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  • Animate UserControl in WPF?

    - by sanjeev40084
    I have two xaml file one is MainWindow.xaml and other is userControl EditTaskView.xaml. In MainWindow.xaml it consists of listbox and when double clicked any item of listbox, it displays other window (edit window) from EditView userControl. I am trying to animate this userControl everytime whenever any item from the listbox is double clicked. I added some animation in userControl however the animation only gets run once. How can i make my animation run everytime whenever any item from the listbox is clicked? <ListBox x:Name="lstBxTask" Style="{StaticResource ListBoxItems}" MouseDoubleClick="lstBxTask_MouseDoubleClick"> <ListBox.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate> <StackPanel> <Rectangle Style="{StaticResource LineBetweenListBox}"/> <StackPanel Orientation="Horizontal"> <TextBlock Text="{Binding Taskname}" Style="{StaticResource TextInListBox}"/> <Button Name="btnDelete" Style="{StaticResource DeleteButton}" Click="btnDelete_Click"/> </StackPanel> </StackPanel> </DataTemplate> </ListBox.ItemTemplate> </ListBox> <ToDoTask:EditTaskView x:Name="EditTask" Grid.Row="1" Grid.RowSpan="2" Grid.ColumnSpan="2" Visibility="Collapsed"/> In the MainWindow code, there is mouse double click event, which changes the visibility of EditTaskView to Visible. Suggestions?

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  • Changing App.config at Runtime

    - by born to hula
    I'm writing a test winforms / C# / .NET 3.5 application for the system we're developing and we fell in the need to switch between .config files at runtime, but this is turning out to be a nightmare. Here's the scene: the Winforms application is aimed at testing a WebApp, divided into 5 subsystems. The test proccess works with messages being sent between the subsystems, and for this proccess to be sucessful each subsystem got to have its own .config file. For my Test Application I wrote 5 separate configuration files. I wish I was able to switch between these 5 files during runtime, but the problem is: I can programatically edit the application .config file inumerous times, but these changes will only take effect once. I've been searching a long time for a form to address this problem but I still wasn't sucessful. I know the problem definition may be a bit confusing but I would really appreciate it if someone helped me. Thanks in advance! --- UPDATE 01-06-10 --- There's something I didn't mention before. Originally, our system is a Web Application with WCF calls between each subsystem. For performance testing reasons (we're using ANTS 4), we had to create a local copy of the assemblies and reference them from the test project. It may sound a bit wrong, but we couldn't find a satisfying way to measure performance of a remote application. --- End Update --- Here's what I'm doing: public void UpdateAppSettings(string key, string value) { XmlDocument xmlDoc = new XmlDocument(); xmlDoc.Load(AppDomain.CurrentDomain.SetupInformation.ConfigurationFile); foreach (XmlElement item in xmlDoc.DocumentElement) { foreach (XmlNode node in item.ChildNodes) { if (node.Name == key) { node.Attributes[0].Value = value; break; } } } xmlDoc.Save(AppDomain.CurrentDomain.SetupInformation.ConfigurationFile); System.Configuration.ConfigurationManager.RefreshSection("section/subSection"); }

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  • Making Firefox render canvas text the same as CSS text

    - by Dan Forys
    I've been experimenting with the canvas tag and Javascript. I've made a page that takes Tweets from the Twitter public timeline and animates them into view. It works by using a canvas element in the background for the animation. When the animation is complete, it creates a div element with the same text over the top. I do this so that the tweet text is selectable and links are clickable. Now, in Safari, Chrome and even Opera, the canvas text and div text look almost exactly the same. Yet in Firefox, the size of the text is different enough to make it 'jump' at the point it changes into the div. Does anyone know how to make Firefox render the text the same on the canvas element and the div using CSS? Or is this a rendering inconsistency with the engine. I have put the page on my website if you want to see what I mean. Now for the code: The CSS I'm using for rendering the div contains: line-height: 21px; font-weight: 100; font-family: Georgia, "New Century Schoolbook", "Nimbus Roman No9 L", serif; font-size: 20px; For rendering on the canvas I'm using: this.context.font = this.scale + 'px Georgia'; this.context.fillStyle = "white"; this.context.strokeStyle = 'white'; this.context.fillText(this.text, 0, 0); this.context.strokeText(this.text, 0, 0); where this.scale is an animated scale factor that finishes at 20px exactly. So, to recap, I'm using the same font and ending up at the same px size, yet Firefox renders the text differently between Canvas and CSS. (edit) Here's a screenshot example: First line is the text animating in using canvas, second line is the resulting div.

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  • Problem to Import certificate to Apache tomcat: Failed to establish chain from reply

    - by Ilya
    Hi, After I got certificate, I tried to import it as specified here: http://tomcat.apache.org/tomcat-5.5-doc/ssl-howto.html#Edit%20the%20Tomcat%20Configuration%20File But I got this error: C:\Program Files (x86)\Java\jre6\binkeytool -import -alias tomcat -keystore C:\ SSL.keystore -file C:\SSL\SSL_Internal_Certificate_for_isdc-planning.cer Enter keystore password: keytool error: java.lang.Exception: Failed to establish chain from reply I need to import first chain certificate, by apache document Import the Chain Certificate into you keystore keytool -import -alias root -keystore \ -trustcacerts -file When I printed the certificate it's issuer is: Issuer: CN=Intranet Basic Issuing CA 2B I downloaded the chain certificates: Intranet Basic Issuing CA 1A(1).crt Intranet Basic Issuing CA 1A(2).crt Intranet Basic Issuing CA 1A.crt Intranet Basic Issuing CA 1B(1).crt Intranet Basic Issuing CA 1B(2).crt Intranet Basic Issuing CA 1B.crt Intranet Basic Issuing CA 2A(1).crt Intranet Basic Issuing CA 2A.crt Intranet Basic Issuing CA 2B(1).crt Intranet Basic Issuing CA 2B.crt Intranet Basic Policy CA(1).crt Intranet Basic Policy CA.crt Root CA.crt Issuer of Intranet Basic Issuing CA 2B.crt is Intranet Basic Policy CA and its Issuer is:Root CA certificate But I can't import 3 certificates into root alias. And imported "Intranet Basic Issuing CA 2B.crt" into root and then rerun import of tomcat alias But got the same error: keytool error: java.lang.Exception: Failed to establish chain from reply What is correct way to import correct chain certificate. Thanks in advance Ilya

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  • Per-pixel per-component alpha blending in Windows

    - by Crend King
    I have a 24-bit bitmaps with R, G, B color channels and a 24-bit bitmap with R, G, B alpha channels. I want to alpha blend the first bitmap to a HDC in GDI or RenderTarget in Direct2D with the alpha channels respectively. For example, suppose for one pixel, the bitmap color is (192, 192, 192), the HDC color is (0, 255, 255) and the alpha channels are (30, 40, 50). The final HDC color should be (22, 245, 242). I know I can BitBlt the HDC to a memory HDC first, do alpha blending by manually calculating the color of each pixel and finally BitBlt back. I just want to avoid the additional blitting and leave APIs do their job (faster since they are in kernel space). The first idea comes to my mind is to split the source bitmap into 3 red-only, green-only and blue-only 8-bit bitmaps, do normal alpha blending, then composite the 3 output bitmaps into the HDC. But I don't find a way to do the splitting and composition natively in Windows (would Direct2D layer help?). Also, the splitting and compositing may require many additional copying. The performance overhead would be too high. Or maybe do the alpha blending in 3 passes. Each pass apply the blending for one channel, while maintaining the other 2 unchanged. Thanks for any comment. EDIT: I found this question, and the answer should be good reference to this problem. However, besides AC_SRC_OVER, there is no other blending operation supported. Why don't Microsoft improve their API?

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  • Multiple model forms with some pre-populated fields

    - by jimbocooper
    Hi! Hope somebody can help me, since I've been stuck for a while with this... I switched to another task, but now back to the fight I still can't figure out how to come out from the black hole xD The thing is as follows: Let's say I've got a product model, and then a set of Clients which have rights to submit data for the products they've been subscribed (Many to Many from Client to Product). Whenever my client is going to submit data, I need to create as many forms as products he's subscribed, and pre-populate each one of them with the "product" field as long as perform a quite simple validation (some optional fields have to be completed if it's client's first submission). I would like one form "step" for each product submission, so I've tried formWizards... but the problem is you can't pre-assign values to the forms... this can be solved afterwards when submitting, though... but not the problem that it doesn't allow validation either, so at the end of each step I can check some data before rendering next step. Then I've tried model formsets, but then there's no way to pre-populate the needed fields. I came across some django plugins, but I'm not confident yet if any of them will make it.... Did anybody has a similar problem so he can give me a ray of light? Thanks a lot in advance!! :) edit: The code I used in the formsets way is as follows: prods = Products.objects.filter(Q(start_date__lte=today) & Q(end_date__gte=today), requester=client) num = len(prods) PriceSubmissionFormSet = modelformset_factory(PriceSubmission, extra=num) formset = PriceSubmissionFormSet(queryset=PriceSubmission.objects.none())

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  • Menu items messed up while using MacVim with Vim Latex

    - by sixtyfootersdude
    I just installed macvim yesterday and I have been trying to install vim latex today. The one thing I am confused about is the menu items on the top bar: ------------------------------------------------------------------------------- <apple icon> File Edit Tools Syntax TeX-Suite TeX-Environments TeX-Elements ------------------------------------------------------------------------------- | Packages > |_____ | Templates > | 1: | | Macros > | 2: | |----------- | 3: | | Compile | 4: | | View |----- | ... | ------------- So in words if you go TeX-Suite -> Templates there is a sub menu with menu items: 1: 2: 3: 4:. Now I know that these templates live here: % pwd /Users/me/.vim/ftplugin/latex-suite/templates % ls IEEEtran.tex article.tex report.tex report_two_column.tex and they are named correctly. Also I know that the :TTemplate vim command should do the same thing. When I type that I get this result: Choose a template file: (1) IEEEtran (2) article (3) report (4) report_two_column Enter number or name of file : So I am thinking that this must be a bug in MacVim. Is this a reasonable assumption? Any fixes?

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  • py2app, pyObjc & macports compilation errors

    - by Neewok
    Hi, I'm currently writing a small python app that embeds cherrypy and django using py2app. It worked well until I tried to include pyobjc in my project, since my app needed a small GUI (which consists of a small icon in the top menu bar + a drop down menu). I can run my python script without any problem (I'm using python 2.6 with macports), but I can't launch the application bundle generated by py2app. A dialog box appears with the following message: ImportError: dlopen(/Users/denis/tlon/standalone/mac/dist/django_cherry.app/Contents/Resources/lib/python2.6/lib-dynload/CoreFoundation/_inlines.so, 2): no suitable image found. Did find: /Users/denis/tlon/standalone/mac/dist/django_cherry.app/Contents/Resources/lib/python2.6/lib-dynload/CoreFoundation/_inlines.so: mach-o, but wrong architecture I did a quick : sudo port -u install py26-pyobjc +universal but for some reason macports tries to build openssl, with which compilation fails each time. It seems the problem is related to zLib - this is what appears in the logs : :info:build ld: warning: in /opt/local/lib/libz.dylib, file is not of required architecture ...And here is the output of file /opt/local/lib/libz.dylib : /opt/local/lib/libz.dylib: Mach-O universal binary with 2 architectures /opt/local/lib/libz.dylib (for architecture x86_64): Mach-O 64-bit dynamically linked shared library x86_64 /opt/local/lib/libz.dylib (for architecture i386): Mach-O dynamically linked shared library i386 Nothing looks wrong to me. I'm a bit stuck here. I don't even understand what openssl has to do with pyObjc, but it looks like I can't go anywhere if I don't manage to compile it. Macports really suck sometimes :/ EDIT I manage to fix Macports issue, but not py2app one. If I get it right, py2app try to create a 32-bits app, while Core Foundation files on Snow Leopard are for 64 bits architectures. Damn. Either I build this on Leopard, either I have to find a way to create a 64bit app with py2app, but then Snow Leopard only.

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  • Why does my J2ME DateField not display the correct date?

    - by olly
    I am storing values and date values in a record store. I have my date field set up like this: StartDate = new DateField("Start Date ", DateField.DATE); cal1 = Calendar.getInstance(); cal1.set(Calendar.YEAR, 2009); cal1.set(Calendar.MONTH, 0); cal1.set(Calendar.DAY_OF_MONTH, 1); StartDate.setDate(cal1.getTime()); and I save the date as a string as follows: strStartDate = cal1.get(cal1.DAY_OF_MONTH) + "/" + (cal1.get(cal1.MONTH) + 1) + "/" + cal1.get(cal1.YEAR); String detailsToAdd = strStartDate (I have shortened the code.) Now, I want to be able to edit the date at a future stage. However, I need the code to be able to do this. So far I have: EStartDate = new DateField("Start Date ", DateField.DATE); I had to change the name of the DateField box as this was conflicting with other things. I basically need to be able to show the selected record's date attribute. I currently have the other information displayed. I just need to be able to show the correct date. When I run the program the date field says <date>. Any help will be nice

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  • Entity Framework - Merging 2 physical tables into one "virtual" table problems...

    - by Keith Barrows
    I have been reading up on porting ASP.NET Membership Provider into .NET 3.5 using LINQ & Entities. However, the DB model that every single sample shows is the newer model while I've inherited a rather old model. Differences: The User Table is split into a pair of User & Membership Tables. All of the tables in the DB are prepended with aspnet_ I have Lowered versions of some columns (UserName, Email, etc) To work with this I have copied the properties from the Membership table into the User table (in the DB this is a 1<-1 relationship, not a 1<-0,1), renamed aspnet_Applications to Application, aspnet_Profiles to Profile, aspnet_Users to User and aspnet_Roles to Role. (See image) Link to full size image of model Now, I am running into one of 2 problems when I try to compile. Using the model in the image I get this error: Problem in Mapping Fragment starting at line 464: EntitySets 'UserSet' and 'aspnet_Membership' are both mapped to table 'aspnet_Membership'. Their Primary Keys may collide. If I delete the aspnet_Membership table from my model (to handle the above error) I then get: Problem in Mapping Fragment starting at line 384: Column aspnet_Membership.ApplicationId in table aspnet_Membership must be mapped: It has no default value and is not nullable. My ability to hand edit the backing stores is not the best and I don't want to just hack something in that may break other things. I am looking for suggestions, best practices, etc to handle this. Note: Moving the data tables themselves is not an option as I cannot replace all the logic in the existing apps. I am building this EF Provider for a new App. Over the next 6 months the old app(s) will migrate bit-by-bit to the new structures. Note: I added a link just under the image to the full size image for better viewing.

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  • WCF 3.5 - Remove SVC Extension - Special Case

    - by Brandon
    I have several RESTful endpoints like such: System.Security.Role.svc System.Security.User.svc etc. This is meant to be a namespace so our RESTful URL's would look like: /rest/{class namespace}/{actions} I have tried a few examples to get the SVC extension removed when my endpoint has multiple periods in it, however, nothing seems to work. I have tested with the WCF REST Contrib package (http://wcfrestcontrib.codeplex.com/), this example (http://www.west-wind.com/weblog/posts/570695.aspx), and another StackOverflow post (http://stackoverflow.com/questions/355165/how-to-remove-thie-svc-extension-in-restful-wcf-service). This works great when my endpoint is something like this: Echo.svc It will properly remove the SVC extension. Any ideas on how to handle endpoints with multiple periods in the endpoint name? EDIT: After some further testing, I found out that it is failing because whenever you do: string path = HttpContext.Current.Request.AppRelativeCurrentExecutionFilePath; If the endpoint contains multiple periods, it strips off everything after the endpoint causing all of the standard IHttpModule's to fail. Example: If I call http://localhost/services/Echo/test, my relative app file path has a returned value of: ~/echo/test However, if I make a call as http://localhost/services/System.Security.User/test, then my relative app file path has a returned value of: ~/system.security.user I am missing the '/test' on the end in that situation.

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  • LaTex, align alignment characters between align blocks

    - by ccook
    I would like to align two alignment characters between two align blocks so that I can have some text in the middle of a derivation with equations maintaining the horizontal alignment. For example the following excerpt of latex using align \begin{align*} \frac{\delta \phi}{\delta x_1} = {} &\frac{9}{8}\frac{\delta_1\phi}{\delta_1x_1}-\frac{1}{8}\frac{\delta_3\phi}{\delta_3x_1} \\ & \frac{9}{8}\frac{1}{h_1}\left[\phi(x_1+h_1/2)-\phi(x_i-h_1/2)\right]-\frac{1}{8}\frac{1}{3h_1}\left[\phi(x_i+3h_1/2)-\phi(x_1-3h_1/2)\right] \end{align*} some text in the middle \begin{align*} & \frac{9}{8}\frac{1}{h_1}\left[\phi(x_1+h_1/2)-\phi(x_i-h_1/2)\right]-\frac{1}{8}\frac{1}{3h_1}\left[\phi(x_i+3h_1/2)-\phi(x_1-3h_1/2)\right] \end{align*} Ideally I would like the left of the equation in the second block to line up with that of the second equation in the first block. I could do a workaround by not having text in the middle, however, I would like this functionality. EDIT I would like to have a good amount of text between. Say three to four lines that line up as normal paragraphs. Adding text in the alignment block is the workaround I poorly alluded to.

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  • Using Gdata Calendar API for PHP App to create a calender system with event ownership

    - by linuxlover101
    Hello, I'm working on a PHP app, and I'm trying to find the best way to set up a calendar system. First let me describe the intended function of the system: The application has multiple users who can login simultaneously. Each user should be able to add their own events and display them on their "profile." Also, on another page, the events should be able to be shown all together (from all users) and from each individual users exclusively. Since Google Calendar has a nice calendar-looking interface, I thought I would work with the GData APIs. Originally, I thought this would make things easier. But then it seems that if I want to represent event ownership, either each user would have to have a google account or somehow they all would each have to have a separate calendar. Thus, the application would have to create the calendar (if it does not exist) and be able to edit only their calendar. Two questions: Can I somehow use the GData APIs to accomplish my goal? (Mainly event ownership.) Should I just create my own calendar like application? Thanks!

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  • How do I compose an existing Moose role into a class at runtime?

    - by Oesor
    Say I define an abstract My::Object and concrete role implementations My::Object::TypeA and My::Object::TypeB. For maintainability reasons, I'd like to not have a hardcoded table that looks at the object type and applies roles. As a DWIMmy example, I'm looking for something along these lines in My::Object: has => 'id' (isa => 'Str', required => 1); sub BUILD { my $self = shift; my $type = $self->lookup_type(); ## Returns 'TypeB' {"My::Object::$type"}->meta->apply($self); } Letting me get a My::Object with My::Object::TypeB role applied by doing the following: my $obj = My::Object(id = 'foo') Is this going to do what I want or am I on the entirely wrong track? Edit: I simplified this too much; I don't want to have to know the type when I instantiate the object, I want the object to determine its type and apply the correct role's methods appropriately. I've edited my question to make this clearer.

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  • Making HABTM relationships unique in CakePHP

    - by Andrea
    I have two models, called Book and Tag, which are in a HABTM relationship. I want a couple (book, tag) to be saved only once. In my models I have var $hasAndBelongsToMany = array( 'Tag' => array( 'className' => 'Tag', 'joinTable' => 'books_tags', 'foreignKey' => 'book_id', 'associationForeignKey' => 'tag_id', 'unique' => true ) ); and viceversa, but the Unique flag does not help me; I can still save two times the same couple. How do I do this in CakePHP? Should I declare the couple (book, tag) unique in the database directly, or will this make CakePHP go nuts? Is there a Cakey way to handle this situation? EDIT: I tried making the couple unique with the query (I'm using MySQL) ALTER TABLE books_tags ADD UNIQUE (book_id,tag_id); but this does not work well. When I save more than one tag at a time, everything goes well if all the couples are new. If at least one of the couples is repeated, CakePHP fails to do the whole operation, so it does not save ANY new couple (not even the good ones).

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  • Sanitize a string with non-alphanum repetition

    - by Toto
    I need to sanitize article titles when (creative) users try to "attract attention" with some non-alphanum repetition. Exemples: Buy my product !!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!! Buy my product !? !? !? !? !? !? Buy my product !!!!!!!!!.......!!!!!!!! Buy my product <----------- Some acceptable solution would be to reduce the repetition of non-alphanum to 2. So I would get: Buy my product !! Buy my product !? !? Buy my product !!..!! Buy my product <-- This solution did not work that well: preg_replace('/(\W{2,})(?=\1+)/', '', $title) Any idea how to do it in PHP with regex? Other better solution is also welcomed (I cannot strip all the non-alphanum characters as they can make sense). Edit: the objective is only to avoid most common issues. The other creative cases will be sanitized manually or sanitized with an other regex.

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  • Marshalling a big-endian byte collection into a struct in order to pull out values

    - by Pat
    There is an insightful question about reading a C/C++ data structure in C# from a byte array, but I cannot get the code to work for my collection of big-endian (network byte order) bytes. (EDIT: Note that my real struct has more than just one field.) Is there a way to marshal the bytes into a big-endian version of the structure and then pull out the values in the endianness of the framework (that of the host, which is usually little-endian)? This should summarize what I'm looking for (LE=LittleEndian, BE=BigEndian): void Main() { var leBytes = new byte[] {1, 0}; var beBytes = new byte[] {0, 1}; Foo fooLe = ByteArrayToStructure<Foo>(leBytes); Foo fooBe = ByteArrayToStructureBigEndian<Foo>(beBytes); Assert.AreEqual(fooLe, fooBe); } [StructLayout(LayoutKind.Explicit, Size=2)] public struct Foo { [FieldOffset(0)] public ushort firstUshort; } T ByteArrayToStructure<T>(byte[] bytes) where T: struct { GCHandle handle = GCHandle.Alloc(bytes, GCHandleType.Pinned); T stuff = (T)Marshal.PtrToStructure(handle.AddrOfPinnedObject(),typeof(T)); handle.Free(); return stuff; } T ByteArrayToStructureBigEndian<T>(byte[] bytes) where T: struct { ??? }

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  • Problem using Hibernate Projections

    - by Lucas
    Hello! I'm using Richfaces + HibernateQuery to create a data list. I'm trying to use Hibernate Projections to group my query result. Here is the code: final DetachedCriteria criteria = DetachedCriteria .forClass(Class.class, "c") .setProjection(Projections.projectionList() .add(Projections.groupProperty("c.id"))); ... in the .xhtml file i have the following code: <rich:dataTable width="100%" id="dataTable" value="#{myBean.dataModel}" var="row"> <f:facet name="header"> <rich:columnGroup> ...... </rich:columnGroup> </f:facet> <h:column> <h:outputText value="#{row.id}"/> </h:column> <h:column> <h:outputText value="#{row.name}"/> </h:column> But when i run the page it gives me the following error: Error: value="#{row.id}": The class 'java.lang.Long' does not have the property 'id'. If i take out the Projection from the code it works correctly, but it doesn't group the result. So, which mistake could be happening here? EDIT: Here is the full criteria: final DetachedCriteria criteria = DetachedCriteria.forClass(Class.class, "c"); criteria.setFetchMode("e.zzzzz", FetchMode.JOIN); criteria.createAlias("e.aaaaaaaa", "aa"); criteria.add(Restrictions.ilike("aa.information", "informations....")); criteria.setProjection(Projections.distinct(Projections.projectionList() .add(Projections.groupProperty("e.id").as("e.id")))); getDao().findByCriteria(criteria); if i take the "setProjection" line it works fine. I don't understand why it gives that error putting that line.

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  • Excel 2003 VBA - Method to duplicate this code that select and colors rows

    - by Justin
    so this is a fragment of a procedure that exports a dataset from access to excel Dim rs As Recordset Dim intMaxCol As Integer Dim intMaxRow As Integer Dim objxls As Excel.Application Dim objWkb As Excel.Workbook Dim objSht As Excel.Worksheet Set rs = CurrentDb.OpenRecordset("qryOutput", dbOpenSnapshot) intMaxCol = rs.Fields.Count If rs.RecordCount > 0 Then rs.MoveLast: rs.MoveFirst intMaxRow = rs.RecordCount Set objxls = New Excel.Application objxls.Visible = True With objxls Set objWkb = .Workbooks.Add Set objSht = objWkb.Worksheets(1) With objSht On Error Resume Next .Range(.Cells(1, 1), .Cells(intMaxRow, intMaxCol)).CopyFromRecordset rs .Name = conSHT_NAME .Cells.WrapText = False .Cells.EntireColumn.AutoFit .Cells.RowHeight = 17 .Cells.Select With Selection.Font .Name = "Calibri" .Size = 10 End With .Rows("1:1").Select With Selection .Insert Shift:=xlDown End With .Rows("1:1").Interior.ColorIndex = 15 .Rows("1:1").RowHeight = 30 .Rows("2:2").Select With Selection.Interior .ColorIndex = 40 .Pattern = xlSolid End With .Rows("4:4").Select With Selection.Interior .ColorIndex = 40 .Pattern = xlSolid End With .Rows("6:6").Select With Selection.Interior .ColorIndex = 40 .Pattern = xlSolid End With .Rows("1:1").Select With Selection.Borders(xlEdgeBottom) .LineStyle = xlContinuous .Weight = xlMedium .ColorIndex = xlAutomatic End With End With End With End If Set objSht = Nothing Set objWkb = Nothing Set objxls = Nothing Set rs = Nothing Set DB = Nothing End Sub see where I am looking at coloring the rows. I wanted to select and fill (with any color) every other row, kinda like some of those access reports. I can do it manually coding each and every row, but two problems: 1) its a pain 2) i don't know what the record count is before hand. How can I make the code more efficient in this respect while incorporating the recordcount to know how many rows to "loop through" EDIT: Another question I have is with the selection methods I am using in the module, is there a better excel syntax instead of these with selections.... .Cells.Select With Selection.Font .Name = "Calibri" .Size = 10 End With is the only way i figure out how to accomplish this piece, but literally every other time I run this code, it fails. It says there is no object and points to the .font ....every other time? is this because the code is poor, or that I am not closing the xls app in the code? if so how do i do that? Thanks as always!

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  • ASP.NET MVC Image refreshing

    - by user295541
    Hi, I have an Employee object which has an image property. Image class contains image metadata as image caption, and image file name. If I upload a new image for an employee on async way without full post back the new image is not appeared on the page. I use GUID to name the image file to avoid the page caching. I do the image modifying the following way: ctrEmployee employee = Repository.Get(PassedItemID); if (employee.ctrImage != null) { string fullFileName = serverFolder + employee.ctrImage.FileName; FileInfo TheFile = new FileInfo(fullFileName); if (TheFile.Exists) { TheFile.Delete(); } fileName = Guid.NewGuid() + ".jpg"; employee.ctrImage.FileName = fileName; } resizedBmp.Save(string.Format("{0}{1}", serverFolder, fileName), System.Drawing.Imaging.ImageFormat.Jpeg); Repository.Edit<ctrEmployee>(employee); ImageID = employee.Image.Value; return PartialView(UserControlPaths.Thumbnail, new ThumbnailDataModel(employee.Image.Value, 150, 150)); The partial view has an image tag which gets the saved image url string which is a GUID. Anybody has an idea what I do wrong?

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  • LINQ to SQL - Left Outer Join with multiple join conditions

    - by dan
    I have the following SQL which I am trying to translate to LINQ: SELECT f.value FROM period as p LEFT OUTER JOIN facts AS f ON p.id = f.periodid AND f.otherid = 17 WHERE p.companyid = 100 I have seen the typical implementation of the left outer join (ie. into x from y in x.DefaultIfEmpty() etc.) but am unsure how to introduce the other join condition ('AND f.otherid = 17') EDIT Why is the 'AND f.otherid = 17' condition part of the JOIN instead of in the WHERE clause? Because f may not exist for some rows and I still want these rows to be included. If the condition is applied in the WHERE clause, after the JOIN - then I don't get the behaviour I want. Unfortunately this: from p in context.Periods join f in context.Facts on p.id equals f.periodid into fg from fgi in fg.DefaultIfEmpty() where p.companyid == 100 && fgi.otherid == 17 select f.value seems to be equivalent to this: SELECT f.value FROM period as p LEFT OUTER JOIN facts AS f ON p.id = f.periodid WHERE p.companyid = 100 && AND f.otherid = 17 which is not quite what I'm after.

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  • STLport crash (race condition, Darwin only?)

    - by Jonas Byström
    When I run STLport on Darwin I get a strange crash. (Haven't seen it anywhere else than on Mac, but exactly same thing crash on both i686 and PowerPC.) This is what it looks like in gdb: Program received signal EXC_BAD_ACCESS, Could not access memory. Reason: 13 at address: 0x0000000000000000 [Switching to process 21097] 0x000000010120f47c in stlp_std::__node_alloc_impl::_M_allocate () It may be some setting in STLport, I noticed that Mac.h and MacOSX.h seemed far behind on features. I also know that it it must be some type of race condition, since it doesn't occur just by calling this method (implicity called). The crash happens mainly when I push the system, running 10 simultaneous threads that do a lot of string handling. Other theories I come up with have to do with compiler flags (configure script) and g++ 4.2 bugs (seems like 4.4.3 isn't on Mac yet with Objective-C support, which I need to link with). HELP!!! :) Edit: I run unit tests, which do all sorts of things. This problem arise when I start 10 threads that push the system; and it always comes down to std::string::append which eventually boils down to _M_allocate. Since I can't even get a descent dump of the code that's causing the problem, I figure I'm doing something bad. Could it be so since it's trying to execute at instruction pointer 0x000...000? Are dynlibs built as DLLs in Windows with a jump table? Could it perhaps be that such a jump table has been overwritten for some reason? That would probably explain this behavior. (The code is huge, if I run out of other ideas, I'll post a minimum crashing sample here.)

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  • TDD vs. Unit testing

    - by Walter
    My company is fairly new to unit testing our code. I've been reading about TDD and unit testing for some time and am convinced of their value. I've attempted to convince our team that TDD is worth the effort of learning and changing our mindsets on how we program but it is a struggle. Which brings me to my question(s). There are many in the TDD community who are very religious about writing the test and then the code (and I'm with them), but for a team that is struggling with TDD does a compromise still bring added benefits? I can probably succeed in getting the team to write unit tests once the code is written (perhaps as a requirement for checking in code) and my assumption is that there is still value in writing those unit tests. What's the best way to bring a struggling team into TDD? And failing that is it still worth writing unit tests even if it is after the code is written? EDIT What I've taken away from this is that it is important for us to start unit testing, somewhere in the coding process. For those in the team who pickup the concept, start to move more towards TDD and testing first. Thanks for everyone's input. FOLLOW UP We recently started a new small project and a small portion of the team used TDD, the rest wrote unit tests after the code. After we wrapped up the coding portion of the project, those writing unit tests after the code were surprised to see the TDD coders already done and with more solid code. It was a good way to win over the skeptics. We still have a lot of growing pains ahead, but the battle of wills appears to be over. Thanks for everyone who offered advice!

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  • How to pass a value from a method to property procedure in c#?

    - by sameer
    Here is my code: The jewellery class is my main class in which i am inheriting a connection string class. class Jewellery : Connectionstr { string lmcode; public string LM_code/**/Here i want to access the value of the method ReadData i.e displaystring and i want to store this value in the insert query below.** { get { return lmcode; } set { lmcode = value; } } string mname; public string M_Name { get { return mname; } set { mname = value; } } string desc; public string Desc { get { return desc; } set { desc = value; } } public string ReadData() { OleDbDataReader dr; string jid = string.Empty; string displayString = string.Empty; String query = "select max(LM_code)from Master_Accounts"; Datamanager.RunExecuteReader(Constr, query); if (dr.Read()) { jid = dr[0].ToString(); if (string.IsNullOrEmpty(jid)) { jid = "AM0000"; } int len = jid.Length; string split = jid.Substring(2, len - 2); int num = Convert.ToInt32(split); num++; displayString = jid.Substring(0, 2) + num.ToString("0000"); dr.Close(); } **return displayString;** I want to pass this value to the above property procedure above i.e LM_code. } public void add() { String query ="insert into Master_Accounts values ('" + LM_code + "','" + M_Name + "'," + "'" + Desc + "')"; Datamanager.RunExecuteNonQuery(Constr , query);// } If possible can u edit this code! Anticipated thanks by sameer

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  • Error CS0117: Namespace.A does not contain definition for Interface..

    - by SnOrfus
    I'm getting the error: 'Namespace.A' does not contain a definition for 'MyObjectInterface' and no extension method 'MyObjectInterface' accepting a first argument of type ... I've looked at this and this and neither seems to apply. The code looks like: public abstract class Base { public IObject MyObjectInterface { get; set; } } public class A : Base { /**/ } public class Implementation { public void Method() { Base obj = new A(); obj.MyObjectInterface = /* something */; // Error here } } IObject is defined in a separate assembly, but: IObject is in a separate assembly/namespace Base and A are in the same assembly/namespace each with correct using directives Implementation is in a third separate assembly namespace, also with correct using directives. Casting to A before trying to set MyObjectInterface doesn't work Specifically, I'm trying to set the value of MyObjectInterface to a mock object (though, I created a fake instead to no avail) I've tried everything I can think of. Please help before I lose more hair. edit I can't reproduce the error by creating a test app either, which is why I'm here and why I'm frustrated. @Reed Copsey: /* something */ is either an NUnit.DynamicMock(IMailer).MockInstance or a Fake object I created that inherits from IObject and just returns canned values. @Preet Sangha: I checked and no other assembly that is referenced has a definition for an IObject (specifically, it's called an IMailer). Thing is that intellisense picks up the Property, but when I compile, I get CS0117. I can even 'Go To Definition' in the implementation, and it takes me to where I defined it.

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