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Data denormalization and C# objects DB serialization

- by Robert Koritnik

I'm using a DB table with various different entities. This means that I can't have an arbitrary number of fields in it to save all kinds of different entities. I want instead save just the most important fields (dates, reference IDs - kind of foreign key to various other tables, most important text fields etc.) and an additional text field where I'd like to store more complete object data. the most obvious solution would be to use XML strings and store those. The second most obvious choice would be JSON, that usually shorter and probably also faster to serialize/deserialize... And is probably also faster. But is it really? My objects also wouldn't need to be strictly serializable, because JsonSerializer is usually able to serialize anything. Even anonymous objects, that may as well be used here. What would be the most optimal solution to solve this problem? Additional info My DB is highly normalised and I'm using Entity Framework, but for the purpose of having external super-fast fulltext search functionality I'm sacrificing a bit DB denormalisation. Just for the info I'm using SphinxSE on top of MySql. Sphinx would return row IDs that I would use to fast query my index optimised conglomerate table to get most important data from it much much faster than querying multiple tables all over my DB. My table would have columns like: RowID (auto increment) EntityID (of the actual entity - but not directly related because this would have to point to different tables) EntityType (so I would be able to get the actual entity if needed) DateAdded (record timestamp when it's been added into this table) Title Metadata (serialized data related to particular entity type) This table would be indexed with SPHINX indexer. When I would search for data using this indexer I would provide a series of EntityIDs and a limit date. Indexer would have to return a very limited paged amount of RowIDs ordered by DateAdded (descending). I would then just join these RowIDs to my table and get relevant results. So this won't actually be full text search but a filtering search. Getting RowIDs would be very fast this way and getting results back from the table would be much faster than comparing EntityIDs and DateAdded comparisons even though they would be properly indexed.

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Would Apache running on port 8080 prevent dynamically loaded scripts in JavaScript?

- by editor

Had a nice PHP/HTML/JS prototype working on my personal Linode, then tried to throw it into a work machine. The page adds a script tag dynamically with some JavaScript. It's a bunch of Google charts that update based on different timeslices. That code looks something like this: // jQuery $.post to send the beginning and end timestamps $.post("channel_functions.php", data_to_post, function(data){ // the data that's returned is the javascript I want to load var script = document.createElement('script'); var head= document.getElementsByTagName('head')[0]; var script= document.createElement('script'); var text = document.createTextNode(data); script.type= 'text/javascript'; script.id = 'chart_data'; script.appendChild(text); // Adding script tag to page head.appendChild(script); // Call the function I know were present in the script tag loadTheCharts(); }); function loadTheCharts() { // These are the functions that were loaded dynamically // By this point the script tag is supposed be loaded, added and eval'd function1(); function2(); } Function1() and function2() don't exist until they get added to the dom, but I don't call loadTheCharts() until after the $.post has run so this doesn't seem to be a problem. I'm one of those dirty PHP coders you mother warned you about, so I'm not well versed in JavaScript beyond what I've read in the typical go-to O'Reilly books. But this code worked fine on my personal dev server, so I'm wondering why it wouldn't work on this new machine. The only difference in setup, from what I can tell, is that the new machine is running on port 8080, so it's 192.168.blah.blah:8080/index.php instead of nicedomain.com/index.php. I see the code was indeed added to the dom when I use webmaster tools to "view generated source" but in Firebug I get an error like "function2() is undefined" even though my understanding was that all script tags are eval'ed when added to . My question: Given what I've laid out, and that the machine is running on :8080, is there a reason anyone can think of as to why a dynamically loaded function like function2() would be defined on the Linode and not on the machine running Apache on 8080?

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jquery - loading inline javascript via AJAX

- by yaya3

I have thrown together a quick prototype to try and establish a few very basic truths regarding what inline JavaScript can do when it is loaded with AJAX: index.html <html> <head> <script src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1/jquery.min.js"></script> </head> <body> <script type="text/javascript"> $('p').css('color','white'); alert($('p').css('color')); // DISPLAYS FIRST but is "undefined" $(document).ready(function(){ $('#ajax-loaded-content-wrapper').load('loaded-by-ajax.html', function(){ $('p').css('color','grey'); alert($('p').css('color')); // DISPLAYS LAST (as expected) }); $('p').css('color','purple'); alert($('p').css('color')); // DISPLAYS SECOND }); </script> <p>Content not loaded by ajax</p> <div id="ajax-loaded-content-wrapper"> </div> </body> </html> loaded-by-ajax.html <p>Some content loaded by ajax</p> <script type="text/javascript"> $('p').css('color','yellow'); alert($('p').css('color')); // DISPLAYS THIRD $(document).ready(function(){ $('p').css('color','pink'); alert($('p').css('color')); // DISPLAYS FOURTH }); </script> <p>Some content loaded by ajax</p> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function(){ $('p').css('color','blue'); alert($('p').css('color')); // DISPLAYS FIFTH }); $('p').css('color','green'); alert($('p').css('color')); // DISPLAYS SIX </script> <p>Some content loaded by ajax</p> Notes: a) All of the above (except the first) successfully change the colour of all the paragraphs (in firefox 3.6.3). b) I've used alert instead of console.log as console is undefined when called in the 'loaded' HTML. Truths(?): $(document).ready() does not treat the 'loaded' HTML as a new document, or reread the entire DOM tree including the loaded HTML, it is pointless inside AJAX loaded content JavaScript that is contained inside 'loaded' HTML can effect the style of existing DOM nodes One can successfully use the jQuery library inside 'loaded' HTML to effect the style of existing DOM nodes One can not use the firebug inside 'loaded' HTML can effect the existing DOM (proven by Note a) Am I correct in deriving these 'truths' from my tests (test validity)? If not, how would you test for these?

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jquery sortable item cached? #sortable items: '.class1' filter is not working when class is changed

- by liz

hello everyone, i came across a weird problem today: i created a sortable list of divs. each div has a class="class1" and items is set to 'class1' (see below simplified code). each div has an a href link that calls a function toggleLock. this function replaces class="class1" with class="locked" for that div. for example: will become the problem is: even though #sortable is set to "make" only items with class="class1" sortable, replacing the class still allows to be sortable. seems like item class is cached at some point. i've tried to refresh #sortable ($('#sortable').sortable("refreshPosition") and $('#sortable').sortable("");), but that didn't work. i've tried both ways of replacing the class: attr('class','lock') and removeClass(), then addClass(). still is sortable. if class is not changed dynamically, but loads into DOM as , then it's not sortable as expected. why wouldn't replacement of the class from class1 to locked prevent that div from being sortable? am i missing something? sample code: <div id="sortable"> <div class="class1" id="1"> <div class="sortHandle">....</div> <href="javascript:void(null);" onclick="toggleLock($(this).attr('id').replace('R',''));" id="R1">lock</a> <p>This is item 1</p> </div> <div class="class1" id="2"> <div class="sortHandle"></div> <href="javascript:void(null);" onclick="toggleLock($(this).attr('id').replace('R',''));" id="R2">lock</a> <p>This is item 2</p> </div> <div class="class1" id="3"> <div class="sortHandle"></div> <href="javascript:void(null);" onclick="toggleLock($(this).attr('id').replace('R',''));" id="R3">lock</a> <p>This is item 3</p> </div> </div> js: $(function() { $("#sortable").sortable({ items: '.class1', handle: '.sortHandle', cursor: 'move', start: function(e,ui) { el = e.target; startPos = ui.item.prevAll().length+1; }, update: function(event, ui) { data = $('.class1').sortable('toArray'); newPos = ui.item.prevAll().length+1; alert("position: "+startPos+"; newposition: "+newPos); } }).disableSelection(); });

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python Socket.IO client for sending broadcast messages to TornadIO2 server

- by Alp

I am building a realtime web application. I want to be able to send broadcast messages from the server-side implementation of my python application. Here is the setup: socketio.js on the client-side TornadIO2 server as Socket.IO server python on the server-side (Django framework) I can succesfully send socket.io messages from the client to the server. The server handles these and can send a response. In the following i will describe how i did that. Current Setup and Code First, we need to define a Connection which handles socket.io events: class BaseConnection(tornadio2.SocketConnection): def on_message(self, message): pass # will be run if client uses socket.emit('connect', username) @event def connect(self, username): # send answer to client which will be handled by socket.on('log', function) self.emit('log', 'hello ' + username) Starting the server is done by a Django management custom method: class Command(BaseCommand): args = '' help = 'Starts the TornadIO2 server for handling socket.io connections' def handle(self, *args, **kwargs): autoreload.main(self.run, args, kwargs) def run(self, *args, **kwargs): port = settings.SOCKETIO_PORT router = tornadio2.TornadioRouter(BaseConnection) application = tornado.web.Application( router.urls, socket_io_port = port ) print 'Starting socket.io server on port %s' % port server = SocketServer(application) Very well, the server runs now. Let's add the client code: <script type="text/javascript"> var sio = io.connect('localhost:9000'); sio.on('connect', function(data) { console.log('connected'); sio.emit('connect', '{{ user.username }}'); }); sio.on('log', function(data) { console.log("log: " + data); }); </script> Obviously, {{ user.username }} will be replaced by the username of the currently logged in user, in this example the username is "alp". Now, every time the page gets refreshed, the console output is: connected log: hello alp Therefore, invoking messages and sending responses works. But now comes the tricky part. Problems The response "hello alp" is sent only to the invoker of the socket.io message. I want to broadcast a message to all connected clients, so that they can be informed in realtime if a new user joins the party (for example in a chat application). So, here are my questions: How can i send a broadcast message to all connected clients? How can i send a broadcast message to multiple connected clients that are subscribed on a specific channel? How can i send a broadcast message anywhere in my python code (outside of the BaseConnection class)? Would this require some sort of Socket.IO client for python or is this builtin with TornadIO2? All these broadcasts should be done in a reliable way, so i guess websockets are the best choice. But i am open to all good solutions.

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Is the design notion of layers contrived?

- by Bruce

Hi all I'm reading through Eric Evans' awesome work, Domain-Driven Design. However, I can't help feeling that the 'layers' model is contrived. To expand on that statement, it seems as if it tries to shoe-horn various concepts into a specific, neat model, that of layers talking to each other. It seems to me that the layers model is too simplified to actually capture the way that (good) software works. To expand further: Evans says: "Partition a complex program into layers. Develop a design within each layer that is cohesive and that depends only on the layers below. Follow standard architectural patterns to provide loose coupling to the layers above." Maybe I'm misunderstanding what 'depends' means, but as far as I can see, it can either mean a) Class X (in the UI for example) has a reference to a concrete class Y (in the main application) or b) Class X has a reference to a class Y-ish object providing class Y-ish services (ie a reference held as an interface). If it means (a), then this is clearly a bad thing, since it defeats re-using the UI as a front-end to some other application that provides Y-ish functionality. But if it means (b), then how is the UI any more dependent on the application, than the application is dependent on the UI? Both are decoupled from each other as much as they can be while still talking to each other. Evans' layer model of dependencies going one way seems too neat. First, isn't it more accurate to say that each area of the design provides a module that is pretty much an island to itself, and that ideally all communication is through interfaces, in a contract-driven/responsibility-driven paradigm? (ie, the 'dependency only on lower layers' is contrived). Likewise with the domain layer talking to the database - the domain layer is as decoupled (through DAO etc) from the database as the database is from the domain layer. Neither is dependent on the other, both can be swapped out. Second, the idea of a conceptual straight line (as in from one layer to the next) is artificial - isn't there more a network of intercommunicating but separate modules, including external services, utility services and so on, branching off at different angles? Thanks all - hoping that your responses can clarify my understanding on this..

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How to detect page zoom level in all modern browsers?

- by understack

How can I detect page zoom level in all modern browsers? While this thread tells how to do it in IE7 and IE8, I can't find good solution for FF, Safari and Chrome. For FF one of the suggested solution FF stores page zoom level for future. So on first page load would I be able to get zoom level? Somewhere I read it works if you're changing zoom level on that page after its loaded. Is there a way to trap 'zoom' event? I need this because some of my calculations are based on no of pixels and they get changed on Zoom. Thanks. Modified sample given by tfl. This would alert different height based on zoom level. <html> <head> <script src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.3.1/jquery.min.js" type="text/javascript"/></script> <title></title> </head> <body> <div id="xy" style="border:1px solid #f00; width:100px;"> Lorem ipsum dolor sit amet, consectetur adipiscing elit. Pellentesque sollicitudin tortor in lacus tincidunt volutpat. Integer dignissim imperdiet mollis. Suspendisse quis tortor velit, placerat tempor neque. Cum sociis natoque penatibus et magnis dis parturient montes, nascetur ridiculus mus. Praesent bibendum auctor lorem vitae tempor. Nullam condimentum aliquam elementum. Nullam egestas gravida elementum. Maecenas mattis molestie nisl sit amet vehicula. Donec semper tristique blandit. Vestibulum adipiscing placerat mollis. </div> <div> <button onclick="alert($('#xy').height());">Show</button> </div> </body> </html>

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Best practices for developing simple ASP.NET sites (built in controls or JQuery + scripts)

- by Nix

I was recently reviewing some code written by two different contractors, both were basic ASP.NET management sites. The sites allowed the user to view and edit data. Pretty much simple CRUD gateways. One group did their best to use built in ASP + AJAX Toolkit controls and did their best to use as many built in controls as possible. I found the code much easier to read and maintain. The other used jQuery and the code is heavily marked up with script blocks which are then used to build pages from javascript files. Which one is more common? The one that basically leveraged embedded HTML markup in scripts controled by javascript files screams readability and maintenance issues? Is this just the way of doing asp dev with jQuery? Assuming the second example happens a lot, are there tools that help facilitate jQuery development with visual studio? Do you think they generated the html somewhere else and just copied it in? Example Script block: <script id="HRPanel" type="text/html"> <table cellpadding='0' cellspacing='0' class="atable"><thead class="mHeader"><tr><th>Name</th><th>Description</th><th>Other</th></thead><tbody> <# for(var i=0; i < hrRows.length; i++) { var r = HRRows[i]; #> <tr><td><#=r.Name#></td><td><#=r.Description#></td><td class="taRight"><#=r.Other#></td></tr> <#}#> </tbody><tfoot><th></th><th></th><th></th></tfoot></table> </script> Then in a separate location (js file) you would see something like this. $("#HRPanel").html($("#HRPanel").parseTemplate({ HRRows: response.something.bah.bah }));

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VSTS test deployment and invalid assembly culture

- by Merlyn Morgan-Graham

I have a DLL that I'm testing, which links to a DLL that has what I think is an invalid value for AssemblyCulture. The value is "Neutral" (notice the upper-case "N"), whereas the DLL I'm testing, and every other DLL in my project, has a value of "neutral" (because they specify AssemblyCulture("")). When I try to deploy the DLL that links to the problem DLL, I get this error in VSTS: Failed to queue test run '...': Culture is not supported. Parameter name: name Neutral is an invalid culture identifier. <Exception>System.Globalization.CultureNotFoundException: Culture is not supported. Parameter name: name Neutral is an invalid culture identifier. at System.Globalization.CultureInfo..ctor(String name, Boolean useUserOverride) at System.Globalization.CultureInfo..ctor(String name) at System.Reflection.RuntimeAssembly.GetReferencedAssemblies(RuntimeAssembly assembly) at System.Reflection.RuntimeAssembly.GetReferencedAssemblies() at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.Utility.AssemblyLoadWorker.ProcessChildren(Assembly assembly) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.Utility.AssemblyLoadWorker.GetDependentAssemblies(String path) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.Utility.AssemblyLoadWorker.GetDependentAssemblies(String path) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.Utility.AssemblyLoadStrategy.GetDependentAssemblies(String path) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.Utility.AssemblyHelper.GetDependentAssemblies(String path, DependentAssemblyOptions options, String configFile) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestManagement.DeploymentManager.GetDependencies(String master, String configFile, TestRunConfiguration runConfig, DeploymentItemOrigin dependencyOrigin, List`1 dependencyDeploymentItems, Dictionary`2 missingDependentAssemblies) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestManagement.DeploymentManager.DoDeployment(TestRun run, FileCopyService fileCopyService) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestManagement.ControllerProxy.SetupTestRun(TestRun run, Boolean isNewTestRun, FileCopyService fileCopyService, DeploymentManager deploymentManager) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestManagement.ControllerProxy.SetupRunAndListener(TestRun run, FileCopyService fileCopyService, DeploymentManager deploymentManager) at Microsoft.VisualStudio.TestTools.TestManagement.ControllerProxy.QueueTestRunWorker(Object state)</Exception> Even if I don't link to the DLL (in my VSTS wrapper test, or in the NUnit test), as soon as I add it in my GenericTest file (I'm wrapping NUnit tests), I get that exception. We don't have the source for the problem DLL, and it is also code signed, so I can't solve this by recompiling. Is there a way to skip deploying the dependencies of a DLL DeploymentItem, to fix or disable the culture check, or to work around this by convoluted means (maybe somehow embed the assembly)? Is there a way to override the value for the culture, short of hacking the DLL (and removing code signing so the hack works)? Maybe with an external manifest? Any correct solution must work without weird changes to production code. We can't deploy a hacked DLL, for example. It also must allow the DLL to be instrumented for code coverage. Additional note: I do get a linker warning when compiling the DLL under test that links to the problem DLL, but this hasn't broken anything but VSTS, and multiple versions have shipped.

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How do I avoid the loader lock?

- by Mark0978

We have a managed app, that uses an assembly. That assembly uses some unmanaged C++ code. The Managed C++ code is in a dll, that depends on several other dlls. All of those Dlls are loaded by this code. (We load all the dll's that ImageCore.dll depends on first, so we can tell which ones are missing, otherwise it would just show up as ImageCore.dll failed to load, and the log file would give no clues as to why). class Interop { private const int DONT_RESOLVE_DLL_REFERENCES = 1; private static log4net.ILog log = log4net.LogManager.GetLogger("Imagecore.NET"); [DllImport("kernel32.dll", CharSet = CharSet.Auto, SetLastError = true)] private static extern IntPtr LoadLibraryEx(string fileName, IntPtr dummy, int flags); [DllImport("kernel32.dll", CharSet = CharSet.Auto, SetLastError = true)] private static extern IntPtr FreeLibrary(IntPtr hModule); static private String[] libs = { "log4cplus.dll", "yaz.dll", "zlib1.dll", "libxml2.dll" }; public static void PreloadAssemblies() { for (int i=0; i < libs.Length; ++i) { String libname = libs[i]; IntPtr hModule = LoadLibraryEx(libname, IntPtr.Zero, DONT_RESOLVE_DLL_REFERENCES); if(hModule == IntPtr.Zero) { log.Error("Unable to pre-load '" + libname + "'"); throw new DllNotFoundException("Unable to pre-load '" + libname + "'"); } else { FreeLibrary(hModule); } } IntPtr h = LoadLibraryEx("ImageCore.dll", IntPtr.Zero, 0); if (h == IntPtr.Zero) { throw new DllNotFoundException("Unable to pre-load ImageCore.dll"); } } } And this code is called by public class ImageDoc : IDisposable { static ImageDoc() { ImageHawk.ImageCore.Utility.Interop.PreloadAssemblies(); } ... } Which is static constructor. As near as I can understand it, as soon as we attempt to use an ImageDoc object, the dll that contains that assembly is loaded and as part of that load, the static constructor is called which in turn causes several other DLLs to be loaded as well. What I'm trying to figure out, is how do we defer loading of those DLLs so that we don't run smack dab into this loader lock that is being kicked out because of the static constructor. I've pieced this much together by looking at: http://social.msdn.microsoft.com/Forums/en-US/vsto/thread/dd192d7e-ce92-49ce-beef-3816c88e5a86 http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/aa290048%28VS.71%29.aspx http://forums.devx.com/showthread.php?t=53529 http://www.yoda.arachsys.com/csharp/beforefieldinit.html But I just can't seem to find a way to get these external DLLs to load without it happening at the point the class is loading. I think I need to get these LoadLibrary calls out of the static constructor, but don't know how to get them called before they are needed (except for how it is done here). I would prefer to not have to put this kind of knowledge of the dlls into every app that uses this assembly. (And I'm not sure that would even fix the problem.... The strange thing is that the exception only appears to be happening while running within the debugger, not while running outside the debugger.

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How to detect if Asp.Net form is valid

- by Hasan Gürsoy

Hi, I have a form which is in an updatePanel and I have a span with hidden loading image, which I want to show when user clicks to submit button but I first need to check if page is valid on client side. Also I'm making loading span visible with jQuery. Here is my code: <html> <head> <script src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.4.2/jquery.min.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> function showLoading() { $('#loader').show(); } </script> </head> <body> <asp:ScriptManager ID="smMain" runat="server"></asp:ScriptManager> <asp:UpdatePanel ID="upForm" runat="server"> <ContentTemplate> <asp:MultiView ID="mvContact" runat="server" ActiveViewIndex="0"> <asp:View ID="vDefault" runat="server"> <asp:TextBox ID="tEMail" runat="server" CssClass="input" /> <asp:RequiredFieldValidator ID="rfvEMail" runat="server" ControlToValidate="tEMail" ErrorMessage="* required" Display="Dynamic" /> <asp:RegularExpressionValidator ID="revEMail" runat="server" ControlToValidate="tEMail" ErrorMessage="* invalid" Display="Dynamic" ValidationExpression="\w+([-+.']\w+)*@\w+([-.]\w+)*\.\w+([-.]\w+)*" /> <asp:ImageButton ID="btnSubmit" runat="server" ImageUrl="~/Assets/Images/btnSubmit.png" ToolTip="Submit Form" style="margin:5px 5px 0 -5px" onclick="btnSubmit_Click" OnClientClick="showLoading();" /> <span id="loader"><img src="Assets/Images/loader.gif" title="Sending..." /></span> </asp:View> <asp:View ID="vResult" runat="server"> <div class="result"> <span id="lResult" runat="server">Your message is sent</span> </div> </asp:View> </asp:MultiView> </ContentTemplate> </asp:UpdatePanel> </body></html>

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markitup wysiwyg with a standard HTML form

- by Chris

Hi, I'm trying to use the markitup editor on my site and I'm having a problem trying to figure out what I need to do to submit the text area to my server side script. I'm guessing there is something simple that needs to be done but my lack of JS/JQuery knowledge is making it really hard to find a answer The editor works fine, I just want to use my own form and submit button with it, however when I try to submit the form I don't get any of the textarea data in my script. Any idea what I need to do? This is the min that works (before submit) In the Head of my HTML <script type="text/javascript" >  </script> And the body: <form id="postpreview" name="newpost" action="/someurl" method="POST" /> <input type="hidden" name="key1" value="val1" /> <input type="hidden" name="key2" value="val2" /> <textarea name="text" id="markItUp"></textarea> <input id="SubmitPost" type="image" value="Continue" name="Doit" class="preview" src="/img/somimage" /> </form> As I said, everything prior to the submit works but once I submit I don't get anything for the form data element "text". I tried doing this in the head: <script type="text/javascript" >  </script> I've also tried: <script type="text/javascript" >  </script> And I have no luck - the last attempt above just disabled the form (so clicking on the submit or preview buttons did nothing). Any ideas? I guessing its really simple to use my own form but I have no clue how to do it. TIA!

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Can I Number a GroupTemplate or ItemTemplate?

- by Atomiton

I would like to use a GroupTemplate to separate a list of items into groups. However, I need each Group to be numbered sequentially so I can link to them and implement some JS paging. I'm binding to an IEnumerable Here's some pseudo code. I would like the output to look like this: <a href="#group1">Go to Group 1<a> <a href="#group2">Go to Group 2<a> <a href="#group3">Go to Group 3<a> <ul id="group1"> <li>Item</li> <li>Item</li> <li>Item</li> </ul> <ul id="group2"> <li>Item</li> <li>Item</li> <li>Item</li> </ul> <ul id="group3"> <li>Item</li> <li>Item</li> <li>Item</li> </ul> Is this easy to do in a ListView, using GroupTemplate and ItemTemplate? <asp:ListView ID="lv" runat="server" GroupPlaceholderID="groupPlaceholder"> <LayoutTemplate> <asp:PlaceHolder ID="groupPlaceholder" runat="server"></asp:PlaceHolder> </LayoutTemplate> <GroupTemplate> <ul id=""> <asp:PlaceHolder ID="itemPlaceholder" runat="server"></asp:PlaceHolder> </ul> </GroupTemplate> <ItemTemplate> <li>Item</li> </ItemTemplate> </asp:ListView> I can get the number of groups to do the links at the top from the Datasource and basic math, but how do I get id="groupN" number into the template?

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Telnet connection using c#

- by alejandrobog

Our office currently uses telnet to query an external server. The procedure is something like this. Connect - telnet opent 128........ 25000 Query - we paste the query and then hit alt + 019 Response - We receive the response as text in the telnet window So I’m trying to make this queries automatic using a c# app. My code is the following First the connection. (No exceptions) SocketClient = new Socket(AddressFamily.InterNetwork, SocketType.Stream, ProtocolType.Tcp); String szIPSelected = txtIPAddress.Text; String szPort = txtPort.Text; int alPort = System.Convert.ToInt16(szPort, 10); System.Net.IPAddress remoteIPAddress = System.Net.IPAddress.Parse(szIPSelected); System.Net.IPEndPoint remoteEndPoint = new System.Net.IPEndPoint(remoteIPAddress, alPort); SocketClient.Connect(remoteEndPoint); Then I send the query (No exceptions) string data ="some query"; byte[] byData = System.Text.Encoding.ASCII.GetBytes(data); SocketClient.Send(byData); Then I try to receive the response byte[] buffer = new byte[10]; Receive(SocketClient, buffer, 0, buffer.Length, 10000); string str = Encoding.ASCII.GetString(buffer, 0, buffer.Length); txtDataRx.Text = str; public static void Receive(Socket socket, byte[] buffer, int offset, int size, int timeout) { int startTickCount = Environment.TickCount; int received = 0; // how many bytes is already received do { if (Environment.TickCount > startTickCount + timeout) throw new Exception("Timeout."); try { received += socket.Receive(buffer, offset + received, size - received, SocketFlags.None); } catch (SocketException ex) { if (ex.SocketErrorCode == SocketError.WouldBlock || ex.SocketErrorCode == SocketError.IOPending || ex.SocketErrorCode == SocketError.NoBufferSpaceAvailable) { // socket buffer is probably empty, wait and try again Thread.Sleep(30); } else throw ex; // any serious error occurr } } while (received < size); } Every time I try to receive the response I get "an exsiting connetion has forcibly closed by the remote host" if open telnet and send the same query I get a response right away Any ideas, or suggestions?

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Comparing two large sets of attributes

- by andyashton

Suppose you have a Django view that has two functions: The first function renders some XML using a XSLT stylesheet and produces a div with 1000 subelements like this: <div id="myText"> <p id="p1"><a class="note-p1" href="#" style="display:none" target="bot">?</a></strong>Lorem ipsum</p> <p id="p2"><a class="note-p2" href="#" style="display:none" target="bot">?</a></strong>Foo bar</p> <p id="p3"><a class="note-p3" href="#" style="display:none" target="bot">?</a></strong>Chocolate peanut butter</p> (etc for 1000 lines) <p id="p1000"><a class="note-p1000" href="#" style="display:none" target="bot">?</a></strong>Go Yankees!</p> </div> The second function renders another XML document using another stylesheet to produce a div like this: <div id="myNotes"> <p id="n1"><cite class="note-p1"><sup>1</sup><span>Trololo</span></cite></p> <p id="n2"><cite class="note-p1"><sup>2</sup><span>Trololo</span></cite></p> <p id="n3"><cite class="note-p2"><sup>3</sup><span>lololo</span></cite></p> (etc for n lines) <p id="n"><cite class="note-p885"><sup>n</sup><span>lololo</span></cite></p> </div> I need to see which elements in #myText have classes that match elements in #myNotes, and display them. I can do this using the following jQuery: $('#myText').find('a').each(function() { var $anchor = $(this); $('#myNotes').find('cite').each(function() { if($(this).attr('class') == $anchor.attr('class')) { $anchor.show(); }); }); However this is incredibly slow and inefficient for a large number of comparisons. What is the fastest/most efficient way to do this - is there a jQuery/js method that is reasonable for a large number of items? Or do I need to reengineer the Django code to do the work before passing it to the template?

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Data access pattern

- by andlju

I need some advice on what kind of pattern(s) I should use for pushing/pulling data into my application. I'm writing a rule-engine that needs to hold quite a large amount of data in-memory in order to be efficient enough. I have some rather conflicting requirements; It is not acceptable for the engine to always have to wait for a full pre-load of all data before it is functional. Only fetching and caching data on-demand will lead to the engine taking too long before it is running quickly enough. An external event can trigger the need for specific parts of the data to be reloaded. Basically, I think I need a combination of pushing and pulling data into the application. A simplified version of my current "pattern" looks like this (in psuedo-C# written in notepad): // This interface is implemented by all classes that needs the data interface IDataSubscriber { void RegisterData(Entity data); } // This interface is implemented by the data access class interface IDataProvider { void EnsureLoaded(Key dataKey); void RegisterSubscriber(IDataSubscriber subscriber); } class MyClassThatNeedsData : IDataSubscriber { IDataProvider _provider; MyClassThatNeedsData(IDataProvider provider) { _provider = provider; _provider.RegisterSubscriber(this); } public void RegisterData(Entity data) { // Save data for later StoreDataInCache(data); } void UseData(Key key) { // Make sure that the data has been stored in cache _provider.EnsureLoaded(key); Entity data = GetDataFromCache(key); } } class MyDataProvider : IDataProvider { List<IDataSubscriber> _subscribers; // Make sure that the data for key has been loaded to all subscribers public void EnsureLoaded(Key key) { if (HasKeyBeenMarkedAsLoaded(key)) return; PublishDataToSubscribers(key); MarkKeyAsLoaded(key); } // Force all subscribers to get a new version of the data for key public void ForceReload(Key key) { PublishDataToSubscribers(key); MarkKeyAsLoaded(key); } void PublishDataToSubscribers(Key key) { Entity data = FetchDataFromStore(key); foreach(var subscriber in _subscribers) { subscriber.RegisterData(data); } } } // This class will be spun off on startup and should make sure that all data is // preloaded as quickly as possible class MyPreloadingThread { IDataProvider _provider; MyPreloadingThread(IDataProvider provider) { _provider = provider; } void RunInBackground() { IEnumerable<Key> allKeys = GetAllKeys(); foreach(var key in allKeys) { _provider.EnsureLoaded(key); } } } I have a feeling though that this is not necessarily the best way of doing this.. Just the fact that explaining it seems to take two pages feels like an indication.. Any ideas? Any patterns out there I should have a look at?

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Add rss xmlns namespace definition to a php simplexml document?

- by talkingnews

I'm trying to create an itunes-valid podcast feed using php5's simplexml: <?php $xml_string = <<<XML <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <channel> </channel> XML; $xml_generator = new SimpleXMLElement($xml_string); $tnsoundfile = $xml_generator->addChild('title', 'Main Title'); $tnsoundfile->addChild('itunes:author', "Author", ' '); $tnsoundfile->addChild('category', 'Audio Podcasts'); $tnsoundfile = $xml_generator->addChild('item'); $tnsoundfile->addChild('title', 'The track title'); $enclosure = $tnsoundfile->addChild('enclosure'); $enclosure->addAttribute('url', 'http://test.com'); $enclosure->addAttribute('length', 'filelength'); $enclosure->addAttribute('type', 'audio/mpeg'); $tnsoundfile->addChild('itunes:author', "Author", ' '); header("Content-Type: text/xml"); echo $xml_generator->asXML(); ?> It doesn't validate, because I've got to put the line: <rss xmlns:itunes="http://www.itunes.com/dtds/podcast-1.0.dtd" version="2.0"> as per http://www.apple.com/itunes/podcasts/specs.html. So the output SHOULD be: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <rss xmlns:itunes="http://www.itunes.com/dtds/podcast-1.0.dtd" version="2.0"> <channel> etc. I've been over and over the manual and forums, just can't get it right. If I put, near the footer: header("Content-Type: text/xml"); echo '<rss xmlns:itunes="http://www.itunes.com/dtds/podcast-1.0.dtd" version="2.0">'; echo $xml_generator->asXML(); ?> Then it sort of looks right in firefox and it doesn't complain about undefined namespaces anymore, but feedvalidator complains that line 1, column 77: XML parsing error: :1:77: xml declaration not at start of external entity [help] because the document now starts: <rss xmlns:itunes="http://www.itunes.com/dtds/podcast-1.0.dtd" version="2.0"><?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> and not <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?><rss xmlns:itunes="http://www.itunes.com/dtds/podcast-1.0.dtd" version="2.0"> Thank you in advance.

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Java Nimbus LAF with transparent text fields

- by Software Monkey

I have an application that uses disabled JTextFields in several places which are intended to be transparent - allowing the background to show through instead of the text field's normal background. When running the new Nimbus LAF these fields are opaque (despite setting setOpaque(false)), and my UI is broken. It's as if the LAF is ignoring the opaque property. Setting a background color explicitly is both difficult in several places, and less than optimal due to background images actually doesn't work - it still paints it's LAF default background over the top, leaving a border-like appearance (the splash screen below has the background explicitly set to match the image). Any ideas on how I can get Nimbus to not paint the background for a JTextField? Note: I need a JTextField, rather than a JLabel, because I need the thread-safe setText(), and wrapping capability. Note: My fallback position is to continue using the system LAF, but Nimbus does look substantially better. See example images below. Conclusions The surprise at this behavior is due to a misinterpretation of what setOpaque() is meant to do - from the Nimbus bug report: This is a problem the the orginal design of Swing and how it has been confusing for years. The issue is setOpaque(false) has had a side effect in exiting LAFs which is that of hiding the background which is not really what it is ment for. It is ment to say that the component my have transparent parts and swing should paint the parent component behind it. It's unfortunate that the Nimbus components also appear not to honor setBackground(null) which would otherwise be the recommended way to stop the background painting. Setting a fully transparent background seems unintuitive to me. In my opinion, setOpaque()/isOpaque() is a faulty public API choice which should have been only: public boolean isFullyOpaque(); I say this, because isOpaque()==true is a contract with Swing that the component subclass will take responsibility for painting it's entire background - which means the parent can skip painting that region if it wants (which is an important performance enhancement). Something external cannot directly change this contract (legitimately), whose fulfillment may be coded into the component. So the opacity of the component should not have been settable using setOpaque(). Instead something like setBackground(null) should cause many components to "no long have a background" and therefore become not fully opaque. By way of example, in an ideal world most components should have an isOpaque() that looks like this: public boolean isOpaque() { return (background!=null); }

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Problem with jQuery selector and MasterPage

- by Daemon

Hi, I have a problem with a master page containing a asp:textbox that I'm trying to access using jQuery. I have read lot sof thread regarding this and tried all the different approaches I have seen, but regardless, the end result end up as Undefined. This is the relevant part of the MasterPage code: <p><asp:Label ID="Label1" AssociatedControlID="osxinputfrom" runat="server">Navn</asp:Label><asp:TextBox CssClass="osxinputform" ID="osxinputfrom" runat="server"></asp:TextBox></p> When I click the button, the following code from a jQuery .js file is run: show: function(d) { $('#osx-modal-content .osxsubmitbutton').click(function (e) { e.preventDefault(); if (OSX.validate()){ $('#osx-modal-data').fadeOut(200); d.container.animate( {height:80}, 500, function () { $('#osx-modal-data').html("<h2>Sender...</h2>").fadeIn(250, function () { $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: "Default.aspx/GetDate", data: "{'from':'" + $("#osxinputfrom").val() + "','mailaddress':'" + $("#osxinputmail").val() + "','header':'Test3','message':'Test4'}", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", success: function(msg) { $('#osx-modal-data').fadeOut(200, function () { $('#osx-modal-data').html('<h2>Meldingen er sendt!</h2>'); $('#osx-modal-data').fadeIn(200); }); }, error: function(msg){ $('#osx-modal-data').fadeOut(200, function () { $('#osx-modal-data').html('<h2>Feil oppstod ved sending av melding!</h2>'); $('#osx-modal-data').fadeIn(200); }); } }); }); } ); } else{ $('#osxinputstatus').fadeOut(250, function () { $('#osxinputstatus').html('<p id="osxinputstatus">' + OSX.message + '</a>'); $('#osxinputstatus').fadeIn(250); }); } }); }, So the problem here is that $("#osxinputfrom").val() evaluated to Undefined. I understand that the masterpage will add some prefix to the ID, so I tried using the ID from the page when it's run that ends up as ct100_osxinputfrom, and I also tried some other hinds that I found while searching like $("#<%=osxinputfrom.ClientID%"), but it ends up as Undefined in the method that is called from the jQuery ajax method anyway. The third and fourth parameters to the ajay function that is hardcoded as Test3 and Test4 comes fine in the C# backend method. So my question is simply: How can I rewrite the jQuery selector to fetch the correct value from the textbox? (before I used master pages it worked fine by the way) Best regards Daemon

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Cannot change borderColor of TD

- by Tadeus Prastowo

Using JS to set the background color of a TD is fine. But, setting the border color is problematic in FF 3.0.18 although IE 6 doesn't experience this. FF is problematic in that it requires the TD element to have an attribute style initialized to border-style: solid. Without that, setting border color of a TD won't work. Is this known bug? How do I set the border color without having to set style attribute as well as the initialization value? I know another trick of setting the class attribute instead of setting the border color directly. Is this an indication that somehow TD hates having its border color set dynamically? Is this known as well? The problematic code is below (the goal is find out why setting the border color of simple truth 1 does not work while simple truth 3 works when I employ the trick described above): <html> <head> <title>Quirks FF 3.0.18</title> <style type="text/css"> table { border-collapse: collapse; } </style> <script type="text/javascript"> function changeBgColor() { document.getElementById('simple').style.backgroundColor='yellow'; document.getElementById('simple2').style.backgroundColor='yellow'; document.getElementById('simple3').style.backgroundColor='yellow'; } function quirk(id) { var x = document.getElementById(id); x.style.border = '2px solid red'; } </script> </head> <body> <input type="button" onclick="changeBgColor()" value="Change background color"/> <input type="button" onclick="quirk('simple')" value="Change border color 1"/> <input type="button" onclick="quirk('simple2')" value="Change border color 2"/> <input type="button" onclick="quirk('simple3')" value="Change border color 3"/> <table> <tr><td id="simple">Simple truth 1</td></tr> </table> <table> <tr><td><span id="simple2">Simple truth 2</span></td></tr> <table> <tr><td id="simple3" style="border-style: solid">Simple truth 3</td></tr> </table> </body> </html>

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Why is my javascript function sometimes "not defined"?

- by harpo

Problem: I call my javascript function, and sometimes I get the error 'myFunction is not defined'. But it is defined. For example. I'll occasionally get 'copyArray is not defined' even in this example: function copyArray( pa ) { var la = []; for (var i=0; i < pa.length; i++) la.push( pa[i] ); return la; } Function.prototype.bind = function( po ) { var __method = this; var __args = []; // sometimes errors -- in practice I inline the function as a workaround __args = copyArray( arguments ); return function() { /* bind logic omitted for brevity */ } } As you can see, copyArray is defined right there, so this can't be about the order in which script files load. I've been getting this in situations that are harder to work around, where the calling function is located in another file that should be loaded after the called function. But this was the simplest case I could present, and appears to be the same problem. It doesn't happen 100% of the time, so I do suspect some kind of load-timing-related problem. But I have no idea what. @Hojou: That's part of the problem. The function in which I'm now getting this error is itself my addLoadEvent, which is basically a standard version of the common library function. @James: I understand that, and there is no syntax error in the function. When that is the case, the syntax error is reported as well. In this case, I am getting only the 'not defined' error. @David: The script in this case resides in an external file that is referenced using the normal <script src="file.js"></script> method in the page's head section. @Douglas: Interesting idea, but if this were the case, how could we ever call a user-defined function with confidence? In any event, I tried this and it didn't work. @sk: This technique has been tested across browsers and is basically copied from the prototype library.

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Can't setup Facebook Login on my website..

- by Mark

I am trying to experiment with the new facebook authentication system, and I can't getthe login to work. I'm getting the following error message: API Error Code: 100 API Error Description: Invalid parameter Error Message: next is not owned by the application. The url that is being sent to facebook is: http://www.facebook.com/connect/uiserver.php?app_id=444444444444444&next=http%3A%2F%2Fstatic.ak.fbcdn.net%2Fconnect%2Fxd_proxy.php%23%3F%3D%26cb%3Df357eceb0361a8a%26origin%3Dhttp%253A%252F%252Fwww.mysite.com%252Ff38fea4f9ea573%26relation%3Dopener%26transport%3Dpostmessage%26frame%3Df23b800f8a78%26result%3DxxRESULTTOKENxx&display=popup&channel=http%3A%2F%2Fwww.mysite.com%2Ffbtester.php&cancel=http%3A%2F%2Fstatic.ak.fbcdn.net%2Fconnect%2Fxd_proxy.php%23%3F%3D%26cb%3Df6095a98598be8%26origin%3Dhttp%253A%252F%252Fwww.mysite.com%252Ff38fea4f9ea573%26relation%3Dopener%26transport%3Dpostmessage%26frame%3Df23b800f8a78%26result%3DxxRESULTTOKENxx&locale=en_US&return_session=1&session_version=3&fbconnect=1&canvas=0&legacy_return=1&method=permissions.request Note that the 'Next' variable in the url is: next=http%3A%2F%2Fstatic.ak.fbcdn.net%2Fconnect%2Fxd_proxy.php%23%3F%3D%26cb%3Df357eceb0361a8a%26origin%3Dhttp%253A%252F%252Fwww.mysite.com%252Ff38fea4f9ea573%26relation%3Dopener%26transport%3Dpostmessage%26frame%3Df23b800f8a78%26result%3DxxRESULTTOKENxx Any ideas what could be going wrong? All I've done is copy and paste the facebook login demo code from facebook's website: define('FACEBOOK_APP_ID', 'your application id'); define('FACEBOOK_SECRET', 'your application secret'); function get_facebook_cookie($app_id, $application_secret) { $args = array(); parse_str(trim($COOKIE['fbs' . $app_id], '\"'), $args); ksort($args); $payload = ''; foreach ($args as $key = $value) { if ($key != 'sig') { $payload .= $key . '=' . $value; } } if (md5($payload . $application_secret) != $args['sig']) { return null; } return $args; } $cookie = get_facebook_cookie(FACEBOOK_APP_ID, FACEBOOK_SECRET); ? Your user ID is <div id="fb-root"></div> <script src="http://connect.facebook.net/en_US/all.js"></script> <script> FB.init({appId: '<?= FACEBOOK_APP_ID ?>', status: true, cookie: true, xfbml: true}); FB.Event.subscribe('auth.login', function(response) { window.location.reload(); }); </script> Thanks for the help!

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Setting up Django on an internal server (os.environ() not working as expected?)

- by monkut

I'm trying to setup Django on an internal company server. (No external connection to the Internet.) Looking over the server setup documentation it appears that the "Running Django on a shared-hosting provider with Apache" method seems to be the most-likely to work in this situation. Here's the server information: Can't install mod_python no root access Server is SunOs 5.6 Python 2.5 Apache/2.0.46 I've installed Django (and flup) using the --prefix option (reading again I probably should've used --home, but at the moment it doesn't seem to matter) I've added the .htaccess file and mysite.fcgi file to my root web directory as mentioned here. When I run the mysite.fcgi script from the server I get my expected output (the correct site HTML output). But, it won't when trying to access it from a browser. It seems that it may be a problem with the PYTHONPATH setting since I'm using the prefix option. I've noticed that if I run mysite.fcgi from the command-line without setting the PYTHONPATH enviornment variable it throws the following error: prompt$ python2.5 mysite.fcgi ERROR: No module named flup Unable to load the flup package. In order to run django as a FastCGI application, you will need to get flup from http://www.saddi.com/software/flup/ If you've already installed flup, then make sure you have it in your PYTHONPATH. I've added sys.path.append(prefixpath) and os.environ['PYTHONPATH'] = prefixpath to mysite.fcgi, but if I set the enviornment variable to be empty on the command-line then run mysite.fcgi, I still get the above error. Here are some command-line results: >>> os.environ['PYTHONPATH'] = 'Null' >>> >>> os.system('echo $PYTHONPATH') Null >>> os.environ['PYTHONPATH'] = '/prefix/path' >>> >>> os.system('echo $PYTHONPATH') /prefix/path >>> exit() prompt$ echo $PYTHONPATH Null It looks like Python is setting the variable OK, but the variable is only applicable inside of the script. Flup appears to be distributed as an .egg file, and my guess is that the egg implementation doesn't take into account variables added by os.environ['key'] = value (?) at least when installing via the --prefix option. I'm not that familiar with .pth files, but it seems that the easy-install.pth file is the one that points to flup: import sys; sys.__plen = len(sys.path) ./setuptools-0.6c6-py2.5.egg ./flup-1.0.1-py2.5.egg import sys; new=sys.path[sys.__plen:]; del sys.path[sys.__plen:]; p=getattr(sys,'__egginsert',0); sy s.path[p:p]=new; sys.__egginsert = p+len(new) It looks like it's doing something funky, anyway to edit this or add something to my code so it will find flup?

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jQuery Validate() special function

- by kevin

I'm using the jQuery validate() plugin for some forms and it goes great. The only thing is that I have an input field that requires a special validation process. Here is how it goes: The jQuery validate plugin is called in the domready for all the required fields. Here is an example for an input: <li> <label for="nome">Nome completo*</label> <input name="nome" type="text" id="nome" class="required"/> </li> And here is how I call my special function: <li> <span id="sprytextfield1"> <label for="cpf">CPF* (xxxxxxxxxxx)</label> <input name="cpf" type="text" id="cpf" maxlength="15" class="required" /> <span class="textfieldInvalidFormatMsg">CPF Inválido.</span> </span> </li> And at the bottom of the file I call the Spry function: <script type="text/javascript">  </script> Of course I call the Spry CSS and JavaScript files in the head section as well as my special-validate.js. When I just use the jQuery validate() plugin and click on the send button, the page goes automatically back to the first mistaken input field and shows the error type (not a number, not a valid email etc.). But with this new function, this "going-back-to-the-first-mistake" feature doesn't work, of course, because the validate() function sees it all good. I already added a rule for another form (about pictures upload) and it goes like this: $("#commentForm").validate({ rules: { foto34: { required: true, accept: "jpg|png|gif" } } }); Now my question is, how can I add the special validation function as a rule of the whole validation process? Here is the page to understand it better: link text and the special field is the first one: CPF. I hope I was clear explaining my problem.

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Dumb IE6 resize behaviour - hope it rings some bells with someone

- by Ollie2893

Hi, I'm having no end of fun (sic) with jQuery.tabs. The widget is quite crafty in that it turns basic HTML like so <div> <ul> <li>Tab #1</li> ... </ul> <div for panel #1> </div> <div for panel #2> </div> ... </div> into a cute tabbed dialogue. (It does so by restyling the UL and then toggling the "display" attribute for the panel DIVs to show/not show whatever panel is selected.) Now I found that I can spare myself a lot of trouble in my JS project if I insert a scrollable IFRAME into each panel. One usability problem I'm trying to ameliorate is that when the tabbed panel becomes larger than the browser's window, then the user ends up with too many scrollbars. I am trying to avoid this situation by linking the size of the tabbed panel to that of $(window). That is, I trap and process the resize event on $(window). To make my life bearable, all components are relatively sized. This is also true, in particular, of the IFRAMEs (100% width, 100% height). The only exception are the panel DIVs, which are of fixed height (in px). And this is the only dimension css attribute that I manipulate during my resize action. All of this works a treat in FF and Chrome, but IE6 is doing something rather cute: So long as I do not affect the width of the browser window (but only change its height), only the panel DIV changes in height; the IFRAME contained will not change. As a result of this behaviour, it is not possible to shorten the tabbed panel below the height of the IFRAME. I can lengthen the DIV, yes. But the IFRAME will not fill the panel in that case. All becomes good the moment I make the slightest change to the width of the browser window. In that moment, the IFRAME expands to catch up with the extended DIV or DIV and IFRAME contract in tandem. Bizarre. I inserted useless CSS instructions like "position: relative" and "zoom: 1". Also nudged the display with "display: block". No joy so far. Any ideas? Thanks.

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