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• Formatted text encoding in binary plist

  - by Sean

  I'm trying to do some scripting that edits a binary plist file. The plist describes the objects contained in a DVD studio pro file. It appears that a text box in DVD studio pro is encoded in the plist as hex data that describes the text string along with its formatting. I can't seem to figure out how to understand this data. Ideally, I'd like to be able to alter the text string but not the formatting. The following seems to describe a text box that says "Menu title here". There are two hex strings, one with the key called "dictionary" and the other called "string"; both are CFData. Any ideas how I can parse this or convert this into a format that I can edit directly? I've been playing around with writing a little converter in cocoa, but no luck yet. <dict> <key>Dictionary</key> <data> BAtzdHJlYW10 eXBlZIHoA4QB QISEhAxOU0Rp Y3Rpb25hcnkA hIQITlNPYmpl Y3QAhYQBaQaS hISECE5TU3Ry aW5nAZSEASsG TlNGb250hpKE hIQGTlNGb250 HpSVJIQFWzM2 Y10GAAAAGgAA AP/+TAB1AGMA aQBkAGEARwBy AGEAbgBkAGUA AACEAWYVhAFj AJsBmwCbAIaS hJaXB05TQ29s b3KGkoSEhAdO U0NvbG9yAJSb AYQEZmZmZoPz 8nI/g/Dvbz+D 7OtrPwGGkoSW lwtOU0V4cGFu c2lvboaShISE CE5TTnVtYmVy AISEB05TVmFs dWUAlIQBKoSa moNHx9c9hpKE lpcNTlNPYmxp cXVlbmVzc4aS hJ6ghIQBZKEA hpKElpcQTlNQ YXJhZ3JhcGhT dHlsZYaShISE EE5TUGFyYWdy YXBoU3R5bGUA lIQEQ0NAUwAA hQCGkoSWlxFO U0JhY2tncm91 bmRDb2xvcoaS hJubA4QCZmYA AIaG </data> <key>String</key> <data> BAtzdHJlYW10 eXBlZIHoA4QB QISEhBJOU0F0 dHJpYnV0ZWRT dHJpbmcAhIQI TlNPYmplY3QA hZKEhIQITlNT dHJpbmcBlIQB Kw9OZW51IFRp dGxlIEhlcmWG hAJpSQEPkoSE hAxOU0RpY3Rp b25hcnkAlIQB aQWShJaWDU5T T2JsaXF1ZW5l c3OGkoSEhAhO U051bWJlcgCE hAdOU1ZhbHVl AJSEASqEhAFk nQCGkoSWlgtO U0V4cGFuc2lv boaShJuchIQB Zp6DR8fXPYaS hJaWEE5TUGFy YWdyYXBoU3R5 bGWGkoSEhBBO U1BhcmFncmFw aFN0eWxlAJSE BENDQFMAAIUA hpKElpYGTlNG b250hpKEhIQG TlNGb250HpSZ JIQFWzM2Y10G AAAAGgAAAP/+ TAB1AGMAaQBk AGEARwByAGEA bgBkAGUAAACe FYQBYwCjAaMA owCGkoSWlgdO U0NvbG9yhpKE hIQHTlNDb2xv cgCUowGEBGZm ZmaD8/JyP4Pw 728/g+zraz8B hoaG </data> </dict>

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• CakePHP: email validate action doesn't work when clicking on the email link

  - by bakerjr

  Hi, We've created the email validation part of our site. We built the site using CakePHP BTW. The problem is that it doesn't work when we click on the link in the email. The email is sent as plain text. A weird thing is that when we paste the link on the address bar, it works. Also when clicking on the link using Gmail and desktop email clients, it works as well. Other email providers doesn't work. EDIT: Additional info: Example link for the validation: http://localhost/users/validate/validatecodeblah12c023 When it's working it should login the user and redirect to the user dashboard. It goes to the front page when it's not working (see description above). Additional info 2: I did compare the results using Live HTTP headers and I found out that the only time it doesn't push through (goes to the login page for some reason) is when there's a 'Referrer: h ttp://mail.yahooblahblah...' Gmail for some reason doesn't have a 'Referer' line in it's headers.

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• Making HTTP POST request

  - by infrared

  I'm trying to make a POST request to retrieve information about a book. Here is the code that returns HTTP code: 302, Moved import httplib, urllib params = urllib.urlencode({ 'isbn' : '9780131185838', 'catalogId' : '10001', 'schoolStoreId' : '15828', 'search' : 'Search' }) headers = {"Content-type": "application/x-www-form-urlencoded", "Accept": "text/plain"} conn = httplib.HTTPConnection("bkstr.com:80") conn.request("POST", "/webapp/wcs/stores/servlet/BuybackSearch", params, headers) response = conn.getresponse() print response.status, response.reason data = response.read() conn.close() When I try from a browser, from this page: http://www.bkstr.com/webapp/wcs/stores/servlet/BuybackMaterialsView?langId=-1&catalogId=10001&storeId=10051&schoolStoreId=15828 , it works. What am I missing in my code? Thanks EDIT: Here's what I get when I call print response.msg 302 Moved Date: Tue, 07 Sep 2010 16:54:29 GMT Vary: Host,Accept-Encoding,User-Agent Location: http://www.bkstr.com/webapp/wcs/stores/servlet/BuybackSearch X-UA-Compatible: IE=EmulateIE7 Content-Length: 0 Content-Type: text/plain; charset=utf-8 Seems that the location points to the same url I'm trying to access in the first place? EDIT2: I've tried using urllib2 as suggested here. Here is the code: import urllib, urllib2 url = 'http://www.bkstr.com/webapp/wcs/stores/servlet/BuybackSearch' values = {'isbn' : '9780131185838', 'catalogId' : '10001', 'schoolStoreId' : '15828', 'search' : 'Search' } data = urllib.urlencode(values) req = urllib2.Request(url, data) response = urllib2.urlopen(req) print response.geturl() print response.info() the_page = response.read() print the_page And here is the output: http://www.bkstr.com/webapp/wcs/stores/servlet/BuybackSearch Date: Tue, 07 Sep 2010 16:58:35 GMT Pragma: No-cache Cache-Control: no-cache Expires: Thu, 01 Jan 1970 00:00:00 GMT Set-Cookie: JSESSIONID=0001REjqgX2axkzlR6SvIJlgJkt:1311s25dm; Path=/ Vary: Accept-Encoding,User-Agent X-UA-Compatible: IE=EmulateIE7 Content-Length: 0 Connection: close Content-Type: text/html; charset=utf-8 Content-Language: en-US Set-Cookie: TSde3575=225ec58bcb0fdddfad7332c2816f1f152224db2f71e1b0474c866f3b; Path=/

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• app burns numbers into iPad screens, how can I prevent this?

  - by Andrew Johnson

  EDIT: My code for this is actually open source, if anyone would be able to look and comment. Things I can think of that might be an issue: using a custom font, using bright green, updating the label too fast? The repo is: https://github.com/andrewljohnson/StopWatch-of-Gaia The class for the time label: https://github.com/andrewljohnson/StopWatch-of-Gaia/blob/master/src/SWPTimeLabel.m The class that runs the timer to update the label: https://github.com/andrewljohnson/StopWatch-of-Gaia/blob/master/src/SWPViewController.m ============= My StopWatch app reportedly screen burns a number of iPads, for temporary periods. Does anyone have a suggestion about how I might prevent this screen persistence? Some known workaround to blank the pixels occasionally? I get emails all the time about it, and you can see numerous reviews here: http://itunes.apple.com/us/app/stopwatch+-timer-for-gym-kitchen/id518178439?mt=8 Apple can not advise me. I sent an email to appreview, and I was told to file a technical support request (DTS). When I filled the DTS, they told me it was not a code issue, and when I further asked for help from DTS, a "senior manager" told me that this was not an issue Apple knew about. He further advised me to file a bug with the Apple Radar bug tracker if I considered it to be a real issue. I filed the Radar bug a few weeks ago, but it has not been acknowledged. Updated radar link for Apple employees, per commenter's notes rdar://12173447

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• How to open child forms positioned within MDI parent in VB.NET?

  - by user961627

  How do we arrange child forms in a parent MDI window? I'm able to call and display a child form from a menu on the parent, but the child pops up outside the parent - I want it to actually be inside the parent. I've checked in C# and VB.Net solutions but they all say pretty much the same, i.e. try to access LayoutMDI, such as here: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/x9fhk181.aspx The problem is, where do I access this? When I'm in the code of my MDI parent, Me.LayoutMdi is not recognized. In which part of the application do I put the Me.LayoutMDI code? Edit The Me.LayoutMDI code worked in the parent after all. I'd been trying for a while but don't know where I was going wrong. However, the child continues to pop up out of the parent. Here's an image of how that happens. The broader form in the back is the parent, and the one with the gridview and two buttons is the new child that popped up. I want it to pop up "Docked" within the parent.

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• JLabel not greyed out when disabled, when HTML text displayed

  - by bguiz

  How do I get a JLabel displaying a HTML string to appear greyed out (which is the behaviour of JLabels that don't display HTML text)? Is there another way than actually changing the colour myself by modifying the foreground property? JLabel label1 = new JLabel("Normal text"); JLabel label2 = new JLabel("<html>HTML <b>text</b>"); // Both labels are now black in colour label1.setEnabled(false); label2.setEnabled(false); // label1 is greyed out, label2 is still black in colour Thank you very much for all of your responses. From what I gather, it seems that Java doesn't support automatic greying out of JLabels when they use HTML text. Suraj's solution has come closest to the fix considering the limitations. I have however, tried a different out-of-the box approach, where I have put the HTML text JLabels inside of an inner JPanel and did this: mInnerPanel.setEnabled(shouldShow); //shouldShow is a boolean value Which hasn't worked. Any suggestions for this way? EDIT: Added implemented solution.

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• Calling ASP.NET Web API using JQuery ajax - cross site scripting issue

  - by SimonF

  I have a Web API which I am calling using the JQuery ajax function. When I test the service directly (using the Chrome RESTEasy extension) it works fine, however when I call it using the JQuery ajax function I get an error. I'm calling it on port 81: $.ajax({ url: "http://127.0.0.1:81/api/people", data: JSON.stringify(personToCreate), type: "POST", contentType: "application/json;charset=utf-8", statusCode: { 201: function (newPerson) { callback(newPerson); } }, success: function (newPerson) { alert("New person created with an Id of " + newPerson.Id); }, error: function (jqXHR, textStatus, errorThrown) { alert('Error. '+textStatus+'. '+errorThrown); } }); ...but when I trace it using FireBug Lite the response comes from port 82: {"Message":"No HTTP resource was found that matches the request URI 'http://127.0.0.1:82/api/people'.","MessageDetail":"No action was found on the controller 'People' that matches the request."} I think the error is, effectively, due to cross-site scripting being blocked, but I'm not actually cross-site scripting, if you see what I mean. Has anyone else come across this and been able to fix it? Edit: Routing config (global.asax.vb) is: RouteTable.Routes.MapHttpRoute(name:="DefaultApi", routeTemplate:="api/{controller}/{id}", defaults:=New With {Key .id = System.Web.Http.RouteParameter.Optional}) Controller: Public Function PostValue(ByVal departmentid As Integer, ByVal emailaddress As String, ByVal firstname As String, ByVal lastname As String) As Guid Dim context As New WSMModelDataContext Dim bllPeople As New PeopleBLL(context) Return bllPeople.Create(firstname, lastname, emailaddress, departmentid) End Function When I debug it, it doesn't get as far as running the controller, although when calling it through RESTEasy it routes correctly and the controller executes successfully. The only difference seemes to be that wen called through RESTEasy it is (correctly) using http://127.0.0.1:81 but for some reason when called via JQuery/ajax it seems to be using http://127.0.0.1:82.

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• Aren't Information Expert / Tell Don't Ask at odds with Single Responsibility Principle?

  - by moffdub

  It is probably just me, which is why I'm asking the question. Information Expert, Tell Don't Ask, and SRP are often mentioned together as best practices. But I think they are at odds. Here is what I'm talking about: Code that favors SRP but violates Tell Don't Ask, Info Expert: Customer bob = ...; // TransferObjectFactory has to use Customer's accessors to do its work, // violates Tell Don't Ask CustomerDTO dto = TransferObjectFactory.createFrom(bob); Code that favors Tell Don't Ask / Info Expert but violates SRP: Customer bob = ...; // Now Customer is doing more than just representing the domain concept of Customer, // violates SRP CustomerDTO dto = bob.toDTO(); If they are indeed at odds, that's a vindication of my OCD. Otherwise, please fill me in on how these practices can co-exist peacefully. Thank you. Edit: someone wants a definition of the terms - Information Expert: objects that have the data needed for the operation should host the operation Tell Don't Ask: don't ask objects for data in order to do work; tell the objects to do the work Single Responsibility Principle: each object should have a narrowly defined responsibility

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• Adivce on Method overloads.

  - by Muhammad Kashif Nadeem

  Please see following methods. public static ProductsCollection GetDummyData(int? customerId, int? supplierId) { try { if (customerId != null && customerId > 0) { Filter.Add(Customres.CustomerId == customerId); } if (supplierId != null && supplierId > 0) { Filter.Add(Suppliers.SupplierId == supplierId); } ProductsCollection products = new ProductsCollection(); products.FetchData(Filter); return products; } catch { throw; } } public static ProductsCollection GetDummyData(int? customerId) { return ProductsCollection GetDummyData(customerId, (int?)null); } public static ProductsCollection GetDummyData() { return ProductsCollection GetDummyData((int?)null); } 1- Please advice how can I make overloads for both CustomerId and SupplierId because only one overload can be created with GetDummyData(int? ). Should I add another argument to mention that first argument is CustomerId or SupplierId for example GetDummyData(int?, string). OR should I use enum as 2nd argument and mention that first argument is CustoemId or SupplierId. 2- Is this condition is correct or just checking 0 is sufficient - if (customerId != null && customerId 0) 3- Using Try/catch like this is correct? 4- Passing (int?)null is correct or any other better approach. Edit: I have found some other posts like this and because I have no knowledge of Generics that is why I am facing this problem. Am I right? Following is the post. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/422625/overloaded-method-calling-overloaded-method

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• How can I track down "Template process failed: undef error" in Perl's Template Toolkit?

  - by swisstony

  I've moved a Perl CGI app from one web host to another. Everything's running fine except for Template Tookit which is giving the following error: "Template process failed: undef error - This shouldn't happen at /usr/lib/perl5/5.8.8/CGI/Carp.pm line 314." The templates are working fine on the other web host. I've set the DEBUG_ALL flag when creating the template object, but it doesn't provide any additional info about errors just loads of debug output. I can't post the template source as there's lots of client specific stuff in it. I've written a simple test template and that works okay. Just wondering if anyone had seen this error before or has any ideas on the quickest way to find a fix for it. EDIT: Here's a snippet of the code that loads and processes the template. my $vars = {}; $vars->{page_url} = $page_url; $vars->{info} = $info; $vars->{is_valid} = 0; $vars->{invalid_input} = 0; $vars->{is_warnings} = 0; $vars->{is_invalid_price} = 0; $vars->{output_from_proc} = $proc_output; ... my $file = 'clientTemplate.html'; #create ref to hash use Template::Constants qw( :debug ); my $template = Template->new( { DEBUG => DEBUG_SERVICE | DEBUG_CONTEXT | DEBUG_PROVIDER | DEBUG_PLUGINS | DEBUG_FILTERS | DEBUG_PARSER | DEBUG_DIRS, EVAL_PERL => 1, INCLUDE_PATH => [ '/home/perlstuff/templates', ], } ); $template->process( $file, $vars ) || die "Template process failed: ", $template->error(), "\n";

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• Why would some $_POST variables go missing for a form with PHP?

  - by Chad Johnson

  Sometimes, multiple times a day in fact, users of my web application are submitting a certain form which has about a dozen form fields, half of which are hidden fields, and half of the $_POST data is simply not present in the processing script. Note that the fields that are not present are at the very bottom of the form. I know this because this raises a fatal error, and an email is dispatched to me which includes the post data. And of course, neither I nor any of the developers on my team can reproduce the problem. Flash is involved in the process, as I'm using a library called Uploadify to display a progress meter. Here is the flow...does anyone have ANY ideas at all why some of the post data would be getting wiped out? User visits edit screen for a page in the CMS I am using. Record id for the page is put into a form as a hidden value. User clicks the Uploadify browse button and selects a file (only single file selection is allowed). User clicks Submit button for my form. jQuery intercepts the form submit action, triggers Uploadify to start uploading, and returns false for the submit action (manually cancelling the form submit event so that Uploadify can take over). Uploadify uploads to a custom process script. Uploadify finishes uploading and triggers the Javascript completion callback. The Javascript callback calls $('#myForm').submit() to submit the form. This happens on multiple browsers (Firefox 3.5, 3.6, Safari, Internet Explorer 7, 8) and multiple platforms (Mac OS 10.5, 10.6 and Windows XP, 7).

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• Is There a Time at which to ignore IDisposable.Dispose?

  - by Mystagogue

  Certainly we should call Dipose() on IDisposable objects as soon as we don't need them (which is often merely the scope of a "using" statement). If we don't take that precaution then bad things, from subtle to show-stopping, might happen. But what about "the last moment" before process termination? If your IDisposables have not been explicitly disposed by that point in time, isn't it true that it no longer matters? I ask because unmanaged resources, beneath the CLR, are represented by kernel objects - and the win32 process termination will free all unmanaged resources / kernel objects anyway. Said differently, no resources will remain "leaked" after the process terminates (regardless if Dispose() was called on lingering IDisposables). Can anyone think of a case where process termination would still leave a leaked resource, simply because Dispose() was not explicitly called on one or more IDisposables? Please do not misunderstand this question: I am not trying to justify ignoring IDisposables. The question is just technical-theoretical. EDIT: And what about mono running on Linux? Is process termination there just as "reliable" at cleaning up unmanaged "leaks?"

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• My OpenCL kernel is slower on faster hardware.. But why?

  - by matdumsa

  Hi folks, As I was finishing coding my project for a multicore programming class I came up upon something really weird I wanted to discuss with you. We were asked to create any program that would show significant improvement in being programmed for a multi-core platform. I’ve decided to try and code something on the GPU to try out OpenCL. I’ve chosen the matrix convolution problem since I’m quite familiar with it (I’ve parallelized it before with open_mpi with great speedup for large images). So here it is, I select a large GIF file (2.5 MB) [2816X2112] and I run the sequential version (original code) and I get an average of 15.3 seconds. I then run the new OpenCL version I just wrote on my MBP integrated GeForce 9400M and I get timings of 1.26s in average.. So far so good, it’s a speedup of 12X!! But now I go in my energy saver panel to turn on the “Graphic Performance Mode” That mode turns off the GeForce 9400M and turns on the Geforce 9600M GT my system has. Apple says this card is twice as fast as the integrated one. Guess what, my timing using the kick-ass graphic card are 3.2 seconds in average… My 9600M GT seems to be more than two times slower than the 9400M.. For those of you that are OpenCL inclined, I copy all data to remote buffers before starting, so the actual computation doesn’t require roundtrip to main ram. Also, I let OpenCL determine the optimal local-worksize as I’ve read they’ve done a pretty good implementation at figuring that parameter out.. Anyone has a clue? edit: full source code with makefiles here http://www.mathieusavard.info/convolution.zip cd gimage make cd ../clconvolute make put a large input.gif in clconvolute and run it to see results

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• Why does the Combo.SelectedValue get lost after some time

  - by tzup

  So I have this asp:DropDownList on a page. It renders like this (in IE7): <select name="ctl00$cphFilter$cbLista" onchange="javascript:setTimeout('__doPostBack(\'ctl00$cphFilter$cbLista\',\'\')', 0)" id="ctl00_cphFilter_cbLista" class="agsSelect"> <option selected="selected" value="4350">A</option> <option value="4352">B</option> <option value="4349">C</option> <option value="4348">D</option> And then I have a grid and a button on the same page. When the user clicks the button the selected item of the dropdown is read (well a datasource object reads it) and the grid does a databind after a trip to a DB where it gets some data based on that selected value. This works fine most of the time. However sometimes, the selection in the dropdownlist seems to get lost even though the rendered page says the A is the selected item. The datasource object is defined like this: <asp:ObjectDataSource ID="dsVM" runat="server" EnablePaging="False" SelectMethod="Select" SortParameterName="sort" TypeName="X.Business.Entities.LPVM.BE"> <SelectParameters> <asp:ControlParameter Name="listaId" Type="Int32" ControlID="cphFilter$cbLista" PropertyName="SelectedValue" /> </SelectParameters> </asp:ObjectDataSource> Any ideas why the grid would reload its data with a select parameter that is 0 instead of the selected value of the dropdownlist? EDIT Suppose the dropdownlist is bound, the user selected B and the grid is bound as well and shows the right data. Now, I wait 2 minutes and I click the Refresh button. Surprisingly, at this particular moment the dropdownlist.SelectedValue (which I already know it was 4352 before I clicked because that's how it looks in the rendered page) is actually an empty string. Where did the value go?

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• thread reaches end but isn't removed

  - by pstanton

  I create a bunch of threads to do some processing: new Thread("upd-" + id){ @Override public void run(){ try{ doSomething(); } catch (Throwable e){ LOG.error("error", e); } finally{ LOG.debug("thread death"); } } }.start(); I know i should be using a threadPool but i need to understand the following problem before i change it: I'm using eclipse's debugger and looking at the threads in the debug pane which lists active threads. Many of them complete as you would expect, and are removed from the debug pane, however some seem to stay in the list of active threads even though the log shows the "thread death" entry for these. When i attempt to debug these threads, they either do not pause for debugging or show an error dialog: "A timeout occurred while retrieving stack frames for thread: upd-...". there is some synchronization going on within the doSomething() call but i'm fairly sure it's ok and since the "thread death" log is being called i'm assuming these threads aren't deadlocked in that method. i don't do any Thread.join()s, however i do call a third party API but doubt they do either. Can anyone think of another reason these threads are lingering? Thanks. EDIT: I created this test to check the Garbage Collection theory: Thread thread = new Thread("!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!") { @Override public void run() { System.out.println("running"); ThreadUs.sleepQuiet(5000); System.out.println("finished"); // <-- thread removed from list here } }; thread.start(); ThreadUs.sleepQuiet(10000); System.out.println(thread.isAlive()); // <-- thread already removed from list but hasn't been GC'd ThreadUs.sleepQuiet(10000); this proves that it is nothing to do with garbage collection as eclipse removes the thread from the thread list as soon as it completes and isn't waiting for the object to be de-referenced/GC'd.

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• ASP.NET MVC.NET JQueryUI datepicker inside a div loaded/updated with ajax.actionlink

  - by ArjanW

  Im trying to incorporate jqueryUI's datepicker inside a partialview like this: <% using (Ajax.BeginForm("/EditData", new AjaxOptions { HttpMethod = "POST", UpdateTargetId = "div1" })) {%> Date: <%= Html.TextBox("date", String.Format("{0:g}", Model.date), new { id = "datePicker"})%> <% } %> <script type="text/javascript"> $(function() { $("#datePicker").datepicker(); }); </script> when i directly call the url to this partial view, so it renders only this view the datepicker works perfectly. (for the purpose of testing this i added the needed jquerry and jquerryui script and css references directly to the partial view) But if i use a Ajax.Actionlink to load this partial view inside a div (called div2, submitting the above form should update div1) like this: <div id="div1"> <%= Ajax.ActionLink("Edit", "/EditData", new { id = Model.id }, new AjaxOptions { HttpMethod = "GET", UpdateTargetId = "div2" } )%> </div> <div2>placeholder for the form</div> the datepicker wont apear anymore. My best guess is the javascript included in the loaded html doesnt get executed, ($(document).ready(function() { $("#datepicker").datepicker(); }); doesnt work either if that's the case how and where should i call the $("datepicker").datepicker(); ? (putting it in the ajaxoptions of the ajax.actionlink as oncomplete = "$(function() { $('#datepicker').datepicker();});" still doesnt work. if thats not the case, then where's my problem?

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• How to implement or emulate an "abstract" OCUnit test class?

  - by Quinn Taylor

  I have a number of Objective-C classes organized in an inheritance hierarchy. They all share a common parent which implements all the behaviors shared among the children. Each child class defines a few methods that make it work, and the parent class raises an exception for the methods designed to be implemented/overridden by its children. This effectively makes the parent a pseudo-abstract class (since it's useless on its own) even though Objective-C doesn't explicitly support abstract classes. The crux of this problem is that I'm unit testing this class hierarchy using OCUnit, and the tests are structured similarly: one test class that exercises the common behavior, with a subclass corresponding to each of the child classes under test. However, running the test cases on the (effectively abstract) parent class is problematic, since the unit tests will fail in spectacular fashion without the key methods. (The alternative of repeating the common tests across 5 test classes is not really an acceptable option.) The non-ideal solution I've been using is to check (in each test method) whether the instance is the parent test class, and bail out if it is. This leads to repeated code in every test method, a problem that becomes increasingly annoying if one's unit tests are highly granular. In addition, all such tests are still executed and reported as successes, skewing the number of meaningful tests that were actually run. What I'd prefer is a way to signal to OCUnit "Don't run any tests in this class, only run them in its child classes." To my knowledge, there isn't (yet) a way to do that, something similar to a +(BOOL)isAbstractTest method I can implement/override. Any ideas on a better way to solve this problem with minimal repetition? Does OCUnit have any ability to flag a test class in this way, or is it time to file a Radar? Edit: Here's a link to the test code in question. Notice the frequent repetition of if (...) return; to start a method, including use of the NonConcreteClass() macro for brevity.

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• EF4 and multiple abstract levels

  - by Cedric

  I need to use inheritance with EF4 and the TPH model created from DB. I created a new projet to test simples classes. There is my class model: There is my table in SQL SERVER 2008 : VEHICLE ID : int PK Owner : varchar(50) Consumption : float FirstCirculationDate : date Type : varchar(50) Discriminator : varchar(10) I added a condition in my EDMX on the Discriminator field to differentiate the Scooter, Car, Motorbike and Bike entities. MotorizedVehicle and Vehicle are Abstract. But when I compile, this error appears : Error 3032: Problem in mapping fragments starting at lines 78, 85:EntityTypes EF4InheritanceModel.Scooter, EF4InheritanceModel.Motorbike, EF4InheritanceModel.Car, EF4InheritanceModel.Bike are being mapped to the same rows in table Vehicle. Mapping conditions can be used to distinguish the rows that these types are mapped to. Edit : To Ladislav : I try it and error change to become it for all of my entities : Error 3034: Problem in mapping fragments starting at lines 72, 86:An entity is mapped to different rows within the same table. Ensure these two mapping fragments do not map two groups of entities with overlapping keys to two distinct groups of rows. To Henk (with Ladislay suggestion) : There are all of mappings details : What's wrong ? Thanks

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• Why can't I get a TRUE return in this prepared statement?

  - by Cortopasta

  I can't seem to get this to do anything but return false. My best guess is that the prepared statement isn't executing, but I have no idea why. private function check_credentials($plain_username, $md5_password) { global $dbcon; $ac = new ac(); $ac->dbconnect(); $userid = $dbcon->prepare('SELECT id FROM users WHERE username = :username AND password = :password LIMIT 1'); $userid->bindParam(':username', $plain_username); $userid->bindParam(':password', $md5_password); $userid->execute(); $id = $userid->fetch(); Return $id; } *EDIT:*I've even tried hard coding the username and password into the function itself to try and isolate the problem like this: private function check_credentials($plain_username, $md5_password) { global $dbcon; $plain_username = "jim"; $md5_username = "waffles"; $ac = new ac(); $ac->dbconnect(); $userid = $dbcon->prepare('SELECT id FROM users WHERE username = :username AND password = :password LIMIT 1'); $userid->bindParam(':username', $plain_username); $userid->bindParam(':password', $md5_password); $userid->execute(); print_r($dbcon->errorInfo()); $id = $userid->fetch(); Return $id; } Still nothing :-/

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• Updating a Foreign Key constraint with ON DELETE CASCADE not updating?

  - by Alastair Pitts

  We've realised in our SQL Server 2005 DB that some Foreign Keys don't have the On Delete Cascade property set, which is giving us a couple of referential errors when we try and delete some records. Use the Management Studio I scripted the DROP and CREATESQL's, but it seems that the CREATE isn't working correctly. The DROP: USE [FootprintReports] GO IF EXISTS (SELECT * FROM sys.foreign_keys WHERE object_id = OBJECT_ID(N'[dbo].[FK__SUBSCRIPTIONS_Reports]') AND parent_object_id = OBJECT_ID(N'[dbo].[_SUBSCRIPTIONS]')) ALTER TABLE [dbo].[_SUBSCRIPTIONS] DROP CONSTRAINT [FK__SUBSCRIPTIONS_Reports] and the CREATE USE [FootprintReports] GO ALTER TABLE [dbo].[_SUBSCRIPTIONS] WITH CHECK ADD CONSTRAINT [FK__SUBSCRIPTIONS_Reports] FOREIGN KEY([PARAMETER_ReportID]) REFERENCES [dbo].[Reports] ([ID]) ON DELETE CASCADE GO ALTER TABLE [dbo].[_SUBSCRIPTIONS] CHECK CONSTRAINT [FK__SUBSCRIPTIONS_Reports] If I manually change the value of the On Delete in the GUI, after dropping and recreating, the On Delete isn't correctly updated. As a test, I set the Delete rule in the GUI to Set Null. It dropped correctly, and recreated without error. If I got back into the GUI, it is still showing the Set Null as the Delete Rule. Have I done something wrong? or is there another way to edit a constraint to add the ON DELETE CASCADE rule?

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• Photoshop CS5 not recognising activeDocument

  - by Max Kielland

  I wrote a quite big script for Photoshop CS5.1 on my 64bit Vista machine. Now when I run the very same script on my new 64bit Windows 7 machine, Adobe ExtendScript Tool complains about activeDocument (no such element) in this simple script: #target photoshop var pDoc = app.activeDocument; alert("Done!"); I have tried both and without #target and choosing the target in the ExtendedScript Tool. Is there something I have missed, or do I need to install something more. I only installed the 64bit version of Photoshop. Is it so that the 32bit Photoshop has the script extensions? I don't see why I need to install both 32bit and 64bit versions if I'm only going to use the 64bit version. EDIT I installed the 32bit version as well. Tried the same script against 32 and 64 bit, still no difference. SOLVED The mystery is solved. It is embarrassing simple if you interpret the error message more careful. Of course I can't get an activeDocument if there are no documents in Photoshop, duh!?! I interpreted it as the statement activeDocument wasn't recognised, but of course if I have no document there is no such element (as a photoshop document) to give me. I'm used to C++ and would expect the reuslt to be a NULL value or similar if there is a problem to get the document... excuses, excuses ;) Well, if someone else should get into the same problem, here is the answer on my expense :D

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• JSP Document/JSPX: what determines how tabs/space/linebreaks are removed in the output?

  - by NoozNooz42

  I've got a "JSP Document" ("JSP in XML") nicely formatted and when the webpage is generated and sent to the user, some linebreaks are removed. Now the really weird part: apparently the "main" .jsp always gets all its linebreak removed but for any subsequent .jsp included from the main .jsp, linebreaks seems to be randomly removed (some are there, others aren't). For example, if I'm looking at the webpage served from Firefox and ask to "view source", I get to see what is generated. So, what determines when/how linebreaks are kept/removed? This is just an example I made up... Can you force a .jsp to serve this: <body><div id="page"><div id="header"><div class="title">... or this: <body> <div id="page"> <div id="header"> <div class="title">... ? I take it that linebreaks are removed to save on bandwidth, but what if I want to keep them? And what if I want to keep the same XML indentation as in my .jsp file? Is this doable? EDIT Following skaffman's advice, I took a look at the generated .java files and the "main" one doesn't have lots of out.write but not a single one writing tabs nor newlines. Contrary to that file, all the ones that I'm including from that main .jsp have lots of lines like: out.write("\t...\n"); So I guess my question stays exactly the same: what determines how tabs/space/linebreaks are included/removed in the output?

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• How to assign .net membership roles to individual database records

  - by mdresser

  I'm developing a system where we want to restrict the availability of information displayed to users based on their roles. e.g. I have a tabled called EventType (ID, EventTypeDescription) which contains the following records: 1, 'Basic Event' 2, 'Intermediate Event' 3, 'Admin Event' What I need to achieve is to filter the records returned based on the username (and hence role) of the logged-in user. e.g if an advanced user is logged in they will see all the event types, if the standard user is logged in they will only see the basic event type etc. Ideally id like to do this in a way which can be easily extended to other tables as necessary. So I'd like to avoid simply adding a 'Roles' field to each table where the data is user context sensitive. One idea I'm thinking of is to create some kind of permissions table like: PermissionsTable ( ID, Aspnet_RoleId, TableName, PrimaryKeyValue ) this has the drawback of using this is obviously having to use the table name to switch which table to join onto. Edit: In the absence of any better suggestions, I'm going to go with the last idea I mentioned, but instead of having a TableName field, I'm going to normalise the TableName out to it's own table as follows: TableNames ( ID, TableName ) UserPermissionsTable ( ID, Aspnet_UserId, TableID, PrimaryKeyValue )

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• When virtual inheritance IS a good design?

  - by 7vies

  EDIT3: Please be sure to clearly understand what I am asking before answering (there are EDIT2 and lots of comments around). There are (or were) many answers which clearly show misunderstanding of the question (I know that's also my fault, sorry for that) Hi, I've looked over the questions on virtual inheritance (class B: public virtual A {...}) in C++, but did not find an answer to my question. I know that there are some issues with virtual inheritance, but what I'd like to know is in which cases virtual inheritance would be considered a good design. I saw people mentioning interfaces like IUnknown or ISerializable, and also that iostream design is based on virtual inheritance. Would those be good examples of a good use of virtual inheritance, is that just because there is no better alternative, or because virtual inheritance is the proper design in this case? Thanks. EDIT: To clarify, I'm asking about real-life examples, please don't give abstract ones. I know what virtual inheritance is and which inheritance pattern requires it, what I want to know is when it is the good way to do things and not just a consequence of complex inheritance. EDIT2: In other words, I want to know when the diamond hierarchy (which is the reason for virtual inheritance) is a good design

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• Script working with mysql and php into a textarea and back

  - by Tribalcomm

  I am trying to write a custom script that will keep a list of strings in a textarea. Each line of the textarea will be a row from a table. The problem I have is how to work the script to allow for adding, updating, or deleting rows based on a submit. So, for instance, I currently have 3 rows in the database: john sue mark I want to be able to delete sue and add richard and it will delete the row with sue and insert a row for richard. My code so far is as follows: To query the db and list it in the textarea: $basearray = mysql_query("SELECT name FROM mytable ORDER BY name"); <textarea name="names" cols=6 rows=12>'); <?php foreach($basearray as $base){ echo $base->name."\n"; } ?> </textarea> After the submit, I have: <?php $namelist = $_REQUEST[names]; $newarray = explode("\n", $namelist); foreach($newarray as $name) { if (!in_array($name, $basearray)) { mysql_query(DELETE FROM mytable WHERE word='$name'"); } elseif (in_array($name, $basearray)) { ; } else { mysql_query("INSERT INTO mytable (name) VALUES ("$name")"); } } ?> Please tell me what I am doing wrong. I am not getting any functions to work when I edit the contents of the textarea. Thanks!

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