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  • Testing Django web app with Hudson and Selenium

    - by ycseattle
    This might be a newbie question for Hudson. I am trying to setup Selenium testing for my Django website in my Hudson CI server. The question is, the Hudson will use subversion to checkout my Django code into its own path, how do I "deploy" the code into the same server for testing? This is not a question about deploying django, but instead how to access the source file in hudson workspace. Most tutorials/blogs is about building and running tests, but I couldn't find useful information about how to setup the web application on the server to run the test against. 1) Should I write some shell script to copy the source files from the hudson workspace? Is there an environment variable to use to access the workspace? 2) Is there a tutorial on how to grab web app files in hudson workspace and deploy them? I am sure this apply for other technologies like PHP as well. Thanks!

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  • Impersonation and Delegation

    - by Samuel Kim
    I am using impersonation is used to access file on UNC share as below. var ctx = ((WindowsIdentity)HttpContext.Current.User.Identity).Impersonate(); string level = WindowsIdentity.GetCurrent().ImpersonationLevel); On two Windows 2003 servers using IIS6, I am getting different impersonation levels: Delegation on one server and Impersonation on the other server. This causes issues where I am unable to access the UNC share on the server with 'Impersonation' level. What could be causing this difference? I searched through machine.config and IIS settings for the app pool, site and virtual directories - but aren't able to find the cause of this problem.

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  • when to use the abstract factory pattern?

    - by hguser
    Hi: I want to know when we need to use the abstract factory pattern. Here is an example,I want to know if it is necessary. The UML THe above is the abstract factory pattern, it is recommended by my classmate. THe following is myown implemention. I do not think it is necessary to use the pattern. And the following is some core codes: package net; import java.io.IOException; import java.util.HashMap; import java.util.Map; import java.util.Properties; public class Test { public static void main(String[] args) throws IOException, InstantiationException, IllegalAccessException, ClassNotFoundException { DaoRepository dr=new DaoRepository(); AbstractDao dao=dr.findDao("sql"); dao.insert(); } } class DaoRepository { Map<String, AbstractDao> daoMap=new HashMap<String, AbstractDao>(); public DaoRepository () throws IOException, InstantiationException, IllegalAccessException, ClassNotFoundException { Properties p=new Properties(); p.load(DaoRepository.class.getResourceAsStream("Test.properties")); initDaos(p); } public void initDaos(Properties p) throws InstantiationException, IllegalAccessException, ClassNotFoundException { String[] daoarray=p.getProperty("dao").split(","); for(String dao:daoarray) { AbstractDao ad=(AbstractDao)Class.forName(dao).newInstance(); daoMap.put(ad.getID(),ad); } } public AbstractDao findDao(String id) {return daoMap.get(id);} } abstract class AbstractDao { public abstract String getID(); public abstract void insert(); public abstract void update(); } class SqlDao extends AbstractDao { public SqlDao() {} public String getID() {return "sql";} public void insert() {System.out.println("sql insert");} public void update() {System.out.println("sql update");} } class AccessDao extends AbstractDao { public AccessDao() {} public String getID() {return "access";} public void insert() {System.out.println("access insert");} public void update() {System.out.println("access update");} } And the content of the Test.properties is just one line: dao=net.SqlDao,net.SqlDao So any ont can tell me if this suitation is necessary?

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  • Using the ASP.NET membership provider database with your own database?

    - by Shaharyar
    Hello everybody, We are developing an ASP.NET MVC Application that currently uses it's own databse ApplicationData for the domain models and another one Membership for the user management / membership provider. We do access restrictions using data-annotations in our controllers. [Authorize(Roles = "administrators, managers")] This worked great for simple use cases. As we are scaling our application our customer wants to restrict specific users to access specific areas of our ApplicationData database. Each of our products contains a foreign key referring to the region the product was assembled in. A user story would be: Users in the role NewYorkManagers should only be able to edit / see products that are assembled in New York. We created a placeholder table UserRightsRegions that contains the UserId and the RegionId. How can I link both the ApplicationData and the Membership databases in order to work properly / having cross-database-key-references? (Is something like this even possible?) All help is more than appreciated!

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  • Entity Framework connection metadata extraction

    - by James
    Hi, I am using the EntityFramework POCO adapter and since there are limitations to what microsoft gives access to with regards to the meta data, i am manually extracting the information i need out of the xml. The only problem is i want to get the ssdl, msl, csdl file names to load without having to directly check for the connection string node in app.config. In short where in the ObjectContext/EntityConnection can i get access to these file names? Worst case scenario i need to get the connection name from the EntityConnection object then load this from app.config and parse the string itself and extract the filenames myself. (But i obviously don't want to do that). Thanks

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  • Using VRaptor3 with Tomcat UnpackWARs property setted to false

    - by VinTem
    Hi there, I have to deploy my web app to a tomcat container with the unpackWARs property defined to false. When I do that, although the application is successfully deployed, when I try to access my url I always got a 404 error. I just don't receive that error when I try to access a direct file like index.html for instance. But I can't do that, the VRaptor framework is responsible for routing my url to the jsp file. Does anyone know if I have do anything else? Thanx

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  • Mutating the expression tree of a predicate to target another type

    - by Jon
    Intro In the application I 'm currently working on, there are two kinds of each business object: the "ActiveRecord" type, and the "DataContract" type. So for example, we have: namespace ActiveRecord { class Widget { public int Id { get; set; } } } namespace DataContracts { class Widget { public int Id { get; set; } } } The database access layer takes care of "translating" between hierarchies: you can tell it to update a DataContracts.Widget, and it will magically create an ActiveRecord.Widget with the same property values and save that. The problem I have surfaced when attempting to refactor this database access layer. The Problem I want to add methods like the following to the database access layer: // Widget is DataContract.Widget interface DbAccessLayer { IEnumerable<Widget> GetMany(Expression<Func<Widget, bool>> predicate); } The above is a simple general-use "get" method with custom predicate. The only point of interest is that I 'm not passing in an anonymous function but rather an expression tree. This is done because inside DbAccessLayer we have to query ActiveRecord.Widget efficiently (LINQ to SQL) and not have the database return all ActiveRecord.Widget instances and then filter the enumerable collection. We need to pass in an expression tree, so we ask for one as the parameter for GetMany. The snag: the parameter we have needs to be magically transformed from an Expression<Func<DataContract.Widget, bool>> to an Expression<Func<ActiveRecord.Widget, bool>>. This is where I haven't managed to pull it off... Attempted Solution What we 'd like to do inside GetMany is: IEnumerable<DataContract.Widget> GetMany( Expression<Func<DataContract.Widget, bool>> predicate) { var lambda = Expression.Lambda<Func<ActiveRecord.Widget, bool>>( predicate.Body, predicate.Parameters); // use lambda to query ActiveRecord.Widget and return some value } This won't work because in a typical scenario, for example if: predicate == w => w.Id == 0; ...the expression tree contains a MemberAccessExpression instance which has a MemberInfo property (named Member) that point to members of DataContract.Widget. There are also ParameterExpression instances both in the expression tree and in its parameter expression collection (predicate.Parameters); After searching a bit, I found System.Linq.Expressions.ExpressionVisitor (its source can be found here in the context of a how-to, very helpful) which is a convenient way to modify an expression tree. Armed with this, I implemented a visitor. This simple visitor only takes care of changing the types in member access and parameter expressions. It may not be complete, but it's fine for the expression w => w.Id == 0. internal class Visitor : ExpressionVisitor { private readonly Func<Type, Type> dataContractToActiveRecordTypeConverter; public Visitor(Func<Type, Type> dataContractToActiveRecordTypeConverter) { this.dataContractToActiveRecordTypeConverter = dataContractToActiveRecordTypeConverter; } protected override Expression VisitMember(MemberExpression node) { var dataContractType = node.Member.ReflectedType; var activeRecordType = this.dataContractToActiveRecordTypeConverter(dataContractType); var converted = Expression.MakeMemberAccess( base.Visit(node.Expression), activeRecordType.GetProperty(node.Member.Name)); return converted; } protected override Expression VisitParameter(ParameterExpression node) { var dataContractType = node.Type; var activeRecordType = this.dataContractToActiveRecordTypeConverter(dataContractType); return Expression.Parameter(activeRecordType, node.Name); } } With this visitor, GetMany becomes: IEnumerable<DataContract.Widget> GetMany( Expression<Func<DataContract.Widget, bool>> predicate) { var visitor = new Visitor(...); var lambda = Expression.Lambda<Func<ActiveRecord.Widget, bool>>( visitor.Visit(predicate.Body), predicate.Parameters.Select(p => visitor.Visit(p)); var widgets = ActiveRecord.Widget.Repository().Where(lambda); // This is just for reference, see below Expression<Func<ActiveRecord.Widget, bool>> referenceLambda = w => w.Id == 0; // Here we 'd convert the widgets to instances of DataContract.Widget and // return them -- this has nothing to do with the question though. } Results The good news is that lambda is constructed just fine. The bad news is that it isn't working; it's blowing up on me when I try to use it (the exception messages are really not helpful at all). I have examined the lambda my code produces and a hardcoded lambda with the same expression; they look exactly the same. I spent hours in the debugger trying to find some difference, but I can't. When predicate is w => w.Id == 0, lambda looks exactly like referenceLambda. But the latter works with e.g. IQueryable<T>.Where, while the former does not (I have tried this in the immediate window of the debugger). I should also mention that when predicate is w => true, it all works just fine. Therefore I am assuming that I 'm not doing enough work in Visitor, but I can't find any more leads to follow on. Can someone point me in the right direction? Thanks in advance for your help!

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  • How to structure an enterprise MVC app, and where does Business Logic go?

    - by James
    I am an MVC newbie. As far as I can tell: Controller: deals with routing requests View: deals with presentation of data Model: looks a whole lot like a Data Access layer Where does the Business Logic go? Take a large enterprise application with: Several different sources of data (WCF, WebServices and ADO) tied together in a data access layer (useing multiple different DTOs). A lot business logic segmented over several dlls. What is an appropriate way for an MVC web application to sit on top of this (in terms of code and project structure)? The example I have seen where everything just goes in the Model folder don't seem like they are appropriate for very large applications. Thanks for any advice!

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  • Cluster failover and strange gratuitous arp behavior

    - by lazerpld
    I am experiencing a strange Windows 2008R2 cluster related issue that is bothering me. I feel that I have come close as to what the issue is, but still don't fully understand what is happening. I have a two node exchange 2007 cluster running on two 2008R2 servers. The exchange cluster application works fine when running on the "primary" cluster node. The problem occurs when failing over the cluster ressource to the secondary node. When failing over the cluster to the "secondary" node, which for instance is on the same subnet as the "primary", the failover initially works ok and the cluster ressource continues to work for a couple of minutes on the new node. Which means that the recieving node does send out a gratuitous arp reply packet that updated the arp tables on the network. But after x amount of time (typically within 5 minutes time) something updates the arp-tables again because all of a sudden the cluster service does not answer to pings. So basically I start a ping to the exchange cluster address when its running on the "primary node". It works just great. I failover the cluster ressource group to the "secondary node" and I only have loss of one ping which is acceptable. The cluster ressource still answers for some time after being failed over and all of a sudden the ping starts timing out. This is telling me that the arp table initially is updated by the secondary node, but then something (which I haven't found out yet) wrongfully updates it again, probably with the primary node's MAC. Why does this happen - has anyone experienced the same problem? The cluster is NOT running NLB and the problem stops immidiately after failing over back to the primary node where there are no problems. Each node is using NIC teaming (intel) with ALB. Each node is on the same subnet and has gateway and so on entered correctly as far as I am concerned. Edit: I was wondering if it could be related to network binding order maybe? Because I have noticed that the only difference I can see from node to node is when showing the local arp table. On the "primary" node the arp table is generated on the cluster address as the source. While on the "secondary" its generated from the nodes own network card. Any input on this? Edit: Ok here is the connection layout. Cluster address: A.B.6.208/25 Exchange application address: A.B.6.212/25 Node A: 3 physical nics. Two teamed using intels teaming with the address A.B.6.210/25 called public The last one used for cluster traffic called private with 10.0.0.138/24 Node B: 3 physical nics. Two teamed using intels teaming with the address A.B.6.211/25 called public The last one used for cluster traffic called private with 10.0.0.139/24 Each node sits in a seperate datacenter connected together. End switches being cisco in DC1 and NEXUS 5000/2000 in DC2. Edit: I have been testing a little more. I have now created an empty application on the same cluster, and given it another ip address on the same subnet as the exchange application. After failing this empty application over, I see the exact same problem occuring. After one or two minutes clients on other subnets cannot ping the virtual ip of the application. But while clients on other subnets cannot, another server from another cluster on the same subnet has no trouble pinging. But if i then make another failover to the original state, then the situation is the opposite. So now clients on same subnet cannot, and on other they can. We have another cluster set up the same way and on the same subnet, with the same intel network cards, the same drivers and same teaming settings. Here we are not seeing this. So its somewhat confusing. Edit: OK done some more research. Removed the NIC teaming of the secondary node, since it didnt work anyway. After some standard problems following that, I finally managed to get it up and running again with the old NIC teaming settings on one single physical network card. Now I am not able to reproduce the problem described above. So it is somehow related to the teaming - maybe some kind of bug? Edit: Did some more failing over without being able to make it fail. So removing the NIC team looks like it was a workaround. Now I tried to reestablish the intel NIC teaming with ALB (as it was before) and i still cannot make it fail. This is annoying due to the fact that now i actually cannot pinpoint the root of the problem. Now it just seems to be some kind of MS/intel hick-up - which is hard to accept because what if the problem reoccurs in 14 days? There is a strange thing that happened though. After recreating the NIC team I was not able to rename the team to "PUBLIC" which the old team was called. So something has not been cleaned up in windows - although the server HAS been restarted! Edit: OK after restablishing the ALB teaming the error came back. So I am now going to do some thorough testing and i will get back with my observations. One thing is for sure. It is related to Intel 82575EB NICS, ALB and Gratuitous Arp.

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  • Automating WebTrends analysis

    - by tridium
    Every week I access server logs processed by WebTrends (for about 7 profiles) and copy ad clickthrough and visitor information into Excel spreadsheets. A lot of it is just accessing certain sections and finding the right title and then copying the unique visitor information. I tried using WebTrends' built-in query tool but that is really poorly done (only uses a drag-and-drop system instead of text-based) and it has a maximum number of parameters and maximum length of queries to query with. As far as I know, the tools in WebTrends are not suitable to my purpose of automating the entire web metrics gathering process. I've gotten access to the raw server logs, but it seems redundant to parse that given that they are already being processed by WebTrends. To me it seems very scriptable, but how would I go about doing that? Is screen-scraping an option?

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  • Reverse proxy for a REST web service using ADFS/AD and WebApi

    - by Kai Friis
    I need to implement a reverse proxy for a REST webservice behind a firewall. The reverse proxy should authenticate against an enterprise ADFS 2.0 server, preferably using claims in .net 4.5. The clients will be a mix of iOS, Android and web. I’m completely new to this topic; I’ve tried to implement the service as a REST service using WebApi, WIF and the new Identity and Access control in VS 2012, with no luck. I have also tried to look into Brock Allen’s Thinktecture.IdentityModel.45, however then my head was spinning so I didn’t see the difference between it and Windows Identity Foundation with the Identity and Access control. So I think I need to step back and get some advice on how to do this. There are several ways to this, as far as I understand it. In hardware. Set up our Citrix Netscaler as a reverse proxy. I have no idea how to do that, however if it’s a good solution I can always hire someone who knows… Do it in the webserver, like IIS. I haven’t tried it; do not know if it will work. Create a web service to do it. 3.1 Implement it as a SOAP service using WCF. As I understand it ADFS do not support REST so I have to use SOAP. The problem is mobile device do not like SOAP, neither do I… However if it’s the best way, I have to do it. 3.2 Use Azure Access Control Service. It might work, however the timing is not good. Our enterprise is considering several cloud options, and us jumping on the azure wagon on our own might not be the smartest thing to do right now. However if it is the only options, we can do it. I just prefer not to use it right now. Right now I feel there are too many options, and I do not know which one will work. If someone can point me in the right directions, which path to pursue, I would be very grateful.

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  • C++ Unlocking a std::mutex before calling std::unique_lock wait

    - by Sant Kadog
    I have a multithreaded application (using std::thread) with a manager (class Tree) that executes some piece of code on different subtrees (embedded struct SubTree) in parallel. The basic idea is that each instance of SubTree has a deque that store objects. If the deque is empty, the thread waits until a new element is inserted in the deque or the termination criteria is reached. One subtree can generate objects and push them in the deque of another subtree. For convenience, all my std::mutex, std::locks and std::variable_condition are stored in a struct called "locks". The class Tree creates some threads that run the following method (first attempt) : void Tree::launch(SubTree & st, Locks & locks ) { /* some code */ std::lock_guard<std::mutex> deque_lock(locks.deque_mutex_[st.id_]) ; // lock the access to the deque of subtree st if (st.deque_.empty()) // check that the deque is still empty { // some threads are still running, wait for them to terminate std::unique_lock<std::mutex> wait_lock(locks.restart_mutex_[st.id_]) ; locks.restart_condition_[st.id_].wait(wait_lock) ; } /* some code */ } The problem is that "deque_lock" is still locked while the thread is waiting. Hence no object can be added in the deque of the current thread by a concurrent one. So I turned the lock_guard into a unique_lock and managed the lock/unlock manually : void launch(SubTree & st, Locks & locks ) { /* some code */ std::unique_lock<std::mutex> deque_lock(locks.deque_mutex_[st.id_]) ; // lock the access to the deque of subtree st if (st.deque_.empty()) // check that the deque is still empty { deque_lock.unlock() ; // unlock the access to the deque to enable the other threads to add objects // DATA RACE : nothing must happen to the unprotected deque here !!!!!! // some threads are still running, wait for them to terminate std::unique_lock<std::mutex> wait_lock(locks.restart_mutex_[st.id_]) ; locks.restart_condition_[st.id_].wait(wait_lock) ; } /* some code */ } The problem now, is that there is a data race, and I would like to make sure that the "wait" instruction is performed directly after the "deque_lock.unlock()" one. Would anyone know a way to create such a critical instruction sequence with the standard library ? Thanks in advance.

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  • Dangers of Windows API and Administrator accounts?

    - by Brett Powell
    I wrote a game server plugin last night that allowed me to create a user account and set it as administrator, which is a huge problem. Of course the simple fix is to create a basic user account with limited privileges for the game servers, so they would not have access to do things like this. I wanted to find out if there's anything else in the Windows API that would create such a huge vulnerability though? I guess I want to just make sure that when the client's game servers accounts are moved to limited access accounts, we won't have to worry about any of them using the windows API to sabotage the machines. There is already enough exploits in the game itself to worry about, without having to worry about client's taking over the machines with plugins lol. Some of the questions relative would be... Can you disable/enable Remote Desktop from c++? Can you get a list of AD user groups from c++? (not that a user belongs to, but a complete list)

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  • UrlHelper and ViewContext inside an Authorization Attribute

    - by DM
    I have a scenario that I haven't been able to solve: I'm toying around with creating my own custom authorization attribute for mvc. The main bit of functionality I would like to add is to have the ability to change where the user gets redirected if they are not in a certain role. I don't mind that the system sends them back to the login page if they're not authenticated, but I would like to choose where to send them if they are authenticated but not allowed to access that action method. Here's is what I would like to do: public class CustomAuthorizeAttribute : AuthorizeAttribute { public string Action; public string Controller; protected override bool AuthorizeCore(System.Web.HttpContextBase httpContext) { // if User is authenticated but not in the correct role string url = Url.Action(this.Action, this.Controller); httpContext.Response.Redirect(url); } } And as an added bonus I would like to have access to ViewContext and TempData before I do the redirect. Any thoughts on how I could get instantiate a UrlHelper and ViewContext in the attribute?

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  • Release Excel Object In My Destructor

    - by Murat
    Hi all, I'm writing a Excel class using Microsoft.Interropt.Excel DLL. I finish all function but I have an error in my Destructor. I Want to save all changes to my file and I want to release all source. I want to all of them in my destructor. But In my destructor, Excel.ApplicationClass, Workbook and Worksheet objects are fill by an Exception which have message "COM object that has been separated from its underlying RCW cannot be used." So I can't save nothing, close nothing because i can't access workbook or worksheet object. Can't I access the class private members in Destructor?

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  • Web service performance testing plan, Microsoft .NET WS, SQL

    - by zxed
    Trying to answer a question to come up with a testing plan. It has to do with using a website and/or webservice that queries a sql server to get data and display to user. * Solution must be able to handle an estimated 2000 users, approximately 700 concurrent users, 10,000 + website hits a month. Database calls should handle 100,000 queries via the website/webservice a month. The system is used at multiple times during a 24 hour period; however networking and bandwidth traffic decreases after 5 pm * two windows 2003 servers are used, one for web, another for sql. Both are located in the same room. User access is varied and users can be far/near (its a centralized system), users access via www

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  • Parsing prototype AJAX.response XML in IE

    - by adam
    Hi I have an xml webservice which I'm fetching using PrototypeJS. The xml has the correct content type and is well-formed, and looks like this: <GetTokenResponse xmlns="http://tempuri.org/"> <GetTokenResult>F655100D64F098F0AC33AFF414A4A0D5</GetTokenResult> </GetTokenResponse> The AJAX request is completing successfully, and I can access the GetTokenResult node in both IE and FF but can only get the text content of the node in FF. My code is below: node = transport.responseXML.documentElement.getElementsByTagName('GetTokenResult')[0]; rawToken = (document.all) ? node.innerText : node.textContent; I've tried innerText and innerHTML, as well as children[0] and a few other chance guesses but IE returns 'undefined' when I access rawToken. Anyone able to lend a hand? Thanks, Adam

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  • Is is possible to programmatically change the resourceProviderFactoryType?

    - by Robert Massa
    I have a custom implementation of IResourceProvider and ResourceProviderFactory. Now the default way of making sure ASP.NET uses these custom types is to use the web.config and specify the factory like so: <globalization resourceProviderFactoryType="Product.Globalization.TranslationResourceProviderFactory" /> This works perfectly, except that in my resource provider I need database access. I want to use my IoC-container(Ninject) to inject the repositories needed to access this data into the CustomResourceProvider. But how am I going to do this? I have no control over the instantiation of the factory, so the factory can't get a reference to my IoC. Is there any way to register a custom provider programmatically, in for example the Global.asax?

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  • Spring MVC with a rich client framework

    - by ziggy
    I have several applications that are structured as follows DataComponent WebComponent ThickClientComponent WebServices The DataComponent has all the functionality required to access the application's data so it contains the DAOs and the JPA entities. The other three modules are: WebComponent - A spring MVC application that uses the DataComponent for data acccess ThickClientComponent- A Swing application that uses the DataComponent for data access WebServices - A SOAP based services that also uses the DataComponent. All three projets have the DataComponent as a dependeny in their Maven POM file. I would like to use a rich client framework like RichFaces, icefaces or primefaces as i need to be able to use the rich components are available in rich client frameworks (i.e. trees, panel, drag and drop etc). I have looked around and i cant seem to find an example where a Spring MVC application uses a rich client platform. Is it possible? Are the rich client platforms a framework meaning that i have to use either Spring MVC or the rich client platform but not both? The DataComponent module is spring based.

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  • FormsAuthentication redirecting to login page when visiting root of website

    - by Ryan Lattimer
    I wanted to use FormsAuthentication to secure my static files as well on my site, so I followed the instructions located here http://learn.iis.net/page.aspx/244/how-to-take-advantage-of-the-iis7-integrated-pipeline/ under title "Enabling Forms Authentication for the Entire Application". Now though, when I try to visit the site by going directly to http://www.mysite.com I get redirected to http://www.mysite.com/Login.aspx?ReturnUrl=%2f instead of it using my DefaultDocument I have set. I can go to my default document by just visiting http://www.mysite.com/Home.aspx without any issues because it is set to allow anonymous access. Is there something I need to add into my web.config file to make iis7 allow anonymous access to the root? I tried adding with anonymous access but no such luck. Any help would be much appreciated. Both Home and the Login form allow anonymous. <location path="Home.aspx"> <system.web> <authorization> <allow users="*" /> </authorization> </system.web> </location> <location path="Login.aspx"> <system.web> <authorization> <allow users="*" /> </authorization> </system.web> </location> Login form is set as the loginUrl <authentication mode="Forms"> <forms protection="All" loginUrl="Login.aspx"> </forms> </authentication> Default document is set as Home.aspx <defaultDocument> <files> <add value="Home.aspx" /> </files> </defaultDocument> I have not removed any of the iis7 default documents. However, Home.aspx is first in the priority.

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  • How the kernel gives seg. fault for a scenario like this?

    - by bala1486
    I have a doubt in accessing some invalid data. How will the OS cause segmentation fault for a scenario like this? Suppose a date segment has some 100 bytes. This will be mapped and a page table entry will be created. But the page size is 4K. Consider the data segment is aligned with this page boundary. So at first consider accessing a valid data within the 100 bytes. So now the page table entry is in TLB. Next if you try to access some invalid data between the 100 and 4K, the entry is there in page table and will it be allowed to access the invalid data??? Thanks, Bala

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  • Static string variable in Objective C on iphone

    - by Prajakta
    Hi, How to create & access static string in iPhone (objective c)? I declare static NSString *str = @"OldValue" in class A. If i assign some value to this in class B as str = @"NewValue". This value persists for all methods in class B. But if I access it in class C (after assignment in B) I am getting it as OldValue. Am I missing something? Should i use extern in other classes? Thanks & Regards, Yogini

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  • Joining two queries into one query or making a sub-query

    - by gary A.K.A. G4
    I am having some trouble with the following queries originally done for some Access forms: SELECT qry1.TCKYEAR AS Yr, COUNT(qry1.SID) AS STUDID, qry1.SID AS MID, table_tckt.tckt_tick_no FROM table_tckt INNER JOIN qry1 ON table_tckt.tckt_SID = qry1.SID GROUP BY qry1.TCKYEAR, qry1.SID, table_tckt.tckt_tick_no HAVING (((table_tckt.tick_no)=[forms]![frmNAME]![cboNAME])); SELECT table_tckt.sid, FORMAT([tckt_iss_date], 'yyyy') AS TCKYEAR, table_tckt.tckt_tick_no, table_tckt.licstate FROM table_tckt WHERE (((table_tckt.licstate)<>"NA")); I am no longer working with Access, but JSP for the forms. I need to somehow either combine these two queries into one query or find another way to have a query 'query' another one.

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  • Import / include assigned variables in Jinja2

    - by Brian M. Hunt
    In Jinja2, how can one access assigned variables (i.e. {% set X=Y %}) within files incorporated with include? I'd expect the following to work given two Jinja2 files: A.jinja: Stuff {% include 'B.jinja' -%} B has {{ N }} references B.jinja: {% set N = 12 %} I'd expect that A.jinja, when compiled with Jinja2, would produce the following output: Stuff B has 12 references However, it produces: Stuff B has references I'd be much obliged for any input as to how to access the Jinja2 variables, such as N above, in the file that includes the file where N is set. Thank you for reading. Brian

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  • KO 2.3.4 - Accessing validation array from callbacks in models

    - by kenny99
    Hi, Apologies if this is an oversight or sheer stupidity on my part but I can't quite figure out how to access the validation array from a callback in a model (using ORM and KO 2.3.4). I want to be able to add specific error messages to the validation array if a callback returns false. e.g This register method: public function register(array & $array, $save = FALSE) { // Initialise the validation library and setup some rules $array = Validation::factory($array) ->pre_filter('trim') ->add_rules('email', 'required', 'valid::email', array($this, 'email_available')) ->add_rules('confirm_email', 'matches[email]') ->add_rules('password', 'required', 'length[5,42]') ->add_rules('confirm_password', 'matches[password]'); return ORM::validate($array, $save); } Callback: public function email_available($value) { return ! (bool) $this->db ->where('email', $value) ->count_records($this->table_name); } I can obviously access the current model from the callback, but I was wondering what the best way to add custom error from the callback would be?

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