Search Results

Search found 25669 results on 1027 pages for 'ill be back'.

Page 575/1027 | < Previous Page | 571 572 573 574 575 576 577 578 579 580 581 582  | Next Page >

• Job conditions conflicting with personal principles on software-development - how much is too much?

  - by Baelnorn

  Sorry for the incoming wall'o'text (and for my probably bad English) but I just need to get this off somehow. I also accept that this question will be probably closed as subjective and argumentative, but I need to know one thing: "how much BS are programmers supposed to put up with before breaking?" My background I'm 27 years old and have a B.Sc. in Computer engineering with a graduation grade of 1.8 from a university of applied science. I went looking for a job right after graduation. I got three offers right away, with two offers paying vastly more than the last one, but that last one seemed more interesting so I went for that. My situation I've been working for the company now for 17 months now, but it feels like a drag more and more each day. Primarily because the company (which has only 5 other developers but me, and of these I work with 4) turned out to be pretty much the anti-thesis of what I expected (and was taught in university) from a modern software company. I agreed to accept less than half of the usual payment appropriate for my qualification for the first year because I was promised a trainee program. However, the trainee program turned out to be "here you got a computer, there's some links on the stuff we use, and now do what you colleagues tell you". Further, during my whole time there (trainee or not) I haven't been given the grace of even a single code-review - apparently nobody's interested in my work as long as it "just works". I was told in the job interview that "Microsoft technology played a central role in the company" yet I've been slowly eroding my congnitive functions with Flex/Actionscript/Cairngorm ever since I started (despite having applied as a C#/.NET developer). Actually, the company's primary projects are based on Java/XSLT and Flex/Actionscript (with some SAP/ABAP stuff here and there but I'm not involved in that) and they've been working on these before I even applied. Having had no experience either with that particular technology nor the framework nor the field (RIA) nor in developing business scale applications I obviously made several mistakes. However, my boss told me that he let me make those mistakes (which ate at least 2 months of development time on their own) on purpose to provide some "learning experience". Even when I was still a trainee I was already tasked with working on a business-critical application. On my own. Without supervision. Without code-reviews. My boss thinks agile methods are a waste of time/money and deems putting more than one developer on any project not efficient. Documentation is not necessary and each developer should only document what he himself needs for his work. Recently he wanted us to do bug tracking with Excel and Email instead of using an already existing Bugzilla, overriding an unanimous decision made by all developers and testers involved in the process - only after another senior developer had another hour-long private discussion with him he agreed to let us use the bugtracker. Project management is basically not present, there are only a few Excel sheets floating around where the senior developer lists some things (not all, mind you) with a time estimate ranging from days to months, trying to at least somehow organize the whole mess. A development process is also basically not present, each developer just works on his own however he wants. There are not even coding conventions in the company. Testing is done manually with a single tester (sometimes two testers) per project because automated testing wasn't given the least thought when the whole project was started. I guess it's not a big surprise when I say that each developer also has his own share of hundreds of overhours (which are, of course, unpaid). Each developer is tasked with working on his own project(s) which in turn leads to a very extensive knowledge monopolization - if one developer was to have an accident or become ill there would be absolutely no one who could even hope to do his work. Considering that each developer has his own business-critical application to work on, I guess that's a pretty bad situation. I've been trying to change things for the better. I tried to introduce a development process, but my first attempt was pretty much shot down by my boss with "I don't want to discuss agile methods". After that I put together a process that at least resembled how most of the developers were already working and then include stuff like automated (or at least organized) testing, coding conventions, etc. However, this was also shot down because it wasn't "simple" enought to be shown on a business slide (actually, I wasn't even given the 15 minutes I'd have needed to present the process in the meeting). My problem I can't stand working there any longer. Seriously, I consider to resign on monday, which still leaves me with 3 months to work there due to the cancelation period. My primary goal since I started studying computer science was being a good computer scientist, working with modern technologies and adhering to modern and proven principles and methods. However, the company I'm working for seems to make that impossible. Some days I feel as if was living in a perverted real-life version of the Dilbert comics. My question Am I overreacting? Is this the reality each graduate from university has to face? Should I betray my sound principles and just accept these working conditions? Or should I gtfo of there? What's the opinion of other developers on this matter. Would you put up with all that stuff?

  Read the article

• What is the best way to test using grails using IDEA?

  - by egervari

  I am seriously having a very non-pleasant time testing using Grails. I will describe my experience, and I'd like to know if there's a better way. The first problem I have with testing is that Grails doesn't give immediate feedback to the developer when .save() fails inside of an integration test. So let's say you have a domain class with 12 fields, and 1 of them is violating a constraint and you don't know it when you create the instance... it just doesn't save. Naturally, the test code afterward is going to fail. This is most troublesome because the thingy under test is probably fine... and the real risk and pain is the setup code for the test itself. So, I've tried to develop the habit of using .save(failOnError: true) to avoid this problem, but that's not something that can be easily enforced by everyone working on the project... and it's kind of bloaty. It'd be nice to turn this on for code that is running as part of a unit test automatically. Integration Tests run slow. I cannot understand how 1 integration test that saves 1 object takes 15-20 seconds to run. With some careful test planning, I've been able to get 1000 tests talking to an actual database and doing dbunit dumps after every test to happen in about the same time! This is dumb. It is hard to run all the unit tests and not integration tests in IDEA. Integration tests are a massive pain. Idea actually shows a GREEN BAR when integration tests fail. The output given by grails indicates that something failed, but it doesn't say what it was. It says to look in the test reports... which forces the developer to launch up their file system to hunt the stupid html file down. What a pain. Then once you got the html file and click to the failing test, it'll tell you a line number. Since these reports are not in the IDE, you can't just click the stack trace to go to that line of code... you gotta go back and find it yourself. ARGGH!@!@! Maybe people put up with this, but I refuse. Testing should not be this painful. It should be fast and painless, or people won't do it. Please help. What is the solution? Rails instead of Grails? Something else entirely? I love the Grails framework, but they never demo their testing for a reason. They have a snazzy framework, but the testing is painful. After having used Scala for the last 1.5 months, and being totally spoiled by ScalaTest... I can't go back to this.

  Read the article

• The backbone router isn't working properly

  - by user2473588

  I'm building a simple backbone app that have 4 routes: home, about, privacy and terms. But after setting the routes I have 3 problems: The "terms" view isn't rendering; When I refresh the #about or the #privacy page, the home view renders after the #about/#privacy view When I hit the back button the home view never renders. For example, if I'm in the #about page, and I hit the back button to the homepage, the about view stays in the page I don't know what I'm doing wrong about the 1st problem. I think that the 2nd and 3rd problem are related with something missing in the home router, but I don't know what is. Here is my code: HTML <section class="feed"> <script id="homeTemplate" type="text/template"> <div class="home"> </div> </script> <script id="termsTemplate" type="text/template"> <div class="terms"> Bla bla bla bla </div> </script> <script id="privacyTemplate" type="text/template"> <div class="privacy"> Bla bla bla bla </div> </script> <script id="aboutTemplate" type="text/template"> <div class="about"> Bla bla bla bla </div> </script> </section> The views app.HomeListView = Backbone.View.extend({ el: '.feed', initialize: function ( initialbooks ) { this.collection = new app.BookList (initialbooks); this.render(); }, render: function() { this.collection.each(function( item ){ this.renderHome( item ); }, this); }, renderHome: function ( item ) { var bookview = new app.BookView ({ model: item }) this.$el.append( bookview.render().el ); } }); app.BookView = Backbone.View.extend ({ tagName: 'div', className: 'home', template: _.template( $( '#homeTemplate' ).html()), render: function() { this.$el.html(this.template(this.model.toJSON())); return this; } }); app.AboutView = Backbone.View.extend({ tagName: 'div', className: 'about', initialize:function () { this.render(); }, template: _.template( $( '#aboutTemplate' ).html()), render: function () { this.$el.html(this.template()); return this; } }); app.PrivacyView = Backbone.View.extend ({ tagName: 'div', className: 'privacy', initialize: function() { this.render(); }, template: _.template( $('#privacyTemplate').html() ), render: function () { this.$el.html(this.template()); return this; } }); app.TermsView = Backbone.View.extend ({ tagName: 'div', className: 'terms', initialize: function () { this.render(); }, template: _.template ( $( '#termsTemplate' ).html() ), render: function () { this.$el.html(this.template()), return this; } }); And the router: var AppRouter = Backbone.Router.extend({ routes: { '' : 'home', 'about' : 'about', 'privacy' : 'privacy', 'terms' : 'terms' }, home: function () { if (!this.homeListView) { this.homeListView = new app.HomeListView(); }; }, about: function () { if (!this.aboutView) { this.aboutView = new app.AboutView(); }; $('.feed').html(this.aboutView.el); }, privacy: function () { if (!this.privacyView) { this.privacyView = new app.PrivacyView(); }; $('.feed').html(this.privacyView.el); }, terms: function () { if (!this.termsView) { this.termsView = new app.TermsView(); }; $('.feed').html(this.termsView.el); } }) app.Router = new AppRouter(); Backbone.history.start(); I'm missing something but I don't know what. Thanks

  Read the article

• Duplication of menu items with ViewPager and Fragments

  - by Julian

  I'm building an Android Application (minimum SDK Level 10, Gingerbread 2.3.3) with some Fragments in a ViewPager. I'm using ActionBarSherlock to create an ActionBar and android-viewpagertabs to add tabs to the ViewPager just like in the Market client. I have one global menu item that I want to be shown on every tab/fragment. On the first of the three tabs I want to have two additional menu items. But now two strange things happen: First if I start the app, everything seems to be fine, I can see all three menu items on the first page and only one item if i swipe to the second and third tab. But if I swipe back to the second tab from the third one, I can see all three items again which shouldn't happen. If I swipe back to the first and then again to the second tab, everything is fine again. The other strange thing is that every time I rotate the device, the menu items from the fragment are added again, even though they are already in the menu. Code of the FragmentActivity that displays the ViewPager and its tabs: public class MainActivity extends FragmentActivity { public static final String TAG = "MainActivity"; private ActionBar actionBar; private Adapter adapter; private ViewPager viewPager; private ViewPagerTabs tabs; @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.volksempfaenger); actionBar = getSupportActionBar(); adapter = new Adapter(getSupportFragmentManager()); adapter.addFragment(getString(R.string.title_tab_subscriptions), SubscriptionGridFragment.class); // adding more fragments here viewPager = (ViewPager) findViewById(R.id.viewpager); viewPager.setAdapter(adapter); tabs = (ViewPagerTabs) findViewById(R.id.tabs); tabs.setViewPager(viewPager); } public static class Adapter extends FragmentPagerAdapter implements ViewPagerTabProvider { private FragmentManager fragmentManager; private ArrayList<Class<? extends Fragment>> fragments; private ArrayList<String> titles; public Adapter(FragmentManager fm) { super(fm); fragmentManager = fm; fragments = new ArrayList<Class<? extends Fragment>>(); titles = new ArrayList<String>(); } public void addFragment(String title, Class<? extends Fragment> fragment) { titles.add(title); fragments.add(fragment); } @Override public int getCount() { return fragments.size(); } public String getTitle(int position) { return titles.get(position); } @Override public Fragment getItem(int position) { try { return fragments.get(position).newInstance(); } catch (InstantiationException e) { Log.wtf(TAG, e); } catch (IllegalAccessException e) { Log.wtf(TAG, e); } return null; } @Override public Object instantiateItem(View container, int position) { FragmentTransaction fragmentTransaction = fragmentManager .beginTransaction(); Fragment f = getItem(position); fragmentTransaction.add(container.getId(), f); fragmentTransaction.commit(); return f; } } @Override public boolean onCreateOptionsMenu(Menu menu) { BaseActivity.addGlobalMenu(this, menu); return true; } @Override public boolean onOptionsItemSelected(MenuItem item) { return BaseActivity.handleGlobalMenu(this, item); } } Code of the fragment that shall have its own menu items: public class SubscriptionGridFragment extends Fragment { private GridView subscriptionList; private SubscriptionListAdapter adapter; @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setHasOptionsMenu(true); } // ... @Override public void onCreateOptionsMenu(Menu menu, MenuInflater inflater) { inflater.inflate(R.menu.subscription_list, menu); } @Override public boolean onOptionsItemSelected(MenuItem item) { // ... } }

  Read the article

• Increasing speed of python code

  - by Curious2learn

  Hi, I have some python code that has many classes. I used cProfile to find that the total time to run the program is 68 seconds. I found that the following function in a class called Buyers takes about 60 seconds of those 68 seconds. I have to run the program about 100 times, so any increase in speed will help. Can you suggest ways to increase the speed by modifying the code? If you need more information that will help, please let me know. def qtyDemanded(self, timePd, priceVector): '''Returns quantity demanded in period timePd. In addition, also updates the list of customers and non-customers. Inputs: timePd and priceVector Output: count of people for whom priceVector[-1] < utility ''' ## Initialize count of customers to zero ## Set self.customers and self.nonCustomers to empty lists price = priceVector[-1] count = 0 self.customers = [] self.nonCustomers = [] for person in self.people: if person.utility >= price: person.customer = 1 self.customers.append(person) else: person.customer = 0 self.nonCustomers.append(person) return len(self.customers) self.people is a list of person objects. Each person has customer and utility as its attributes. EDIT - responsed added ------------------------------------- Thanks so much for the suggestions. Here is the response to some questions and suggestions people have kindly made. I have not tried them all, but will try others and write back later. (1) @amber - the function is accessed 80,000 times. (2) @gnibbler and others - self.people is a list of Person objects in memory. Not connected to a database. (3) @Hugh Bothwell cumtime taken by the original function - 60.8 s (accessed 80000 times) cumtime taken by the new function with local function aliases as suggested - 56.4 s (accessed 80000 times) (4) @rotoglup and @Martin Thomas I have not tried your solutions yet. I need to check the rest of the code to see the places where I use self.customers before I can make the change of not appending the customers to self.customers list. But I will try this and write back. (5) @TryPyPy - thanks for your kind offer to check the code. Let me first read a little on the suggestions you have made to see if those will be feasible to use. EDIT 2 Some suggested that since I am flagging the customers and noncustomers in the self.people, I should try without creating separate lists of self.customers and self.noncustomers using append. Instead, I should loop over the self.people to find the number of customers. I tried the following code and timed both functions below f_w_append and f_wo_append. I did find that the latter takes less time, but it is still 96% of the time taken by the former. That is, it is a very small increase in the speed. @TryPyPy - The following piece of code is complete enough to check the bottleneck function, in case your offer is still there to check it with other compilers. Thanks again to everyone who replied. import numpy class person(object): def __init__(self, util): self.utility = util self.customer = 0 class population(object): def __init__(self, numpeople): self.people = [] self.cus = [] self.noncus = [] numpy.random.seed(1) utils = numpy.random.uniform(0, 300, numpeople) for u in utils: per = person(u) self.people.append(per) popn = population(300) def f_w_append(): '''Function with append''' P = 75 cus = [] noncus = [] for per in popn.people: if per.utility >= P: per.customer = 1 cus.append(per) else: per.customer = 0 noncus.append(per) return len(cus) def f_wo_append(): '''Function without append''' P = 75 for per in popn.people: if per.utility >= P: per.customer = 1 else: per.customer = 0 numcustomers = 0 for per in popn.people: if per.customer == 1: numcustomers += 1 return numcustomers

  Read the article

• Why does my token return NULL and how can I fix it?(c++)

  - by Van

  I've created a program to get a string input from a user and parse it into tokens and move a robot according to the input. The program is supposed to recognize these inputs(where x is an integer): "forward x" "back x" "turn left x" "turn right x" and "stop". The program does what it's supposed to for all commands except for "stop". When I type "stop" the program prints out "whats happening?" because I've written a line which states: if(token == NULL) { cout << "whats happening?" << endl; } Why does token get NULL, and how can I fix this so it will read "stop" properly? here is the code: bool stopper = 0; void Navigator::manualDrive() { VideoStream video(&myRobot, 0);//allows user to see what robot sees video.startStream(); const int bufSize = 42; char uinput[bufSize]; char delim[] = " "; char *token; while(stopper == 0) { cout << "Enter your directions below: " << endl; cin.getline(uinput,bufSize); Navigator::parseInstruction(uinput); } } /* parseInstruction(char *c) -- parses cstring instructions received * and moves robot accordingly */ void Navigator::parseInstruction(char * uinput) { char delim[] = " "; char *token; // cout << "Enter your directions below: " << endl; // cin.getline (uinput, bufSize); token=strtok(uinput, delim); if(token == NULL) { cout << "whats happening?" << endl; } if(strcmp("forward", token) == 0) { int inches; token = strtok(NULL, delim); inches = atoi (token); double value = fabs(0.0735 * fabs(inches) - 0.0550); myRobot.forward(1, value); } else if(strcmp("back",token) == 0) { int inches; token = strtok(NULL, delim); inches = atoi (token); double value = fabs(0.0735 * fabs(inches) - 0.0550); myRobot.backward(1/*speed*/, value/*time*/); } else if(strcmp("turn",token) == 0) { int degrees; token = strtok(NULL, delim); if(strcmp("left",token) == 0) { token = strtok(uinput, delim); degrees = atoi (token); double value = fabs(0.00467 * degrees - 0.04); myRobot.turnLeft(1/*speed*/, value/*time*/); } else if(strcmp("right",token) == 0) { token = strtok(uinput, delim); degrees = atoi (token); double value = fabs(0.00467 * degrees - 0.04); myRobot.turnRight(1/*speed*/, value/*time*/); } } else if(strcmp("stop",token) == 0) { stopper = 1; } else { std::cerr << "Unknown command '" << token << "'\n"; } } /* autoDrive() -- reads in file from ifstream, parses * and moves robot according to instructions in file */ void Navigator::autoDrive(string filename) { const int bufSize = 42; char fLine[bufSize]; ifstream infile; infile.open("autodrive.txt", fstream::in); while (!infile.eof()) { infile.getline(fLine, bufSize); Navigator::parseInstruction(fLine); } infile.close(); } I need this to break out of the while loop and end manualDrive because in my driver program the next function called is autoDrive.

  Read the article

• SQL Server 2005 Blocking Problem (ASYNC_NETWORK_IO)

  - by ivankolo

  I am responsible for a third-party application (no access to source) running on IIS and SQL Server 2005 (500 concurrent users, 1TB data, 8 IIS servers). We have recently started to see significant blocking on the database (after months of running this application in production with no problems). This occurs at random intervals during the day, approximately every 30 minutes, and affects between 20 and 100 sessions each time. All of the sessions eventually hit the application time out and the sessions abort. The problem disappears and then gradually re-emerges. The SPID responsible for the blocking always has the following features: WAIT TYPE = ASYNC_NETWORK_IO The SQL being run is “(@claimid varchar(15))SELECT claimid, enrollid, status, orgclaimid, resubclaimid, primaryclaimid FROM claim WHERE primaryclaimid = @claimid AND primaryclaimid < claimid)”. This is relatively innocuous SQL that should only return one or two records, not a large dataset. NO OTHER SQL statements have been implicated in the blocking, only this SQL statement. This is parameterized SQL for which an execution plan is cached in sys.dm_exec_cached_plans. This SPID has an object-level S lock on the claim table, so all UPDATEs/INSERTs to the claim table are also blocked. HOST ID varies. Different web servers are responsible for the blocking sessions. E.g., sometimes we trace back to web server 1, sometimes web server 2. When we trace back to the web server implicated in the blocking, we see the following: There is always some sort of application related error in the Event Log on the web server, linked to the Host ID and Host Process ID from the SQL Session. The error messages vary, usually some sort of SystemOutofMemory. (These error messages seem to be similar to error messages that we have seen in the past without such dramatic consequences. We think was happening before, but didn’t lead to blocking. Why now?) No known problems with the network adapters on either the web servers or the SQL server. (In any event the record set returned by the offending query would be small.) Things ruled out: Indexes are regularly defragmented. Statistics regularly updated. Increased sample size of statistics on claim.primaryclaimid. Forced recompilation of the cached execution plan. Created a compound index with primaryclaimid, claimid. No networking problems. No known issues on the web server. No changes to application software on web servers. We hypothesize that the chain of events goes something like this: Web server process submits SQL above. SQL server executes the SQL, during which it acquires a lock on the claim table. Web server process gets an error and dies. SQL server session is hung waiting for the web server process to read the data set. SQL Server sessions that need to get X locks on parts of the claim table (anyone processing claims) are blocked by the lock on the claim table and remain blocked until they all hit the application time out. Any suggestions for troubleshooting while waiting for the vendor's assistance would be most welcome. Is there a way to force SQL Server to lock at the row/page level for this particular SQL statement only? Is there a way to set a threshold on ASYNC_NETWORK_IO waits only?

  Read the article

• JSON posting, am i pushing JSON too far?

  - by joe90

  Im just wondering if I am pushing JSON too far? and if anyone has hit this before? I have a xml file: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8"?> <customermodel:Customer xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:customermodel="http://customermodel" xmlns:personal="http://customermodel/personal" id="1" age="1" name="Joe"> <bankAccounts xsi:type="customermodel:BankAccount" accountNo="10" bankName="HSBC" testBoolean="true" testDate="2006-10-23" testDateTime="2006-10-23T22:15:01+08:00" testDecimal="20.2" testTime="22:15:01+08:00"> <count>0</count> <bankAddressLine>HSBC</bankAddressLine> <bankAddressLine>London</bankAddressLine> <bankAddressLine>31 florence</bankAddressLine> <bankAddressLine>Swindon</bankAddressLine> </bankAccounts> </customermodel:Customer> Which contains elements and attributes.... Which when i convert to JSON gives me: {"customermodel:Customer":{"id":"1","name":"Joe","age":"1","xmlns:xsi":"http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance","bankAccounts":{"testDate":"2006-10-23","testDecimal":"20.2","count":"0","testDateTime":"2006-10-23T22:15:01+08:00","bankAddressLine":["HSBC","London","31 florence","Swindon"],"testBoolean":"true","bankName":"HSBC","accountNo":"10","xsi:type":"customermodel:BankAccount","testTime":"22:15:01+08:00"},"xmlns:personal":"http://customermodel/personal","xmlns:customermodel":"http://customermodel"}} So then i send this too the client.. which coverts to a js object (or whatever) edits some values (the elements) and then sends it back to the server. So i get the JSON string, and convert this back into XML: <customermodel:Customer> <id>1</id> <age>1</age> <name>Joe</name> <xmlns:xsi>http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance</xmlns:xsi> <bankAccounts> <testDate>2006-10-23</testDate> <testDecimal>20.2</testDecimal> <testDateTime>2006-10-23T22:15:01+08:00</testDateTime> <count>0</count> <bankAddressLine>HSBC</bankAddressLine> <bankAddressLine>London</bankAddressLine> <bankAddressLine>31 florence</bankAddressLine> <bankAddressLine>Swindon</bankAddressLine> <accountNo>10</accountNo> <bankName>HSBC</bankName> <testBoolean>true</testBoolean> <xsi:type>customermodel:BankAccount</xsi:type> <testTime>22:15:01+08:00</testTime> </bankAccounts> <xmlns:personal>http://customermodel/personal</xmlns:personal> <xmlns:customermodel>http://customermodel</xmlns:customermodel> </customermodel:Customer> And there is the problem, is doesn't seem to know the difference between elements/attributes so i can not check against a XSD to check this is now valid? Is there a solution to this? I cannot be the first to hit this problem?

  Read the article

• Insert text into a div from a poput form and rewrite the inserted text with javascript

  - by kuswantin

  So I read some related questions here before I asked, but can't find the answer to my problem. Hope some javascript master here can find this and bring the light to me. I created another button for nicEdit, a video button and wanted to insert some formatted text into the editor DIV (note: nicEdit has inline DIV, no iframe, no textarea). This is my button, recreated from the image button: var nicVideoOptions = { buttons : { 'video' : {name : __('Insert Video'), type : 'nicEditorVideoButton'} //, tags : ['VIDEO:'] }, iconFiles : {'video' : '../movie.png'} }; var nicEditorVideoButton = nicEditorAdvancedButton.extend({ addPane : function() { this.vi = this.ne.selectedInstance.selElm().parentTag('A'); this.addForm({ '' : {type : 'title', txt : 'Insert Video URL'}, 'href' : {type : 'text', txt : 'URL', 'value' : 'http://', style : {width: '150px'}} },this.vi); }, submit : function(e) { var vidVal = this.inputs['href'].value; if(vidVal == "" || vidVal == "http://") { alert("Enter the video url"); return false; } this.removePane(); if(!this.vi) { var tmp = 'javascript:nicVidTemp();'; this.ne.nicCommand("insertVideo",tmp); // still nothing works //this.vi = this.findElm('VIDEO:','href',tmp); //this.vi = this.setContent('[video:' + this.inputs['href'].value + ']'); //nicEditors.findEditor('edit-comment').setContent('<strong>Some HTML</strong> here'); //this.vi = this.setContent('<strong>Some HTML</strong> here'); insertAtCaret(this.ne.selectedInstance, vidVal); } if(this.vi) { // still nothing works //this.vi.setAttributes({ //vidVal : this.inputs['href'].value //}); //this.vi = this.setContent('[video:' + this.inputs['href'].value + ']'); //this.vi = this.setContent('<strong>Some HTML</strong> here'); } } }); nicEditors.registerPlugin(nicPlugin,nicVideoOptions); The button is there, the form poput like the image button, so it's okay. But can't insert the text into the DIV. The final output will be taken from this: ('[video:' + this.inputs['href'].value + ']') and displayed in the editor DIV as is: [video:http//some.com/video-url] As you see, I am blindly touching everything :) And this insertion is taken from: http://www.scottklarr.com/topic/425/how-to-insert-text-into-a-textarea-where-the-cursor-is/ function insertAtCaret(areaId,text) { var txtarea = document.getElementById(areaId); var scrollPos = txtarea.scrollTop; var strPos = 0; var br = ((txtarea.selectionStart || txtarea.selectionStart == '0') ? "ff" : (document.selection ? "ie" : false ) ); if (br == "ie") { txtarea.focus(); var range = document.selection.createRange(); range.moveStart ('character', -txtarea.value.length); strPos = range.text.length; } else if (br == "ff") strPos = txtarea.selectionStart; var front = (txtarea.value).substring(0,strPos); var back = (txtarea.value).substring(strPos,txtarea.value.length); txtarea.value=front+text+back; strPos = strPos + text.length; if (br == "ie") { txtarea.focus(); var range = document.selection.createRange(); range.moveStart ('character', -txtarea.value.length); range.moveStart ('character', strPos); range.moveEnd ('character', 0); range.select(); } else if (br == "ff") { txtarea.selectionStart = strPos; txtarea.selectionEnd = strPos; txtarea.focus(); } txtarea.scrollTop = scrollPos; } The flow: I click the button, a form popouts, fill the input text box, hit the query button and the text should appear in the editor DIV. I hope I can make myself clear. Any help would be very much appreaciated Thanks

  Read the article

• Flash Media Server Streaming: Content Protection

  - by dbemerlin

  Hi, i have to implement flash streaming for the relaunch of our video-on-demand system but either because i haven't worked with flash-related systems before or because i'm too stupid i cannot get the system to work as it has to. We need: Per file & user access control with checks on a WebService every minute if the lease time ran out mid-stream: cancelling the stream rtmp streaming dynamic bandwidth checking Video Playback with Flowplayer (existing license) I've got the streaming and bandwidth check working, i just can't seem to get the access control working. I have no idea how i know which file is played back or how i can play back a file depending on a key the user has entered. Server-Side Code (main.asc): application.onAppStart = function() { trace("Starting application"); this.payload = new Array(); for (var i=0; i < 1200; i++) { this.payload[i] = Math.random(); //16K approx } } application.onConnect = function( p_client, p_autoSenseBW ) { p_client.writeAccess = ""; trace("client at : " + p_client.uri); trace("client from : " + p_client.referrer); trace("client page: " + p_client.pageUrl); // try to get something from the query string: works var i = 0; for (i = 0; i < p_client.uri.length; ++i) { if (p_client.uri[i] == '?') { ++i; break; } } var loadVars = new LoadVars(); loadVars.decode(p_client.uri.substr(i)); trace(loadVars.toString()); trace(loadVars['foo']); // And accept the connection this.acceptConnection(p_client); trace("accepted!"); //this.rejectConnection(p_client); // A connection from Flash 8 & 9 FLV Playback component based client // requires the following code. if (p_autoSenseBW) { p_client.checkBandwidth(); } else { p_client.call("onBWDone"); } trace("Done connecting"); } application.onDisconnect = function(client) { trace("client disconnecting!"); } Client.prototype.getStreamLength = function(p_streamName) { trace("getStreamLength:" + p_streamName); return Stream.length(p_streamName); } Client.prototype.checkBandwidth = function() { application.calculateClientBw(this); } application.calculateClientBw = function(p_client) { /* lots of lines copied from an adobe sample, appear to work */ } Client-Side Code: <head> <script type="text/javascript" src="flowplayer-3.1.4.min.js"></script> </head> <body> <a class="rtmp" href="rtmp://xx.xx.xx.xx/vod_project/test_flv.flv" style="display: block; width: 520px; height: 330px" id="player"> </a> <script> $f( "player", "flowplayer-3.1.5.swf", { clip: { provider: 'rtmp', autoPlay: false, url: 'test_flv' }, plugins: { rtmp: { url: 'flowplayer.rtmp-3.1.3.swf', netConnectionUrl: 'rtmp://xx.xx.xx.xx/vod_project?foo=bar' } } } ); </script> </body> My first Idea was to get a key from the Query String, ask the web service about which file and user that key is for and play the file but i can't seem to find out how to play a file from server side. My second idea was to let flowplayer play a file, pass the key as query string and if the filename and key don't match then reject the connection but i can't seem to find out which file it's currently playing. The only remaining idea i have is: create a list of all files the user is allowed to open and set allowReadAccess or however it was called to allow those files, but that would be clumsy due to the current infrastructure. Any hints? Thanks.

  Read the article

• Jquery .Animate Width Problem.

  - by smoop

  Thanks in advance for any-help with this, I'll try and explain it well. I have a container of 1000px width and 220px height, in this I will have three columns 220px in height but with different widths (77px, 200px and 300px). When you click one div it will open to a fixed size (the same for each, say 400px) and the others which are not clicked will shrink back to their original sizes (77px, 200px and 300px). Like an accordian with different widths.. My jquery is getting there but not quite, I know how to create an Event on click, I know from there I need to shrink everything but the one I clicked back to their orignal size. I finish but making the one clicked expand to the size it needs to be. jsfiddle here! $(document).ready(function(){ // Your code here $('.section').click(function() { $('.section').not(this).animate({width:"77px"},400); //alert('clicked!'); $(this).animate({width:"400px"},400); }); }); <div id="pictureNavContainer"> <div class="section pictureSectionOne" id="1"></div> <div class="section pictureSectionTwo" id="2"></div> <div class="section pictureSectionThree" id="3"></div> </div> <style> #pictureNavContainer{background-color:#262626; width:1000px; height:220px; overflow:hidden;} .pictureSectionOne{float:left; background:yellow; height:220px; width:77px;} .pictureSectionTwo{float:left; background:red; height:220px; width:177px;} .pictureSectionThree{float:left; background:blue; height:220px; width:400px;} </style> I figured a kind of solution: <script> $(document).ready(function(){ // Your code here $('.section').click(function() { $('#1').animate({width:"50px"},400); $('#2').animate({width:"100px"},400); $('#3').animate({width:"200px"},400); //alert('clicked!'); $(this).animate({width:"400px"},400); }); }); </script> But the code isnt very good.. but it works This: $(function(){ var $sections = $('.section'); var orgWidth = []; var animate = function() { var $this = $(this); $sections.not($this).each(function(){ var $section = $(this), org = orgWidth[$section.index()]; $section.animate({ width: org }, 400); }); $this.animate({ width: 400 }, 400); }; $sections.each(function(){ var $this = $(this); orgWidth.push($this.width()); $this.click(animate); }); });

  Read the article

• Android: MediaPlayer gapless or seamless Video Playing

  - by John Wang

  I can play the videos fine back to back by implementing the OnCompletionListener to set the data source to a different file. No problems there. I call reset() and prepare() just fine. What I haven't been able to figure out, is how to get rid of the 1-2 second gap screen flicker between the data source change and the new video starting. The gap shows a black screen, and I haven't found any way to get around it. I've tried setting the background of the parent view to an image, but it manages to bypass that. Even if the SurfaceView is transparent (which it is by default.) I've also tried to have the multiple video files played at the same time, and switching mediaplayer's display when one ends and the other is supposed to start. The last thing I tried, was to have a second view in the background that I show temporarily while the video is "preparing" and removing it when the video is ready to start. That also wasn't very seamless. Is there any way to get rid of that gap. Running a video in a loop works wonderfully and does exactly what I want with the exception that it's looking through the same video instead of playing a different one that I pick. main.xml <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <FrameLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:background="@drawable/background" android:layout_height="fill_parent"> <SurfaceView android:id="@+id/surface" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent" android:layout_gravity="center"> </SurfaceView> </FrameLayout> Player.java public class Player extends Activity implements OnCompletionListener, MediaPlayer.OnPreparedListener, SurfaceHolder.Callback { private MediaPlayer player; private SurfaceView surface; private SurfaceHolder holder; public void onCreate(Bundle b) { super.onCreate(b); setContentView(R.layout.main); surface = (SurfaceView)findViewById(R.id.surface); holder = surface.getHolder(); holder.addCallback(this); holder.setType(SurfaceHolder.SURFACE_TYPE_PUSH_BUFFERS); } public void onCompletion(MediaPlayer arg0) { File clip = new File(Environment.getExternalStorageDirectory(),"file2.mp4"); playVideo(clip.getAbsolutePath()); } public void onPrepared(MediaPlayer mediaplayer) { holder.setFixedSize(player.getVideoWidth(), player.getVideoHeight()); player.start(); } private void playVideo(String url) { try { File clip = new File(Environment.getExternalStorageDirectory(),"file1.mp4"); if (player == null) { player = new MediaPlayer(); player.setScreenOnWhilePlaying(true); } else { player.stop(); player.reset(); } player.setDataSource(url); player.setDisplay(holder); player.setOnPreparedListener(this); player.prepare(); player.setOnCompletionListener(this); } catch (Throwable t) { Log.e("ERROR", "Exception Error", t); } }

  Read the article

• Calling system commands from Perl

  - by Dan J

  In an older version of our code, we called out from Perl to do an LDAP search as follows: # Pass the base DN in via the ldapsearch-specific environment variable # (rather than as the "-b" paramater) to avoid problems of shell # interpretation of special characters in the DN. $ENV{LDAP_BASEDN} = $ldn; $lcmd = "ldapsearch -x -T -1 -h $gLdapServer" . <snip> " > $lworkfile 2>&1"; system($lcmd); if (($? != 0) || (! -e "$lworkfile")) { # Handle the error } The code above would result in a successful LDAP search, and the output of that search would be in the file $lworkfile. Unfortunately, we recently reconfigured openldap on this server so that a "BASE DC=" is specified in /etc/openldap/ldap.conf and /etc/ldap.conf. That change seems to mean ldapsearch ignores the LDAP_BASEDN environment variable, and so my ldapsearch fails. I've tried a couple of different fixes but without success so far: (1) I tried going back to using the "-b" argument to ldapsearch, but escaping the shell metacharacters. I started writing the escaping code: my $ldn_escaped = $ldn; $ldn_escaped =~ s/\/\\/g; $ldn_escaped =~ s/`/\`/g; $ldn_escaped =~ s/$/\$/g; $ldn_escaped =~ s/"/\"/g; That threw up some Perl errors because I haven't escaped those regexes properly in Perl (the line number matches the regex with the backticks in). Backticks found where operator expected at /tmp/mycommand line 404, at end of line At the same time I started to doubt this approach and looked for a better one. (2) I then saw some Stackoverflow questions (here and here) that suggested a better solution. Here's the code: print("Processing..."); # Pass the arguments to ldapsearch by invoking open() with an array. # This ensures the shell does NOT interpret shell metacharacters. my(@cmd_args) = ("-x", "-T", "-1", "-h", "$gLdapPool", "-b", "$ldn", <snip> ); $lcmd = "ldapsearch"; open my $lldap_output, "-|", $lcmd, @cmd_args; while (my $lline = <$lldap_output>) { # I can parse the contents of my file fine } $lldap_output->close; The two problems I am having with approach (2) are: a) Calling open or system with an array of arguments does not let me pass > $lworkfile 2>&1 to the command, so I can't stop the ldapsearch output being sent to screen, which makes my output look ugly: Processing...ldap_bind: Success (0) additional info: Success b) I can't figure out how to choose which location (i.e. path and file name) to the file handle passed to open, i.e. I don't know where $lldap_output is. Can I move/rename it, or inspect it to find out where it is (or is it not actually saved to disk)? Based on the problems with (2), this makes me think I should return back to approach (1), but I'm not quite sure how to

  Read the article

• How do I launch a WPF app from command.com. I'm getting a FontCache error.

  - by jttraino

  I know this is not ideal, but my constraint is that I have a legacy application written in Clipper. I want to launch a new, WinForms/WPF application from inside the application (to ease transition). This legacy application written in Clipper launches using: SwpRunCmd("C:\MyApp\MyBat.bat",0) The batch file contains something like this command: C:\PROGRA~1\INTERN~1\iexplore "http://QASVR/MyApp/AppWin/MyCompany.MyApp.AppWin.application#MyCompany.MyApp.AppWin.application" It is launching a WinForms/WPF app that is we deploy via ClickOnce. Everything has been going well until we introduced WPF into the application. We were able to easily launch from the legacy application. Since we have introduced WPF, however, we have the following behavior. If we launch via the Clipper application first, we get an exception when launching the application. The error text is: The type initializer for 'System.Windows.FrameworkElement' threw an exception. at System.Windows.FrameworkElement..ctor() at System.Windows.Controls.Panel..ctor() at System.Windows.Controls.DockPanel..ctor() at System.Windows.Forms.Integration.AvalonAdapter..ctor(ElementHost hostControl) at System.Windows.Forms.Integration.ElementHost..ctor() at MyCompany.MyApp.AppWin.Main.InitializeComponent() at MyCompany.MyApp.AppWin.Main..ctor(String[] args) at MyCompany.MyApp.AppWin.Program.Main(String[] args) The type initializer for 'System.Windows.Documents.TextElement' threw an exception. at System.Windows.FrameworkElement..cctor() The type initializer for 'System.Windows.Media.FontFamily' threw an exception. at System.Windows.Media.FontFamily..ctor(String familyName) at System.Windows.SystemFonts.get_MessageFontFamily() at System.Windows.Documents.TextElement..cctor() The type initializer for 'MS.Internal.FontCache.Util' threw an exception. at MS.Internal.FontCache.Util.get_WindowsFontsUriObject() at System.Windows.Media.FontFamily.PreCreateDefaultFamilyCollection() at System.Windows.Media.FontFamily..cctor() Invalid URI: The format of the URI could not be determined. at System.Uri.CreateThis(String uri, Boolean dontEscape, UriKind uriKind) at System.Uri..ctor(String uriString, UriKind uriKind) at MS.Internal.FontCache.Util..cctor() If we launch the application via the URL (in IE) or via the icon on the desktop first, we do not get the exception and application launches as expected. The neat thing is that whatever we launch with first determines whether the app will launch at all. So, if we launch with legacy first, it breaks right away and we can't get the app to run even if we launch with the otherwise successful URL or icon. To get it to work, we have to logout and log back in and start it from the URL or icon. If we first use the URL or the icon, we have no problem launching from the legacy application from that point forward (until we logout and come back in). One other piece of information is that we are able to simulate the problem in the following fashion. If we enter a command prompt using "cmd.exe" and execute a statement to launch from a URL, we are successful. If, however, we enter a command prompt using "command.com" and we execute that same statement, we experience the breaking behavior. We assume it is because the legacy application in Clipper uses the equivalent of command.com to create the shell to spawn the other app. We have tried a bunch of hacks like having command.com run cmd.exe or psexec and then executing, but nothing seems to work. We have some ideas for workarounds (like making the app launch on startup so we force the successful launch from a URL, making all subsequent launches successful), but they all are sub-optimal even though we have a great deal of control over our workstations. To reduce the chance that this is related to permissions, we have given the launching account administrative rights (as well as non-administrative rights in case that made a difference). Any ideas would be greatly-appreciate. Like I said, we have some work arounds, but I would love to avoid them. Thanks!

  Read the article

• CABasicAnimation not scrolling with rest of View

  - by morgman

  All, I'm working on reproducing the pulsing Blue circle effect that the map uses to show your own location... I layered a UIView over a MKMapView. The UIView contains the pulsing animation. I ended up using the following code gleaned from numerous answers here on stackoverflow: CABasicAnimation* pulseAnimation = [CABasicAnimation animationWithKeyPath:@"opacity"]; pulseAnimation.toValue = [NSNumber numberWithFloat: 0.0]; pulseAnimation.duration = 1.0; pulseAnimation.repeatCount = HUGE_VALF; pulseAnimation.autoreverses = YES; pulseAnimation.timingFunction = [CAMediaTimingFunction functionWithName:kCAMediaTimingFunctionEaseInEaseOut]; [self.layer addAnimation:pulseAnimation forKey:@"pulseAnimation"]; CABasicAnimation* resizeAnimation = [CABasicAnimation animationWithKeyPath:@"bounds.size"]; resizeAnimation.toValue = [NSValue valueWithCGSize:CGSizeMake(0.0f, 0.0f)]; resizeAnimation.fillMode = kCAFillModeBoth; resizeAnimation.duration = 1.0; resizeAnimation.repeatCount = HUGE_VALF; resizeAnimation.autoreverses = YES; resizeAnimation.timingFunction = [CAMediaTimingFunction functionWithName:kCAMediaTimingFunctionEaseInEaseOut]; [self.layer addAnimation:resizeAnimation forKey:@"resizeAnimation"]; This does an acceptable job of pulsing/fading a circle I drew in the UIView using: CGContextRef context = UIGraphicsGetCurrentContext(); CGContextSetRGBStrokeColor(context, 1.0, 0.0, 0.0, 0.4); // And draw with a blue fill color CGContextSetRGBFillColor(context, 1.0, 0.0, 0.0, 0.1); // Draw them with a 2.0 stroke width so they are a bit more visible. CGContextSetLineWidth(context, 2.0); CGContextAddEllipseInRect(context, CGRectMake(x-30, y-30, 60.0, 60.0)); CGContextDrawPath(context, kCGPathFillStroke); But I soon found that while this appears to work, as soon as I drag the underlying map to another position the animation screws up... While the position I want highlighted is centered on the screen the animation works ok, once I've dragged the position so it's no longer centered the animation now pulses starting at the center of the screen scaling up to center on the position dragged off center, and back again... A humorous and cool effect, but not what I was looking for. I realize I may have been lucky on several fronts. I'm not sure what I misunderstood. I think the animation is scaling the entire layer which just happens to have my circle drawn in the middle of it. So it works when centered but not when off center. I tried the following gleaned from one of the questions suggested by stackoverflow when I started this question: CABasicAnimation* translateAnimation = [CABasicAnimation animationWithKeyPath:@"position"]; translateAnimation.fromValue = [NSValue valueWithCGPoint:CGPointMake(oldx, oldy )]; translateAnimation.toValue = [NSValue valueWithCGPoint:CGPointMake(x, y )]; // translateAnimation.fillMode = kCAFillModeBoth; translateAnimation.duration = 1.0; translateAnimation.timingFunction = [CAMediaTimingFunction functionWithName:kCAMediaTimingFunctionEaseInEaseOut]; [self.layer addAnimation:translateAnimation forKey:@"translateAnimation"]; But it doesn't help much, when I play with it sometimes it looks like once time it animates in the correct spot after I've moved it offcenter, but then it switches back to the animating from the center point to the new location. Sooo, any suggestions or do I need to provide additional information.

  Read the article

• Advice on Factory Method

  - by heath

  Using php 5.2, I'm trying to use a factory to return a service to the controller. My request uri would be of the format www.mydomain.com/service/method/param1/param2/etc. My controller would then call a service factory using the token sent in the uri. From what I've seen, there are two main routes I could go with my factory. Single method: class ServiceFactory { public static function getInstance($token) { switch($token) { case 'location': return new StaticPageTemplateService('location'); break; case 'product': return new DynamicPageTemplateService('product'); break; case 'user' return new UserService(); break; default: return new StaticPageTemplateService($token); } } } or multiple methods: class ServiceFactory { public static function getLocationService() { return new StaticPageTemplateService('location'); } public static function getProductService() { return new DynamicPageTemplateService('product'); } public static function getUserService() { return new UserService(); } public static function getDefaultService($token) { return new StaticPageTemplateService($token); } } So, given this, I will have a handful of generic services in which I will pass that token (for example, StaticPageTemplateService and DynamicPageTemplateService) that will probably implement another factory method just like this to grab templates, domain objects, etc. And some that will be specific services (for example, UserService) which will be 1:1 to that token and not reused. So, this seems to be an ok approach (please give suggestions if it is not) for a small amount of services. But what about when, over time and my site grows, I end up with 100s of possibilities. This no longer seems like a good approach. Am I just way off to begin with or is there another design pattern that would be a better fit? Thanks. UPDATE: @JSprang - the token is actually sent in the uri like mydomain.com/location would want a service specific to loction and mydomain.com/news would want a service specific to news. Now, for a lot of these, the service will be generic. For instance, a lot of pages will call a StaticTemplatePageService in which the token is passed in to the service. That service in turn will grab the "location" template or "links" template and just spit it back out. Some will need DynamicTemplatePageService in which the token gets passed in, like "news" and that service will grab a NewsDomainObject, determine how to present it and spit that back out. Others, like "user" will be specific to a UserService in which it will have methods like Login, Logout, etc. So basically, the token will be used to determine which service is needed AND if it is generic service, that token will be passed to that service. Maybe token isn't the correct terminology but I hope you get the purpose. I wanted to use the factory so I can easily swap out which Service I need in case my needs change. I just worry that after the site grows larger (both pages and functionality) that the factory will become rather bloated. But I'm starting to feel like I just can't get away from storing the mappings in an array (like Stephen's solution). That just doesn't feel OOP to me and I was hoping to find something more elegant.

  Read the article

• Load balancing using Mina example with Java DSL

  - by Flame_Phoenix

  So, recently I started learning Camel. As part of the process I decided to go through all the examples (listed HERE and available when you DOWNLOAD the package with all the examples and docs) and to see what I could learn. One of the examples, Load Balancing using Mina caught my attention because it uses a Mina in different JVM's and it simulates a load balancer with round robin. I have a few problems with this example. First it uses the Spring DSL, instead of the Java DSL which my project uses and which I find a lot easier to understand now (mainly also because I am used to it). So the first question: is there a version of this example using only the Java DSL instead of the Spring DSL for the routes and the beans? My second questions is code related. The description states, and I quote: Within this demo every ten seconds, a Report object is created from the Camel load balancer server. This object is sent by the Camel load balancer to a MINA server where the object is then serialized. One of the two MINA servers (localhost:9991 and localhost:9992) receives the object and enriches the message by setting the field reply of the Report object. The reply is sent back by the MINA server to the client, which then logs the reply on the console. So, from what I read, I understand that the MINA server 1 (per example) receives a report from the loadbalancer, changes it, and then it sends that report back to some invisible client. Upon checking the code, I see no client java class or XML and when I run, the server simply posts the results on the command line. Where is the client ?? What is this client? In the MINA 1server code presented here: <beans xmlns="http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans" xmlns:xsi="http://www.w3.org/2001/XMLSchema-instance" xmlns:camel="http://camel.apache.org/schema/spring" xsi:schemaLocation=" http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans http://www.springframework.org/schema/beans/spring-beans.xsd http://camel.apache.org/schema/spring http://camel.apache.org/schema/spring/camel-spring.xsd"> <bean id="service" class="org.apache.camel.example.service.Reporting"/> <camelContext xmlns="http://camel.apache.org/schema/spring"> <route id="mina1"> <from uri="mina:tcp://localhost:9991"/> <setHeader headerName="minaServer"> <constant>localhost:9991</constant> </setHeader> <bean ref="service" method="updateReport"/> </route> </camelContext> </beans> I don't understand how the updateReport method magically prints the object on my console. What if I wanted to send message to a third MINA server? How would I do it? (I would have to add a new route, and send it to the URI of the 3rd server correct?) I know most of these questions may sound dumb, but I would appreciate if anyone could help me. A Java DSL version of this would really help me.

  Read the article

• Change ListView background - strage behaviour

  - by Beasly

  Hi again, I have a problem with changing the background of a view in a ListView. What I need: Change the background image of a row onClick() What actually happens: The background gets changed (selected) after pressing e.g. the first entry. But after scrolling down the 8th entry is selected too. Scroll back to the top the first isn't selected anymore. The second entry is selected now. Continue scrolling and it continues jumping... What i'm dong in the Code: I have channels, and onClick() I toggle an attribute of channel boolean selected and then I change the background. I'm doing this only onClick() thats why I don't get why it's actuelly happening on other entries too. One thing I notices is: It seems to be only the "drawing"-part because the item which get selected "by it self" has still the selected value on false I think it seems to have something to do with the reuse of the views in the custom ListAdapters getView(...) Code of onClick() in ListActivity: @Override protected ViewHolder createHolder(View v) { // createHolder will be called only as long, as the ListView is not // filled TextView title = (TextView) v .findViewById(R.id.tv_title_channel_list_adapter); TextView content = (TextView) v .findViewById(R.id.tv_content_channel_list_adapter); ImageView icon = (ImageView) v .findViewById(R.id.icon_channel_list_adapter); if (title == null || content == null || icon == null) { Log.e("ERROR on findViewById", "Couldn't find Title, Content or Icon"); } ViewHolder mvh = new MyViewHolder(title, content, icon); // We make the views become clickable // so, it is not necessary to use the android:clickable attribute in // XML v.setOnClickListener(new ChannelListAdapter.OnClickListener(mvh) { public void onClick(View v, ViewHolder viewHolder) { // we toggle the enabled state and also switch the the // background MyViewHolder mvh = (MyViewHolder) viewHolder; Channel ch = (Channel) mvh.data; ch.setSelected(!ch.getSelected()); // toggle if (ch.getSelected()) { v.setBackgroundResource(R.drawable.row_blue_selected); } else { v.setBackgroundResource(R.drawable.row_blue); } // TESTING Log.d("onClick() Channel", "onClick() Channel: " + ch.getTitle() + " selected: " + ch.getSelected()); } }); return mvh; } Code of getView(...): @Override public View getView(int position, View view, ViewGroup parent) { ViewHolder holder; // When view is not null, we can reuse it directly, there is no need // to reinflate it. // We only inflate a new View when the view supplied by ListView is // null. if (view == null) { view = mInflater.inflate(mViewId, null); // call own implementation holder = createHolder(view); // TEST // we set the holder as tag view.setTag(holder); } else { // get holder back...much faster than inflate holder = (ViewHolder) view.getTag(); } // we must update the object's reference holder.data = getItem(position); // call the own implementation bindHolder(holder); return view; } I really would appreciate any idea how to solve this! :) If more information is needed please tell me. Thanks in advance!

  Read the article

• Mouseover triggered on absolute positioned div

  - by Tauren

  Objective Have a small magnifying glass icon that appears in the top right corner of a table cell when the table cell is hovered over. Mousing over the magnifying glass icon and clicking it will open a dialog window to show detailed information about the item in that particular table cell. I want to reuse the same icon for hundreds of table cells without recreating it each time. Partial Solution Have a single <span> that is absolutely positioned and hidden. When a _previewable table cell is hovered, the <span> is moved to the correct location and shown. This <span> is also moved in the DOM to be a child of the _previewable table cell. This enables a click handler attached to the <span> to find the _previewable parent, and get information from it's jquery data() object that is used to populate the contents of the dialog. Here is a very simplified version of my HTML: <body> <span id="options"> <a class="ui-state-default ui-corner-all"> <span class="ui-icon ui-icon-search"></span> Preview </a> </span> <table> <tr> <td class="_previewable"> <img scr="user_1.png"/> <span>Bob Smith</span> </td> </tr> </table> </body> And this CSS: #options { position: absolute; display: none; } With this jQuery code: var $options = $('#options'); $options.click(function() { $item = $(this).parents("._previewable"); // Show popup based on data in $item.data("id"); Layout.renderPopup($item.data("id"),$item.data("popup")); }); $('._previewable').live('mouseover mouseout',function(event) { if (event.type == 'mouseover') { var $target = $(this); var $parent = $target.offsetParent()[0]; var left = $parent.scrollLeft + $target.position().left + $target.outerWidth() - $options.outerWidth() + 1; var top = $parent.scrollTop + $target.position().top + 2; $options.appendTo($target); $options.css({ "left": left + "px", "top": top + "px" }).show(); } else { // On mouseout, $options continues to be a child of $(this) $options.hide(); } }); Problem This solution works perfectly until the contents of my table are reloaded or changed via AJAX. Because the <span> was moved from the <body> to be a child of the cell, it gets thrown out and replaced during the AJAX call. So my first thought is to move the <span> back to the body on mouseout of the table cell, like this: else { // On mouseout, $options is moved back to be a child of body $options.appendTo("body"); $options.hide(); } However, with this, the <span> disappears as soon as it is mouseover. The mouseout event seems to be called on _previewable when the mouse moves into the <span>, even though the <span> is a child of _previewable and fully displayed within the boundaries of the _previewable table cell. At this point, I've only tested this in Chrome. Questions Why would mouseout be called on _previewable, when the mouse is still within the boundaries of _previewable? Is it because the <span> is absolutely positioned? How can I make this work, without recreating the <span> and it's click handler on each AJAX table referesh?

  Read the article

• using getScript to import plugin on page using multiple versions of jQuery

  - by mikez302

  I am developing an app on a page that uses jQuery 1.2.6, but I would like to use jQuery 1.4.2 for my app. I really don't like to use multiple versions of jQuery like this but the copy on the page (1.2.6) is something I have no control over. I decided to isolate my code like this: <!DOCTYPE HTML PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.01 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/html4/loose.dtd"> <html><head> <script type="text/javascript" src="jquery-1.2.6.min.js> <script type="text/javascript" src="pageStuff.js"> </head> <body> Welcome to our page. <div id="app"> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.4.2/jquery.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="myStuff.js"> </div> </body></html> The file myStuff.js has my own code that is supposed to use jQuery 1.4.2, and it looks like this: (function($) { //wrap everything in function to add ability to use $ var with noConflict var jQuery = $; //my code })(jQuery.noConflict(true)); This is an extremely simplified version, but I hope you get the idea of what I did. For a while, everything worked fine. However, I decided to want to use a jQuery plugin in a separate file. I tested it and it acted funny. After some experimentation, I found out that the plugin was using the old version of jQuery, when I wanted it to use the new version. Does anyone know how to import and run a js file from the context within the function wrapping the code in myStuff.js? In case this matters to anyone, here is how I know the plugin is using the old version, and what I did to try to solve the problem: I made a file called test.js, consisting of this line: alert($.fn.jquery); I tried referencing the file in a script tag the way external Javascript is usually included, below myStuff.js, and it came up as 1.2.6, like I expected. I then got rid of that script tag and put this line in myStuff.js: $.getScript("test.js"); and it still came back as 1.2.6. That wasn't a big surprise -- according to jQuery's documentation, scripts included that way are executed in the global context. I then tried doing this instead: var testFn = $.proxy($.getScript, this); testFn("test.js"); and it still came back as 1.2.6. After some tinkering, I found out that the "this" keyword referred to the window, which I assume means the global context. I am looking for something to put in place of "this" to refer to the context of the enclosing function, or some other way to make the code in the file run from the enclosing function. I noticed that if I copy and paste the code, it works fine, but it is a big plugin that is used in many places, and I would prefer not to clutter up my file with their code. I am out of ideas. Does anyone else know how to do this?

  Read the article

• Spring MVC working with Web Designers

  - by jboyd

  When working with web-designers in a Spring-MVC and JSP environment, are there any tools or helpful patterns to reduce the pain of going back and forth from HTML to JSP and back? Project requirements dictate that views will change often, and it can be difficult to make changes efficiently because of the amount of Java code that leaks into the view layer. Ideally I'd like to remove almost all Java code from the view, but it does not seem like this works with the Spring/JSP philosophy where often the way to remove Java code is to replace that code with tag libraries, which will still have a similar problem. To provide a little clarity to my question I'm going to include some existing code (inherited by me) to show the kinds of problems I'm likely to face when change the look of our views: <%-- Begin looping through results --%> <% List memberList = memberSearchResults.getResults(); for(int i = start - 1; i < memberList.size() && i < end; i++) { Profile profile = (Profile)memberList.get(i); long profileId = profile.getProfileId(); String nickname = profile.getNickname(); String description = profile.getDescription(); Image image = profile.getAvatarImage(); String avatarImageSrc = null; int avatarImageWidthNum = 0; int avatarImageHeightNum = 0; if(null != image) { avatarImageSrc = image.getSrc(); avatarImageWidthNum = image.getWidth(); avatarImageHeightNum = image.getHeight(); } String bgColor = i % 2 == 1 ? "background-color:#FFF" : ""; %> <div style="float:left;clear:both;padding:5px 0 5px 5px;cursor:pointer;<%= bgColor %>" onclick='window.location="profile.sp?profileId=<%= profileId %>"'> <div style="float:right;clear:right;padding-left:10px;width:515px;font-size:10px;color:#7e7e7e"> <h6><%= nickname %></h6> <%= description %> </div> <img style="float:left;clear:left;" alt="Avatar Image" src="<%= null != avatarImageSrc && avatarImageSrc.trim().length() > 0 ? avatarImageSrc : "images/defaultUserImage.png" %>" <%= avatarImageWidthNum < avatarImageHeightNum ? "height='59'" : "width='92'" %> /> </div> <% } // End loop %> Now, ignoring some of the code smells there, it's obvious that if someone wants to change the look of that DIV it would be neccesary to re-place all the Java/JSP code into the new HTML given (the designers don't work in JSP files, they have their own HTML versions of the website). Which is tedious, and prone to errors.

  Read the article

• Strange issues with view switcher after object animator animations

  - by Barry Irvine

  I have two LinearLayout views that contain a number of edit texts and checkboxes for entering user information (name, email address etc). When a validation fails on one of these fields a gone textview is displayed showing the validation error. I have enclosed the two layouts within a ViewSwitcher and I animate between the two views using the ObjectAnimator class. (Since the code needs to support older versions of Android I am actually using the nineoldandroids backwards compatibility library for this). The bulk of the work is performed in my switchToChild method. If I flip the views more than twice then I start to run into strange errors. Firstly although the correct child view of the view animator is displayed it seems that the other view has focus and I can click on the views beneath the current one. I resolved this issue by adding a viewSwitcher.bringChildToFront at the end of the first animation. When I do this however and perform a validation on the 2nd view the "gone" view that I have now set to visible is not displayed (as if the linearlayout is never being re-measured). Here is a subset of the XML file: <ScrollView android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:layout_below="@+id/TitleBar" android:scrollbarAlwaysDrawVerticalTrack="true" android:scrollbarStyle="outsideOverlay" android:scrollbars="vertical" > <ViewSwitcher android:id="@+id/switcher" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content" > <LinearLayout android:id="@+id/page_1" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:orientation="vertical" > <!-- Lots of subviews here --> <LinearLayout android:id="@+id/page_2" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:orientation="vertical" > And this is the main method for flipping between the views: private void switchToChild(final int child) { final ViewSwitcher viewSwitcher = (ViewSwitcher) findViewById(R.id.switcher); if (viewSwitcher.getDisplayedChild() != child) { final Interpolator accelerator = new AccelerateInterpolator(); final Interpolator decelerator = new DecelerateInterpolator(); final View visibleView; final View invisibleView; switch (child) { case 0: visibleView = findViewById(R.id.page_2); invisibleView = findViewById(R.id.page_1); findViewById(R.id.next).setVisibility(View.VISIBLE); findViewById(R.id.back).setVisibility(View.GONE); break; case 1: default: visibleView = findViewById(R.id.page_1); invisibleView = findViewById(R.id.page_2); findViewById(R.id.back).setVisibility(View.VISIBLE); findViewById(R.id.next).setVisibility(View.GONE); break; } final ObjectAnimator visToInvis = ObjectAnimator.ofFloat(visibleView, "rotationY", 0f, 90f).setDuration(250); visToInvis.setInterpolator(accelerator); final ObjectAnimator invisToVis = ObjectAnimator.ofFloat(invisibleView, "rotationY", -90f, 0f).setDuration(250); invisToVis.setInterpolator(decelerator); visToInvis.addListener(new AnimatorListenerAdapter() { @Override public void onAnimationEnd(Animator anim) { viewSwitcher.showNext(); invisToVis.start(); viewSwitcher.bringChildToFront(invisibleView); // If I don't do this the old view can have focus } }); visToInvis.start(); } } Does anyone have any ideas? This is really confusing me!

  Read the article

• html button elemenents and onserverclick attribute in asp.net

  - by Adrian Adkison

  I have been experiencing some very strange behavior using html buttons with the onserverclick attribute. What I am trying to do is use jQuery to designate the default button on the page. By default button I mean the button that is "clicked" when a user hits enter. In testing, I would hit enter while in an input field and sometimes the intended "default" button was clicked and the server side method defined in the corresponding onserverclick attribute was hit. Other times a post back was made without hitting the server method. In order to isolate the issue I created a minimal test case and found some very interesting results. client side: <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head runat="server"> <title>Untitled Page</title> <script type="text/javascript" src="/scripts/jquery-1.4.min.js"></script> </head> <body> <form id="form1" runat="server"> <asp:Label ID="_response" runat="server"></asp:Label> <input id="input1" type="text" /> <input id="input2" type="text" /> <button id="first" type="button" class="defaultBtn" runat="server" onserverclick="ServerMethod1">test1</button> <button id="second" type="button" runat="server" onserverclick="ServerMethod2">test2</button> </form> <script type="text/javascript"> jQuery('form input').keyup( function(e) { if ((e.which && e.which == 13) || (e.keyCode && e.keyCode == 13)) { $('button.defaultBtn').click(); return true; } } ); </script> </body> </html> server side: public partial class admin_spikes_ButtonSubmitTest : System.Web.UI.Page { protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { } protected void ServerMethod1(object sender, EventArgs e) { _response.Text = "server method1 was hit"; } protected void ServerMethod2(object sender, EventArgs e) { _response.Text = "server method2 was hit"; } } What I found was that everything worked as expected with this code except when I removed one of the input elements. In Firefox 3.6 and IE 8 when only one input exists on the page, hitting enter does not trigger the onserverclick, it makes a post back without even being jQuery "clicked" or actually "clicked". You can test this by starting with two inputs and clicking "test2". This will output "server method2 was hit". Then just hit enter and the output will be "server method1 was hit. Now take away an input and run the same test. Click "test2" see the results, then hit enter and you will see that nothing will change because the "test1" method was never hit. Does anyone know what is going on? Thanks p.s. Chrome worked as expected

  Read the article

• MVC Datatables Dialog Not staying where dialog opens

  - by Anthoney Hanks

  I have created a view that displays a datatable with a clickable link that opens a jQuery UI dialog box. The users wanted a search options (8 dropdowns to narrow the search) at top of page, followed by the datatable with the 100 viewable records. If I scroll down the datatable to the bottom viewable record, click the link to open the dialog box. The dialog opens relative to the link clicked, but the focus go back to the top of the page which causes the user to have scroll back down to the dialog box. Ok, I thought I would just set the focus to the dialog box. BUt it is being ignored which make me think that this is something within the MVC realm. I even tried to wrap the focus inside a ready function thinking it would be one of the last things process. When I define the dailog, it is pretty basic. I even tried to set the position attribute, but it did not change the problem. Has someone had this problem and can send me in the right direction? View building the datatable: <table id="navDatatables"> <tbody> @foreach (var detailsVM in Model.DetailsVMs) { <tr> <td class="standardTable"> <a href="#" onclick="return PVE_UseConfig.Options(@detailsVM.ConfigVersionId, @Model.UseConfigModeId);" class="smallLink">Options</a> </td> <td class="standardTable"> <a href="@Url.Content(@detailsVM.ViewerUrl)" target="_blank">@detailsVM.ConfigName</a> </td> <td class="standardTable">@detailsVM.ConfigType</td> <td class="standardTable">@detailsVM.ConfigVersionState</td> <td class="standardTable">@detailsVM.Organization</td> <td class="standardTable">@detailsVM.ProcessSet</td> <td class="standardTable">@detailsVM.ConfigVersionCaption</td> <td class="standardTable">@detailsVM.ConfigId</td> <td class="standardTable">@detailsVM.ConfigVersionId</td> <td class="standardTable">@detailsVM.ConfigOwnerName</td> <td class="standardTable">@detailsVM.ConfigVersionLastModified</td> </tr> } </tbody> </table> Dialog box code: Options: function (configVersionId, useConfigModeId) { var output = '#modalDialog1'; var postData = { configVersionId: configVersionId, useConfigModeId: useConfigModeId }; $('#modalDialog1').dialog("destroy"); $.ajax({ url: PVE_RootUrl + 'UseConfig/Options', type: 'POST', async: false, data: postData, success: function (result) { $(output).html(result); }, error: function (jqXHR, textStatus, errorThrown) { var text = jqXHR.responseText; var from = text.search("<body>") + 6; var to = text.search("</body>") - 7; $(output).html(text.substring(from, to)); } }); $(output).dialog({ title: "Configuration Options", modal: true, height: 550, width: 600, resizable: false, draggable: false }); },

  Read the article

• ASP.NET MVC - Form Post always redirect when I just want to bind json result to a div

  - by Saxman

  Hi all, I'm having a little problem with json result. I'm submitting a contact form, and after the submission, I just want to return some json data (indicating either a success or failed and displays a message) back to the view, without causing a redirect, but it kept redirecting me to the action, here are the codes: HTML <div id="contactForm2" class="grid_6"> <div id="contactFormContainer"> @using (Html.BeginForm(MVC.Home.ActionNames.ContactForm, MVC.Home.Name, FormMethod.Post, new { id = "contactForm" })) { <p> <input type="text" tabindex="1" size="22" value="" id="contactName" class="text_input required" name="contactName" /> <label for="contactName"> <strong class="leftSpace">Your Name (required)</strong></label></p> <p> <input type="text" tabindex="2" size="22" value="" id="contactEmail" class="text_input required" name="contactEmail" /> <label for="contactEmail"> <strong class="leftSpace">Email (required)</strong></label></p> <p> <input type="text" tabindex="2" size="22" value="" id="contactPhone" class="text_input" name="contactPhone" /> <label for="contactPhone"> <strong class="leftSpace">Phone</strong></label></p> <p> <label> <strong class="leftSpace n">Message (required)</strong></label> <textarea tabindex="4" rows="4" cols="56" id="contactMessage" class="text_area required" name="contactMessage"></textarea></p> <p> <input type="submit" value="Send" tabindex="5" id="contactSubmit" class="button submit" name="contactSubmit" /></p> } </div> <div id="contactFormStatus"> </div> </div> Controller [HttpPost] public virtual JsonResult ContactForm(FormCollection formCollection) { var name = formCollection["contactName"]; var email = formCollection["contactEmail"]; var phone = formCollection["contactPhone"]; var message = formCollection["contactMessage"]; if (string.IsNullOrEmpty(name) || string.IsNullOrEmpty(email) || string.IsNullOrEmpty(message)) { return Json(new { success = false, message = "Please complete all the required fields so that I can get back to you. Thanks." }); } // Insert contact form data here... return Json(new { success = true, message = "Your inquery has been sent. Thank you." }); } javascript $(document).ready(function () { $('#contactSubmit').live('click', function () { var form = $('#contactForm'); var formData = form.serialize(); $.post('/Home/ContactForm', formData, function (result) { var status = $('#contactFormStatus'); if (result.success) { $('#contactForm')[0].reset; } status.append(result.message); }, 'json' ); return false; }); }); I've also tried this javascript, but also got a redirect $(document).ready(function () { $('#contactSubmit').live('click', function () { var form = $('#contactForm'); var formData = form.serialize(); $.ajax({ type: 'POST', url: '/Home/ContactForm', data: formData, success: function (result) { SubmitContactResult(result); }, cache: false }); }); function SubmitContactResult(result) { var status = $('#contactFormStatus'); if (result.success) { $('#contactForm')[0].reset; } status.append(result.message); } }); Any idea what's going on with my code? Thank you very much.

  Read the article

< Previous Page | 571 572 573 574 575 576 577 578 579 580 581 582  | Next Page >