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  • Big Oh Notation - formal definition.

    - by aloh
    I'm reading a textbook right now for my Java III class. We're reading about Big-Oh and I'm a little confused by its formal definition. Formal Definition: "A function f(n) is of order at most g(n) - that is, f(n) = O(g(n)) - if a positive real number c and positive integer N exist such that f(n) <= c g(n) for all n = N. That is, c g(n) is an upper bound on f(n) when n is sufficiently large." Ok, that makes sense. But hold on, keep reading...the book gave me this example: "In segment 9.14, we said that an algorithm that uses 5n + 3 operations is O(n). We now can show that 5n + 3 = O(n) by using the formal definition of Big Oh. When n = 3, 5n + 3 <= 5n + n = 6n. Thus, if we let f(n) = 5n + 3, g(n) = n, c = 6, N = 3, we have shown that f(n) <= 6 g(n) for n = 3, or 5n + 3 = O(n). That is, if an algorithm requires time directly proportional to 5n + 3, it is O(n)." Ok, this kind of makes sense to me. They're saying that if n = 3 or greater, 5n + 3 takes less time than if n was less than 3 - thus 5n + n = 6n - right? Makes sense, since if n was 2, 5n + 3 = 13 while 6n = 12 but when n is 3 or greater 5n + 3 will always be less than or equal to 6n. Here's where I get confused. They give me another example: Example 2: "Let's show that 4n^2 + 50n - 10 = O(n^2). It is easy to see that: 4n^2 + 50n - 10 <= 4n^2 + 50n for any n. Since 50n <= 50n^2 for n = 50, 4n^2 + 50n - 10 <= 4n^2 + 50n^2 = 54n^2 for n = 50. Thus, with c = 54 and N = 50, we have shown that 4n^2 + 50n - 10 = O(n^2)." This statement doesn't make sense: 50n <= 50n^2 for n = 50. Isn't any n going to make the 50n less than 50n^2? Not just greater than or equal to 50? Why did they even mention that 50n <= 50n^2? What does that have to do with the problem? Also, 4n^2 + 50n - 10 <= 4n^2 + 50n^2 = 54n^2 for n = 50 is going to be true no matter what n is. And how in the world does picking numbers show that f(n) = O(g(n))? Please help me understand! :(

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  • How to align Definition Lists in IE6 ?

    - by ellander
    I'm having a major headache trying to align some and elements in ie6. It looks fine in ie7 and firefox but the dt elements don't appear in ie6. can anyone help? here is the code.. <div id="listMembers"> <h3>Members</h3> <dl class="myDL"> <dt>Name</dt> <dd>John Smith</dd> <dt>Address</dt> <dd>the street</dd> ... </dl> <div id="listOptions"> <div> <table>...</table> </div> </div> <div> and the css:- DL.myDL { BORDER-RIGHT: black 2px outset; PADDING-RIGHT: 2px; BORDER-TOP: black 2px outset; DISPLAY: block; PADDING-LEFT: 2px; BACKGROUND: #ccbe99; PADDING-BOTTOM: 2px; BORDER-LEFT: black 2px outset; WIDTH: auto; PADDING-TOP: 2px; BORDER-BOTTOM: black 2px outset; FONT-FAMILY: "Trebuchet MS", Arial, sans-serif } DL.myDL DT { CLEAR: both; PADDING-RIGHT: 3px; DISPLAY: inline; FLOAT: left; WIDTH: 250px; TEXT-ALIGN: right } I basically want the dt text aligned to the right and the dd on the right hand side with left align text. I reset the margin on all elements to be 0 before anything else in the css and the elements are within a dive with position relative.

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  • jQuery: load refuses to get dynamic content in IE6

    - by user260157
    jQuery refuses to load my dynamic content in IE6. All in FireFox & Safari works fine. Only IE6 is being a pain. When I try the a html with <p>Hello World</p> that works. Properly. But when loading a PHP it doesn't work! As you can see it's doing multiple things. <script type="text/javascript"> // When the document is ready set up our sortable with it's inherant function(s) $(document).ready(function() { // Sort list & amend in database function sortTableMenuAndReload() { var order = $('#menuList').sortable('serialize'); $.post("PLUGINS/SortableMenu/process-sortable.php",order); $("#menuList").load("PLUGINS/SortableMenu/sortableMenu_ajax.php"); } function sortTableOrder() { var order = $('#menuList').sortable('serialize'); $.post("PLUGINS/SortableMenu/process-sortable.php",order); } function sortTableOrderAndRemove(removeID) { $('#listItem_'+removeID).remove(); var order = $('#menuList').sortable('serialize'); $.post("PLUGINS/SortableMenu/process-sortable.php",order); $("#menuList").load("PLUGINS/SortableMenu/sortableMenu_ajax.php"); } $("#menuList > li > .remove").live('click', function () { var removeID = $(this).attr('id'); $.ajax({ type: 'post', url: 'PLUGINS/SortableMenu/removeLine.php', data: 'id='+removeID, success: sortTableOrderAndRemove(removeID) }); }); $("#menuList > li > .publish").live('click', function () { var publishID = $(this).attr('id'); $.ajax({ type: 'post', url: 'PLUGINS/SortableMenu/publishLine.php', data: 'id='+publishID, success: sortTableOrder }); }); $('#new_documents > li').draggable({ addClasses: false, helper:'clone', connectToSortable:'#menuList' }); $("#menuList").droppable({ addClasses: false, drop: function() { var clone = $("#menuList > li#newArticleTYPE1"); $(clone).attr("id","listItem_newArticleTYPE1"); } }); $("#menuList").sortable({ opacity: 0.6, handle : '.handle, .remove', update : sortTableMenuAndReload }); }); </script>

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  • Do you use logical negation operator (!) in "if" statement or check on "== false"

    - by Taras Terebkov
    Hello everyone, I just want to conduct a little survey about code style developers prefer. For me there are two ways to write "if" in such languages as Java, C#, C++, etc. (1) Logical negation operator public void foo() { if (!SessionManager.getInstance().hasActiveSession()) { . . . . . } } (2) Check on "false" public void foo() { if (SessionManager.getInstance().hasActiveSession() == false) { . . . . . } } I always believe that first way is much worst then the second one. Cause usually you don't "read" the code, but "recognize" it in one brief look. And exclamation symbol slipped from your mind, just disturbing you somewhere on the bottom of your unconscious. And only during reading the "if" block below you understand, that the logic is opposite - no sessions in "if" On the other hand in the second way of writing, an eye immediately catches words "SessionManager", "hasActiveSession" and "false". Also for me, the situation with "true" is different. In code like class SessionManager { private bool hasSession; public void foo() { if (hasSession == true) { . . . . . } else { . . . . . } } } I find "true" superfluous. why we repeating the sentence two times? The following is shorter and quicker to catch. class SessionManager { private bool hasSession; public void foo() { if (hasSession) { . . . . . } else { . . . . . } } } What do YOU think, guys?

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  • Can you call FB.login inside a callback from other FB methods (like FB.getLoginStatus) without triggering popup blockers?

    - by Erik Kallevig
    I'm trying to set up a pretty basic authentication logic flow with the FB JavaScript SDK to check a user's logged-in status and permissions before performing an action (and prompting the user to login with permissions if they are not)... User types a message into a textarea on my site to post to their Facebook feed and click's a 'post to facebook' button on my site. In response to the click, I check user's logged in status with FB.getLoginStatus In the callback to FB.getLoginStatus, if user is not logged in, prompt them to login (FB.login). In the callback to FB.login I then need to make sure they have the right permissions so I make a call to FB.api('/me/permissions') -- if they don't , I again prompt them to login (FB.login) The problem I'm running into is that anytime I try to call FB.login inside a callback to other FB methods, the browser seems to lose track of the origin of execution (the click) and thus will block the popup. I'm wondering if I'm missing some way to prompt the user to login after checking their status without the browser mistakenly thinking that it's not a user-initiated popup? I've currently fallen back to just calling FB.login() first regardless. The undesired side effect of this approach, however, is that if the user is already logged-in with permissions and I'm still calling FB.login, the auth popup will open and close immediately before continuing, which looks rather buggy despite being functional. It seems like checking a user's login status and permissions before doing something would be a common flow so I feel like I'm missing something. Here's some example code. <div onclick="onClickPostBtn()">Post to Facebook</div> <script> // Callback to click on Post button. function onClickPostBtn() { // Check if logged in, prompt to do so if not. FB.getLoginStatus(function(response) { if (response.status === 'connected') { checkPermissions(response.authResponse.accessToken); } else { FB.login(function(){}, {scope: 'publish_stream'}) } }); } // Logged in, check permissions. function checkPermissions(accessToken) { FB.api('/me/permissions', {'access_token': accessToken}, function(response){ // Logged in and authorized for this site. if (response.data && response.data.length) { // Parse response object to check for permission here... if (hasPermission) { // Logged in with permission, perform some action. } else { // Logged in without proper permission, request login with permissions. FB.login(function(){}, {scope: 'publish_stream'}) } // Logged in to FB but not authorized for this site. } else { FB.login(function(){}, {scope: 'publish_stream'}) } } ); } </script>

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  • Mysterious newInstance method

    - by songsungkyun
    First I show some code. library: axis.jar, dom4j.jar jdk1.5, windowsXP T.java import java.io.StringWriter; import org.apache.axis.utils.StringUtils; import org.dom4j.DocumentHelper; import org.dom4j.io.OutputFormat; import org.dom4j.io.XMLWriter; public class T { public T() { System.out.println("constructor"); } public void test() { System.out.println(StringUtils.unescapeNumericChar("1")); } public String getPrettyXML(String xml) throws Exception { System.out.println("getPrettyXML"); StringWriter sw = new StringWriter(); XMLWriter writer = null; try { OutputFormat format = OutputFormat.createPrettyPrint(); org.dom4j.Document document = DocumentHelper.parseText(xml); writer = new XMLWriter(sw, format); writer.write(document); } catch (Exception e) { throw e; } finally { if (writer != null) { try { writer.close(); } catch (Exception e) { } } } return sw.toString(); } public void a() { System.out.println("a"); } public static void main(String[] args) { new T().test(); } } T2.java public class T2 { public static void main(String[] args) throws Exception { System.out.println("T2"); T t = (T) Class.forName("T").newInstance(); } } Ok, here we go... run as (Of course, I'm run at the directory where T.class, T1.class is) java T2 as you can see, not exist class path. ==console== T2 constructor OK... Now delete throw e line at the catch block on the "getPrettyXML" method of T. Ok, here we go.. run one more time without classpath java T2 You can see below... ==console== T2 Exception in thread "main" java.lang.NoClassDefFoundError: org/dom4j/io/OutputFormat at java.lang.Class.forName0(Native Method) at java.lang.Class.forName(Unknown Source) at T2.main(T2.java:5) I know that it's not very important for my life or your life. But it's so mysterisou to me, and my all curiosity. thanks.. ^^

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  • Align 2 columns of text links

    - by andu
    Hi , I have this code in my block and i would like to have the two columns left and right . Now the 2-nd one is under the first column . <style type="text/css"> a img{border:none;} #planninglaunchbox { background:#f3f8e7; color:#1f1f1f; font:normal 11px Arial,sans-serif; margin:0 10px 10px 0; overflow:hidden; width:235px; } #planninglaunchbox .inner { padding:10px 0 10px 10px; } #planninglaunchbox a{color:#1f1f1f;text-decoration:none;} #planninglaunchbox a:active, #planninglaunchbox a:hover{text-decoration:underline;color:#579BC3;} #planninglaunchbox h3 { color:#1f1f1f; font:normal 12px Georgia,serif; margin:0 0 5px; text-transform:lowercase; width:215px; } #planninglaunchbox h4 { font:bold 12px Arial,sans-serif; margin:0 0 10px; } #planninglaunchbox ul { list-style:none; margin:0 0 5px; padding:0; } #planninglaunchbox ul.first{margin-right:10px;} #planninglaunchbox ul.first, #planninglaunchbox ul.last { float:left; } #planninglaunchbox ul li { background:none; margin-bottom:5px; padding:0; } #planninglaunchbox ul li img { margin-right:6px; vertical-align:middle; } #planninglaunchbox .seeall { clear:both; margin:0; padding:0; width:auto; } </style> <div id="planninglaunchbox"> <div class="inner"> <h3> Theme</h3> <ul class="first"> !--Some links-- </ul> <ul class="last"> !--Some links-- </ul> </div> </div>

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  • Div not filling width of floated container (css expert needed

    - by Rayden
    I know there are many variations of this question posted, but none I've found quite provide an answer that works for this case. I basically have two left floated divs. Inside those two divs are div headers and tabled content. I want the Div headers (Hour/Minute) to stretch to the width of the tabled content, but they only do this in FF and Chrome, not IE7. IE7 is my works official browser so the one I need it to work with the most. Here is the CSS: #ui-timepicker-div { padding:0.2em; } #ui-timepicker-hours { float:left; } #ui-timepicker-minutes { margin:0 0 0 0.2em; float:left; } .ui-timepicker .ui-timepicker-header { padding:0.2em 0; } .ui-timepicker .ui-timepicker-title { line-height:1.8em; text-align:center; } .ui-timepicker table { margin:0.15em 0 0 0; font-size:.9em; border-collapse:collapse; } .ui-timepicker td { padding:1px; width:2.2em; } .ui-timepicker th, .ui-timepicker td { border:0; } .ui-timepicker td a { display:block; padding:0.2em 0.3em 0.2em 0.5em; text-align:right; text-decoration:none; } Here is the HTML (did not include tabled content): <div style="position: absolute; top: 252.667px; left: 648px; z-index: 1; display: none;" class="ui-timepicker ui-widget ui-widget-content ui-helper-clearfix ui-corner-all" id="ui-timepicker-div"> <div id="ui-timepicker-hours"> <div class="ui-timepicker-header ui-widget-header ui-helper-clearfix ui-corner-all"> <div class="ui-timepicker-title">Hour</div> </div> <table class="ui-timepicker"> </table> </div> <div id="ui-timepicker-minutes"> <div class="ui-timepicker-header ui-widget-header ui-helper-clearfix ui-corner-all"> <div class="ui-timepicker-title">Minutes</div> </div> <table class="ui-timepicker"> </table> </div> </div>

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  • Wordpress Custom Post Type adding tags

    - by Nick White
    I am currently working on a Wordpress site I have created some custom Post Types all work fine create the post etc. What I need however is custom taxonomies with some of the custom Post Types, I have set this up and when adding different tags to the taxonomy it works however, when creating a post for a custom post type in the taxonomy block clicking add tag it just does a anchor link to #Member news Category-add Nothing else happens, it's not a big bug but I would however, like to fix this so it is correct for the time I go live Is this a known bug? or is there something I have probably missed when creating the custom post type? register_post_type('member_news', array( 'label' => 'Member News','description' => 'News content submitted by members of RRUKA.','public' => true,'show_ui' => true,'show_in_menu' => true,'capability_type' => 'post','hierarchical' => false,'rewrite' => array('slug' => 'member-news'),'query_var' => true,'has_archive' => true,'exclude_from_search' => false,'menu_position' => 5,'supports' => array('title','editor','excerpt','trackbacks','revisions','thumbnail','author','page-attributes',),'labels' => array ( 'name' => 'Member News', 'singular_name' => 'Member News', 'menu_name' => 'Member News', 'add_new' => 'Add Member News', 'add_new_item' => 'Add New Member News', 'edit' => 'Edit', 'edit_item' => 'Edit Member News', 'new_item' => 'New Member News', 'view' => 'View Member News', 'view_item' => 'View Member News', 'search_items' => 'Search Member News', 'not_found' => 'No Member News Found', 'not_found_in_trash' => 'No Member News Found in Trash', 'parent' => 'Parent Member News', ),) ); Any information on this would be very welcome Thanks in advanced

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  • Select Elements in nested Divs using JQuery

    - by PIKP
    I have the following html markup inside a Div named item and I want to select all the elements (inside nested divs) and clear the values. As shown in following given Jquery I have managed to access elements in each Div by using.children().each(). But the the problem is .children().each()goes one level down at a time from the parent div, so I have repeated the same code block with multiple .children() to access the elements inside nested Divs, can anyone suggest me a method to do this without repeating the code for N number of nested divs . html markup <div class="item"> <input type="hidden" value="1234" name="testVal"> <div class="form-group" id="c1"> <div class="controls "> <input type="text" value="Results" name="s1" maxlength="255" id="id2"> </div> </div> <div class="form-group" id="id4"> <input type="text" value="Results" name="s12" maxlength="255" id="id225"> <div class="form-group" id="id41"> <input type="text" value="Results" name="s12" maxlength="255" id="5"> <div class="form-group" id="id42"> <input type="text" value="Results" name="s12" maxlength="255" id="5"> <div class="form-group" id="id43"> <input type="text" value="Results" name="s12" maxlength="255" id="id224"> </div> </div> </div> </div> </div> My Qjuery script var row = $(".item:first").clone(false).get(0); $(row).children().each(function () { updateElementIndex(this, prefix, formCount); if ($(this).attr('type') == 'text') { $(this).val(''); } if ($(this).attr('type') == 'hidden' && ($(this).attr('name') != 'csrfmiddlewaretoken')) { $(this).val(''); } if ($(this).attr('type') == 'file') { $(this).val(''); } if ($(this).attr('type') == 'checkbox') { $(this).attr('checked', false); } $(this).remove('a'); }); // Relabel or rename all the relevant bits $(row).children().children().each(function () { updateElementIndex(this, prefix, formCount) if ($(this).attr('type') == 'text') { $(this).val(''); } if ($(this).attr('type') == 'hidden' && ($(this).attr('name') != 'csrfmiddlewaretoken')) { $(this).val(''); } if ($(this).attr('type') == 'file') { $(this).val(''); } if ($(this).attr('type') == 'checkbox') { $(this).attr('checked', false); } $(this).remove('a'); });

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  • Help with doctype issues

    - by James
    Hi I am having issues making my footer stick to the bottom of the page in all browsers. I have the following document structure: <html> <head> </head> <body> <div id="wrapper"> <div id="header"> <ul> <li>home</li> </ul> </div> <div class="expander"></div> </div> <div id="footer" class="expander"> </div> </body> </html> Relevant CSS is: body { margin: 0; height: 100%; } #wrapper { min-height: 100%; height: auto !important; height: 100%; margin: 0 auto -116px; } .expander { height: 116px; } #footer { width: 100%; } #header ul { list-style: none outside none; clear: both; margin: 0; } #header li { margin: 0; margin-right: 20px; padding: 0; display: inline-block; height: 85px; padding-top: 20px; margin-bottom: -20px; } When used without any doc type, the page renders as I intend it to in Chrome and Firefox. In IE8, however, the list item tabs are on separate lines When I add an XHTML doctype, the page renders correctly in IE8 except the footer is not drawn at the bottom of the page in IE8, Chrome or Firefox, i.e. the footer sits directly below the menu bar. Example doctype: <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.1//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml11/DTD/xhtml11.dtd"> What am I doing wrong?

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  • Guilty of unsound programming

    - by TelJanini
    I was reading Robert Rossney's entry on "What's the most unsound program you've had to maintain?" found at: (What's the most unsound program you've had to maintain?) when I realized that I had inadvertently developed a near-identical application! The app consists of an HTTPListener object that grabs incoming POST requests. Based on the information in the header, I pass the body of the request to SQL Server to perform the appropriate transaction. The requests look like: <InvoiceCreate Control="389> <Invoice> <CustomerNumber>5555</CustomerNumber> <Total>300.00</Total> <RushOrder>1</RushOrder> </Invoice> </InvoiceCreate> Once it's received by the HTTPListener object, I perform the required INSERT to the Invoice table using SQL Server's built-in XML handling functionality via a stored procedure: INSERT INTO Invoice (InvoiceNumber, CustomerNumber, Total, RushOrder) SELECT @NEW_INVOICE_NUMBER, @XML.value('(InvoiceCreate/Invoice/CustomerNumber)[1]', 'varchar(10)'), @XML.value('(InvoiceCreate/Invoice/Total)[1]', 'varchar(10)'), @XML.value('(InvoiceCreate/Invoice/Total)[1]', 'varchar(10)') I then use another SELECT statement in the same stored procedure to return the value of the new Invoice Number that was inserted into the Invoices table: SELECT @NEW_INVOICE_NUMBER FOR XML PATH 'InvoiceCreateAck' I then read the generated XML using a SQL data reader object in C# and use it as the response of the HTTPListener object. My issue is, I'm noticing that Robert is indeed correct. All of my application logic exists inside the stored procedure, so I find myself having to do a lot of error-checking (i.e. validating the customer number and invoicenumber values) inside the stored procedure. I'm still a midlevel developer, and as such, am looking to improve. Given the original post, and my current architecture, what could I have done differently to improve the application? Are there any patterns or best practices that I could refer to? What approach would you have taken? I'm open to any and all criticism, as I'd like to do my part to reduce the amount of "unsound programming" in the world.

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  • Large memory chunk not garbage collected

    - by Niels
    In a hunt for a memory-leak in my app I chased down a behaviour I can't understand. I allocate a large memory block, but it doesn't get garbage-collected resulting in a OOM, unless I explicit null the reference in onDestroy. In this example I have two almost identical activities that switch between each others. Both have a single button. On pressing the button MainActivity starts OOMActivity and OOMActivity returns by calling finish(). After pressing the buttons a few times, Android throws a OOMException. If i add the the onDestroy to OOMActivity and explicit null the reference to the memory chunk, I can see in the log that the memory is correctly freed. Why doesn't the memory get freed automatically without the nulling? MainActivity: package com.example.oom; import android.app.Activity; import android.content.Intent; import android.os.Bundle; import android.view.View; import android.view.View.OnClickListener; import android.widget.Button; public class MainActivity extends Activity implements OnClickListener { private int buttonId; @Override protected void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); System.gc(); Button OOMButton = new Button(this); OOMButton.setText("OOM"); buttonId = OOMButton.getId(); setContentView(OOMButton); OOMButton.setOnClickListener(this); } @Override public void onClick(View v) { if (v.getId() == buttonId) { Intent leakIntent = new Intent(this, OOMActivity.class); startActivity(leakIntent); } } } OOMActivity: public class OOMActivity extends Activity implements OnClickListener { private static final int WASTE_SIZE = 20000000; private byte[] waste; private int buttonId; protected void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); Button BackButton = new Button(this); BackButton.setText("Back"); buttonId = BackButton.getId(); setContentView(BackButton); BackButton.setOnClickListener(this); waste = new byte[WASTE_SIZE]; } public void onClick(View view) { if (view.getId() == buttonId) { finish(); } } }

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  • Long numbers. Division.

    - by user577395
    Hello, world! I have a problem. Today I tried to create a code, which finds Catalan number. But in my program can be long numbers. I found numerator and denominator. But i can't div long numbers! Also, only standard libraries was must use in this program. Help me please. This is my code #include <vector> #include <iostream> using namespace std; int main(int argc, char *argv[]) { const int base = 1000*1000*1000; vector <int> a, b; int n, carry = 0; cin>>n; a.push_back(n); for (int ii=n+2; ii!=(2*n)+1;++ii) { carry = 0; for (size_t i=0; i<a.size() || carry; ++i) { if (i == a.size()) a.push_back (0); long long cur = carry + a[i] * 1ll * ii; a[i] = int (cur % base); carry = int (cur / base); } } while (a.size() > 1 && a.back() == 0) a.pop_back(); b.push_back(n); for (int ii=1; ii!=n+1;++ii) { carry = 0; for (size_t i=0; i<b.size() || carry; ++i) { if (i == b.size()) b.push_back (0); long long cur = carry + b[i] * 1ll * ii; b[i] = int (cur % base); carry = int (cur / base); } } while (b.size() > 1 && b.back() == 0) b.pop_back(); cout<<(a.empty() ? 0 : a.back()); for (int i=(int)a.size()-2; i>=0; --i) cout<<(a[i]); cout<<" "; cout<<(b.empty() ? 0 : b.back()); for (int i=(int)b.size()-2; i>=0; --i) cout<<(b[i]); //system("PAUSE"); cout<<endl; return 0; } P.S. Sorry for my bad english =)

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  • sigwait in Linux (Fedora 13) vs OS X

    - by Silas
    So I'm trying to create a signal handler using pthreads which works on both OS X and Linux. The code below works on OS X but doesn't work on Fedora 13. The application is fairly simple. It spawns a pthread, registers SIGHUP and waits for a signal. After spawning the signal handler I block SIGHUP in the main thread so the signal should only be sent to the signal_handler thread. On OS X this works fine, if I compile, run and send SIGHUP to the process it prints "Got SIGHUP". On Linux it just kills the process (and prints Hangup). If I comment out the signal_handler pthread_create the application doesn't die. I know the application gets to the sigwait and blocks but instead of return the signal code it just kills the application. I ran the test using the following commands: g++ test.cc -lpthread -o test ./test & PID="$!" sleep 1 kill -1 "$PID" test.cc #include <pthread.h> #include <signal.h> #include <iostream> using namespace std; void *signal_handler(void *arg) { int sig; sigset_t set; sigemptyset(&set); sigaddset(&set, SIGHUP); while (true) { cout << "Wait for signal" << endl; sigwait(&set, &sig); if (sig == SIGHUP) { cout << "Got SIGHUP" << endl; } } } int main() { pthread_t handler; sigset_t set; // Create signal handler pthread_create(&handler, NULL, signal_handler, NULL); // Ignore SIGHUP in main thread sigfillset(&set); sigaddset(&set, SIGHUP); pthread_sigmask(SIG_BLOCK, &set, NULL); for (int i = 1; i < 5; i++) { cout << "Sleeping..." << endl; sleep(1); } pthread_join(handler, NULL); return 0; }

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  • How do I pass a javascript parameter to an asp.net MVCmodel from within a View?

    - by Josh
    Hi everyone! I am having an issue trying to access a list property on a model from within a javascript. My basic situation is this: I have an ArticleController and an ArticleViewModel. An Article has a number of properties, one of which is Text, which is just a string that contains the contents of the article. The ArticleViewModel contains a Pages property, which is just a List of Strings. When the ArticleViewModel constructor is called, I populate the Pages list by dividing up the article text based on some delimeters. I have a View which inherits the ArticleViewModel type. What I want to do is only display one page at a time, and then when the user clicks a page number (from a list at the bottom of the article), I want to use javascript to load that page into the #dynamicContent div. The problem: I can't seem to pass a parameter to the Model.Pages property from within javascript... Is this possible? I get an error stating, "Expression Expected" when I try what I have below. I don't want to have to worry about AJAX calls or anything like that since I already have the entire article... I just need a way to access each individual page from within the javascript function. Alternatively, if there is a better solution for "paginating" an article so that I can load each articlePage without having to refresh the entire html page, I would certainly be open to that as well. Any help would be much appreciated!! Thanks for your time! ArticleView Code: Script at the top of the view: function loadPage(pageNumber) { try { alert(pageNumber); $('#dynamicContent').html('<%=Model.Pages(' + pageNumber + ') %>'); } catch (e) { alert('in here'); alert(e.description); } } HTML for view: [...] <div id="articleBody"> <div id="dynamicContent"> <%=Model.Pages(0)%> </div> </div> [...] Page Links at bottom of page: [...] <div> <ul style="display:block"> <li style="display:inline"> <a href="#articleTitle" onclick="loadPage(0)"> 1 </a> </li> <li style="display:inline"> <a href="#articleTitle" onclick="loadPage(1)"> 2 </a> </li> </ul> </div>

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  • How does the CLR (.NET) internally allocate and pass around custom value types (structs)?

    - by stakx
    Question: Do all CLR value types, including user-defined structs, live on the evaluation stack exclusively, meaning that they will never need to be reclaimed by the garbage-collector, or are there cases where they are garbage-collected? Background: I have previously asked a question on SO about the impact that a fluent interface has on the runtime performance of a .NET application. I was particuarly worried that creating a large number of very short-lived temporary objects would negatively affect runtime performance through more frequent garbage-collection. Now it has occured to me that if I declared those temporary objects' types as struct (ie. as user-defined value types) instead of class, the garbage collector might not be involved at all if it turns out that all value types live exclusively on the evaluation stack. What I've found out so far: I did a brief experiment to see what the differences are in the CIL generated for user-defined value types and reference types. This is my C# code: struct SomeValueType { public int X; } class SomeReferenceType { public int X; } . . static void TryValueType(SomeValueType vt) { ... } static void TryReferenceType(SomeReferenceType rt) { ... } . . var vt = new SomeValueType { X = 1 }; var rt = new SomeReferenceType { X = 2 }; TryValueType(vt); TryReferenceType(rt); And this is the CIL generated for the last four lines of code: .locals init ( [0] valuetype SomeValueType vt, [1] class SomeReferenceType rt, [2] valuetype SomeValueType <>g__initLocal0, // [3] class SomeReferenceType <>g__initLocal1, // why are these generated? [4] valuetype SomeValueType CS$0$0000 // ) L_0000: ldloca.s CS$0$0000 L_0002: initobj SomeValueType // no newobj required, instance already allocated L_0008: ldloc.s CS$0$0000 L_000a: stloc.2 L_000b: ldloca.s <>g__initLocal0 L_000d: ldc.i4.1 L_000e: stfld int32 SomeValueType::X L_0013: ldloc.2 L_0014: stloc.0 L_0015: newobj instance void SomeReferenceType::.ctor() L_001a: stloc.3 L_001b: ldloc.3 L_001c: ldc.i4.2 L_001d: stfld int32 SomeReferenceType::X L_0022: ldloc.3 L_0023: stloc.1 L_0024: ldloc.0 L_0025: call void Program::TryValueType(valuetype SomeValueType) L_002a: ldloc.1 L_002b: call void Program::TryReferenceType(class SomeReferenceType) What I cannot figure out from this code is this: Where are all those local variables mentioned in the .locals block allocated? How are they allocated? How are they freed? Why are so many anonymous local variables needed and copied to-and-fro only to initialize my two local variables rt and vt?

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  • Asyncronous While Loop?

    - by o7th Web Design
    I have a pretty great SqlDataReader wrapper in which I can map the output into a strongly typed list. What I am finding now is that on larger datasets with larger numbers of columns, performance could probably be a bit better if I can optimize my mapping. In thinking about this there is one section in particular that I am concerned about as it seems to be the heaviest hitter: while (_Rdr.Read()) { T newObject = new T(); for (int i = 0; i <= _Rdr.FieldCount - 1; ++i) { PropertyInfo info = (PropertyInfo)_ht[_Rdr.GetName(i).ToUpper()]; if ((info != null) && info.CanWrite) { info.SetValue(newObject, (_Rdr.GetValue(i) is DBNull) ? default(T) : _Rdr.GetValue(i), null); } } _en.Add(newObject); } _Rdr.Close(); What I would really like to know, is if there is a way that I can make this loop asyncronous? I feel that will make all the difference in the world with this beast :) Here is the entire Map method in case anyone can see where I can make further improvements on it... IList<T> Map<T> // Map our datareader object to a strongly typed list private static IList<T> Map<T>(IDataReader _Rdr) where T : new() { try { Type _t = typeof(T); List<T> _en = new List<T>(); Hashtable _ht = new Hashtable(); PropertyInfo[] _props = _t.GetProperties(); Parallel.ForEach(_props, info => { _ht[info.Name.ToUpper()] = info; }); while (_Rdr.Read()) { T newObject = new T(); for (int i = 0; i <= _Rdr.FieldCount - 1; ++i) { PropertyInfo info = (PropertyInfo)_ht[_Rdr.GetName(i).ToUpper()]; if ((info != null) && info.CanWrite) { info.SetValue(newObject, (_Rdr.GetValue(i) is DBNull) ? default(T) : _Rdr.GetValue(i), null); } } _en.Add(newObject); } _Rdr.Close(); return _en; }catch(Exception ex){ _Msg += "Wrapper.Map Exception: " + ex.Message; ErrorReporting.WriteEm.WriteItem(ex, "o7th.Class.Library.Data.Wrapper.Map", _Msg); return default(IList<T>); } }

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  • What's the best way to handle modules that use each other?

    - by Axeman
    What's the best way to handle modules that use each other? Let's say I have a module which has functions for hashes: # Really::Useful::Functions::On::Hash.pm use base qw<Exporter>; use strict; use warnings; use Really::Useful::Functions::On::List qw<transform_list>; our @EXPORT_OK = qw<transform_hash transform_hash_as_list ...>; #... sub transform_hash { ... } #... sub transform_hash_as_list { return transform_list( %{ shift() } ); } #... 1 And another module has been segmented out for lists: # Really::Useful::Functions::On::List.pm use base qw<Exporter>; use strict; use warnings; use Really::Useful::Functions::On::Hash qw<transform_hash>; our @EXPORT_OK = qw<transform_list some_func ...>; #... sub transform_list { ... } #... sub some_func { my %params = transform_hash @_; #... } #... 1 Suppose that enough of these utility functions are handy enough that I'll want to use them in BEGIN statements and import functions to process parameter lists or configuration data. I have been putting sub definitions into BEGIN blocks to make sure they are ready to use whenever somebody includes the module. But I have gotten into hairy race conditions where a definition is not completed in a BEGIN block. I put evolving code idioms into modules so that I can reuse any idiom I find myself coding over and over again. For instance: sub list_if { my $condition = shift; return unless $condition; my $more_args = scalar @_; my $arg_list = @_ > 1 ? \@_ : @_ ? shift : $condition; if (( reftype( $arg_list ) || '' ) eq 'ARRAY' ) { return wantarray ? @$arg_list : $arg_list; } elsif ( $more_args ) { return $arg_list; } return; } captures two idioms that I'm kind of tired of typing: @{ func_I_hope_returns_a_listref() || [] } and ( $condition ? LIST : ()) The more I define functions in BEGIN blocks, the more likely I'll use these idiom bricks to express the logic the more likely that bricks are needed in BEGIN blocks. Do people have standard ways of dealing with this sort of language-idiom-brick model? I've been doing mostly Pure-Perl; will XS alleviate some of this?

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  • Should the argument be passed by reference in this .net example?

    - by Hamish Grubijan
    I have used Java, C++, .Net. (in that order). When asked about by-value vs. by-ref on interviews, I have always done well on that question ... perhaps because nobody went in-depth on it. Now I know that I do not see the whole picture. I was looking at this section of code written by someone else: XmlDocument doc = new XmlDocument(); AppendX(doc); // Real name of the function is different AppendY(doc); // ditto When I saw this code, I thought: wait a minute, should not I use a ref in front of doc variable (and modify AppendX/Y accordingly? it works as written, but made me question whether I actually understand the ref keyword in C#. As I thought about this more, I recalled early Java days (college intro language). A friend of mine looked at some code I have written and he had a mental block - he kept asking me which things are passed in by reference and when by value. My ignorant response was something like: Dude, there is only one kind of arg passing in Java and I forgot which one it is :). Chill, do not over-think and just code. Java still does not have a ref does it? Yet, Java hackers seem to be productive. Anyhow, coding in C++ exposed me to this whole by reference business, and now I am confused. Should ref be used in the example above? I am guessing that when ref is applied to value types: primitives, enums, structures (is there anything else in this list?) it makes a big difference. And ... when applied to objects it does not because it is all by reference. If things were so simple, then why would not the compiler restrict the usage of ref keyword to a subset of types. When it comes to objects, does ref serve as a comment sort of? Well, I do remember that there can be problems with null and ref is also useful for initializing multiple elements within a method (since you cannot return multiple things with the same easy as you would do in Python). Thanks.

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  • IE dynamic image caching issue?

    - by rdevitt
    I have an html page that is loading multiple iframes into which are embedded dynamic images created from a Tomcat server page (.jsp). This works as expected from Chrome and Firefox, but for some reason IE displays all of the images the same (as the first image). I've created an example: http://coupondiscounts.com/dev/jsImageTest.html jsImageTest.html -- This page simply loads 6 instances of the testImageFrame.html page in separate iframes one-at-a-time, using Javascript. testImageFrame.html -- This is the page loaded in all the iframes. It contains only a JavaScript block that writes out the current time and an img tag. The img is dynamically generated by a .jsp page on a different server. It should be a white box on a black background. In the box are the current time (from the Tomcat server using Java) and a randomly created double between 0 & 1. What happens (in IE): The page almost instantly loads four identical iframes. Depending on the speed of your machine, the JavaScript times may vary by a second or two. The images' times will all be the same as will be the random number. This holds true even for the last two iframes which are loaded 5 and 10 seconds after the others (using JavaScript setTimeout()). What should happen (as it does in Chrome and FF): The page loads the same 4 iframes, but the random numbers in the images will be different. The times in the images occasionally span a second as well. Anyone have a clue as to what's going on here? Is IE doing some strange caching? The image header has "no-cache," "no-store" and all that. I've tried it on IE6 and 7. You can use the "Next" button to create another iframe. In IE, the images are always the same. Notes: I don't really need iframes, just the images, but if I only use img tags, the problem appears in Chrome and FF as well. I also don't really need to load these iframes dynamically, I was just trying to abstract the issue further and allow a delayed load for the latter 2 images.

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  • jquery Hover and while loop

    - by DragoN
    i have a table of php with while loop to show the records i added a jquery hover to do that : if hovered it show a message in same row but the problem is : if hover it show a message in all rows here is css: <style> .tansa{ position: absolute; margin-right: -60px; margin-top:-25px; background: #CBDFF3; border: 1px solid #4081C3; font-size: 0.88em; padding: 2px 7px; display: inline-block; border-radius: 8px; -moz-border-radius: 8px; -webkit-border-radius: 8px; line-height: 1.2em; text-shadow: 0 0 0em #FFF; overflow: hidden; text-align: center; color:black; display:none; } .arrow{ position: relative; width: 0; height: 0; top: -25px; border-top: 5px solid #000000; border-right: 5px solid transparent; border-left: 5px solid transparent; display:none; } </style> here is my php : <table><tr>row</tr> <?php $results = mysql_query("select * from MyTable"); while{$r = mysql_fetch_array($results)){ echo "<tr><td>Row : <img src='img/tans.png' width='24' height='24' class='tansef' /><span class='tansa' >the message</span><div class='arrow'></div></td></tr>"; } ?> </table> here is jquery $(document).ready(function(){ $('.tansef').hover(function(){ var sh = $('.tansa'); var sharrow = $('.arrow'); sh.show(); sharrow.show(); },function(){ var shs = $('.tansa'); var sharrows = $('.arrow'); shs.hide(); sharrows.hide(); }); }); any solution to show the message in each row only

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  • css issue on hover- shaky effect

    - by Sarika Thapaliya
    <style type="text/css"> .linkcontainer{border-right: solid 0.2px white;margin-right:1px} .hardlink{color: #FFF !important; border: 1px solid transparent; } .hardlink:hover{ background:url("/_layouts/images/bgximg.png") repeat-x -0px -489px; display:inline-block; background-color:#21374C; border:0.2px solid #5badff; line-height:20px; text-decoration:none !important;} </style> <div style="padding-bottom:3px;background:transparent; color:white!important; float:left; margin-right:20px; line-height:42px;"> <span class="linkcontainer"> <a class="hardlink" style="padding:0 10px;" href="http://hronline">HROnline</a> </span> <span class="linkcontainer"> <a class="hardlink" style="padding:0 10px; " href="http://hronline/ec">Employee Center</a> </span> <span class="linkcontainer"> <a class="hardlink" style="padding:0 10px; " href="http://hronline/businesscommunities">Business Communities</a> </span> <span class="linkcontainer"> <a class="hardlink" style="padding:0 10px;" href="http://hronline/internalservices">Internal Services</a> </span> <span class="linkcontainer"> <a class="hardlink" style="padding:0 10px;" href="http://hronline/policiesprocedures">Policies&procedures</a> </span> <span class="linkcontainer"> <a class="hardlink" style="padding:0 10px;" href="http://hronline/qualitybestpractices">Best Practices</a> </span> </div> I added a right border to the span that contain menu links. When I hover on each menu links, it also has some background. This is causing jerky effect on the whole container.. What is causing the shaky effect on hover? I don't seem to figure it out--again..

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  • Terminating a long-executing thread and then starting a new one in response to user changing parameters via UI in an applet

    - by user1817170
    I have an applet which creates music using the JFugue API and plays it for the user. It allows the user to input a music phrase which the piece will be based on, or lets them choose to have a phrase generated randomly. I had been using the following method (successfully) to simply stop and start the music, which runs in a thread using the Player class from JFugue. I generate the music using my classes and user input from the applet GUI...then... private playerThread pthread; private Thread threadPlyr; private Player player; (from variables declaration) public void startMusic(Pattern p) // pattern is a JFugue object which holds the generated music { if (pthread == null) { pthread = new playerThread(); } else { pthread = null; pthread = new playerThread(); } if (threadPlyr == null) { threadPlyr = new Thread(pthread); } else { threadPlyr = null; threadPlyr = new Thread(pthread); } pthread.setPattern(p); threadPlyr.start(); } class playerThread implements Runnable // plays midi using jfugue Player { private Pattern pt; public void setPattern(Pattern p) { pt = p; } @Override public void run() { try { player.play(pt); // takes a couple mins or more to execute resetGUI(); } catch (Exception exception) { } } } And the following to stop music when user presses the stop/start button while Player.isPlaying() is true: public void stopMusic() { threadPlyr.interrupt(); threadPlyr = null; pthread = null; player.stop(); } Now I want to implement a feature which will allow the user to change parameters while the music is playing, create an updated music pattern, and then play THAT pattern. Basically, the idea is to make it simulate "real time" adjustments to the generated music for the user. Well, I have been beating my head against the wall on this for a couple of weeks. I've read all the standard java documentation, researched, read, and searched forums, and I have tried many different ideas, none of which have succeeded. The problem I've run into with all approaches I've tried is that when I start the new thread with the new, updated musical pattern, all the old threads ALSO start, and there is a cacophony of unintelligible noise instead of my desired output. From what I've gathered, the issue seems to be that all the methods I've come across require that the thread is able to periodically check the value of a "flag" variable and then shut itself down from within its "run" block in response to that variable. However, since my thread makes a call that takes several minutes minimum to execute (playing the music), and I need to terminate it WHILE it is executing this, there is really no safe way to do so. So, I'm wondering if there is something I'm missing when it comes to threads, or if perhaps I can accomplish my goal using a totally different approach. Any ideas or guidance is greatly appreciated! Thank you!

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  • Add color to selected <li> item / override <ul> style

    - by Alana
    I have navigation for which I need to set a color for the selected item. It's flat HTML and CSS. Here's the menu code: <ul id="top_navigation"> <li class="border_red"><a href="index.html">Home</a></li> <li class="border_red"><a href="about.html">About</a></li> <li class="border_red"><a href="services.html"><font color="#cf3533">Services</font></a></li> <li class="border_red"><a href="careers.html">Careers</a></li> <li class="border_red"><a href="news.html">News</a></li> <li class="border_red"><a href="sitemap.html">Sitemap</a></li> <li><a href="contact.html">Contact</a></li> </ul> And here's the CSS - there's the basic set up and then a class to put the pipe between the items: #top_navigation { width: 696px; margin: 0px; padding: 0 0 0 4px; list-style-type: none; overflow: hidden; } #top_navigation li { width: auto; height: 17px; margin: 0px; padding: 1px 10px 0 10px; float: left; } #top_navigation li a { margin: 0px; padding: 0px; display: block; font-size: 12px; text-align: center; text-decoration: none; } #top_navigation li a:hover { color: #cf3533; } This sets the pipe on the right. .border_red { border-right: 1px solid #d7d7d7; } I tried combining the two and creating a _selected style, and the pipe shows up, but I can't get the color to change for the selected. I have to be WCAG Priorities 1,2,3-compliant, so I can't just set it manually with .

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