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  • Previously working emberjs1.0-pre form on jsfiddle returns "error": "Please use POST request"

    - by brg
    This code ** http://jsfiddle.net/wagenet/ACzaJ/8/ ** was working a few days ago, when i returned to it today, it throws {"error": "Please use POST request"}, when i click add button Also the jsfiddle editor.js always throws exception on this line: function stop(){cc = stop; throw StopIteration;}; Does anyone knows the cause of this issue. Many thanks Update 1 Based on @Peter Wagenet's suggestions below, the form now logs entries or inputs to the console but it doesn't display on the result section of jsfiddle instead what is displayed on jsfiddle result section or page is still this error {"error": "Please use POST request"} ** http://jsfiddle.net/ACzaJ/18/ Update 2 In this fiddle, http://jsfiddle.net/ACzaJ/19/, i have successfully eliminated this error {"error": "Please use POST request"} by adding event.preventDefault(); to the submit action in Todos.TodoFormView. That allows us to use arbitrary view methods as action handlers. The existing issue is that the input to the form, only displays on the console and not on jsfiddle result section, though no error displays on the result section, there is a new error appearing in the console of the updated fiddle: Uncaught Error: Cannot perform operations on a Metamorph that is not in the DOM. Finally solved I needed to comment out App.initialize() for it to work as expected. This the working fiddle ** http://jsfiddle.net/ACzaJ/20/. I don't know why that is so, but my guess is that, App.initialize works with other parts like the router for routing, ApplicationController and ApplicationView with {{outlet}} in the handlebars, which i didn't need for this fiddle. Finally Finally and completely solved This ** http://jsfiddle.net/tQWn8/ works with App.initialize. But you have to declare all those components above and pass the router to App.initialize, like this App..initialize(router). If you don't do this, then you will get the old error Uncaught Error: Cannot perform operations on a Metamorph that is not in the DOM.

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  • Add autoFill capabilities to jQuery-UI 1.8.1

    - by rockinthesixstring
    here's what I currently have, unfortunately I cannot seem to figure out how to get autoFill to work with jQuery-UI... It used to work with the straight up Autocomplete.js <script src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.4.2/jquery.min.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jqueryui/1.8.1/jquery-ui.min.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="http://jquery-ui.googlecode.com/svn/tags/latest/external/jquery.bgiframe-2.1.1.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jqueryui/1.8.1/i18n/jquery-ui-i18n.min.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script language="javascript" type="text/javascript"> var thesource = "RegionsAutoComplete.axd?PID=3" $(function () { function log(message) { $("<div/>").text(message).prependTo("#log"); $("#log").attr("scrollTop", 0); } $.expr[':'].textEquals = function (a, i, m) { return $(a).text().match("^" + m[3] + "$"); }; $("#birds").autocomplete({ source: thesource, change: function (event, ui) { //if the value of the textbox does not match a suggestion, clear its value if ($(".ui-autocomplete li:textEquals('" + $(this).val() + "')").size() == 0) { $(this).val(''); } else { log(ui.item ? ("Selected: " + ui.item.value + " aka " + ui.item.id) : "Nothing selected, input was " + this.value); } } }).live('keydown', function (e) { var keyCode = e.keyCode || e.which; //if TAB or RETURN is pressed and the text in the textbox does not match a suggestion, set the value of the textbox to the text of the first suggestion if ((keyCode == 9 || keyCode == 13) && ($(".ui-autocomplete li:textEquals('" + $(this).val() + "')").size() == 0)) { $(this).val($(".ui-autocomplete li:visible:first").text()); } }); }); </script> I've used the answer here to get the mustMatch working, but unfortunately if I "tab" away from the input box, I get the "Nothing selected" response instead of an Value and ID. Does anyone know how to extract the ID out of the autocomplete when you don't actually select the field?

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  • Should I refactor this code?

    - by user156814
    The code is for a view debate page. The code is supposed to determine whether or not to show an add reply form to the viewing user. If the user is logged in, and the user is not the creator of the debate, then check if the user already replied to the debate. If the user did not already reply to the debate then show the form... Otherwise, Check If the user wants to edit their already existing reply by looking in the url for the reply id If any of these tests dont pass, Then I save the reason as an int and pass that to a switch statement in the view. The logic seems easy enough, but my code seems a little sloppy. Here's the code.. (using Kohana V2.3.4) public function view($id = 0) { $debate = ORM::factory('debate')->with('user')->with('category')->find($id); if ($debate->loaded == FALSE) { url::redirect(); } // series of tests to show an add reply form if ($this->logged_in) { // is the viewer the creator? if ($this->user->id != $debate->user->id) { // has the user already replied? if (ORM::factory('reply') ->where(array('debate_id' => $id, 'user_id' => $this->user->id)) ->count_all() == 0) { $form = $errors = array ( 'body' => '', 'choice_id' => '', 'add' => '' ); if ($post = $this->input->post()) { $reply = ORM::factory('reply'); // validate and insert the reply if ($reply->add($post, TRUE)) { url::redirect(url::current()); } $form = arr::overwrite($form, $post->as_array()); $errors = arr::overwrite($errors, $post->errors('reply_errors')); } } // editing a reply? else if (($rid = (int) $this->input->get('edit')) AND ($reply = ORM::factory('reply') ->where(array('debate_id' => $id, 'user_id' => $this->user->id)) ->find($rid))) { $form = $errors = array ( 'body' => '', 'choice_id' => '', 'add' => '' ); // autocomplete the form $form = arr::overwrite($form, $reply->as_array()); if ($post = $this->input->post()) { // validate and insert the reply if ($reply->edit($post, TRUE)) { url::redirect(url::current()); } $form = arr::overwrite($form, $post->as_array()); $errors = arr::overwrite($errors, $post->errors('reply_errors')); } } else { // user already replied $reason = 3; } } else { // user started the debate $reason = 2; } } else { // user is not logged in. $reason = 1; } $limits = Kohana::config('app/debate.limits'); $page = (int) $this->input->get('page', 1); $offset = ($page > 0) ? ($page - 1) * $limits['replies'] : 0; $replies = ORM::factory('reply')->with('user')->with('choice')->where('replies.debate_id', $id); $this->template->title = $debate->topic; $this->template->debate = $debate; $this->template->body = View::factory('debate/view') ->set('debate', $debate) ->set('replies', $replies->find_all($limits['replies'], $offset)) ->set('pagination', Pagination::factory(array ( 'style' => 'digg', 'items_per_page' => $limits['replies'], 'query_string' => 'page', 'auto_hide' => TRUE, 'total_items' => $total = $replies->count_last_query() )) ) ->set('total', $total); // are we showing the add reply form? if (isset($form, $errors)) { $this->template->body->add_reply_form = View::factory('reply/add_reply_form') ->set('debate', $debate) ->set('form', $form) ->set('errors', $errors); } else { $this->template->body->reason = $reason; } } Heres the view, theres some logic in here that determines what message to show the user. <!-- Add Reply Form --> <?php if (isset($add_reply_form)): ?> <?php echo $add_reply_form; ?> <?php else: ?> <?php switch ($reason) { case 1 : // not logged in, show a message $message = 'Add your ' . html::anchor('login?url=' . url::current(TRUE), '<b>vote</b>') . ' to this discussion'; break; case 2 : // started the debate. dont show a message for that. $message = NULL; break; case 3: // already replied, show a message $message = 'You have already replied to this debate'; break; default: // unknown reason. dont show a message $message = NULL; break; } ?> <?php echo app::show_message($message, 'h2'); ?> <?php endif; ?> <!-- End Add Reply Form --> Should I refactor the add reply logic into another function or something.... It all works, it just seems real sloppy. Thanks

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  • Has the recent version of subversion dealt with "Access Denied" errors from windows services that mo

    - by Eric LaForce
    Does anyone know if this subversion "bug" has been dealt with? https://svn.apache.org/repos/asf/subversion/tags/1.6.9/www/faq.html#windows-access-denied I'm getting occasional "Access Denied" errors on Windows. They seem to happen at random. Why? These appear to be due to the various Windows services that monitor the filesystem for changes (anti-virus software, indexing services, the COM+ Event Notification Service). This is not really a bug in Subversion, which makes it difficult for us to fix. A summary of the current state of the investigation is available here. A workaround that should reduce the incidence rate for most people was implemented in revision 7598; if you have an earlier version, please update to the latest release. Currently I am experiencing this same behavior in version 1.5.6 when I try and do a SVN switch (I have suspected McAfee as the culprit for a while and when I saw this I feel it validates my suspicions). I read through the link given but it seems pretty old, so I didn't know if this FAQ was just outdated and the issue has actually be resolved. Thanks for any help. Configuration: SVN 1.5.6 TortoiseSVN 1.5.9 Build 15518 Windows XP SP3 32-bit

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  • certificate issues running app in windows 7 ?

    - by Jurjen
    Hi, I'm having some problems with my App. I'm using 'org.mentalis.security' assembly to create a certificate object from a 'pfx' file, this is the line of code where the exception occurs : Certificate cert = Certificate.CreateFromPfxFile(publicKey, certificatePassword); this has always worked and still does in production, but for some reason it throws an exception when run in windows 7 (tried it on 2 machines). CertificateException : Unable to import the PFX file! [error code = -2146893792] I can't find much on this message via google, but when checking the EventViewer I get an 'Audit Failure' every time this exception occurs: Event ID = 5061 Source = Microsoft Windows Security Task Category = system Integrity Keywords = Audit Failure Cryptographic operation. Subject: Security ID: NT AUTHORITY\IUSR Account Name: IUSR Account Domain: NT AUTHORITY Logon ID: 0x3e3 Cryptographic Parameters: Provider Name: Microsoft Software Key Storage Provider Algorithm Name: Not Available. Key Name: VriendelijkeNaam Key Type: User key. Cryptographic Operation: Operation: Open Key. Return Code: 0x2 ` I'm not sure why this isn't working on win 7, I've never had problems when I was running on Vista with this. I am running VS2008 as administrator but I guess that maybe the ASP.NET user doesn't have sufficient rights or something. It's pretty strangs that the 'Algorithm name' is 'Not Available' can anyone help me with this... TIA, Jurjen de Groot

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  • How do I make a jQuery POST function open the new page?

    - by ciclistadan
    I know that a submit button in HTML can submit a form which opens the target page, but how do I cause a jQuery ajax call POST information to a new page and display the new page. I am submitting information that is gathered by clicking elements (which toggle a new class) and then all items with this new class are added to an array and POSTed to a new page. I can get it to POST the data but it seems to be working functioning in an ajax non-refreshing manner, not submitting the page and redirecting to the new page. how might I go about doing this? here's the script section: //onload function $(function() { //toggles items to mark them for purchase //add event handler for selecting items $(".line").click(function() { //get the lines item number var item = $(this).toggleClass("select").attr("name"); }); $('#process').click(function() { var items = []; //place selected numbers in a string $('.line.select').each(function(index){ items.push($(this).attr('name')); }); $.ajax({ type: 'POST', url: 'additem.php', data: 'items='+items, success: function(){ $('#menu').hide(function(){ $('#success').fadeIn(); }); } }); }); return false; }); any pointers would be great!! thanks

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  • batch file to merge .js files from subfolders into one combined file

    - by Andrew Johns
    I'm struggling to get this to work. Plenty of examples on the web, but they all do something just slightly different to what I'm aiming to do, and every time I think I can solve it, I get hit by an error that means nothing to me. After giving up on the JSLint.VS plugin, I'm attempting to create a batch file that I can call from a Visual Studio build event, or perhaps from cruise control, which will generate JSLint warnings for a project. The final goal is to get a combined js file that I can pass to jslint, using: cscript jslint.js < tmp.js which would validate that my scripts are ready to be combined into one file for use in a js minifier, or output a bunch of errors using standard output. but the js files that would make up tmp.js are likely to be in multiple subfolders in the project, e.g: D:\_projects\trunk\web\projectname\js\somefile.debug.js D:\_projects\trunk\web\projectname\js\jquery\plugins\jquery.plugin.js The ideal solution would be to be able to call a batch file along the lines of: jslint.bat %ProjectPath% and this would then combine all the js files within the project into one temp js file. This way I would have flexibility in which project was being passed to the batch file. I've been trying to make this work with copy, xcopy, type, and echo, and using a for do loop, with dir /s etc, to make it do what I want, but whatever I try I get an error.

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  • Character Encoding: â??

    - by akaphenom
    I am trying to piece together the mysterious string of characters â?? I am seeing quite a bit of in our database - I am fairly sure this is a result of conversion between character encodings, but I am not completely positive. The users are able to enter text (or cut and paste) into a Ext-Js rich text editor. The data is posted to a severlet which persists it to the database, and when I view it in the database i see those strange characters... is there any way to decode these back to their original meaning, if I was able to discover the correct encoding - or is there a loss of bits or bytes that has occured through the conversion process? Users are cutting and pasting from multiple versions of MS Word and PDF. Does the encoding follow where the user copied from? Thank you website is UTF-8 We are using ms sql server 2005; SELECT serverproperty('Collation') -- Server default collation. Latin1_General_CI_AS SELECT databasepropertyex('xxxx', 'Collation') -- Database default SQL_Latin1_General_CP1_CI_AS and the column: Column_name Type Computed Length Prec Scale Nullable TrimTrailingBlanks FixedLenNullInSource Collation text varchar no -1 yes no yes SQL_Latin1_General_CP1_CI_AS The non-Unicode equivalents of the nchar, nvarchar, and ntext data types in SQL Server 2000 are listed below. When Unicode data is inserted into one of these non-Unicode data type columns through a command string (otherwise known as a "language event"), SQL Server converts the data to the data type using the code page associated with the collation of the column. When a character cannot be represented on a code page, it is replaced by a question mark (?), indicating the data has been lost. Appearance of unexpected characters or question marks in your data indicates your data has been converted from Unicode to non-Unicode at some layer, and this conversion resulted in lost characters. So this may be the root cause of the problem... and not an easy one to solve on our end.

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  • Using Sendkeys in python to press {F12} results in other keys pressed?

    - by ThantiK
    import time from ctypes import * import win32gui import win32com.client as comclt X = 119 Y = 53 def PILColorToRGB(pil_color): """ convert a PIL-compatible integer into an (r, g, b) tuple """ hexstr = '%06x' % pil_color # reverse byte order r, g, b = hexstr[4:], hexstr[2:4], hexstr[:2] r, g, b = [int(n, 16) for n in (r, g, b)] return (r, g, b) wsh = comclt.Dispatch("WScript.Shell") w = win32gui user = windll.LoadLibrary("c:\\windows\\system32\\user32.dll") h = user.GetDC(0) gdi = windll.LoadLibrary("c:\\windows\\system32\\gdi32.dll") while True: FG = w.GetWindowText(w.GetForegroundWindow()) #FG = Foreground window title. if FG == "World of Warcraft": rgb = (PILColorToRGB(gdi.GetPixel(h,X,Y))) #X, Y time.sleep(0.333) #don't check too often. if (rgb[0] >= 130): #While Pixel (X, Y) is Red... #print "%d %d %d" % (rgb[0], rgb[1], rgb[2]) #Debug wsh.SendKeys("{F12}") #Send a key. time.sleep(0.7) #Add some extra down-time if we send the key. else: time.sleep(5) Basically all this code does is read a pixel on the screen, and send a key (F12) if the pixel is red. But when using this code I regularly get some phantom key-code being pressed. The application I'm using this on is obviously world of warcraft, and I have checked that all keybinds are standard keybinds. However randomly it seems I get either an up arrow, or a w pressed, which moves my character forward whenever this code executes (F12 is bound to a macro, unbound from any movement. If I press f12 with a hardware event, it does not exhibit this behavior. What in the world could be going on here?

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  • AVAudioPlayer making noise when playing multiple sounds at the same time

    - by Rob
    I am having an issue where AVAudioPlayer is introducing noise into playback ONLY when I play multiple sound files at the same time. If I play them each individually, they all sound perfect. But, if I play sound clip B while sound clip A is still playing, the speakers start crackling like there is noise. I have tried both m4a files AND caf files and both make the same noise, so it has to be something with how I am implementing this method or a quirk with AVAudioPlayer. Any insights? code I am using: UITouch* touch = [[event allTouches] anyObject]; NSString* filename = [soundArray objectAtIndex:[touch view].tag]; NSString *path = [[NSBundle mainBundle] pathForResource:filename ofType:@"m4a"]; AVAudioPlayer * newAudio=[[AVAudioPlayer alloc] initWithContentsOfURL:[NSURL fileURLWithPath:path] error:NULL]; self.theAudio = newAudio; // automatically retain audio and dealloc old file if new m4a file is loaded [newAudio release]; // release the audio safely theAudio.delegate = self; [theAudio prepareToPlay]; [theAudio setNumberOfLoops:0]; [theAudio setVolume: volumeLevel]; [theAudio play];

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  • How to eliminate Unhandled Exception dialog produced by 3rd party application

    - by Tappen
    I'm working with a 3rd party executable that I can't recompile (vendor is no longer available). It was originally written under .Net 1.1 but seems to work fine under later versions as well. I launch it using Process.Start from my own application (I've tried p/invoke CreateProcess as well with the same results so that's not relevant) Unfortunately this 3rd party app now throws an unhandled exception as it exits. The Microsoft dialog box has a title like "Exception thrown from v2.0 ... Broadcast Window" with the version number relating to the version of .Net it's running under (I can use a .exe.config file to target different .Net versions, doesn't help). The unhandled exception dialog box on exit doesn't cause any real problems, but is troubling to my users who have to click OK to dismiss it every time. Is there any way (a config file option perhaps) to disable this dialog from showing for an app I don't have the source code to? I've considered loading it in a new AppDomain which would give me access to the UnhandledException event but there's no indication I could change the appearence of the dialog. Maybe someone knows what causes the exception and I can fix this some other way?

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  • Using jQuery to grab the content from CKEditor's iframe

    - by miCRoSCoPiC_eaRthLinG
    Hey guys, I have this custom written CMS that uses CKEditor *(FCKEditor v3) for editing content. Along with that I'm using the jQuery Validation plugin to check all fields for error prior to ajax-based submission. For passing on the data to the PHP backend, I'm using the serialize() function. Problem is, serialize manages to grab all other fields correctly, except for the actual content typed in CKEditor. Like every other WYSIWYG editor, this one too overlays an iframe over an existing textbox. And serialize ignores the iframe and looks only into the textbox for content... which of course, it doesn't find - thus returning a blank content body. My approach to this is to create a hook onto the onchange event of CKEditor and concurrently update the textbox (CKEDITOR.instances.[textboxname].getData() returns the content) or some other hidden field with any changes made in the editor. However, since CKEditor is still in it's beta stage and severely lacks documentation, I cannot seem to find a suitable API call that'll enable me to do so. Does anyone have any idea on how to go about this? Or maybe suggest even a better method?

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  • Uploadify and rails 3 authenticity tokens

    - by Ceilingfish
    Hi chaps, I'm trying to get a file upload progress bar working in a rails 3 app using uploadify (http://www.uploadify.com) and I'm stuck at authenticity tokens. My current uploadify config looks like <script type="text/javascript" charset="utf-8"> $(document).ready(function() { $("#zip_input").uploadify({ 'uploader': '/flash/uploadify.swf', 'script': $("#upload").attr('action'), 'scriptData': { 'format': 'json', 'authenticity_token': encodeURIComponent('<%= form_authenticity_token if protect_against_forgery? %>') }, 'fileDataName': "world[zip]", //'scriptAccess': 'always', // Incomment this, if for some reason it doesn't work 'auto': true, 'fileDesc': 'Zip files only', 'fileExt': '*.zip', 'width': 120, 'height': 24, 'cancelImg': '/images/cancel.png', 'onComplete': function(event, data) { $.getScript(location.href) }, // We assume that we can refresh the list by doing a js get on the current page 'displayData': 'speed' }); }); </script> But I am getting this response from rails: Started POST "/worlds" for 127.0.0.1 at 2010-04-22 12:39:44 ActionController::InvalidAuthenticityToken (ActionController::InvalidAuthenticityToken): Rendered /opt/local/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/actionpack-3.0.0.beta3/lib/action_dispatch/middleware/templates/rescues/_trace.erb (1.0ms) Rendered /opt/local/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/actionpack-3.0.0.beta3/lib/action_dispatch/middleware/templates/rescues/_request_and_response.erb (6.6ms) Rendered /opt/local/lib/ruby/gems/1.8/gems/actionpack-3.0.0.beta3/lib/action_dispatch/middleware/templates/rescues/diagnostics.erb within rescues/layout (12.2ms) This appears to be because I'm not sending the authentication cookie along with the request. Does anyone know how I can get the values I should be sending there, and how I can make rails read it from HTTP POST rather than trying to find it as a cookie?

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  • .NET Process.Kill() in a safe way

    - by Orborde
    I'm controlling a creaky old FORTRAN simulator from a VB.NET GUI, using redirected I/O to communicate with the simulator executable. The GUI pops up a "status" window with a progress bar, estimated time, and a "STOP" button (Button_Stop). Now, I want the Button_Stop to terminate the simulator process immediately. The obvious way to do this is to call Kill() on the Child Process object. This gives an exception if it's done after the process has exited, but I can test whether the process is exited before trying to kill it, right? OK, so I do the following when the button is clicked: If Not Child.HasExited Then Child.Kill() Button_Stop.Enabled = False End If However, what if the process happens to exit between the test and the call to Kill()? In that case, I get an exception. The next thing to occur to me was that I can do Button_Stop.Enabled = False in the Process.Exited event handler, and thus prevent the Child.Kill() call in the Button_Stop.Clicked handler. But since the Process.Exited handler is called on a different thread, that still leaves the following possible interleaving: Child process exits. Process.Exited fires, calls Invoke to schedule the Button_Stop.Enabled = False User clicks on Button_Stop, triggering Child.Kill() Button_Stop.Enabled = False actually happens. An exception would then be thrown on step 3. How do I kill the process without any race conditions? Am I thinking about this entirely wrong?

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  • jqModal/JQuery problem, div not updating with new content?

    - by echoesofspring
    I'm hoping someone can point a relative jQuery/jqModal newbie in the right direction for debugging this error. I'm loading an html fragment into a div and then use jqModal to display that div as a modal dialog. The problem is that the div is displayed but not with my updated html. I'm showing my jqModal dialog in the response from a jquery call, function foo is called from an onclick event: function foo(url) { $.ajax({ type: "GET", url: url, success: function(msg) { $('#ajaxmodal').html(msg); $('#ajaxmodal').jqmShow(); } }); } ajaxmodal is a simple div. Initially I thought the problem must be in the html snippet (msg) I'm passing to the callback, but I don't think that's it, I get the err (see below) even when I comment out the $('#ajaxmodal').html(msg) line or pass it hardcode html. I think I have jqModal configured correctly, other calls using our ajaxmodal div work correctly, I'm able to display the modal, update the content based the server response, etc. When I try to debug in firebug, I get the following error following the call to .jqmShow(). I have seen the err on occasion in other places when it seemed maybe the page hadn't loaded yet, and I confess I'm confused about that, since we've wrapped our jqModal selectors in a $(document).ready() call, so maybe I have a larger issue that this call just happens to trigger? From the jquery.jqModal.js file, line 64: js err is $(':input:visible',h.w)[0] is undefined in the line: f=function(h){try{$(':input:visible',h.w)[0].focus();}catch(_){}} When I step through this in firefox, h.w[0] seems ok, it references our '#ajaxmodal' div. Thanks in advance for any suggestions in tracking this down?

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  • Why I cannot get correct class of a custom class through isKindOfClass?

    - by Anthony Chan
    Hi, I've created a custom class AnimalView which is a subclass of UIView containing a UILabel and a UIImageView. @interface AnimalView : UIView { UILabel *nameLabel; UIImageView *picture; } Then I added in several AnimalView onto the ViewController.view. In the touchesBegan:withEvent: method, I wanted to detect if the touched object is an AnimalView or not. Here is the code for the viewController: @implementation AppViewController - (void)viewDidLoad { UIScrollView *scrollView = [[UIScrollView alloc] initWithFrame:... [self.view addSubview scrollview]; for (int i = 0; i<10; i++) { AnimalView *newAnimal = [[AnimalView alloc] init]; // customization of newAnimal [scrollview addSubview:newAnimal; } } - (void)touchesBegan:(NSSet *)touches withEvent:(UIEvent *)event { UITouch *touch = [touches anyObject]; UIView *hitView = touch.view; if ([hitView isKindOfClass:[AnimalView class]]) { AnimalView *animal = (AnimalView *)hitView; [animal doSomething]; } } However, nothing happened when I clicked on the animal. When I checked the class of hitView by NSLog(@"%@", [hitView class]), it always shows UIView instead of AnimalView. Is it true that the AnimalView changed to a UIView when it is added onto the ViewController? Is there any way I can get back the original class of a custom class?

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  • Ruby / Rails - How to aggregate a Query Results in an Array?

    - by AnApprentice
    Hello, I have a large data set that I want to clean up for the user. The data set from the DB looks something like this: ID | project_id | thread_id | action_type |description 1 | 10 | 30 | comment | yada yada yada yada yada 1 | 10 | 30 | comment | xxx 1 | 10 | 30 | comment | yada 313133 1 | 10 | 33 | comment | fdsdfsdfsdfsdfs 1 | 10 | 33 | comment | yada yada yada yada yada 1 | 10 | | attachment | fddgaasddsadasdsadsa 1 | 10 | | attachment | xcvcvxcvxcvxxcvcvxxcv Right now, when I output the above in my view its in the very same order as above, problem is it is very repetitive. For example, for project_id 10 & thread_id 30 you see: 10 - 30 - yada yada yada yada yada 10 - 30 - xxxxx 10 - 30 - yada yada yada yada yada What I would like to learn how to do in ruby, is some how create an array and aggreate descriptions under a project_id and thread_id, so instead the output is: 10 - 30 - yada yada yada yada yada - xxxxx - yada yada yada yada yada Any advice on where to get started? This requirement is new for me so I would appreciate your thoughts on what you're thinking the best way to solve this is.Hopefully this can be done in ruby and not sql, as the activity feed is likely going to grow in event types and complexity. Thanks

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  • Binding to WPF ViewModel properties

    - by MartinHN
    I'm just playing around with WPF and MVVM, and I have made a simple app that displays a Rectangle that changes color whenever Network availability changes. But when that happens, I get this error: Cannot use a DependencyObject that belongs to a different thread than its parent Freezable. Code XAML <Window x:Class="WpfApplication1.Window1" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" Title="Window1" Height="400" Width="600"> <DockPanel LastChildFill="True"> <Rectangle x:Name="networkStatusRectangle" Width="200" Height="200" Fill="{Binding NetworkStatusColor}" /> </DockPanel> </Window> Code-behind using System.Windows; using WpfApplication1.ViewModels; namespace WpfApplication1 { /// <summary> /// Interaction logic for Window1.xaml /// </summary> public partial class Window1 : Window { public Window1() { InitializeComponent(); DataContext = new NetworkViewModel(); } } } ViewModel using System.ComponentModel; using System.Net.NetworkInformation; using System.Windows.Media; namespace WpfApplication1.ViewModels { public class NetworkViewModel : INotifyPropertyChanged { private Brush _NetworkStatusColor; public Brush NetworkStatusColor { get { return _NetworkStatusColor; } set { _NetworkStatusColor = value; NotifyOfPropertyChange("NetworkStatusColor"); } } public NetworkViewModel() { NetworkChange.NetworkAvailabilityChanged += new NetworkAvailabilityChangedEventHandler(NetworkChange_NetworkAvailabilityChanged); } protected void NetworkChange_NetworkAvailabilityChanged(object sender, NetworkAvailabilityEventArgs e) { if (e.IsAvailable) { this.NetworkStatusColor = new SolidColorBrush(Colors.Green); } else { this.NetworkStatusColor = new SolidColorBrush(Colors.Red); } } public event PropertyChangedEventHandler PropertyChanged = delegate { }; public void NotifyOfPropertyChange(string propertyName) { PropertyChanged(this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs(propertyName)); } } } I assume that I should change the NetworkStatusColor property by invoking something?

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  • Overlay just a part of an external page with jquery

    - by rolando
    Hi, How can i load a part of an external page with jquery overlay? I have an aspx call TipoFactor.aspx wich has a div inside a contentplaceholder like this: <asp:Content ID="Content2" ContentPlaceHolderID="ContentPlaceHolder1" runat="Server"> <asp:UpdatePanel ID="UpdatePanel1" runat="server"> <ContentTemplate> <br /> <div id="DivGeneral" runat="server" class="tablaPaddingFiveCeleste"> as you can see the "DivGeneral" is the one i want to load into the overlay, wich is defined like this: <a href="TipoFactorSeleccion.aspx" rel="#overlay"> <button type="button"> Pagina Externa</button> </a> <!-- overlayed element --> <div class="apple_overlay" id="overlay"> <!-- the external content is loaded inside this tag --> <div class="contentWrap"> </div> </div> <script type="text/javascript"> $(function() { // if the function argument is given to overlay, // it is assumed to be the onBeforeLoad event listener $("a[rel]").overlay({ expose: 'darkred', effect: 'apple', onBeforeLoad: function() { // grab wrapper element inside content var wrap = this.getContent().find(".contentWrap"); // load the page specified in the trigger wrap.load(this.getTrigger().attr("href")); } }); }); </script> As it is now its loading the entire page into the overlay and that's not good for me cause it inherites from the same masterpage as the other. I need to keep that masterpage because it has some important aplication functionality. What can I do ? Thank you very much.

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  • gridview whith dropdown extender

    - by Wafaa
    hello, I have gridview with TextBox Template field and DropDownExtender so when user click on the textbox another gridview will appear tha contain List of items and button to add the item to the first gridview. my qusetion is: how can i in the event of button click(which is in the extender gridview) to get the row index of the first gridview(which contain the textbox)? thanks <cc1:DropDownExtender ID="uxItemExtender" runat="server" DropDownControlID="uxItemContainer" TargetControlID="uxItems"></cc1:DropDownExtender> <asp:Panel BackColor="AliceBlue" ID="uxItemContainer" runat="server" ScrollBars="Both" Height="400" Width="200"> <asp:GridView ID="uxItemsView" runat="server" Font-Size="Small" AutoGenerateColumns="false" OnRowDataBound="uxItemsView_RowDataBound"> <Columns> <asp:TemplateField HeaderText="Item Details"> <ItemTemplate> <asp:Label ID="uxItemNameLbl" Text="Name :" runat="server"></asp:Label> <asp:Label ID="uxItemName" runat="server"></asp:Label><br /> <asp:Label ID="uxItemDescriptionLbl" Text="Description :" runat="server"></asp:Label> <asp:Label ID="uxItemDescription" runat="server"></asp:Label><br /> <asp:Label ID="uxItemPriceLbl" Text="Price :" runat="server"></asp:Label> <asp:Label ID="uxItemPrice" runat="server"></asp:Label><br /> <asp:Button ID="uxSelectItem" runat="server" Text="Add Item" OnClick="uxSelectItem_Click" /><br /> </ItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField> <asp:TemplateField HeaderText="Picture"> <ItemTemplate> <asp:Image ID="uxItemImage" runat="server" Width="45" Height="50" /> </ItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField> </Columns> </asp:GridView> </asp:Panel> </asp:TemplateField>

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  • Calling server side method as filling value inside a textbox from calendar extender

    - by Dharmendra Singh
    I have a text box which i m filling of date from the calendar extender and the code is as below:- <label for="input-one" class="float"><strong>Date</strong></label><br /> <asp:TextBox ID="txtDate" runat="server" CssClass="inp-text" Enabled="false" AutoPostBack="true" Width="300px" ontextchanged="txtDate_TextChanged"></asp:TextBox> <asp:ImageButton ID="btnDate2" runat="server" AlternateText="cal2" ImageUrl="~/App_Themes/Images/icon_calendar.jpg" style="margin-top:auto;" CausesValidation="false" onclick="btnDate2_Click" /> <ajaxToolkit:CalendarExtender ID="calExtender2" runat="server" Format="dddd, MMMM dd, yyyy" OnClientDateSelectionChanged="CheckDateEalier" PopupButtonID="btnDate2" TargetControlID="txtDate" /> <asp:RequiredFieldValidator ID="RequiredFieldValidator7" runat="server" ControlToValidate="txtDate" ErrorMessage="Select a Date" Font-Bold="True" Font-Size="X-Small" ForeColor="Red"></asp:RequiredFieldValidator><br /> Javascript code is :- function CheckDateEalier(sender, args) { sender._textbox.set_Value(sender._selectedDate.format(sender._format)) } My requirement is that as the date is entered in to the textbox, I want to call this method: public void TimeSpentDisplay() { string date = txtDate.Text.ToString(); DateTime dateparsed = DateTime.ParseExact(date, "dddd, MMMM dd, yyyy", null); DateTime currentDate = System.DateTime.Now; if (dateparsed.Date > currentDate.Date) { divtimeSpent.Visible = true; } if (dateparsed.Date < currentDate.Date) { divtimeSpent.Visible = true; } if (dateparsed.Date == currentDate.Date) { divtimeSpent.Visible = false; } } Please help me that how i achieve this as i m calling this method inside txtDate_TextChanged method but the event is not firing as the text is changed inside the textbox. Please suggest how I can achieve this or give me an alternate idea to fulfill my requirement.

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  • Detecting browser capabilities and selective events for mouse and touch

    - by skidding
    I started using touch events for a while now, but I just stumbled upon quite a problem. Until now, I checked if touch capabilities are supported, and applied selective events based on that. Like this: if(document.ontouchmove === undefined){ //apply mouse events }else{ //apply touch events } However, my scripts stopped working in Chrome5 (which is currently beta) on my computer. I researched it a bit, and as I expected, in Chrome5 (as opposed to older Chrome, Firefox, IE, etc.) document.ontouchmove is no longer undefined but null. At first I wanted to submit a bug report, but then I realized: There are devices that have both mouse and touch capabilities, so that might be natural, maybe Chrome now defines it because my OS might support both types of events. So the solutions seems easy: Apply BOTH event types. Right? Well the problem now take place on mobile. In order to be backward compatible and support scripts that only use mouse events, mobile browsers might try to fire them as well (on touch). So then with both mouse and touch events set, a certain handler might be called twice every time. What is the way to approach this? Is there a better way to check and apply selective events, or must I ignore the problems that might occur if browsers fire both touch and mouse events at times?

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  • How do you handle key down events on Android? I am having issues making it work.

    - by user279112
    For an Android program, I am having trouble handling key down and key up events, and the problem I am having with them can almost certainly be generalized to any sort of user input event. I am using Lunar Lander as one of my main learning devices as I make my first meaningful program, and I noticed that it was using onKeyDown as an overridden method to receive key down events, and it would call one of their more original methods doKeyDown. But when I tried to implement a very small version of my own onKeyDown overide and the actual handler that it calls, it didn't work. I would probably copy and paste my implementations of those two methods, but that doesn't seem to be the problem. You see, I ran the debugger and noticed that they were not getting called - at all. The same goes for my implementations of onKeyUp and the handler that it calls. Something is a little weird here, and when I tried to look at the Android documentation for it, that didn't help at all. I thought that if you had an overide for onKeyDown, then when a key was pressed during execution of the program, onKeyDown would be called as soon as reasonably possible. End of story. But apparently there's something more to it. Apparently you have to do something else somewhere - possibly in the XML when defining the layout or something - to make it work. But I do not know what, and I could not find what in their documentation. What's the secret to this? Thanks!

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  • presentModalViewController does not want to work when called from a protocol method

    - by johnbdh
    I have a subview that when double tapped a protocol method on the subview's parent view controller is called like this... - (void)touchesEnded:(NSSet *)touches withEvent:(UIEvent *)event { UITouch *theTouch = [touches anyObject]; if (theTouch.tapCount == 1) { } else if (theTouch.tapCount == 2) { if ([self.delegate respondsToSelector:@selector(editEvent:)]) { [self.delegate editEvent:dictionary]; } } } Here is the protocol method with the dictionary consuming code removed... - (void)editEvent:(NSDictionary){ EventEditViewController *eventEditViewController = [[EventEditViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"EventEditViewController" bundle:nil]; eventEditViewController.delegate = self; navigationController = [[UINavigationController alloc] initWithRootViewController:eventEditViewController]; [self presentModalViewController:navigationController animated:YES]; [eventEditViewController release]; } The protocol method is called and runs without any errors but the modal view does not present itself. I temporarily copied the protocol method's code to an IBAction method for one of the parent's view button's to isolate it from the subview. When I tap this button the modal view works fine. Can anyone tell me what I am doing wrong? Why does it work when executed from a button on the parent view, and not from a protocol method called from a subview. Here is what I have tried so far to work around the problem... Restarted xCode and the simulator Ran on the device (iTouch) Presenting eventEditViewController instead of navigationController Using Push instead of presentModal. delaying the call to the protocol with performSelector directly to the protocol, to another method in the subview which calls the protocol method, from the protocol method to another method with the presentModal calls. Using a timer. I have it currently setup so that the protocol method calls a known working method that presents a different view. Before calling presentModalViewController it pops a UIAlertView which works every time, but the modal view refuses to display when called via the protocol method. I'm stumped. Perhaps it has something to do with the fact that I am calling the protocol method from a UIView class instead of a UIViewController class. Maybe I need to create a UIViewController for the subView?? Thanks, John

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  • Getting browser to make an AJAX call ASAP, while page is still loading

    - by Chris
    I'm looking for tips on how to get the browser to kick off an AJAX call as soon as possible into processing a web page, ideally before the page is fully downloaded. Here's my approximate motivation: I have a web page that takes, say, 5 seconds to load. It calls a web service that takes, say, 10 seconds to load. If loading the page and calling the web service happened sequentially, the user would have to wait 15 seconds to see all the information. However, if I can get the web service call started before the 5 second page load is complete, then at least some of the work can happened in parallel. Ideally I'd like as much of the work to happen in parallel as possible. My initial theory was that I should place the AJAX-calling javascript as high up as possible in the web page HTML source (being mindful of putting it after the jquery.js include, because I'm making the call using jquery ajax). I'm also being mindful not to wrap the AJAX call in a jquery ready event handler. (I mention this because ready events are popular in a lot of jquery example code.) However, the AJAX call still doesn't seem to get kicked off as early as I'm hoping (at least as judged by the Google Chrome "Timeline" feature), so I'm wondering what other considerations apply. One thing that might potentially be detrimental is that the AJAX call is back to the same web server that's serving the original web page, so I might be in danger of hitting a browser limit on the # of HTTP connections back to that one machine? (The HTML page loads a number of images, css files, etc..)

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