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  • Why doesn't is operator take in consideration if the explicit operator is overriden when checking ty

    - by Galilyou
    Hey Guys, Consider this code sample: public class Human { public string Value { get; set;} } public class Car { public static explicit operator Human (Car c) { Human h = new Human(); h.Value = "Value from Car"; return h; } } public class Program { public static void Mani() { Car c = new Car(); Human h = (Human)c; Console.WriteLine("h.Value = {0}", h.Value); Console.WriteLine(c is Human); } } Up I provide a possibility of an explicit cast from Car to Human, though Car and Human hierarchically are not related! The above code simply means that "Car is convertible to human" However, if you run the snippet you will find the expression c is Human evaluates to false! I used to believe that the is operator is kinda expensive cause it attempts to do an actual cast that might result in an InvalidCastException. If the operator is trying to cast, then the cast should succeed as there's an operator logic that should perform the cast! What does "is" test? Does test a hierarchical "is-a" relationship? Does test whether a variable type is convertible to a type?

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  • Mutex example / tutorial ?

    - by Nav
    I've noticed that asking questions for the sake of creating a reference list etc. is encouraged in SO. This is one such question, so that anyone Googling for a mutex tutorial will find a good one here. I'm new to multithreading, and was trying to understand how mutexes work. Did a lot of Googling and this is the only decent tutorial I found, but it still left some doubts of how it works because I created my own program and the locking didn't work. One absolutely non-intuitive syntax of the mutex is pthread_mutex_lock( &mutex1 );, where it looks like the mutex is being locked, when what I really want to lock is some other variable. Does this syntax mean that locking a mutex locks a region of code until the mutex is unlocked? Then how do threads know that the region is locked? And isn't such a phenomenon supposed to be called critical section? In short, could you please help with the simplest possible mutex example program and the simplest possible explanation on the logic of how it works? I'm sure this will help plenty of other newbies.

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  • MVVM pattern: ViewModel updates after Model server roundtrip

    - by Pavel Savara
    I have stateless services and anemic domain objects on server side. Model between server and client is POCO DTO. The client should become MVVM. The model could be graph of about 100 instances of 20 different classes. The client editor contains diverse tab-pages all of them live-connected to model/viewmodel. My problem is how to propagate changes after server round-trip nice way. It's quite easy to propagate changes from ViewModel to DTO. For way back it would be possible to throw away old DTO and replace it whole with new one, but it will cause lot of redrawing for lists/DataTemplates. I could gather the server side changes and transmit them to client side. But the names of fields changed would be domain/DTO specific, not ViewModel specific. And the mapping seems nontrivial to me. If I should do it imperative way after round-trip, it would break SOC/modularity of viewModels. I'm thinking about some kind of mapping rule engine, something like automappper or emit mapper. But it solves just very plain use-cases. I don't see how it would map/propagate/convert adding items to list or removal. How to identify instances in collections so it could merge values to existing instances. As well it should propagate validation/error info. Maybe I should implement INotifyPropertyChanged on DTO and try to replay server side events on it ? And then bind ViewModel to it ? Would binding solve the problems with collection merges nice way ? Is EventAgregator from PRISM useful for that ? Is there any event record-replay component ? Is there better client side pattern for architecture with server side logic ?

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  • Row selection based on subtable data in MySQL

    - by Felthragar
    I've been struggling with this selection for a while now, I've been searching around StackOverflow and tried a bunch of stuff but nothing that helps me with my particular issue. Maybe I'm just missing something obvious. I have two tables: Measurements, MeasurementFlags "Measurements" contain measurements from a device, and each measurement can have properties/attributes attached to them (commonly known as "flags") to signify that the measurement in question is special in some way or another (for instance, one flag may signify a test or calibration measurement). Note: One record per flag! Right, so a record from the "Measurements" table can theoreticly have an unlimited amount of MeasurementFlags attached to it, or it can have none. Now, I need to select records from "Measurements", that have an attached "MeasurementFlag" valued "X", but it must also NOT have a flag valued "Y" attached to it. We're talking about a fairly large database with hundreds of millions of rows, which is why I'm trying to keep all of this logic within one query. Splitting it up would create too many queries, however if it's not possible to do in one query I guess I don't have a choise. Thanks in advance.

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  • foreach() error handling - how do make it do nothing?

    - by Jared
    Hey all, This should be very basic, but I am a little stumped! Here is my array: $menu = array( 'Home', 'Stuff'=>array( 'Losta Stuff', 'Less Stuff', 'Ur moms stuff', 'FAQ' ), 'Public Works' ); Here is my logic: echo "<ol>\n"; foreach( (array)$menu as $header ) { echo ' <li><b>'.$header."</b><br />\n"; echo ' <ol>'; foreach( (array)$header as $headers ) { echo ' <li>'.$headers.".</li>\n"; } echo ' </ol>'; } echo "</ol>\n"; As you can see, Home and Public Works don't have data in the them, so I get a Warning: Invalid argument supplied for foreach() in test.php on line ## If I add (array) to $header like this: foreach( (array)$header as $headers ), It no longer gives me the error, but it just displays the $header as the $headers (i.e. Home - Home, Instead of Home - nothing). Basically, if the data is empty, I want it to do nothing!

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  • How do I create a python module from a fortran program with f2py?

    - by Lars Hellemo
    I am trying to read some smps files with python, and found a fortran implementation, so I thought I would give f2py a shot. The problem is that I have no experience with fortran. I have successfully installed gfortran and f2py on my Linux box and ran the example on thew f2py page, but I have some trouble compiling and running the large program. There are two files, one with a file reader wrapper and one with all the logic. They seem to call each other, but when I compile and link or try f2py, I get errors that they somehow can't find each other: f95 -c FILEWR~1.F f95 -c SMPSREAD.F90 f95 -o smpsread SMPSREAD.o FILEWR~1.o FILEWR~1.o In function `file_wrapper_' FILEWR~1.F(.text+0x3d) undefined reference to `chopen_' usrlibgcci486-linux-gnu4.4.1libgfortranbegin.a(fmain.o) In function `main' (.text+0x27) undefined reference to `MAIN__' collect2 ld returned 1 exit status I also tried changing the name to FILE_WRAPPER.F but that did not help. With f2py I found out I had to include a comment to get it to accept free format, and saved this as a new file and tried: f2py -c -m smpsread smpsread.f90 I get a lot of output and warnings, but the error seems to be this one: getctype: No C-type found in "{'typespec': 'type', 'attrspec': ['allocatable'], 'typename': 'node', 'dimension': [':']}", assuming void. The fortran 90 spms reader can be found here. Any help or suggestions appreciated.

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  • Custom Model Validator for MVC

    - by scottrakes
    I am trying to add a custom model validation at the property level but need to pass in two values. Below is my class definition and validation implementation. When it runs, the "value" in the IsValid method is always null. I can get this working at the class level but the property level is causing me issues. What am I missing? Event Class: public class Event { public int? EventID {get;set;} [ValidPURL("EventID", "PURLValue")] public string PURLValue { get; set; } ... } Validation Class [AttributeUsage(AttributeTargets.All, AllowMultiple = true, Inherited = true)] public sealed class ValidPURL : ValidationAttribute { private const string _defaultErrorMessage = "Web address already exist."; private readonly object _typeId = new object(); public ValidPURL(int eventID, string purlValue) : base(_defaultErrorMessage) { EventID = eventID; PURLValue = purlValue; } public int EventID { get; private set; } public string PURLValue { get; private set; } public override object TypeId { get { return _typeId; } } public override string FormatErrorMessage(string name) { return String.Format(CultureInfo.CurrentUICulture, ErrorMessageString, EventID, PURLValue); } public override bool IsValid(object value) { PropertyDescriptorCollection properties = TypeDescriptor.GetProperties(value); object eventIDValue = properties.Find(EventID, true /* ignoreCase */).GetValue(value); object purlValue = properties.Find(PURLValue, true /* ignoreCase */).GetValue(value); [Some Validation Logic against the database] return true; } } Thank for the help!

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  • With Google Website Optimizer's multivariate testing, can I vary multiple css classes on a single di

    - by brahn
    I would like to use Google Website Optimizer (GWO)'s multivariate tests to test some different versions of a web page. I can change from version to version just by varying some class tags on a div, i.e. the different versions are of this form: <div id="testing" class="foo1 bar1">content</div> <div id="testing" class="foo1 bar2">content</div> <div id="testing" class="foo2 bar1">content</div> <div id="testing" class="foo2 bar2">content</div> In the ideal, I would be able to use GWO section code in place of each class, and google would just swap in the appropriate tags (foo1 or foo2, bar1 or bar2). However, naively doing this results in horribly malformed code because I would be trying to put <script> tags inside the div's class attribute: <div id="testing" class=" <script>utmx_section("foo-class")</script>foo1</noscript> <script>utmx_section("bar-class")</script>bar1</noscript> "> content </div> And indeed, the browser chokes all over it. My current best approach is just to use a different div for each variable in the test, as follows: <script>utmx_section("foo-class-div")</script> <div class="foo1"> </noscript> <script>utmx_section("bar-class-div")</script> <div class="bar1"> </noscript> content </div> </div> So testing multiple variables requires layer of div-nesting per variable, and it all seems rather awkward. Is there a better approach that I could use in which I just vary the classes on a single div?

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  • Using OUTPUT/INTO within instead of insert trigger invalidates 'inserted' table

    - by Dan
    I have a problem using a table with an instead of insert trigger. The table I created contains an identity column. I need to use an instead of insert trigger on this table. I also need to see the value of the newly inserted identity from within my trigger which requires the use of OUTPUT/INTO within the trigger. The problem is then that clients that perform INSERTs cannot see the inserted values. For example, I create a simple table: CREATE TABLE [MyTable]( [MyID] [int] IDENTITY(1,1) NOT NULL, [MyBit] [bit] NOT NULL, CONSTRAINT [PK_MyTable_MyID] PRIMARY KEY NONCLUSTERED ( [MyID] ASC )) Next I create a simple instead of trigger: create trigger [trMyTableInsert] on [MyTable] instead of insert as BEGIN DECLARE @InsertedRows table( MyID int, MyBit bit); INSERT INTO [MyTable] ([MyBit]) OUTPUT inserted.MyID, inserted.MyBit INTO @InsertedRows SELECT inserted.MyBit FROM inserted; -- LOGIC NOT SHOWN HERE THAT USES @InsertedRows END; Lastly, I attempt to perform an insert and retrieve the inserted values: DECLARE @tbl TABLE (myID INT) insert into MyTable (MyBit) OUTPUT inserted.MyID INTO @tbl VALUES (1) SELECT * from @tbl The issue is all I ever get back is zero. I can see the row was correctly inserted into the table. I also know that if I remove the OUTPUT/INTO from within the trigger this problem goes away. Any thoughts as to what I'm doing wrong? Or is how I want to do things not feasible? Thanks.

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  • Testing a Gui-heavy WPF application.

    - by Hamish Grubijan
    We (my colleagues) have a messy 12 y.o. mature app that is GUI-based, and the current plan is to add new dialogs & other GUI in WPF, as well as replace some of the older dialogs in WPF as well. At the same time we wish to be able to test that Monster - GUI automation in a maintainable way. Some challenges: The application is massive. It constantly gains new features. It is being changed around (bug fixes, patches). It has a back end, and a layer in-between. The state of it can get out of whack if you beat it to death. What we want is: Some tool that can automate testing of WPF. auto-discovery of what the inputs and the outputs of the dialog are. An old test should still work if you add a label that does nothing. It should fail, however, if you remove a necessary text field. It would be very nice if the test suite was easy to maintain, if it ran and did not break most of the time. Every new dialog should be created with testability in mind. At this point I do not know exactly what I want, so I am marking this as a community wiki. If having to test a huge GUI-based app rings the bell (even if not in WPF), then please share your good, bad and ugly experiences here.

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  • How to transform vertical table into horizontal table?

    - by avivo
    Hello, I have one table Person: Id Name 1 Person1 2 Person2 3 Person3 And I have its child table Profile: Id PersonId FieldName Value 1 1 Firstname Alex 2 1 Lastname Balmer 3 1 Email [email protected] 4 1 Phone +1 2 30004000 And I want to get data from these two tables in one row like this: Id Name Firstname Lastname Email Phone 1 Person1 Alex Balmer [email protected] +1 2 30004000 What is the most optimized query to get these vertical (key, value) values in one row like this? Now I have a problem that I done four joins of child table to parent table because I need to get these four fields. Some optimization is for sure possible. I would like to be able to modify this query in easy way when I add new field (key,value). What is the best way to do this? To create some StoreProcedure? I would like to have strongly types in my DB layer (C#) and using LINQ (when programming) so it means when I add some new Key, Value pair in Profile table I would like to do minimal modifications in DB and C# if possible. Actually I am trying to get some best practices in this case.

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  • Bring a subview to the top on mouseDown: AND keep receiving events (for dragging)

    - by d11wtq
    Ok, basically I have a view with a series of slightly overlapping subviews. When a subview is clicked, it moves to the top (among other things), by a really simple two-liner: -(void)mouseDown:(NSEvent *)theEvent { if (_selected) { // Don't do anything this subview is already in the foreground return; } NSView *superview = [self superview]; [self removeFromSuperview]; [superview addSubview:self position:NSWindowAbove relativeTo:nil]; } This works fine and seems to be the "normal" way to do this. The problem is that I'm now introducing some drag logic to the view, so I need to respond to -mouseDragged:. Unfortunately, since the view is removed from the view hierarchy and re-added in the process, I can have the view come to the foreground and be dragged in the same mouse action. It only drags if I leave go of the mouse and click on the view again, since the second click doesn't do any view hierarchy juggling. Is there anything I can do that will allow the view to move to the foreground like this, AND continue to receive the subsequent -mouseDragged: and -mouseUp: events that follow? I started along the lines of thinking of overriding -hitTest: in the superview and intercepting the mouseDown event in order to bring the view to the foreground before it actually receives the event. The problem here is, from within -hitTest:, how do I distinguish what type of event I'm actually performing the hit test for? I wouldn't want to move the subview to the foreground for other mouse events, such as mouseMoved etc.

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  • Perl Regex - Condensing groups of find/replace

    - by brydgesk
    I'm using Perl to perform some file cleansing, and am running into some performance issues. One of the major parts of my code involves standardizing name fields. I have several sections that look like this: sub substitute_titles { my ($inStr) = @_; ${$inStr} =~ s/ PHD./ PHD /; ${$inStr} =~ s/ P H D / PHD /; ${$inStr} =~ s/ PROF./ PROF /; ${$inStr} =~ s/ P R O F / PROF /; ${$inStr} =~ s/ DR./ DR /; ${$inStr} =~ s/ D.R./ DR /; ${$inStr} =~ s/ HON./ HON /; ${$inStr} =~ s/ H O N / HON /; ${$inStr} =~ s/ MR./ MR /; ${$inStr} =~ s/ MRS./ MRS /; ${$inStr} =~ s/ M R S / MRS /; ${$inStr} =~ s/ MS./ MS /; ${$inStr} =~ s/ MISS./ MISS /; } I'm passing by reference to try and get at least a little speed, but I fear that running so many (literally hundreds) of specific string replaces on tens of thousands (likely hundreds of thousands eventually) of records is going to hurt the performance. Is there a better way to implement this kind of logic than what I'm doing currently? Thanks Edit: Quick note, not all the replace functions are just removing periods and spaces. There are string deletions, soundex groups, etc.

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  • Create a strongly typed view which inherites a class which is concrete

    - by Ashwani K
    Hello All: I am having one class called BaseClass which contains some logic applicable to whole web site. In order to create a strongly typed view we need to inherit the page from System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage generic class. But In our case I have to Inherit the BaseClass from System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage to apply some common settings, but the BaseClass should be inherited from System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage< generic version. But I cannot inherit the BaseClass from System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage< as it will change other class also. So I created one more class of type BaseClass< inheriting it from System.Web.Mvc.ViewPage< and copied the whole code of BaseClass in BaseClass<. But the code in BaseClass is controlled by other team so it will be changed frequently so my BaseClass< should be in sync with BaseClass. Please help me in eliminating the code duplication or any other approach to make strongly typed View. Thanks Ashwani

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  • How do I write a J2EE/EJB Singleton?

    - by Bears will eat you
    A day ago my application was one EAR, containing one WAR, one EJB JAR, and a couple of utility JAR files. I had a POJO singleton class in one of those utility files, it worked, and all was well with the world: EAR |--- WAR |--- EJB JAR |--- Util 1 JAR |--- Util 2 JAR |--- etc. Then I created a second WAR and found out (the hard way) that each WAR has its own ClassLoader, so each WAR sees a different singleton, and things break down from there. This is not so good. EAR |--- WAR 1 |--- WAR 2 |--- EJB JAR |--- Util 1 JAR |--- Util 2 JAR |--- etc. So, I'm looking for a way to create a Java singleton object that will work across WARs (across ClassLoaders?). The @Singleton EJB annotation seemed pretty promising until I found that JBoss 5.1 doesn't seem to support that annotation (which was added as part of EJB 3.1). Did I miss something - can I use @Singleton with JBoss 5.1? Upgrading to JBoss AS 6 is not an option right now. Alternately, I'd be just as happy to not have to use EJB to implement my singleton. What else can I do to solve this problem? Basically, I need a semi-application-wide* hook into a whole bunch of other objects, like various cached data, and app config info. As a last resort, I've already considered merging my two WARs into one, but that would be pretty hellish. *Meaning: available basically anywhere above a certain layer; for now, mostly in my WARs - the View and Controller (in a loose sense).

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  • Winsock tcp/ip Socket listening but connection refused, race condition?

    - by Wayne
    Hello folks. This involves two automated unit tests which each start up a tcp/ip server that creates a non-blocking socket then bind()s and listen()s in a loop on select() for a client that connects and downloads some data. The catch is that they work perfectly when run separately but when run as a test suite, the second test client will fail to connect with WSACONNREFUSED... UNLESS there is a Thread.Sleep() of several seconds between them??!!! Interestingly, there is retry loop every 1 second for connecting after any failure. So the second test loops for a while until timeout after 10 minutes. During that time, netstat -na shows the correct port number is in the LISTEN state for the server socket. So if it is in the listen state? Why won't it accept the connection? In the code, there are log messages that show the select NEVER even gets a socket ready to read (which means ready to accept a connection when it applies to a listening socket). Obviously the problem must be related to some race condition between finishing one test which means close() and shutdown() on each end of the socket, and the start up of the next. This wouldn't be so bad if the retry logic allowed it to connect eventually after a couple of seconds. However it seems to get "gummed up" and won't even retry. However, for some strange reason the listening socket SAYS it's in the LISTEN state even through keeps refusing connections. So that means it's the Windoze O/S which is actually catching the SYN packet and returning a RST packet (which means "Connection Refused"). The only other time I ever saw this error was when the code had a problem that caused hundreds of sockets to get stuck in TIME_WAIT state. But that's not the case here. netstat shows only about a dozen sockets with only 1 or 2 in TIME_WAIT at any given moment. Please help.

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  • Save Dialog on top of another custom dialog is behaving strangely!

    - by Raghu
    I have a save as image feature for charts in my application. The chart control is a custom user control with custom logic in them. It also has some scaling based on size, zoom etc. However, while saving them as an image I would like to give the user the option to set the size of the image (eg: 800x600 px @ 300 DPI). To do this I have created a Form with textboxes/checkboxes etc for various settings for image. One of these TextBoxes is for the file name. The file name textbox is readonly and is accompanied with a browse button which shows a SaveFileDialog when clicked. The user clicks "Save As Image" in the main form's menu. I show the ImageExportDialog using the code below: using(ImageExportDialog dlg = new ImageExportDialog()) { if(dlg.ShowDialog() == DialogResult.OK) { //get the settings selected by the user and generate the image } } In the ImageExportDialog, the user clicks on the browse button and the SaveFileDialog is shown as follows: using(SaveFileDialog dlg = new SaveFileDialog()) { if(dlg.ShowDialog() == DialogResult.OK) { txtFileName.Text = dlg.FileName; } } Now the problem is, when the user clicks on "Save" button in the SaveFileDialog, as expected the txtFileName.Text is set, but the parent custom dialog also seems to return from the ShowDialog method and the DialogResult is the same as the one for SaveFileDialog! The control then goes on to the "get the settings selected by the user and generate the image" part of the code above. Not really sure what I am doing wrong here!

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  • What is the best way to use Guice and JMock together?

    - by Yishai
    I have started using Guice to do some dependency injection on a project, primarily because I need to inject mocks (using JMock currently) a layer away from the unit test, which makes manual injection very awkward. My question is what is the best approach for introducing a mock? What I currently have is to make a new module in the unit test that satisfies the dependencies and bind them with a provider that looks like this: public class JMockProvider<T> implements Provider<T> { private T mock; public JMockProvider(T mock) { this.mock = mock; } public T get() { return mock; } } Passing the mock in the constructor, so a JMock setup might look like this: final CommunicationQueue queue = context.mock(CommunicationQueue.class); final TransactionRollBack trans = context.mock(TransactionRollBack.class); Injector injector = Guice.createInjector(new AbstractModule() { @Override protected void configure() { bind(CommunicationQueue.class).toProvider(new JMockProvider<QuickBooksCommunicationQueue>(queue)); bind(TransactionRollBack.class).toProvider(new JMockProvider<TransactionRollBack>(trans)); } }); context.checking(new Expectations() {{ oneOf(queue).retrieve(with(any(int.class))); will(returnValue(null)); never(trans); }}); injector.getInstance(RunResponse.class).processResponseImpl(-1); Is there a better way? I know that AtUnit attempts to address this problem, although I'm missing how it auto-magically injects a mock that was created locally like the above, but I'm looking for either a compelling reason why AtUnit is the right answer here (other than its ability to change DI and mocking frameworks around without changing tests) or if there is a better solution to doing it by hand.

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  • 3 tier application pattern suggestion

    - by Maxim Gershkovich
    I have attempted to make my first 3 tier application. In the process I have run into one problem I am yet to find an optimal solution for. Basically all my objects use an IFillable interface which forces the implementation of a sub as follows Public Sub Fill(ByVal Datareader As Data.IDataReader) Implements IFillable.Fill This sub then expects the Ids from the datareader will be identical to the properties of the object as such. Me.m_StockID = Datareader.GetGuid(Datareader.GetOrdinal("StockID")) In the end I end up with a datalayer that looks something like this. Public Shared Function GetStockByID(ByVal ConnectionString As String, ByVal StockID As Guid) As Stock Dim res As New Stock Using sqlConn As New SqlConnection(ConnectionString) sqlConn.Open() res.Fill(StockDataLayer.GetStockByIDQuery(sqlConn, StockID)) End Using Return res End Function Mostly this pattern seems to make sense. However my problem is, lets say I want to implement a property for Stock called StockBarcodeList. Under the above mentioned pattern any way I implement this property I will need to pass a connectionstring to it which obviously breaks my attempt at layer separation. Does anyone have any suggestions on how I might be able to solve this problem or am I going about this the completely wrong way? Does anyone have any suggestions on how I might improve my implementation? Please note however I am deliberately trying to avoid using the dataset in any form.

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  • Caching Authentication Data

    - by PartlyCloudy
    Hi, I'm currently implementing a REST web service using CouchDB and RESTlet. The RESTlet layer is mainly for authentication and some minor filtering of the JSON data served by CouchDB: Clients <= HTTP = [ RESTlet <= HTTP = CouchDB ] I'm using CouchDB also to store user login data, because I don't want to add an additional database server for that purpose. Thus, each request to my service causes two CouchDB requests conducted by RESTlet (auth data + "real" request). In order to keep the service as efficent as possible, I want to reduce the number of requests, in this case redundant requests for login data. My idea now is to provide a cache (i.e.LRU-Cache via LinkedHashMap) within my RESTlet application that caches login data, because HTTP caching will probabily not be enough. But how do I invalidate the cache data, once a user changes the password, for instance. Thanks to REST, the application might run on several servers in parallel, and I don't want to create a central instance just to cache login data. Currently, I save requested auth data in the cache and try to auth new requests by using them. If a authentication fails or there is now entry available, I'll dispatch a GET request to my CouchDB storage in order to obtain the actual auth data. So in a worst case, users that have changed their data will perhaps still be able to login with their old credentials. How can I deal with that? Or what is a good strategy to keep the cache(s) up-to-date in general? Thanks in advance.

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  • Why Does This Maintainability Index Increase?

    - by Timothy
    I would be appreciative if someone could explain to me the difference between the following two pieces of code in terms of Visual Studio's Code Metrics rules. Why does the Maintainability Index increase slightly if I don't encapsulate everything within using ( )? Sample 1 (MI score of 71) public static String Sha1(String plainText) { using (SHA1Managed sha1 = new SHA1Managed()) { Byte[] text = Encoding.Unicode.GetBytes(plainText); Byte[] hashBytes = sha1.ComputeHash(text); return Convert.ToBase64String(hashBytes); } } Sample 2 (MI score of 73) public static String Sha1(String plainText) { Byte[] text, hashBytes; using (SHA1Managed sha1 = new SHA1Managed()) { text = Encoding.Unicode.GetBytes(plainText); hashBytes = sha1.ComputeHash(text); } return Convert.ToBase64String(hashBytes); } I understand metrics are meaningless outside of a broader context and understanding, and programmers should exercise discretion. While I could boost the score up to 76 with return Convert.ToBase64String(sha1.ComputeHash(Encoding.Unicode.GetBytes(plainText))), I shouldn't. I would clearly be just playing with numbers and it isn't truly any more readable or maintainable at that point. I am curious though as to what the logic might be behind the increase in this case. It's obviously not line-count.

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  • Exception from HRESULT: 0x80020009 (DISP_E_EXCEPTION)) in SharePoint Part 2

    - by BeraCim
    Hi all: Following this post which I posted some time ago, I now get the same error every time I try to rewire 2 web's URLs. Basically, this is the code. It runs in a LongRunningOperationJob: SPWeb existingWeb = null; using (existingWeb = site.OpenWeb(wedId)) { SPWeb destinationWeb = createNewSite(existingWeb); existingWeb.AllowUnsafeUpdates = true; existingWeb.Name = existingWeb.Name + "_old"; existingWeb.Title = existingWeb.Title + "_old"; existingWeb.Description = existingWeb.Description + "_old"; existingWeb.Update() existingWeb.AllowUnsafeUpdates = false; destinationWeb.AllowUnsafeUpdates = true; destinationWeb.Name = existingWeb.Name; destinationWeb.Title = existingWeb.Title; destinationWeb.Description = existingWeb.Description; destinationWeb.Update(); destinationWeb.AllowUnsafeUpdates = false; // null this for what its worth existingWeb = null; destinationWeb = null; } // <---- Exception raised here Basically, the code is trying to rename the existing site's URL to something else, and have the destination web's url point to the old site's URL. When I run this for the first time, I received the Exception mentioned in the subject. However, every run after, I do not see the exception anymore. The webs DO get rewired... but at the cost of the app dying an unnecessary and terrible death. I'm at a complete lost as to what is going on and needs urgent help. Does sharepoint keep any hidden table from me or is the logic above has fatal problems? Thanks.

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  • javascript equivalent of ASP preInit event

    - by Pankaj Kumar
    Hi guys, searching for this has yielded no resuts.. i have a middle page that has an iframe and all the pages open in that iframe...i have to implement a chat system just like in Google and so to ensure that the chat windows did not close whwn the page would postback i am opening all pages in iframe.... this is a social networking site and user can have themes which have background images per theme now when i visit a friends profile the backgrounf image of the middle page should change... i have this code to find parent of iframe and change background image $(document).ready(function(){ var theme=document.getElementById("ctl00_decideFooterH").value; var t= parent.document.getElementsByTagName("body"); if(theme=='basicTheme'){ t[0].className="basic"; } else if(theme=='Tranquility') { t[0].className="Tranquility"; } else if(theme=='AbstractPink') { t[0].className="abstractPink"; } }); and this code is the master page that all child pages that would open in iframe would access..the trouble is that there is a lag between the theme application on server side(which happens at PreInit) and the background image change which is done by this document.ready that gets executed after the iframe has loaded.. so essentially i need a javascript function that would either execute parallel to PreInit or some other logic....so guys plz help its urgent

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  • Apply the REL attibute automatically to posts using jQuery

    - by Couto
    Edited: I mean grouping as giving the same REL attibute to all IMGs in the same post, but each post has different REL as the example at the end of this question. So, I need to do the following: <div id="Blog1" class="widget Blog"> <div class="blog-posts hfeed"> <div class="post hentry uncustomized-post-template"> <a name="8829400899632947948"/> <div class="post-body entry-content"> <div id="8829400899632947948"> <div class="separator"> <a imageanchor="1" href="/images/outta.png"> <img src="/images/outta.png"/></a></div></div> <div style="clear: both;"/> </div> <div class="post-footer"> </div></div></div></div> I'm using jQuery and Colorbox. The first two DIVs are posts containers. I need to group the IMGs in each <div class="post hentry uncustomized-post-template"> using the REL attribute, like: 1 - Post 1.1 - IMG - REL="group0" 1.2 - IMG - REL="group0" 1.3 - IMG - REL="group0" 1.4 - IMG - REL="group0" 2 - Post 2.1 - IMG - REL="group1" 3 - Post 3.1 - IMG - REL="group2" 3.2 - IMG - REL="group2" I've tryied HAS, PARENT > CHILDREN and CHILDREN() from jQuery and REL: from Colorbox, but it seems I'm lacking somewhere in logic. Could someone help me?

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  • Web page database query optimization

    - by morpheous
    I am putting together a web page which is quite 'expensive' in terms of database hits. I don't want to start optimizing at this stage - though with me trying to hit a deadline, I may end up not optimizing at all. Currently the page requires 18 (that's right eighteen) hits to the db. I am already using joins, and some of the queries are UNIONed to minimize the trips to the db. My local dev machine can handle this (page is not slow) however, I feel if I release this into the wild, the number of queries will quickly overwhelm my database (MySQL). I could always use memcache or something similar, but I would much rather continue with my other dev work that needs to be completed before the deadline - at least retrieving the page works - its simply a matter of optimization now (if required). My question therefore is - is 18 db queries for a single page retrieval completely outrageous - (i.e. I should put everything on hold and optimize the hell of the retrieval logic), or shall I continue as normal, meet the deadline and release on schedule and see what happens? [Edit] Just to clarify, I have already done the 'obvious' things like using (single and composite) indexes for fields used in the queries. What I haven't yet done is to run a query analyzer to see if my indexes etc are optimal.

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