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• How do I call C++/CLI (.NET) DLLs from standard, unmanaged non-.NET applications?

  - by tronjohnson

  In the unmanaged world, I was able to write a __declspec(dllexport) or, alternatively, use a .DEF file to expose a function to be able to call a DLL. (Because of name mangling in C++ for the __stdcall, I put aliases into the .DEF file so certain applications could re-use certain exported DLL functions.) Now, I am interested in being able to expose a single entry-point function from a .NET assembly, in unmanaged-fashion, but have it enter into .NET-style functions within the DLL. Is this possible, in a simple and straight-forward fashion? What I have is a third-party program that I have extended through DLLs (plugins) that implement some complex mathematics. However, the third-party program has no means for me to visualize the calculations. I want to somehow take these pre-written math functions, compile them into a separate DLL (but using C++/CLI in .NET), but then add hooks to the functions so I can render what's going on under the hood in a .NET user control. I'm not sure how to blend the .NET stuff with the unmanaged stuff, or what to Google to accomplish this task. Specific suggestions with regard to the managed/unmanaged bridge, or alternative methods to accomplish the rendering in the manner I have described would be helpful. Thank you.

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• IEnumerator seems to be effecting all objects, and not one at a time

  - by PFranchise

  Hey, I am trying to alter an attribute of an object. I am setting it to the value of that same attribute stored on another table. There is a one to many relationship between the two. The product end is the one and the versions is the many. Right now, both these methods that I have tried have set all the products returned equal to the final version object. So, in this case they are all the same. I am not sure where the issue lies. Here are my two code snipets, both yield the same result. int x = 1 IEnumerator<Product> ie = productQuery.GetEnumerator(); while (ie.MoveNext()) { ie.Current.RSTATE = ie.Current.Versions.First(o => o.VersionNumber == x).RSTATE; x++; } and foreach (var product in productQuery) { product.RSTATE = product.Versions.Single(o => o.VersionNumber == x).RSTATE; x++; } The versions table holds information for previous products, each is distinguished by the version number. I know that it will start at 1 and go until it reaches the current version, based on my query returning the proper number of products. Thanks for any advice.

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• What makes my code DDD (domain-driven design) qualified?

  - by oykuo

  Hi All, I'm new to DDD and am thinking about using this design technique in my project. However, what strikes me about DDD is that how basic the idea is. Unlike other design techniques such as MVC and TDD, it doesn't seems to contain any ground breaking ideas. For example, I'm sure some of you will have the same feeling that the idea of root aggregates and repositories are nothing new because when you are was writing MVC web applications you have to have one single master object (i.e. the root aggregate) that contain other minor objects (i.e. value objects and entities) in the model layer in order to send data to a strongly typed view. To me, the only new idea in DDD is probably the "Smart" entities (i.e. you are supposed to have business rules on root aggregates) Separation between value object, root aggregate and entities. Can anyone tell me if I have missed out anything here? If that's all there is to DDD, if I update one of my existing MVC application with the above 2 new ideas, can I claim it's an TDD, MVC and DDD applcation?

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• OpenLayers eraseFeatures doesn't erase features from map screen.

  - by Jenny

  I'm using OpenLayers, and have a layer for my Map, and a single Vector Layer. In this vector layer, I am using the DrawFeature control to draw a square. I have a listener waiting for a feature to be added, and then deleting any existing features (I only want one square at a time), like so: polygonLayer.events.register("beforefeatureadded", feature, function(evt){ console.log("Clearing existing polygons"); console.log(polygonLayer.features.length); polygonLayer.destroyFeatures(); polygonLayer.redraw(); });//end attempt at events registration When I check my layer.features.size, I can see that it's always 1, just like I expect, but the squares on the screen are still displayed. Even when I call .redraw() on the layer, the squares are still there. Is there some extra step I'm missing? Edit: You can find my code here: http://pastie.org/909644 Edit: Just realized: If I draw a square from previously existing coordinates, I can clear it just fine. It seems to be just the squares drawn from the controller that are an issue?

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• In maven2, how do I assemble bits and pieces of different modules to create final distributions?

  - by Carcassi

  I have four maven project: client api jar web service war ui jar web interface war The service war will need to be packaged to include the client api jar, together with javadocs (so that each version is distributed with a matching client and documentation). The web interface war will need the ui jar and all the dependencies (webstart/applet deployment). So I need a 5th project that does all the packaging. How to do this with ant or a script is perfectly clear to me, but not in maven. I tried the following: having the javadocs included as part of the war packaging: this requires the execution of the javadocs goal in project 1 before execution of package in project 2. Haven't found a way to bind plugins/goals across different projects. Using the assembly plugin in project2 had the same problem. create a fifth project and use the assembly plugin. Still the same problems as before, with the problem that since I need different pieces from each sub-project I do not understand how this can be done using the assembly. Is this too hard to do in maven, and should I just give up? Or I am looking at it wrong, in which case, how should I be looking at it? Thanks! Upon further reflection, here is a partial answer: Each project should build all its artifacts. This is done by having the plugins configured to run as per the prepare-resources and package phases. So, in my case, I prepare all that needs to be generated (jar, javadocs, xsd documentation, ...) as different artifacts so that a single "package" goal execution creates all. So, it's not "how project 2 forces project 1 to run different goals", but it's "make project 1 create all of its artifact as part as the normal lifecycle). This seems to simplify things.

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• In Rails, how to respect :scope when using validates_uniqueness_of in an embedded object form?

  - by mkirk

  I have a Book model, which has_many Chapters (which belong_to a Book). I want to ensure uniqueness of Chapter titles, but only within the scope of a single book. The catch is that the form for creating chapters is embedded in the Book model's form (The Book model accepts_nested_attributes_for :chapters). Within the Chapter model: validates_uniqueness_of( :chapter_title, :scope = :book_id, :case_sensitive = false, :message = "No book can have multiple chapters with the same title.") However, when I submit the Book creation form (which also includes multiple embedded Chapter forms), if the chapter title exists in another chapter for a different book, I fail the validation test. Book.create( :chapters => [ Chapter.new(:title => "Introduction"), Chapter.new(:title => "How to build things") => Book 1 successfully created Book.create( :chapters => [ Chapter.new(:title => "Introduction"), Chapter.new(:title => "Destroy things") => Book 2 fails to validate second_book = Book.create( :chapters => [ Chapter.new(:title => "A temporary Introduction title"), Chapter.new(:title => "Destroy things") => Book 2 succesfully created second_book.chapters[0].title= "Introduction" => success second_book.chapters.save => success second_book.save => success Can anyone shed some light on how to do this? Or why it's happening?

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• Cake returned the time consumed in data lookup in JQuery Alert Box

  - by kwokwai

  Hi all, When I was doing some self-learning on JQuery Ajax in Cakephp, I found out some strange behaviour in the JQuery Alert Box. Here are a few lines of code of the JQuery Ajax I used: $(document).ready(function(){ $(document).change(function(){ var usr = $("#data\\[User\\]\\[name\\]").val(); $.post{"http://www.mywebsite.com/controllers/action/", usr, function(msg){alert(msg);} } }); }); The Alert box shows me a message returned from the Action: Helloworld <!--0.656s--> I am not sure why the number of time consumption was displayed in the Alert box, since it was not in my code as follows: function action($data=null){ $this->autoRender = false; $result2=$this->__avail($data); if($result2==1) {return "OK";} else {return "NOT";} } CakePHP rteurned some extra information in the Alert box. Later I altered a single line of code and tried out this instead, and the time consumption was not displayed on screen then: $(document).ready(function(){ $(document).change(function(){ var usr = $("#data\\[User\\]\\[name\\]").val(); $.post{"http://www.mywebsite.com/controllers/action/", usr, function(msg){$("#username").append('<span>'+msg+</span'>);} } }); });

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• More efficient way to update multiple elements in javascript and/or jquery?

  - by Seiverence

  Say I have 6 divs with ID "#first", ""#second" ... "#sixth". Say if I wanted to execute functions on each of those divs, I would set up an array that contains each of the names of the divs I want to update as an element in the array of strings. ["first", "second", "third"] that I want to update. If I wanted to apply I function, I set up a for loop that iterates through each element in the array and say if I wanted to change the background color to red: function updateAllDivsInTheList() { for(var i = 0; i < array.size; i++) $("#"+array[i]).changeCssFunction(); } } Whenever I create a new div, i would add it to the array. The issue is, if I have a large number of divs that need to get updated, say if I wanted to update 1000 out of 1200 divs, it may be a pain/performance tank to have to sequentially iterate through every single element in the array. Is there some alternative more efficient way of updating multiple divs without having to sequentially iterate through every element in an array, maybe with some other more efficient data structure besides array? Or is what I am doing the most efficient way to do it? If can provide some example, that would be great.

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• calculating change (over a period) for a dated field

  - by morpheous

  I have two tables with the following schema: CREATE TABLE sales_data ( sales_time date NOT NULL, product_id integer NOT NULL, sales_amt double NOT NULL ); CREATE TABLE date_dimension ( id integer NOT NULL, datestamp date NOT NULL, day_part integer NOT NULL, week_part integer NOT NULL, month_part integer NOT NULL, qtr_part integer NOT NULL, year_part integer NOT NULL, ); I want to write two types of queries that will allow me to calculate: period on period change (e.g. week on week change) change in period on period change (e.g. change in week on week change) I would prefer to write this in ANSI SQL, since I dont want to be tied to any particular db. [Edit] In light of some of the comments, if I have to be tied to a single database (in terms of SQL dialect), it will have to be PostgreSQL The queries I want to write are of the form (pseudo SQL of course): Query Type 1 (Period on Period Change) ======================================= a). select product_id, ((sd2.sales_amt - sd1.sales_amt)/sd1.sales_amt) as week_on_week_change from sales_data sd1, sales_data sd2, date_dimension dd where {SOME CRITERIA) b). select product_id, ((sd2.sales_amt - sd1.sales_amt)/sd1.sales_amt) as month_on_month_change from sales_data sd1, sales_data sd2, date_dimension dd where {SOME CRITERIA) Query Type 2 (Change in Period on Period Change) ================================================= a). select product_id, ((a2.week_on_week_change - a1.week_on_week_change)/a1.week_on_week_change) as change_on_week_on_week_change from (select product_id, ((sd2.sales_amt - sd1.sales_amt)/sd1.sales_amt) as week_on_week_change from sales_data sd1, sales_data sd2, date_dimension dd where {SOME CRITERIA) as a1), (select product_id, ((sd2.sales_amt - sd1.sales_amt)/sd1.sales_amt) as week_on_week_change from sales_data sd1, sales_data sd2, date_dimension dd where {SOME CRITERIA) as a2) WHERE {SOME OTHER CRITERIA}

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• PHP array minor problem

  - by Sennheiser

  I'm really not sure how to explain this. It's so simple I can't fathom why it's not working. I have a loop. It puts a bunch of strings into an array. If I fill a single variable with any given string, it will output it perfectly. But filling an array with the strings will make it give me the dreaded: Array Array Array Array Array Array Array Array Note: my strings are not all 'Array'. The way I loop is: while(...) { $arr[] = $resultFromLoop; } Here is my var_dump. array(1) { ["tagName"]=> string(5) "magic" } array(1) { ["tagName"]=> string(4) "nunu" } array(1) { ["tagName"]=> string(5) "books" } array(1) { ["tagName"]=> string(0) "" } array(1) { ["tagName"]=> string(3) "zzz" } array(1) { ["tagName"]=> string(4) "grey" } array(1) { ["tagName"]=> string(3) "new" } array(1) { ["tagName"]=> string(6) "flight" }

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• Override one css class with another?

  - by user246114

  Hi, I have a list, with an li style defined. I want to replace the style of an individual element, but it doesn't seem to have any visual effect. Example: .myList li { background-color: yellow; } .foo { background-color: green; } <ul class='myList'> <li>Hello</li> </ul> When I add an item to the list, it has the .myList li style applied properly. I try now to remove all styles and apply the foo style to a single item (using jquery): $(item).removeClass(); $(item).addClass("foo"); the item does not change color to green though, but this reports the class is set to 'foo': alert($(item).attr('class')); so I guess I'm not understanding css rules here, looks like the li class definition is just overriding whatever else I do, however I want the reverse to be true, I want to override the li style definition with foo. How do we do this? Thanks

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• How do you create a generic method in a class?

  - by Seth Spearman

  Hello, I am really trying to follow the DRY principle. I have a sub that looks like this? Private Sub DoSupplyModel OutputLine("ITEM SUMMARIES") Dim ItemSumms As New SupplyModel.ItemSummaries(_currentSupplyModel, _excelRows) ItemSumms.FillRows() OutputLine("") OutputLine("NUMBERED INVENTORIES") Dim numInvs As New SupplyModel.NumberedInventories(_currentSupplyModel, _excelRows) numInvs.FillRows() OutputLine("") End Sub I would like to collapse these into a single method using generics. For the record, ItemSummaries and NumberedInventories are both derived from the same base class DataBuilderBase. I can't figure out the syntax that will allow me to do ItemSumms.FillRows and numInvs.FillRows in the method. FillRows is declared as Public Overridable Sub FillRows in the base class. Thanks in advance. EDIT Here is my end result Private Sub DoSupplyModels() DoSupplyModelType("ITEM SUMMARIES",New DataBlocks(_currentSupplyModel,_excelRows) DoSupplyModelType("DATA BLOCKS",New DataBlocks(_currentSupplyModel,_excelRows) End Sub Private Sub DoSupplyModelType(ByVal outputDescription As String, ByVal type As DataBuilderBase) OutputLine(outputDescription) type.FillRows() OutputLine("") End Sub But to answer my own question...I could have done this... Private Sub DoSupplyModels() DoSupplyModelType(Of Projections)("ITEM SUMMARIES") DoSupplyModelType(Of DataBlocks)("DATA BLOCKS") End Sub Private Sub DoSupplyModelType(Of T as DataBuilderBase)(ByVal outputDescription As String, ByVal type As T) OutputLine(outputDescription) dim type as New T(_currentSupplyModel,_excelRows) type.FillRows() OutputLine("") End Sub Is that right? Does the New T() work? Seth

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• Apache's AuthDigestDomain and Rails Distributed Asset Hosts

  - by Jared

  I've got a server I'm in the process of setting up and I'm running into an Apache configuration problem that I can not get around. I've got Apache 2.2 and Passenger serving a Rails app with distributed asset hosting. This is the feature of Rails that lets you serve your static assets from assets0.example.com, assets1, assets2, and so on. The site needs to be passworded until launch. I've set up HTTP authentication on the site using Apache's mod_auth_digest. In my configuration I'm attempting to use the AuthDigestDomain directive to allow access to each of the asset URLs. The problem is, it doesn't seem to be working. I get the initial prompt for the password when I load the page, but then the first time it loads an asset from one of the asset URLs, I get prompted a 2nd, 3rd, or 4th time. In some browsers, I get prompted for every single resource on the page. I'm hoping that this is only a problem of how I'm specifying my directives and not a limitation of authorization in Apache itself. See the edited auth section below: <Location /> AuthType Digest AuthName "Restricted Site" AuthUserFile /etc/httpd/passwd/passwords AuthGroupFile /dev/null AuthDigestDomain / http://assets0.example.com/ http://assets1.example.com/ http://assets2.example.com/ http://assets3.example.com/ require valid-user order deny,allow allow from all </Location>

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• How can I dynamically call the named route in a :partial in rails?

  - by Angela

  I have the following partial. It can be called from three different times in a view as follows: <%= render :partial => "contact_event", :collection => @contacts, :locals => {:event => email} %> Second time: <%= render :partial => "contact_event", :collection => @contacts, :locals => {:event => call} %> Third time: <%= render :partial => "contact_event", :collection => @contacts, :locals => {:event => letter} %> In each instance, call, email, letter refer to a specific instance of a Model Call, Email, or Letter. Here is what I tried to do and conceptually what I'd like to do: assign the route based on the class name that has been passed to the :event from the :partial. What I did was create what the actual url should be. The 'text' of it is correct, but doesn't seem to recognize it as a named route. <% url = "skip_contact_#{event.class.name.tableize.singularize}_url" % <%= link_to_remote "Skip #{url} Remote", :url = skip_contact_email_url(contact_event, event), :update = "update-area-#{contact_event.id}-#{event.id}" % ' My challenge: skip_contact_email_url only works when the event refers to an email. How can I dynamically define skip_contact_email_url to be skip_contact_letter_url if the local variable is letter? Even better, how can I have a single named route that would do the appropriate action?

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• How can I dynamically define the named route in a :partial in rails?

  - by Angela

  I have the following partial. It can be called from three different times in a view as follows: <%= render :partial => "contact_event", :collection => @contacts, :locals => {:event => email} %> Second time: <%= render :partial => "contact_event", :collection => @contacts, :locals => {:event => call} %> Third time: <%= render :partial => "contact_event", :collection => @contacts, :locals => {:event => letter} %> In each instance, call, email, letter refer to a specific instance of a Model Call, Email, or Letter. Here is the content of the partial "contact_event": <%= link_to_remote "Skip #{event} Remote", :url => skip_contact_email_url(contact_event, event), :update => "update-area-#{contact_event.id}-#{event.id}" %> <span id='update-area-<%="#{contact_event.id}-#{event.id}"%>'> </span> </p> My challenge: skip_contact_email_url only works when the event refers to an email. How can I dynamically define skip_contact_email_url to be skip_contact_letter_url if the local variable is letter? Even better, how can I have a single named route that would do the appropriate action?

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• Question about singleton property

  - by Jack

  I'm reading the java tutorial for enums located here and have a question: http://java.sun.com/j2se/1.5.0/docs/guide/language/enums.html#Card The part i'm confused about is as follows: "The Card class, above, contains a static factory that returns a deck, but there is no way to get an individual card from its rank and suit. Merely exposing the constructor would destroy the singleton property (that only a single instance of each card is allowed to exist). Here is how to write a static factory that preserves the singleton property, using a nested EnumMap: " Now as I understand, changing the original private "Card" constructor to public would allow us to instantiate an unlimited number of copies of a "Card" object with a given suit+rank. The solution as proposed was to create an EnumMap which would store four Maps (one for each suit), which themselves contained 13 Card objects with the rank as their keys. And so now if you wanted to retrieve a specific Card object from the deck, you would just call the "valueOf" method. My question now is, what's the prevent you with calling the valueOf method as many times as you like? Wouldn't that lead to the same problem as making the original private constructor public? Thanks.

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• convert a repeating code to method

  - by Mr_Green

  In my project, I am adding ComboBox, Text, Link label to my DataGridView dgvMain.I have created different methods for different cell templates as shown below: (The code below is working) gridLnklbl(string headerName) DataGridViewLinkColumn col = new DataGridViewLinkColumn(); col.HeaderText = headerName; // col.Name = "col" + headerName; // same code repeating to all the methods dgvMain.Columns.Add(col); // gridCmb(string headerName) DataGridViewComboBoxColumn col = new DataGridViewComboBoxColumn(); col.HeaderText = headerName; col.Name = "col" + headerName; dgvMain.Columns.Add(col); gridText(string headerName) DataGridViewTextBoxColumn col = new DataGridViewTextBoxColumn(); col.HeaderText = headerName; col.Name = "col" + headerName; dgvMain.Columns.Add(col); As you can see, except the declaration of objects, the code for every method is repeating. Just curious to know, can the repeating code be converted to single method? I dont know how to do that.. Its not about 3 codes of line, I have written many more lines which can be make common to those methods.

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• For a 1view/scene to 2view/scene app, what application should I choose in Xcode?

  - by Tony Xu

  The question may be simple to some others, but I have been struggling with this for a while. The app I want would be like this: first scene/view with two big buttons (no toolbar item), click each one to get into two new scenes. So totally three scenes. In Xcode, what application should I choose? And in storyboard how/should I drag/draw? Thanks. Update: thanks for the link, the big-number-user. I actually read that tutorial before I asked. A little update on what I got so far: 1, I selected "single view", so there's view controller 1 (VC1) in the storyboard. 2, dragged a navigation controller (NC), and move the initial view arrow pointing to NC 3, control-drag to link NC and VC1, selected "relationship segue root view controller" when some small dialog popup. IS THIS CORRECT? 4, created two additional VC, VC3 and VC4, control-drag link each to NC. selected "push", IS THIS CORRECT? 5, in VC1, I added two buttons, showVC3 and showVC4. NOW I DON'T KNOW how to add IBAction to button showVC3 and showVC4. I tried to control-drag it to ViewController.m file @interface and @end section, but failed. What should I do next?

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• What to set the scalar type to contain a byte []. Entity in MVC2

  - by Brad8118

  I'm trying out the EF 4.0 and using the Model first approach. I'd like to store images into the database and I'm not sure of the best type for the scalar in the entity. I currently have it(the image scalar type) setup as a binary. From what I have been reading the best way to store the image in the db is a byte[]. So I'm assuming that binary is the way to go. If there is a better way I'd switch. In my controller I have: //file from client to store in the db HttpPostedFileBase file = Request.Files[inputTagName]; if (file.ContentLength > 0) { keyToAdd.Image = new byte[file.ContentLength]; file.InputStream.Write(keyToAdd.Image, 0, file.ContentLength); } This builds fine but when I run it I get an exception writing the stream to keyToAdd.Image. The exception is something like: Method does not exist. Any ideas? Note that when using a EF 4.0 model first approach I only have int16, int32, double, string, decimal, binary, byte, DateTime, Double, Single, and SByte as available types. Thanks

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• Why does my binding break down on SilverLight ProgressBars?

  - by Bill Jeeves

  I asked a similar question about charts but I have given up on that and I am using progress bars instead. Essentially, I have ten progress bars in a Silverlight control. Each is showing a different value and updating every couple of seconds (it's a process monitor). Each progress bar has the same minimum value and maximum value so the bars can be compared. Trying to follow the M-V-VM model, I have bound the value of each bar to a property in my ViewModel. All of the maximum values for the bar are bound to a single property. When the model updates, the values and the maximum can all update. This allows the bars to re-scale as the sizes grow. I'm finding that the binding will stop working sometimes on one or more bars. I suspect it is because a bar's value becomes higher than the maximum occasionally. This is because if I update the maximums first and they are going down, the values will be to high. If I update the values first when the maximum needs increasing, the values are too high again. Is there a way to stop this behaviour? Some way, perhaps, to tell the progress bars that it's OK to temporarily go too high? Or some way to tell the bindings that they shouldn't be disabled when this happens? Or maybe I've got this completely wrong and there's some other issue with ProgressBar binding I don't know about?

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• HTML templating in C++ and translations

  - by Karim

  I'm using HTML_Template for templating in my C++-based web app (don't ask). I chose that because it was very simple and it turns out to be a good solution. The only problem right now is that I would like to be able to include translatable strings in the HTML templates (HTML_Template does not really support that). Ultimately, what I would like is to have a single file that contains all the strings to be translated. It can then be given to a translator and plugged back in to the app and used depending on which language the user chose in settings. I've been going back and forth on some options and was wondering what others felt was the best choice (or if there's a better choice that isn't listed) Extend HTML_Template to include a tag for holding the literal string to translate. So, for example, in the HTML I would put something like <TMPL_TRANS "this is the text to translate"/> Use a completely separate scheme for translation and preprocess the HTML files to generate the final template files (without the special translation lingo). For example, in the pre-processed file, translatable text would look like this: {{this is the text to translate}} and the final would look like: this is the text to translate Don't do anything and let the translators find the string to translate in the html and js files themselves.

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• Query to bring count from comma seperated Value

  - by Mugil

  I have Two Tables One for Storing Products and Other for Storing Orders List. CREATE TABLE ProductsList(ProductId INT NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY, ProductName VARCHAR(50)) INSERT INTO ProductsList(ProductId, ProductName) VALUES(1,'Product A'), (2,'Product B'), (3,'Product C'), (4,'Product D'), (5,'Product E'), (6,'Product F'), (7,'Product G'), (8,'Product H'), (9,'Product I'), (10,'Product J'); CREATE TABLE OrderList(OrderId INT NOT NULL PRIMARY KEY AUTO_INCREMENT, EmailId VARCHAR(50), CSVProductIds VARCHAR(50)) SELECT * FROM OrderList INSERT INTO OrderList(EmailId, CSVProductIds) VALUES('[email protected]', '2,4,1,5,7'), ('[email protected]', '5,7,4'), ('[email protected]', '2'), ('[email protected]', '8,9'), ('[email protected]', '4,5,9'), ('[email protected]', '1,2,3'), ('[email protected]', '9,10'), ('[email protected]', '1,5'); Output ItemName NoOfOrders Product A 4 Product B 3 Product C 1 Product D 3 Product E 4 Product F 0 Product G 2 Product H 1 Product I 2 Product J 1 The Order List Stores the ItemsId as Comma separated value for every customer who places order.Like this i am having more than 40k Records in my dB table Now I am assigned with a task of creating report in which I should display Items and No of People ordered Items as Shown Below I Used Query as below in my PHP to bring the Orders One By One and storing in array. SELECT COUNT(PL.EmailId) FROM OrderList PL WHERE CSVProductIds LIKE '2' OR CSVProductIds LIKE '%,2,%' OR CSVProductIds LIKE '%,2' OR CSVProductIds LIKE '2,%'; 1.Is it possible to get the same out put by using Single Query 2.Does using a like in mysql query slows down the dB when the table has more no of records i.e 40k rows

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• Performing a MYSQL query based off of $_GET results

  - by Michael N

  When a user clicks an item on my items page, it takes them to blank page template using $_GET to pass the item brand and model through. I'd like to perform another MYSQL query when that user clicks through to populate the blank page with the product details from my database. I'd like to retrieve the single row using the model number (unique ID) to populate the page with the information. I've tried a couple of things but am having a little difficulty. On my blank item page, I have $brand = $_GET['Brand']; $modelnumber = $_GET['ModelNumber']; $query = mysql_query("SELECT * FROM items WHERE `Model Number` = '$modelnumber'"); $results = mysql_fetch_row($query); echo $results; I think having ''s around Model Number is causing troubles, but without them, I get a Warning: mysql_fetch_row() expects parameter 1 to be resource, boolean given error. My database columns looks like Brand | Model Number | Price | Description | Image A few other things I have tried include $query = mysql_query("SELECT * FROM item WHERE Model Number = $_GET['ModelNumber']"); Which gave me a syntax error. I've also tried concatenating the $_GET which gives me a mysql_fetch_row() expects parameter 1 to be resource, boolean given error Which leads me to believe that I'm also going about displaying the results incorrectly. I'm not sure if I need to put it in a where loop like I have with my previous page which displays all items in the database because this is just displaying one.

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• Querying for a unique value based on the aggregate of another value while grouping on a third value

  - by Justin Swartsel

  So I know this problem isn't a new one, but I'm trying to wrap my head around it and understand the best way to deal with scenarios like this. Say I have a hypothetical table 'X' that looks like this: GroupID ID (identity) SomeDateTime -------------------------------------------- 1 1000 1/1/01 1 1001 2/2/02 1 1002 3/3/03 2 1003 4/4/04 2 1004 5/5/05 I want to query it so the result set looks like this: ---------------------------------------- 1 1002 3/3/03 2 1004 5/5/05 Basically what I want is the MAX SomeDateTime value grouped by my GroupID column. The kicker is that I DON'T want to group by the ID column, I just want to know the 'ID' that corresponds to the MAX SomeDateTime. I know one pseudo-solution would be: ;WITH X1 as ( SELECT MAX(SomeDateTime) as SomeDateTime, GroupID FROM X GROUP BY GroupID ) SELECT X1.SomeDateTime, X1.GroupID, X2.ID FROM X1 INNER JOIN X as X2 ON X.DateTime = X2.DateTime But this doesn't solve the fact that a DateTime might not be unique. And it seems sloppy to join on a DateTime like that. Another pseudo-solution could be: SELECT X.GroupID, MAX(X.ID) as ID, MAX(X.SomeDateTime) as SomeDateTime FROM X GROUP BY X.GroupID But there are no guarantees that ID will actually match the row that SomeDateTime comes from. A third less useful option might be: SELECT TOP 1 X.GroupID, X.ID, X.SomeDateTime FROM X WHERE X.GroupID = 1 ORDER BY X.SomeDateTime DESC But obviously that only works with a single, known, GroupID. I want to be able to join this result set on GroupID and/or ID. Does anyone know of any clever solutions? Any good uses of windowing functions? Thanks!

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• MySQL - Exclude rows from Select based on duplication of two columns

  - by Carson C.

  I am attempting to narrow results of an existing complex query based on conditional matches on multiple columns within the returned data set. I'll attempt to simplify the data as much as possible here. Assume that the following table structure represents the data that my existing complex query has already selected (here ordered by date): +----+-----------+------+------------+ | id | remote_id | type | date | +----+-----------+------+------------+ | 1 | 1 | A | 2011-01-01 | | 3 | 1 | A | 2011-01-07 | | 5 | 1 | B | 2011-01-07 | | 4 | 1 | A | 2011-05-01 | +----+-----------+------+------------+ I need to select from that data set based on the following criteria: If the pairing of remote_id and type is unique to the set, return the row always If the pairing of remote_id and type is not unique to the set, take the following action: Of the sets of rows for which the pairing of remote_id and type are not unique, return only the single row for which date is greatest and still less than or equal to now. So, if today is 2010-01-10, I'd like the data set returned to be: +----+-----------+------+------------+ | id | remote_id | type | date | +----+-----------+------+------------+ | 3 | 1 | A | 2011-01-07 | | 5 | 1 | B | 2011-01-07 | +----+-----------+------+------------+ For some reason I'm having no luck wrapping my head around this one. I suspect the answer lies in good application of group_by, but I just can't grasp it. Any help is greatly appreciated!

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