"; This is executed in the iframe that is processing the image. it then sends it to the main page. This does not work however. EDIT: Ended up running a timer: function checkPic() { if($('#cropbox1').length != 0) { jQuery(function() { jQuery('#cropbox1').Jcrop(); }); } timer(); // Check size again after 1 second } function timer(){ var myTimer = setTimeout('checkPic()', 3000); // Check size every 1 second}

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  • Using GKPeerPickerController within a selector from a Cocos2D CCMenuItem

    - by Mark Hazlett
    Hey everyone, So i'm trying to use GameKit along with Cocos2D so that when a user clicks on the multiplayer menu item it will display the GKPeerPickerController. I'm however, running into some snags. It doesn't seem to want to compile. However, it doesn't give me an error inside of the code that's in my selector. Anyways here's the code... @implementation GameOverLayer - (id) init { self = [super init]; if (self != nil) { [CCMenuItemFont setFontSize:20]; [CCMenuItemFont setFontName:@"Helvetica"]; CCMenuItem *start = [CCMenuItemFont itemFromString:@"Play Again!" target:self selector:@selector(startGame:)]; CCMenuItem *connect = [CCMenuItemFont itemFromString:@"Multiplayer" target:self selector:@selector(connect:)]; CCMenu *menu = [CCMenu menuWithItems:start,connect, nil]; [menu alignItemsVertically]; [self addChild:menu]; } return self; } -(void)startGame: (id)sender { [[CCDirector sharedDirector] replaceScene: [HelloWorld scene]]; } -(void)connect: (id)sender { GKPeerPickerController *peerPicker; peerPicker = [[GKPeerPickerController alloc] init]; peerPicker.delegate = self; peerPicker.connectionTypesMask = GKPeerPickerConnectionTypeOnline | GKPeerPickerConnectionTypeNearby; [peerPicker show]; } @end The error message i'm getting is... ".obj_class_name_GKPeerPickerController", referenced from: Literal-Pointer@_OBJC@_cls_refs@GKPeerPickerController in GameOverScene.o Symbol(s) not found Collect2: id returned 1 exit status Any ideas?

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  • iPhone Debugging: How to resolve 'failed to get the task for process'?

    - by unforgiven
    I have just added a provisioning profile to XCode (needed to support notifications and in app purchase), setup as needed the build configuration for ad hoc distribution, and tried to run the app on the device (I have done this several times in the past, without any problem). The app is installed, but it does not start. On the console, I see the following message: Error launching remote program: failed to get the task for process 82. Error launching remote program: failed to get the task for process 82. The program being debugged is not being run. The program being debugged is not being run. However, if I start the application on the device manually, it works as expected. I have recently installed the latest XCode 3.2 for Snow Leopard. Is this a known bug of this version of XCode or am I doing something wrong? EDIT: It works fine with release distribution using the development provisioning profile. I have checked again the ad hoc provisioning profile to make sure it includes the device I am using.

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  • Manipulating jQuery to retrieve the onclick function of an item which lies directly below the curren

    - by Stevie Jenowski
    First off, I want to thank you for looking into my question as I really do appreciate your time. I've built a list of items using php by having a foreach loop cycle through an associative array printing the array data as parameters of an onclick function call and gives each item it cycles through an ID of $thecount. All items retrieved have the same parent div and calls the very same onclick function, only with 11 different parameters. My question is how do I go about calling the onClick("function();") of an item directly below the current focus, making it the new focus, only without a physical click? If this is confusing to you whatsoever, I'm essentially building a dynamic playlist, and I've already implemented the listener for when the player's current item has finished playing, Now I'm having trouble grasping how I'd go about having the next item in the list become the new focus while also calling it's specific onClick() function once the player returns that it has finished with the current file. All without any user interaction besides the initial play call. If it helps I'm using the most recent release of Longtails' JW Player and once again thank you very much for your time!

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  • Problems with Acitivity LifeCycle with VideoView playback.

    - by Alex Volovoy
    Hi all i've ran into another problems with VideoView. Then video is playing, and i put device asleep, using hard button, onPause is called. But it followed by 03-17 11:26:33.779: WARN/ActivityManager(884): Activity pause timeout for HistoryRecord{4359f620 com.package/com.package.VideoViewActivity} And then i have onStart/onResume again and Video starts playing. I've try to move code around onStart/onStop - doesn't seems to make difference. sample code : public class VideoViewActivity extends Activity { private String path = ""; private VideoView mVideoView; private static final String MEDIA_URL = "media_url"; @Override public void onCreate(Bundle icicle) { super.onCreate(icicle); setContentView(R.layout.videoview); mVideoView = (VideoView)findViewById(R.id.surface_view); path = getIntent().getStringExtra(MEDIA_URL); } @Override public void onResume() { super.onResume(); mVideoView.setVideoPath(path); mVideoView.setMediaController(new MediaController(this)); mVideoView.requestFocus(); mVideoView.start(); } @Override public void onPause() { super.onPause(); mVideoView.stopPlayback(); mVideoView.setMediaController(null); } }

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  • Help with Exception Handling in ASP.NET C# Application

    - by Shrewd Demon
    hi, yesterday i posted a question regarding the Exception Handling technique, but i did'nt quite get a precise answer, partly because my question must not have been precise. So i will ask it more precisely. There is a method in my BLL for authenticating user. If a user is authenticated it returns me the instance of the User class which i store in the session object for further references. the method looks something like this... public static UsersEnt LoadUserInfo(string email) { SqlDataReader reader = null; UsersEnt user = null; using (ConnectionManager cm = new ConnectionManager()) { SqlParameter[] parameters = new SqlParameter[1]; parameters[0] = new SqlParameter("@Email", email); try { reader = SQLHelper.ExecuteReader(cm.Connection, "sp_LoadUserInfo", parameters); } catch (SqlException ex) { //this gives me a error object } if (reader.Read()) user = new UsersDF(reader); } return user; } now my problem is suppose if the SP does not exist, then it will throw me an error or any other SQLException for that matter. Since this method is being called from my aspx.cs page i want to return some meaning full message as to what could have gone wrong so that the user understands that there was some problem and that he/she should retry logging-in again. but i can't because the method returns an instance of the User class, so how can i return a message instead ?? i hope i made it clear ! thank you.

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  • C# Taking a element off each time (stack)

    - by Sef
    Greetings, Have a question considering a program that stimulates a stack.(not using any build in stack features or any such) stack2= 1 2 3 4 5 //single dimension array of 5 elements By calling up a method "pop" the stack should look like the following: Basically taking a element off each time the stack is being "called" up again. stack2= 1 2 3 4 0 stack2= 1 2 3 0 0 stack2= 1 2 0 0 0 stack2= 1 0 0 0 0 stack2= 0 0 0 0 0 - for (int i = 1; i <= 6; i++) { number= TryPop(s2); //use number ShowStack(s2, "s2"); } Basically I already have code that fills my array with values (trough a push method). The pop method should basically take the last value and place it on 0. Then calls up the next stack and place the following on 0 (like shown above in stack2). The current pop method that keeps track of the top index (0 elements = 0 top, 1 element = 1 top etc..). Already includes a underflow warning if this goes on 0 or below (which is correct). public int Pop() { if(top <= 0) { throw new Exception("Stack underflow..."); } else { for (int j = tabel.Length - 1; j >= 0; j--) { //...Really not sure what to do here. } } return number; }/*Pop*/ Since in the other class I already have a loop (for loop shown above) that simulates 6 times the s2 stack. (first stack: 1 2 3 4 0, second stack 1 2 3 0 0 and so on.) How exactly do I take a element off each time? Either I have the entire display on 0 or the 0 in the wrong places / out of index errors. Thanks in advance!

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  • Logging exceptions during bean injection

    - by Marc W
    I think this is a pretty basic question, but after Googling around I can't seem to find the answer. What I need is a way to log some custom output with log4j during Spring bean construction. I have a factory class called ResponderFactory (being used as an instance factory in Spring) with a factory method that can throw 2 different types of exception. public CollectorResponder collectorResponder(String inputQueueName) throws ConfigurationException, BrokerConnectionException {} Now, normally I could wrap a call to this method in a try-catch block with 2 catch clauses to handle the logging situations for each of the exceptions. However, if I'm using Spring to inject this CollectorResponder, created with the factory, into another class I don't see how this is possible. <bean id="responderFactory" class="com.package.ResponderFactory"> <constructor-arg index="0" ref="basicDispatcher" /> <constructor-arg index="1" value="http://localhost:9000" /> </bean> <bean id="collectorResponder" class="com.package.CollectorResponder" factory-bean="responderFactory" factory-method="collectorResponder"> <constructor-arg value="collector.in" /> </bean> <bean id="collectorConsumer" class="com.package.CollectorConsumer"> <constructor-arg ref="collectorResponder" /> </bean> Again, I want to catch these exceptions when the collectorResponder bean is instantiated. Right now I'm dealing with this is CollectorConsumer when I instantiate using new CollectorResponder(...). Is there any way I can do this?

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  • OpenGl texture mapping blocking colours on FreeType?

    - by Dororo
    I'm using FreeType in order to allow fonts to be used in OpenGL. However, I'm having a problem where I cannot change the font colour whenever I do texture mapping. No matter what I select using glColor3f it will just come out white. The texture works fine. glClear(GL_COLOR_BUFFER_BIT); glLoadIdentity(); glColor3f(0.5,0.0,0.5); glPushMatrix(); glEnable(GL_BLEND); glBlendFunc(GL_SRC_ALPHA, GL_ONE_MINUS_SRC_ALPHA); glEnable(GL_TEXTURE_2D); glTexEnvf(GL_TEXTURE_ENV, GL_TEXTURE_ENV_MODE, GL_REPLACE); glBindTexture(GL_TEXTURE_2D, texName); glBegin(GL_POLYGON); glTexCoord2f(0,1); glVertex2f(-16,-16); glTexCoord2f(0,0); glVertex2f(-16,16); glTexCoord2f(1,0); glVertex2f(16,16); glTexCoord2f(1,1); glVertex2f(16,-16); glEnd(); glDisable(GL_TEXTURE_2D); glDisable(GL_BLEND); glPopMatrix(); glColor3f(1,0,0); print(our_font, -300+screenWidth/2.0, screenHeight/2.0, "fifty two - %7.2f", spin); This is the problem code, I can confirm that drawing a polygon beneath this code will indeed make it red. The text is not changing to red though which it should; if you remove the texture mapping above it will turn red again, I can only think it is a problem with enabling and disabling and I've forgotten to do something...?

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  • Disabling redraw in WinForms app

    - by Ryan
    I'm working on a C#.Net application which has a somewhat annoying bug in it. The main window has a number of tabs, each of which has a grid on it. When switching from one tab to another, or selecting a different row in a grid, it does some background processing, and during this the menu flickers as it's redrawn (File, Help, etc menu items as well as window icon and title). I tried disabling the redraw on the window while switching tabs/rows (WM_SETREDRAW message) at first. In one case, it works perfectly. In the other, it solves the immediate bug (title/menu flicker), but between disabling the redraw and enabling it again, the window is "transparent" to mouse clicks - there's a small window (<1 sec) in which I can click and it will, say, highlight an icon on my desktop, as if the app wasn't there at all. If I have something else running in the background (Firefox, say) it will actually get focus when clicked (and draw part of the browser, say the address bar.) Here's code I added. m = new Message(); m.HWnd = System.Windows.Forms.Application.OpenForms[0].Handle; //top level m.WParam = (IntPtr)0; //disable redraw m.LParam = (IntPtr)0; //unused m.Msg = 11; //wm_setredraw WndProc(ref m); <snip - Application ignores clicks while in this section (in one case) m = new Message(); m.HWnd = System.Windows.Forms.Application.OpenForms[0].Handle; //top level m.WParam = (IntPtr)1; //enable m.LParam = (IntPtr)0; //unused m.Msg = 11; //wm_setredraw WndProc(ref m); System.Windows.Forms.Application.OpenForms[0].Refresh(); Does anyone know if a) there's a way to fix the transparent-application problem here, or b) if I'm doing it wrong in the first place and this should be fixed some other way?

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  • How to read a database record with a DataReader and add it to a DataTable

    - by Olga
    Hello I have some data in a Oracle database table(around 4 million records) which i want to transform and store in a MSSQL database using ADO.NET. So far i used (for much smaller tables) a DataAdapter to read the data out of the Oracle DataBase and add the DataTable to a DataSet for further processing. When i tried this with my huge table, there was a outofmemory exception thrown. ( I assume this is because i cannot load the whole table into my memory) :) Now i am looking for a good way to perform this extract/transfer/load, without storing the whole table in the memory. I would like to use a DataReader and read the single dataRecords in a DataTable. If there are about 100k rows in it, I would like to process them and clear the DataTable afterwards(to have free memory again). Now i would like to know how to add a single datarecord as a row to a dataTable with ado.net and how to completly clear the dataTable out of memory: My code so far: Dim dt As New DataTable Dim count As Int32 count = 0 ' reads data records from oracle database table' While rdr.Read() 'read n records and add them to a dataTable' While count < 10000 dt.Rows.Add(????) count = count + 1 End While 'transform data in the dataTable, and insert it to the destination' ' flush the dataTable after insertion' count = 0 End While Thank you very much for your response!

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  • C - Complicated pointer declarations - help understanding

    - by Emmel
    In my burgeoning new self-education in the C language, I've come across a set of declarations that I do not understand how to read. I'd love for someone to break these down. I'll explain at the bottom where I got these examples from. 1. char (*(*x())[])() "x: function returning pointer to array[] of pointer to function returning char" - huh? 2. char (*(*x[3])())[5] "x: array[3] of pointer to function returning pointer to array[5] of char" - come again? 3. char **argv This I understand. "Pointer to pointer to char." But what I don't understand is -- what's the use case for a pointer to a pointer? Follow-up question: does anyone every use declarations this complex or is this just academic fun on the part of the authors of the examples I got this from? These examples are from section 5.12 of the K&R book. This is the first time I'm genuinely stumped by an explanation, in an otherwise well-written classic. Thanks.

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  • Replace image in word doc using OpenXML

    - by fearofawhackplanet
    Following on from my last question here OpenXML looks like it probably does exactly what I want, but the documentation is terrible. An hour of googling hasn't got me any closer to figuring out what I need to do. I have a word document. I want to add an image to that word document (using word) in such a way that I can then open the document in OpenXML and replace that image. Should be simple enough, yes? I'm assuming I should be able to give my image 'placeholder' an id of some sort and then use GetPartById to locate the image and replace it. Would this be the correct method? What is this Id? How do you add it using Word? Every example I can find which does anything remotely similar starts by building the whole word document from scratch in ML, which really isn't a lot of use. EDIT: it occured to me that it would be easier to just replace the image in the media folder with the new image, but again can't find any indication of how to do this.

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  • What is the best way to process XML sent to WCF 3.5

    - by CRM Junkie
    I have to develop a WCF application in 3.5. The input will be sent in the form of XML and the response would be sent in the form of XML as well. A ASP.NET application will be consuming the WCF and sending/receiving data in XML format. Now, as per my understanding, when consuming WCF from an ASP.NET application, we just add a reference to the service, create an object of the service, pack all the necessary data(Data Members in WCF) into the input object (object of the Data Contract) and call the necessary function. It happens that the ASP.NET application is being developed by a separate party and they are hell bent on receiving and sending data in XML format. What I can perceive from this is that the WCF will take the XML string (a single Data Member string type) as input and send out a XML string (again a single Data Member string type) as output. I have created WCF applications earlier where requests and responses were sent out in XML/JSON format when it was consumed by jQuery ajax calls. In those cases, the XML tags were automatically mapped to the different Data Members defined. What approach should I take in this case? Should I just take a string as input (basically the XML string) or is there any way WCF/.NET 3.5 will automatically map the XML tags with the Data Members for requests and responses and I would not need to parse the XML string separately?

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