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• Implementing a scalable and high-performing web app

  - by Christopher McCann

  I have asked a few questions on here before about various things relating to this but this is more of a consolidation question as I would like to check I have got the gist of everything. I am in the middle of developing a social media web app and although I have a lot of experience coding in Java and in PHP I am trying things a bit different this time. I have modularised each component of the application. So for example one component of the application allows users to private message each other and I have split this off into its own private messaging service. I have also created a user data service the purpose of which is to return data about the user for example their name, address, age etc etc from the database. Their is also another service, the friends service, which will work off the neo4j database to create a social graph. My reason for doing all this is to allow me up to update seperate modules when I need to - so while they mostly all run off MySQL right now I could move one to Cassandra later if I thought it approriate. The actual code of the web app is really just used for the final construction. The modules behind it dont really follow any strict REST or SOAP protocol. Basically each method on our API is turned into a PHP procedural script. This then may make calls to other back-end code which tends to be OO. The web app makes CURL requests to these pages and POSTs data to them or GETs data from them. These pages then return JSON where data is required. I'm still a little mixed up about how I actually identify which user is logged in at that moment. Do I just use sessions for that? Like if we called the get-messages.php script which equates to the getMessages() method for that user - returning all the private messages for that user - how would the back-end code know which user it is as posting the users ID to the script would not be secure. Anyone could do that and get all the messages. So I thought I would use sessions for it. Am I correct on this? Can anyone spot any other problems with what I am doing here? Thanks

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• What alternatives do I have for source control and does GIT does that?

  - by RubberDuck

  I work as a freelancer programmer for some clients and also create apps for myself. When I work for myself, obviously I work alone. I generally don't work in a linear way. My big problems today are: I have a lot of apps that use the same classes I have developed; In the past, I put all these common classes on a directory outside all projects and included them on my apps using absolute paths, but this method sucks because by accident (if you forget) you may change a path or the disk and all projects are broken. Then I decided to copy those classes to my projects every time. Because the majority of these classes do not change frequently, I am relatively ok, but when they change, I am in hell; When I change one of these classes I have to propagate the changes to all other apps using copies of them. I have also tried to create frameworks but thanks to Apple, I cannot create frameworks for iOS and have to create libraries and bundles and create a nightmare of paths from one to the other and to the project to make that sh!t works. So, I am done with frameworks/libraries on Xcode until Xcode is a decent IDE. So, I see I need something better to manage my source code. What I need is this (I never used GIT on Xcode. I have read Apple docs but I still have these points): does git locally on Xcode allows me to deal with assets or just code? Can I have the equivalent of a "framework" (code + assets) managed by git locally? Can an entire xcodeproj be managed as a unity? I mean, Suppose I have a xcodeproj created and want GIT to manage it. How do I enable git on a project that was created without it and start designating files for management. (I have enabled git on Xcode's preferences, but all source control menu is grayed out). Is git the best option? Do I have another? Remember that my main condition is that the files should stay on the local computer. Please save me (I am a bit dramatic today). Thanks.

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• Why is this simple Mobile Form not closed when using the player

  - by ajhvdb

  Hi, I created this simple sample Form with the close button. Everything is working as expected when NOT using the Interop.WMPLib.dll I've seen other applications using this without problems but why isn't the Form process closed when I just add the line: SoundPlayer myPlayer = new SoundPlayer(); and of course dispose it: if (myPlayer != null) { myPlayer.Dispose(); myPlayer = null; } The Form closes but the debugger VS2008 is still active. The Form project and the dll are still active. If you send me an email to [email protected], I can send you the zipped project. Below is the class for the dll: using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Text; using System.Threading; using System.Runtime.InteropServices; using WMPLib; namespace WindowsMobile.Utilities { public delegate void SoundPlayerStateChanged(SoundPlayer sender, SoundPlayerState newState); public enum SoundPlayerState { Stopped, Playing, Paused, } public class SoundPlayer : IDisposable { [DllImport("coredll")] public extern static int waveOutSetVolume(int hwo, uint dwVolume); [DllImport("coredll")] public extern static int waveOutGetVolume(int hwo, out uint dwVolume); WindowsMediaPlayer myPlayer = new WindowsMediaPlayer(); public SoundPlayer() { myPlayer.uiMode = "invisible"; myPlayer.settings.volume = 100; } string mySoundLocation = string.Empty; public string SoundLocation { get { return mySoundLocation; } set { mySoundLocation = value; } } public void Pause() { myPlayer.controls.pause(); } public void PlayLooping() { Stop(); myPlayer.URL = mySoundLocation; myPlayer.settings.setMode("loop", true); } public int Volume { get { return myPlayer.settings.volume; } set { myPlayer.settings.volume = value; } } public void Play() { Stop(); myPlayer.URL = mySoundLocation; myPlayer.controls.play(); } public void Stop() { myPlayer.controls.stop(); myPlayer.close(); } #region IDisposable Members public void Dispose() { try { Stop(); } catch (Exception) { } // need this otherwise the process won't exit?! try { int ret = Marshal.FinalReleaseComObject(myPlayer); } catch (Exception) { } myPlayer = null; GC.Collect(); } #endregion } }

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• java web application best practices

  - by Bruce

  Hi all I'm trying to figure out the optimum way to develop and release a fairly simple web application, and I'm running into several problems. I'll outline the decisions I've made, because somewhere I've clearly gone off the rails.. Hugely grateful for any help! I have what I think is a fairly simple web application. It contains a couple of jsps that reference a couple of java beans, and the usual static html, js, css and images. Decision 1) I wanted to have a clear and clean release procedure, such that I could develop on my local machine and then release reliably to a production machine. I therefore made the decision to package the application into a war file (including all the static resources), to minimize the separate bits and pieces I would need to release. So far so good? Decision 2) I wanted things on my local machine to be as similar as possible to the production environment. So in my html, for example, I may have a reference to a static file such as http://static.foo.com/file . To keep this code working seamlessly on dev and prod, I decided to put static.foo.com in my /etc/hosts when developing locally, so that all the urls work correctly without changing anything. Decision 3) I decided to use eclipse and maven to give me a best practice environment for administering and building my project. So I have a nice tight set up now, except that: Every time I want to change anything in development, like one line in an html file, I have to rebuild the entire project and then wait for tomcat to load the war before I can see if it's what I wanted. So my questions are: 1) Is there a way to connect up eclipse and tomcat so that I don't have to rebuild the war each time? ie tomcat is looking straight at my actual workspace to serve up the static files? 2)I think I'm maybe making things harder by using /etc/hosts to reflect production urls - is there a better way that doesn't involve manually changing over urls (relative urls are fine of course, but where you have many subdomains, say one for static files and one for dynamic, you have to write out the full path, surely?) 3) Is this really best practice?? How do people set things up so that they balance the requirement for an automated, all-encompassing build process on the one hand, and the speed and flexibility to be able to develop javascript and html and css quickly, as quickly as if one just pointed apache at the directory and developed live? What do people find works? Many thanks!

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• How to handle environment-specific application configuration organization-wide?

  - by Stuart Lange

  Problem Your organization has many separate applications, some of which interact with each other (to form "systems"). You need to deploy these applications to separate environments to facilitate staged testing (for example, DEV, QA, UAT, PROD). A given application needs to be configured slightly differently in each environment (each environment has a separate database, for example). You want this re-configuration to be handled by some sort of automated mechanism so that your release managers don't have to manually configure each application every time it is deployed to a different environment. Desired Features I would like to design an organization-wide configuration solution with the following properties (ideally): Supports "one click" deployments (only the environment needs to be specified, and no manual re-configuration during/after deployment should be necessary). There should be a single "system of record" where a shared environment-dependent property is specified (such as a database connection string that is shared by many applications). Supports re-configuration of deployed applications (in the event that an environment-specific property needs to change), ideally without requiring a re-deployment of the application. Allows an application to be run on the same machine, but in different environments (run a PROD instance and a DEV instance simultaneously). Possible Solutions I see two basic directions in which a solution could go: Make all applications "environment aware". You would pass the environment name (DEV, QA, etc) at the command line to the app, and then the app is "smart" enough to figure out the environment-specific configuration values at run-time. The app could fetch the values from flat files deployed along with the app, or from a central configuration service. Applications are not "smart" as they are in #1, and simply fetch configuration by property name from config files deployed with the app. The values of these properties are injected into the config files at deploy-time by the install program/script. That install script takes the environment name and fetches all relevant configuration values from a central configuration service. Question How would/have you achieved a configuration solution that solves these problems and supports these desired features? Am I on target with the two possible solutions? Do you have a preference between those solutions? Also, please feel free to tell me that I'm thinking about the problem all wrong. Any feedback would be greatly appreciated.

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• How to combine a list of choices to determine which select statement

  - by Larry

  I have a mysql db and am using php 5.2 What I am trying to do is offer a list of options for a person to select (only 1). The chosen option will cause a select, update, or delete statement to be ran. The results of the statement do not need to be shown, although, showing the old and then the new would be nice (no problems with that part tho'.). Pseudo-Code: Assign $choice = 0 Check the value of $choice // This way, if it = 100, we do a break Select a Choice:<br> 1. Adjust Status Value (+60) // $choice = 1<br> 2. Show all Ships <br> // $choice = 2 3. Show Ships in Port <br> // $choice = 3 ... 0. $choice="100" // if the value =100, quit this part Use either case (switch) or if/else statements to run the users choice1 If the choice is 1, then run the "Select" statement with the variable of $sql1 -- "SELECT .... If the choice is 2, then run the "Select" statement with the variable of $sql2 --- SELECT * FROM Ships If the choice is 3, then run the "Select" statement with the variable of $sql3 <br> .... If the choice is 0, then we are done. I figured the (3) statements would be assigned in php as: $sql1="...". $sql2="SELECT * FROM Ships" $sql3="SELECT * FROM Ships WHERE nPort="1" My idea was to use the switch statement, but got lost on it. :( I would like the options to be available over and over again, until a variable ($choice) is selected. In which case, this particular page is done and goes back to the "Main Menu"? The coding and display, if I use it, I can do. Just not sure how to write the way to select which one I want. It is possible that I would run all of the queries, and other times, only one, so that is why I would like the choice. An area I get confused in is the proper forms to use such as -- ' ' " " and ...?? Not sure the # of options I will end up with, but it will be more than 5 but less than 20 / page. So if I get the system down for 2-3 choices, I can replicate it for as many as I may need. And, as always, if a better way exists, I am willing to try it. Thanks again... Larry

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• Unlimited SMS API/Gateway (Sending and Receiving)

  - by Naif

  I am creating a chat application which requires that users be able to send and receive sms messages through a web interface. It would be somewhat similar to the text messaging service available in yahoo mail or in aol instant messenger. The situation is this: Given the high quantity of messages that would be sent and received, paying on a per message basis is not economically feasible. How is it that sites such as yahoo, aim, and twitter can send and receive unlimited sms messages? Essentially, I am looking for a way to send and receive unlimited sms from my computer. Below is a list of some approaches I've come up with but have run into problems with as well. If just one of the approaches can be utilized effectively, then I am fine. As a note on the nature of my application: I will only be sending messages to users that explicitly sign up for the service and permit the receiving of messages. They can unsubscribe at any time. This is to prevent spam. I am aware of software such as Kannel which allows one to connect to a providers smsc gateway. However, this adds the risk of not being approved by the provider which would be unacceptable. Is there any way to significantly mitigate this risk? Utilizing a gateway provider eliminates this risk, but adds the issue of per message pricing. I am also aware of email to sms. However, I have done some testing with that and it appears that this method results in many messages being undelivered or delivered VERY late. If it weren't for that, this approach would have been ideal. Is there any way to negotiate with carriers to remove me from their filters (considering the nature of my service as stated before)? I could use a gsm modem, but even with an "unilimited" plan on a sim card, there are still limits (around 100,000 messages or so). Furthermore, from my understanding, gsm modems are capable of only sending out around a dozen messages per minute. I need to be able to send out as much as several hundred messages per second. During the first 2 months, around 10 messages per second would suffice. There are ways to send out ads with messages to cover the per message costs. However, this is a deal-breaker since it has a high chance of tarnishing the quality of service. Furthermore, I know it is possible to do it without such ads since yahoo, aim, and twitter do not send ads with their messages.

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• Google Code + SVN or GitHub + Git

  - by Nazgulled

  Let me start by telling you that I never used anything besides SVN and I'm also a Windows user. I have a couple of simple projects that are open-source, others are on there way when I'm happy enough to release their source code but either way, I was thinking of using Google Code and SVN to share the source code of my projects instead of providing a link to the source on my website. This as always been a pain cause I had to update the binaries and the code every time I released a new version. This would also help me out to have a backup of my code some where instead of just my local machine (I used to have a local Subversion server running). What I want from a service like this is very simple... I just want a place to store my source code that people can download if they want, allows me to control revisions and provide a simple and easy issue system so people can submit bugs and stuff like that. I guess both of them have this. But I don't want to host any binaries in their websites, I want this to be hosted on my website so I can control download statistics with my own scripts, I also don't have the need for wiki pages as I prefer to have all the documentation in my own website. Does anyone of this services provide a way to "disable" features like wiki and downloads and don't show them at all for my project(s)? Now, I'm sure there are lots of pros and cons about using Google Code with SVN and GitHub with Git (of course) but here's what it's important for me on each one and why I like them: Google Code: As with any Google page, the complexity is almost non-existent Everyone (or almost) as a Google account and this is nice if people want to report problems using the issues system GitHub: May (or may not) be a little more complex (not a problem for me though) than Google's pages but... ...has a much prettier interface than Google's service It needs people to be registered on GitHub to post about issues I like the fact that with Git, you have your own revisions locally (can I use TortoiseGit for this or?) Basically that's it, not much I know... What other, most common, pros and cons can you tell me about each site/software? Keep in mind that my projects are simple, I'm probably the only one who will ever develop these projects on these repositories (or maybe not, for now I will)

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• Wordpress pages address rewrite

  - by kemp

  UPDATE I tried using the internal wordpress rewrite. What I have to do is an address like this: http://example.com/galleria/artist-name sent to the gallery.php page with a variable containing the artist-name. I used these rules as per Wordpress' documentation: // REWRITE RULES (per gallery) {{{ add_filter('rewrite_rules_array','wp_insertMyRewriteRules'); add_filter('query_vars','wp_insertMyRewriteQueryVars'); add_filter('init','flushRules'); // Remember to flush_rules() when adding rules function flushRules(){ global $wp_rewrite; $wp_rewrite->flush_rules(); } // Adding a new rule function wp_insertMyRewriteRules($rules) { $newrules = array(); $newrules['(galleria)/(.*)$'] = 'index.php?pagename=gallery&galleryname=$matches[2]'; return $newrules + $rules; } // Adding the id var so that WP recognizes it function wp_insertMyRewriteQueryVars($vars) { array_push($vars, 'galleryname'); return $vars; } what's weird now is that on my local wordpress test install, that works fine: the gallery page is called and the galleryname variable is passed. On the real site, on the other hand, the initial URL is accepted (as in it doesn't go into a 404) BUT it changes to http://example.com/gallery (I mean it actually changes in the browser's address bar) and the variable is not defined in gallery.php. Any idea what could possibly cause this different behavior? Alternatively, any other way I couldn't think of which could achieve the same effect described in the first three lines is perfectly fine. Old question What I need to do is rewriting this address: (1) http://localhost/wordpress/fake/text-value to (2) http://localhost/wordpress/gallery?somevar=text-value Notes: the remapping must be transparent: the user always has to see address (1) gallery is a permalink to a wordpress page, not a real address I basically need to rewrite the address first (to modify it) and then feed it back to mod rewrite again (to let wordpress parse it its own way). Problems if I simply do RewriteRule ^fake$ http://localhost/wordpress/gallery [L] it works but the address in the browser changes, which is no good, if I do RewriteRule ^fake$ /wordpress/gallery [L] I get a 404. I tried different flags instead of [L] but to no avail. How can I get this to work? EDIT: full .htaccess # BEGIN WordPress <IfModule mod_rewrite.c> RewriteEngine On RewriteRule ^fake$ /wordpress/gallery [R] RewriteBase /wordpress/ RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-f RewriteCond %{REQUEST_FILENAME} !-d RewriteRule . /wordpress/index.php [L] </IfModule> # END WordPress

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• Parsing XML file using a for loop

  - by Johnny Spintel

  I have been working on this program which inserts an XML file into a MYSQL database. I'm new to the whole .jar idea by inserting packages. Im having an issue with parse(), select(), and children(). Can someone inform me how I could fix this issue? Here is my stack trace and my program below: Exception in thread "main" java.lang.Error: Unresolved compilation problems: The method select(String) is undefined for the type Document The method children() is undefined for the type Element The method children() is undefined for the type Element The method children() is undefined for the type Element The method children() is undefined for the type Element at jdbc.parseXML.main(parseXML.java:28) import java.io.*; import java.sql.*; import org.jsoup.Jsoup; import org.w3c.dom.*; import javax.xml.parsers.*; public class parseXML{ public static void main(String xml) { try{ BufferedReader br = new BufferedReader(new FileReader(new File("C:\\staff.xml"))); String line; StringBuilder sb = new StringBuilder(); while((line=br.readLine())!= null){ sb.append(line.trim()); } Document doc = Jsoup.parse(line); StringBuilder queryBuilder; StringBuilder columnNames; StringBuilder values; for (Element row : doc.select("row")) { // Start the query queryBuilder = new StringBuilder("insert into customer("); columnNames = new StringBuilder(); values = new StringBuilder(); for (int x = 0; x < row.children().size(); x++) { // Append the column name and it's value columnNames.append(row.children().get(x).tagName()); values.append(row.children().get(x).text()); if (x != row.children().size() - 1) { // If this is not the last item, append a comma columnNames.append(","); values.append(","); } else { // Otherwise, add the closing paranthesis columnNames.append(")"); values.append(")"); } } // Add the column names and values to the query queryBuilder.append(columnNames); queryBuilder.append(" values("); queryBuilder.append(values); // Print the query System.out.println(queryBuilder); } }catch (Exception err) { System.out.println(" " + err.getMessage ()); } } }

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• Should I skip authorization, with CanCan, of an action that instantiates a resource?

  - by irkenInvader

  I am writing a web app to pick random lists of cards from larger, complete sets of cards. I have a Card model and a CardSet model. Both models have a full RESTful set of 7 actions (:index, :new, :show, etc). The CardSetsController has an extra action for creating random sets: :random. # app/models/card_set.rb class CardSet < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :creator, :class_name => "User" has_many :memberships has_many :cards, :through => :memberships # app/models/card.rb class Card < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :creator, :class_name => "User" has_many :memberships has_many :card_sets, :through => :memberships I have added Devise for authentication and CanCan for authorizations. I have users with an 'editor' role. Editors are allowed to create new CardSets. Guest users (Users who have not logged in) can only use the :index and :show actions. These authorizations are working as designed. Editors can currently use both the :random and the :new actions without any problems. Guest users, as expected, cannot. # app/controllers/card_sets_controller.rb class CardSetsController < ApplicationController before_filter :authenticate_user!, :except => [:show, :index] load_and_authorize_resource I want to allow guest users to use the :random action, but not the :new action. In other words, they can see new random sets, but not save them. The "Save" button on the :random action's view is hidden (as designed) from the guest users. The problem is, the first thing the :random action does is build a new instance of the CardSet model to fill out the view. When cancan tries to load_and_authorize_resource a new CardSet, it throws a CanCan::AccessDenied exception. Therefore, the view never loads and the guest user is served a "You need to sign in or sign up before continuing" message. # app/controllers/card_sets_controllers.rb def random @card_set = CardSet.new( :name => "New Set of 10", :set_type => "Set of 10" ) I realize that I can tell load_and_authorize_resource to skip the :random action by passing :except => :random to the call, but that just feels "wrong" for some reason. What's the "right" way to do this? Should I create the new random set without instantiating a new CardSet? Should I go ahead and add the exception?

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• using Object input\ output Streams with files and array list

  - by soad el-hayek

  hi every one .. i'm an it student , and it's time to finish my final project in java , i've faced too many problems , this one i couldn't solve it and i'm really ubset ! :S my code is like this : in Admin class : public ArrayList cos_info = new ArrayList(); public ArrayList cas_info = new ArrayList(); public int cos_count = 0 ; public int cas_count = 0 ; void coustmer_acount() throws FileNotFoundException, IOException{ String add=null; do{ person p = new person() ; cos_info.add(cos_count, p); cos_count ++ ; add =JOptionPane.showInputDialog("Do you want to add more coustmer..\n'y'foryes ..\n 'n'for No .."); } while(add.charAt(0) == 'Y'||add.charAt(0)=='y'); writenew_cos(); // add_acounts(); } void writenew_cos() throws IOException{ ObjectOutputStream aa = new ObjectOutputStream(new FileOutputStream("coustmer.txt")); aa.writeObject(cos_info); JOptionPane.showMessageDialog(null,"Added to file done sucessfuly.."); aa.close(); } in Coustmer class : void read_cos() throws IOException, ClassNotFoundException{ person p1= null ; int array_count = 0; ObjectInputStream d = new ObjectInputStream(new FileInputStrea ("coustmer.txt")); JOptionPane.showMessageDialog(null,d.available() ); for(int i = 0;d.available() == 0;i++){ a.add(array_count,(ArrayList) d.readObject()); array_count++; JOptionPane.showMessageDialog(null,"Haaaaai :D" ); JOptionPane.showMessageDialog(null,array_count ); } d.close(); JOptionPane.showMessageDialog(null,array_count +"1111" ); for(int i = 0 ; i<a.size()&& found!= true ; i++){ count++ ; p1 =(person)a.get(i); user=p1.user; pass = p1.pass; cas_checkpass(); } } it just print JOptionPane.showMessageDialog(null,d.available() ); and having excep. here a.add(array_count,(ArrayList) d.readObject()); p.s : person object from my own class and it's Serializabled

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• Need to know how to properly create a new object in another cpp file

  - by karikari

  I have a class. The problem now is, after a few attempt, I'm still in huge error. My problem is I don't know how to properly declare a new object for this class, inside another cpp file. I wanted to call/trigger the functions from this RebarHandler class from my other cpp file. I keep on getting problems like, 'used without being initialized', 'debug assertion failed' and so on. In the other cpp file, I include the RebarHandler.h and did like this: CRebarHandler *test=NULL; test->setButtonMenu2(); When compile, I does not give any error. But, when run time, it gives error and my IE crash. I need help. Below is the class I meant: #pragma once class CIEWindow; class CRebarHandler : public CWindowImpl<CRebarHandler>{ public: CRebarHandler(HWND hWndToolbar, CIEWindow *ieWindow); CRebarHandler(){}; ~CRebarHandler(); BEGIN_MSG_MAP(CRebarHandler) NOTIFY_CODE_HANDLER(TBN_DROPDOWN, onNotifyDropDown) NOTIFY_CODE_HANDLER(TBN_TOOLBARCHANGE, onNotifyToolbarChange) NOTIFY_CODE_HANDLER(NM_CUSTOMDRAW, onNotifyCustomDraw) NOTIFY_CODE_HANDLER(TBN_ENDADJUST, onNotifyEndAdjust) MESSAGE_HANDLER(WM_SETREDRAW, onSetRedraw) END_MSG_MAP() // message handlers LRESULT onNotifyDropDown(WPARAM wParam, LPNMHDR pNMHDR, BOOL& bHandled); LRESULT onNotifyToolbarChange(WPARAM wParam, LPNMHDR pNMHDR, BOOL& bHandled); LRESULT onNotifyCustomDraw(WPARAM wParam, LPNMHDR pNMHDR, BOOL& bHandled); LRESULT onNotifyEndAdjust(WPARAM wParam, LPNMHDR pNMHDR, BOOL& bHandled); LRESULT onSetRedraw(UINT uMsg, WPARAM wParam, LPARAM lParam, BOOL& bHandled); // manage the subclassing of the IE rebar void subclass(); void unsubclass(); void handleSettings(); void setButtonMenu2(); bool findButton(HWND hWndToolbar); private: // handles to the various things HWND m_hWnd; HWND m_hWndToolbar, m_hWndRebar, m_hWndTooltip; HMENU m_hMenu; int m_buttonID; int m_ieVer; CIEWindow *m_ieWindow; // toolbar finding functions void scanForToolbarSlow(); void getRebarHWND(); void setButtonMenu(); };

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• ASP.NET MVC: How can I explain an invalid type violation to an end-user with Html.ValidationSummary?

  - by Terminal Frost

  Serious n00b warning here; please take mercy! So I finished the Nerd Dinner MVC Tutorial and I'm now in the process of converting a VB.NET application to ASP.NET MVC using the Nerd Dinner program as a sort of rough template. I am using the "IsValid / GetRuleViolations()" pattern to identify invalid user input or values that violate business rules. I am using LINQ to SQL and am taking advantage of the "OnValidate()" hook that allows me to run the validation and throw an application exception upon trying to save changes to the database via the CustomerRepository class. Anyway, everything works well, except that by the time the form values reach my validation method invalid types have already been converted to a default or existing value. (I have a "StreetNumber" property that is an integer, though I imagine this would be a problem for DateTime or any other non-strings as well.) Now, I am guessing that the UpdateModel() method throws an exception and then alters the value because the Html.ValidationMessage is displayed next to the StreetNumber field but my validation method never sees the original input. There are two problems with this: While the Html.ValidationMessage does signal that something is wrong, there is no corresponding entry in the Html.ValidationSummary. If I could even get the exception message to show up there indicating an invalid cast or something that would be better than nothing. My validation method which resides in my Customer partial class never sees the original user input so I do not know if the problem is a missing entry or an invalid type. I can't figure out how I can keep my validation logic nice and neat in one place and still get access to the form values. I could of course write some logic in the View that processes the user input, however that seems like the exact opposite of what I should be doing with MVC. Do I need a new validation pattern or is there some way to pass the original form values to my model class for processing? CustomerController Code // POST: /Customers/Edit/[id] [AcceptVerbs(HttpVerbs.Post)] public ActionResult Edit(int id, FormCollection formValues) { Customer customer = customerRepository.GetCustomer(id); try { UpdateModel(customer); customerRepository.Save(); return RedirectToAction("Details", new { id = customer.AccountID }); } catch { foreach (var issue in customer.GetRuleViolations()) ModelState.AddModelError(issue.PropertyName, issue.ErrorMessage); } return View(customer); }

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• On Click alert if $.get returns a value, if not, submit the form

  - by bradenkeith

  If the submit button is clicked, prevent the default action and see if the field 'account_name' is already in use. If the $.get() returns a result, alert the user of the results. If it doesn't, submit form with id="add_account_form". My problem is that my else{} statement is not submitting the form. I get no response when submit is clicked & there is no value returned. Also I would like to change my code where it goes $("#add_account_form").submit(..) instead of .click() however, would that cause a problem when trying to submit the form later in the script? <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready( function () { $("#submit").click( function () { var account_name = $("input[name=account_name]").val(); $.get( "'.url::site("ajax/check_account_name").'", {account_name: account_name}, function(data){ if(data.length > 0){ confirm( "The account name you entered looks like the following:\n" +data+ "Press cancel if this account already exists or ok to create it." ); }else{ $("#add_account_form").submit(); } }); return false; }); }); </script> <p> <input type="submit" id="submit" class="submit small" name="submit" value="Submit" /> </p> </form> Thanks for your help. EDIT So anyone who runs into my problems, it's that $.get() is asynchronous, so it will always return false, or true depending on what submitForm is defined as. $.ajax() however, allows async to be set as false, which allows the function to finish before moving on. See what I mean: $(document).ready( function () { $("#add_account_form").submit( function () { var submitForm = true; var account_name = $("input[name=account_name]").val(); $.ajax({ type: "GET", async: false, url: "'.url::site("ajax/check_account_name").'", data: ({account_name: account_name}), success: function(data){ if(data.length > 0){ if(!confirm( "The account name you entered looks like the following:\n" +data+ "Press cancel if this account already exists or ok to create it." )){ submitForm = false; } } } }); if (submitForm == false ) { return false; } }); }); Thanks for your help @Dan

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• Template function as a template argument

  - by Kos

  I've just got confused how to implement something in a generic way in C++. It's a bit convoluted, so let me explain step by step. Consider such code: void a(int) { // do something } void b(int) { // something else } void function1() { a(123); a(456); } void function2() { b(123); b(456); } void test() { function1(); function2(); } It's easily noticable that function1 and function2 do the same, with the only different part being the internal function. Therefore, I want to make function generic to avoid code redundancy. I can do it using function pointers or templates. Let me choose the latter for now. My thinking is that it's better since the compiler will surely be able to inline the functions - am I correct? Can compilers still inline the calls if they are made via function pointers? This is a side-question. OK, back to the original point... A solution with templates: void a(int) { // do something } void b(int) { // something else } template<void (*param)(int) > void function() { param(123); param(456); } void test() { function<a>(); function<b>(); } All OK. But I'm running into a problem: Can I still do that if a and b are generics themselves? template<typename T> void a(T t) { // do something } template<typename T> void b(T t) { // something else } template< ...param... > // ??? void function() { param<SomeType>(someobj); param<AnotherType>(someotherobj); } void test() { function<a>(); function<b>(); } I know that a template parameter can be one of: a type, a template type, a value of a type. None of those seems to cover my situation. My main question is hence: How do I solve that, i.e. define function() in the last example? (Yes, function pointers seem to be a workaround in this exact case - provided they can also be inlined - but I'm looking for a general solution for this class of problems).

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• How to implement a caching model without violating MVC pattern?

  - by RPM1984

  Hi Guys, I have an ASP.NET MVC 3 (Razor) Web Application, with a particular page which is highly database intensive, and user experience is of the upmost priority. Thus, i am introducing caching on this particular page. I'm trying to figure out a way to implement this caching pattern whilst keeping my controller thin, like it currently is without caching: public PartialViewResult GetLocationStuff(SearchPreferences searchPreferences) { var results = _locationService.FindStuffByCriteria(searchPreferences); return PartialView("SearchResults", results); } As you can see, the controller is very thin, as it should be. It doesn't care about how/where it is getting it's info from - that is the job of the service. A couple of notes on the flow of control: Controllers get DI'ed a particular Service, depending on it's area. In this example, this controller get's a LocationService Services call through to an IQueryable<T> Repository and materialize results into T or ICollection<T>. How i want to implement caching: I can't use Output Caching - for a few reasons. First of all, this action method is invoked from the client-side (jQuery/AJAX), via [HttpPost], which according to HTTP standards should not be cached as a request. Secondly, i don't want to cache purely based on the HTTP request arguments - the cache logic is a lot more complicated than that - there is actually two-level caching going on. As i hint to above, i need to use regular data-caching, e.g Cache["somekey"] = someObj;. I don't want to implement a generic caching mechanism where all calls via the service go through the cache first - i only want caching on this particular action method. First thought's would tell me to create another service (which inherits LocationService), and provide the caching workflow there (check cache first, if not there call db, add to cache, return result). That has two problems: The services are basic Class Libraries - no references to anything extra. I would need to add a reference to System.Web here. I would have to access the HTTP Context outside of the web application, which is considered bad practice, not only for testability, but in general - right? I also thought about using the Models folder in the Web Application (which i currently use only for ViewModels), but having a cache service in a models folder just doesn't sound right. So - any ideas? Is there a MVC-specific thing (like Action Filter's, for example) i can use here? General advice/tips would be greatly appreciated.

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• deallocated memory in tableview: message sent to deallocated instance

  - by Kirn

  I tried looking up other issues but couldn't find anything to match so here goes: I'm trying to display text in the table view so I use this bit of code: // StockData is an object I created and it pulls information from Yahoo APIs based on // a stock ticker stored in NSString *heading NSArray* tickerValues = [heading componentsSeparatedByString:@" "]; StockData *chosenStock = [[StockData alloc] initWithContents:[tickerValues objectAtIndex:0]]; [chosenStock getData]; // Set up the cell... NSDictionary *tempDict = [chosenStock values]; NSArray *tempArr = [tempDict allValues]; cell.textLabel.text = [tempArr objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]; return cell; This is all under cellForRowAtIndexPath When I try to release the chosenStock object though I get this error: [CFDictionary release]: message sent to deallocated instance 0x434d3d0 Ive tried using NSZombieEnabled and Build and Analyze to detect problems but no luck thus far. Ive even gone so far as to comment bits and pieces of the code with NSLog but no luck. I'll post the code for StockData below this. As far as I can figure something is getting deallocated before I do the release but I'm not sure how. The only place I've got release in my code is under dealloc method call. Here's the StockData code: // StockData contains all stock information pulled in through Yahoo! to be displayed @implementation StockData @synthesize ticker, values; - (id) initWithContents: (NSString *)newName { if(self = [super init]){ ticker = newName; } return self; } - (void) getData { NSURL *url = [NSURL URLWithString: [NSString stringWithFormat:@"http://download.finance.yahoo.com/d/quotes.csv?s=%@&f=%@&e=.csv", ticker, @"chgvj1"]]; NSError *error; NSURLResponse *response; NSURLRequest *request = [NSURLRequest requestWithURL:url]; NSData *stockData = [NSURLConnection sendSynchronousRequest:request returningResponse:&response error:&error]; if(stockData) { NSString *tempStr = [[NSString alloc] initWithData:stockData encoding:NSASCIIStringEncoding]; NSArray *receivedValuesArr = [tempStr componentsSeparatedByString:@","]; [tempStr release]; values = [NSDictionary dictionaryWithObjects:receivedValuesArr forKeys:[@"change, high, low, volume, market" componentsSeparatedByString:@", "]]; } else { NSLog(@"Connection failed: %@", error); } } - (void)dealloc { [ticker release]; [values release]; [super dealloc]; NSLog(@"Release took place fine"); } @end

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• Releasing the keyboard stops shake events. Why?

  - by Moshe

  1) How do I make a UITextField resign the keyboard and hide it? The keyboard is in a dynamically created subview whose superview looks for shake events. Resigning first responder seems to break the shake event handler. 2) how do you make the view holding the keyboard transparent, like see through glass? I have seen this done before. This part has been taken care of thanks guys. As always, code samples are appreciated. I've added my own to help explain the problem. EDIT: Basically, - (void)motionBegan:(UIEventSubtype)motion withEvent:(UIEvent *)event; gets called in my main view controller to handle shaking. When a user taps on the "edit" icon (a pen, in the bottom of the screen - not the traditional UINavigationBar edit button), the main view adds a subview to itself and animates it on to the screen using a custom animation. This subview contains a UINavigationController which holds a UITableView. The UITableView, when a cell is tapped on, loads a subview into itself. This second subview is the culprit. For some reason, a UITextField in this second subview is causing problems. When a user taps on the view, the main view will not respond to shakes unless the UITextField is active (in editing mode?). Additional info: My Motion Event Handler: - (void)motionBegan:(UIEventSubtype)motion withEvent:(UIEvent *)event { NSLog(@"%@", [event description]); SystemSoundID SoundID; NSString *soundFile = [[NSBundle mainBundle] pathForResource:@"shake" ofType:@"aif"]; AudioServicesCreateSystemSoundID((CFURLRef)[NSURL fileURLWithPath:soundFile], &SoundID); AudioServicesPlayAlertSound(SoundID); [self genRandom:TRUE]; } The genRandom: Method: /* Generate random label and apply it */ -(void)genRandom:(BOOL)deviceWasShaken{ if(deviceWasShaken == TRUE){ decisionText.text = [NSString stringWithFormat: (@"%@", [shakeReplies objectAtIndex:(arc4random() % [shakeReplies count])])]; }else{ SystemSoundID SoundID; NSString *soundFile = [[NSBundle mainBundle] pathForResource:@"string" ofType:@"aif"]; AudioServicesCreateSystemSoundID((CFURLRef)[NSURL fileURLWithPath:soundFile], &SoundID); AudioServicesPlayAlertSound(SoundID); decisionText.text = [NSString stringWithFormat: (@"%@", [pokeReplies objectAtIndex:(arc4random() % [pokeReplies count])])]; } } shakeReplies and pokeReplies are both NSArrays of strings. One is used for when a certain part of the screen is poked and one is for when the device is shaken. The app will randomly choose a string from the NSArray and display onscreen. For those of you who work graphically, here is a diagram of the view hierarchy: Root View -> UINavigationController -> UITableView -> Edit View -> Problem UITextfield

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• C++ addition overload ambiguity

  - by Nate

  I am coming up against a vexing conundrum in my code base. I can't quite tell why my code generates this error, but (for example) std::string does not. class String { public: String(const char*str); friend String operator+ ( const String& lval, const char *rval ); friend String operator+ ( const char *lval, const String& rval ); String operator+ ( const String& rval ); }; The implementation of these is easy enough to imagine on your own. My driver program contains the following: String result, lval("left side "), rval("of string"); char lv[] = "right side ", rv[] = "of string"; result = lv + rval; printf(result); result = (lval + rv); printf(result); Which generates the following error in gcc 4.1.2: driver.cpp:25: error: ISO C++ says that these are ambiguous, even though the worst conversion for the first is better than the worst conversion for the second: String.h:22: note: candidate 1: String operator+(const String&, const char*) String.h:24: note: candidate 2: String String::operator+(const String&) So far so good, right? Sadly, my String(const char *str) constructor is so handy to have as an implicit constructor, that using the explicit keyword to solve this would just cause a different pile of problems. Moreover... std::string doesn't have to resort to this, and I can't figure out why. For example, in basic_string.h, they are declared as follows: template<typename _CharT, typename _Traits, typename _Alloc> basic_string<_CharT, _Traits, _Alloc> operator+(const basic_string<_CharT, _Traits, _Alloc>& __lhs, const basic_string<_CharT, _Traits, _Alloc>& __rhs) template<typename _CharT, typename _Traits, typename _Alloc> basic_string<_CharT,_Traits,_Alloc> operator+(const _CharT* __lhs, const basic_string<_CharT,_Traits,_Alloc>& __rhs); and so on. The basic_string constructor is not declared explicit. How does this not cause the same error I'm getting, and how can I achieve the same behavior??

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• How do I do distributed UML development (à la FOSS)?

  - by James A. Rosen

  I have a UML project (built in IBM's Rational System Architect/Modeler, so stored in their XML format) that has grown quite large. Additionally, it now contains several pieces that other groups would like to re-use. I come from a software development (especially FOSS) background, and am trying to understand how to use that as an analogy here. The problem I am grappling with is similar to the Fragile Base Class problem. Let me start with how it works in an object-oriented (say, Java or Ruby) FOSS ecosystem: Group 1 publishes some "core" package, say "net/smtp version 1.0" Group 2 includes Group 1's net/smtp 1.0 package in the vendor library of their software project At some point, Group 1 creates a new 2.0 branch of net/smtp that breaks backwards compatibility (say, it removes an old class or method, or moves a class from one package to another). They tell users of the 1.0 version that it will be deprecated in one year. Group 2, when they have the time, updates to net/smtp 2.0. When they drop in the new package, their compiler (or test suite, for Ruby) tells them about the incompatibility. They do have to make some manual changes, but all of the changes are in the code, in plain text, a medium with which they are quite familiar. Plus, they can often use their IDE's (or text editor's) "global-search-and-replace" function once they figure out what the fixes are. When we try to apply this model to UML in RSA, we run into some problems. RSA supports some fairly powerful refactorings, but they seem to only work if you have write access to all of the pieces. If I rename a class in one package, RSA can rename the references, but only at the same time. It's very difficult to look at the underlying source (the XML) and figure out what's broken. To fix such a problem in the RSA editor itself means tons of clicking on things -- there is no good equivalent of "global-search-and-replace," at least not after an incomplete refactor. They real sticking point seems to be that RSA assumes that you want to do all your editing using their GUI, but that makes certain operations prohibitively difficult. Does anyone have examples of open-source UML projects that have overcome this problem? What strategies do they use for communicating changes?

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• Invalid Cross-Thread Operations from BackgroundWorker2_RunWorkerCompleted in C#

  - by Jim Fell

  Hello. I'm getting an error that does not make sense. Cross-thread operation not valid: Control 'buttonOpenFile' accessed from a thread other than the thread it was created on. In my application, the UI thread fires off backgroundWorker1, which when almost complete fires off backgroundWorker2 and waits for it to complete. backgroundWorker1 waits for backgroundWorker2 to complete, before it completes. AutoResetEvent variables are used to flag when each of the workers complete. In backgroundWorker2_RunWorkerComplete a function is called that resets the form controls. It is in this ResetFormControls() function where the exception is thrown. I thought it was safe to modify form controls in the RunWorkerCompleted function. Both background workers are instantiated from the UI thread. Here is a greatly summarized version of what I am doing: AutoResetEvent evtProgrammingComplete_c = new AutoResetEvent(false); AutoResetEvent evtResetComplete_c = new AutoResetEvent(false); private void ResetFormControls() { toolStripProgressBar1.Enabled = false; toolStripProgressBar1.RightToLeftLayout = false; toolStripProgressBar1.Value = 0; buttonInit.Enabled = true; buttonOpenFile.Enabled = true; // Error occurs here. buttonProgram.Enabled = true; buttonAbort.Enabled = false; buttonReset.Enabled = true; checkBoxPeripheryModule.Enabled = true; checkBoxVerbose.Enabled = true; comboBoxComPort.Enabled = true; groupBoxToolSettings.Enabled = true; groupBoxNodeSettings.Enabled = true; } private void buttonProgram_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { while (backgroundWorkerProgram.IsBusy) backgroundWorkerProgram.CancelAsync(); backgroundWorkerProgram.RunWorkerAsync(); } private void backgroundWorkerProgram_DoWork(object sender, DoWorkEventArgs e) { // Does a bunch of stuff... if (tProgramStat_c == eProgramStat_t.DONE) { tProgramStat_c = eProgramStat_t.RESETTING; while (backgroundWorkerReset.IsBusy) backgroundWorkerReset.CancelAsync(); backgroundWorkerReset.RunWorkerAsync(); evtResetComplete_c.WaitOne(LONG_ACK_WAIT * 2); if (tResetStat_c == eResetStat_t.COMPLETED) tProgramStat_c = eProgramStat_t.DONE; } } private void backgroundWorkerProgram_RunWorkerCompleted(object sender, RunWorkerCompletedEventArgs e) { // Updates form to report complete. No problems here. evtProgrammingComplete_c.Set(); backgroundWorkerProgram.Dispose(); } private void backgroundWorkerReset_DoWork(object sender, DoWorkEventArgs e) { // Does a bunch of stuff... if (tResetStat_c == eResetStat_t.COMPLETED) if (tProgramStat_c == eProgramStat_t.RESETTING) evtProgrammingComplete_c.WaitOne(); } private void backgroundWorkerReset_RunWorkerCompleted(object sender, RunWorkerCompletedEventArgs e) { CloseAllComms(); ResetFormControls(); evtResetComplete_c.Set(); backgroundWorkerReset.Dispose(); } Any thoughts or suggestions you may have would be appreciated. I am using Microsoft Visual C# 2008 Express Edition. Thanks.

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• NSSortDescriptor for NSFetchRequestController causes crash when value of sorted attribute is changed

  - by AJ

  I have an Core Data Entity with a number of attributes, which include amount(float), categoryTotal(float) and category(string) The initial ViewController uses a FethchedResultsController to retrieve the entities, and sorts them based on the category and then the categoryTotal. No problems so far. NSManagedObjectContext *moc = [self managedObjectContext]; NSEntityDescription *entityDescription = [NSEntityDescription entityForName:@"Transaction" inManagedObjectContext:moc]; NSFetchRequest *request = [[[NSFetchRequest alloc] init] autorelease]; [request setEntity:entityDescription]; NSPredicate *predicate = [NSPredicate predicateWithFormat:@"(dateStamp >= %@) AND (dateStamp =< %@)", startDate, endDate]; [request setPredicate:predicate]; NSSortDescriptor *sortByCategory = [[NSSortDescriptor alloc] initWithKey:@"category" ascending:sortOrder]; NSSortDescriptor *sortByTotals = [[NSSortDescriptor alloc] initWithKey:@"categoryTotal" ascending:sortOrder]; NSArray *sortDescriptors = [[NSArray alloc] initWithObjects:sortByTotals, sortByCategory, nil]; [request setSortDescriptors:sortDescriptors]; NSFetchedResultsController *aFetchedResultsController = [[NSFetchedResultsController alloc] initWithFetchRequest:request managedObjectContext:managedObjectContext sectionNameKeyPath:@"category" cacheName:nil]; aFetchedResultsController.delegate = self; self.fetchedResultsController = aFetchedResultsController; On selecting a row (tableView:didSelectRowAtIndexPath), another view controller is loaded that allows editing of the amount field for the selected entity. Before returning to the first view, categoryTotal is updated by the new ‘amount’. The problem comes when returning to the first view controller, the app bombs with *Serious application error. Exception was caught during Core Data change processing: Invalid update: invalid number of rows in section 0. The number of rows contained in an existing section after the update (1) must be equal to the number of rows contained in that section before the update (1), plus or minus the number of rows inserted or deleted from that section (0 inserted, 1 deleted). with userInfo (null) Program received signal: “EXC_BAD_ACCESS”.* This seems to be courtesy of NSSortDescriptor *sortByTotals = [[NSSortDescriptor alloc] initWithKey:@"categoryTotal" ascending:sortOrder]; If I remove this everything works as expected, but obviously without the sorting I want. I'm guessing this is to do with the sorting order changing due to categoryTotal changing (deletion / insertion) but can't find away fix this. I've verified that values are being modified correctly in the second view, so it appears down to the fetchedResultsController being confused. If the categoryAmount is changed to one that does not change the sort order, then no error is generated I'm not physically changing (ie deleting) the number of items the fetchedResultsController is returning ... the only other issue I can find that seem to generate this error Any ideas would be most welcome Thanks, AJ

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• User has many computers, computers have many attributes in different tables, best way to JOIN?

  - by krismeld

  I have a table for users: USERS: ID | NAME | ---------------- 1 | JOHN | 2 | STEVE | a table for computers: COMPUTERS: ID | USER_ID | ------------------ 13 | 1 | 14 | 1 | a table for processors: PROCESSORS: ID | NAME | --------------------------- 27 | PROCESSOR TYPE 1 | 28 | PROCESSOR TYPE 2 | and a table for harddrives: HARDDRIVES: ID | NAME | ---------------------------| 35 | HARDDRIVE TYPE 25 | 36 | HARDDRIVE TYPE 90 | Each computer can have many attributes from the different attributes tables (processors, harddrives etc), so I have intersection tables like this, to link the attributes to the computers: COMPUTER_PROCESSORS: C_ID | P_ID | --------------| 13 | 27 | 13 | 28 | 14 | 27 | COMPUTER_HARDDRIVES: C_ID | H_ID | --------------| 13 | 35 | So user JOHN, with id 1 owns computer 13 and 14. Computer 13 has processor 27 and 28, and computer 13 has harddrive 35. Computer 14 has processor 27 and no harddrive. Given a user's id, I would like to retrieve a list of that user's computers with each computers attributes. I have figured out a query that gives me a somewhat of a result: SELECT computers.id, processors.id AS p_id, processors.name AS p_name, harddrives.id AS h_id, harddrives.name AS h_name, FROM computers JOIN computer_processors ON (computer_processors.c_id = computers.id) JOIN processors ON (processors.id = computer_processors.p_id) JOIN computer_harddrives ON (computer_harddrives.c_id = computers.id) JOIN harddrives ON (harddrives.id = computer_harddrives.h_id) WHERE computers.user_id = 1 Result: ID | P_ID | P_NAME | H_ID | H_NAME | ----------------------------------------------------------- 13 | 27 | PROCESSOR TYPE 1 | 35 | HARDDRIVE TYPE 25 | 13 | 28 | PROCESSOR TYPE 2 | 35 | HARDDRIVE TYPE 25 | But this has several problems... Computer 14 doesnt show up, because it has no harddrive. Can I somehow make an OUTER JOIN to make sure that all computers show up, even if there a some attributes they don't have? Computer 13 shows up twice, with the same harddrive listet for both. When more attributes are added to a computer (like 3 blocks of ram), the number of rows returned for that computer gets pretty big, and it makes it had to sort the result out in application code. Can I somehow make a query, that groups the two returned rows together? Or a query that returns NULL in the h_name column in the second row, so that all values returned are unique? EDIT: What I would like to return is something like this: ID | P_ID | P_NAME | H_ID | H_NAME | ----------------------------------------------------------- 13 | 27 | PROCESSOR TYPE 1 | 35 | HARDDRIVE TYPE 25 | 13 | 28 | PROCESSOR TYPE 2 | 35 | NULL | 14 | 27 | PROCESSOR TYPE 1 | NULL | NULL | Or whatever result that make it easy to turn it into an array like this [13] => [P_NAME] => [0] => PROCESSOR TYPE 1 [1] => PROCESSOR TYPE 2 [H_NAME] => [0] => HARDDRIVE TYPE 25 [14] => [P_NAME] => [0] => PROCESSOR TYPE 1

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• jQuery to hide and show divs with an indicator

  - by songdogtech

  Using the jQuery below to toggle the hiding and showing of divs of text: how would I add some sort of indicator - like an up and down arrow as a graphic - to the titles when the divs are either open and closed? What's the best way to do that? Two images? A CSS sprite? And most importantly: how would that be integrated into the JS? I've looked at other jQuery that assigns a random number to each div and then determines which are open and which are closed and toggles one of two images. But I'm using php in a WordPress loop to show a posts, and that gives problems with incrementing in the loop, so there must be an easier way that doesn't require changes in the name of the title div. Thanks.... This JS fires the showing and hiding. Each div can be expanded and collapsed independently. $(document).ready(function() { $('div.demo-show:eq(0)> div').hide(); $('div.demo-show:eq(0)> h3').click(function() { $(this).next().slideToggle('fast'); }); }); This is the HTML it works with: <div class="collapser"> <p class="title">Header-1 </p> <div class="contents">Lorem ipsum</div> <p class="title">Header-2</p> <div class="contents">Lorem ipsum </div> <p class="title">Header-3</p> <div class="contents">Lorem ipsum</div> </div> The CSS is arbitrary: .collapser { margin: 0; padding: 0; width: 500px; } .title { margin: 1px; color: #fff; padding: 3px 10px; cursor: pointer; position: relative; background-color:#c30; } .contents { padding: 5px 10px; background-color:#fafafa; }

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