Search Results

Search found 34778 results on 1392 pages for 'url link'.

Page 592/1392 | < Previous Page | 588 589 590 591 592 593 594 595 596 597 598 599  | Next Page >

  • How to make placeholder varablies in jquery validate 1.7?

    - by chobo2
    Hi I am using jquery 1.4.2 and jquery validate 1.7(http://bassistance.de/jquery-plugins/jquery-plugin-validation/) Say I have this example that I just grabbed off some random site(http://www.webreference.com/programming/javascript/jquery/form_validation/) 8 <script type="text/javascript"> 9 $(document).ready(function() { 10 $("#form1").validate({ 11 rules: { 12 name: "required",// simple rule, converted to {required:true} 13 email: {// compound rule 14 required: true, 15 email: true 16 }, 17 url: { 18 url: true 19 }, 20 comment: { 21 required: true 22 } 23 }, 24 messages: { 25 comment: "Please enter a comment." 26 } 27 }); 28 }); 29 </script> now is it possible to do something like this 10 $("#form1").validate({ var NameHolder = "name" 11 rules: { 12 NameHolder: "required",// simple rule, converted to {required:true} 13 email: {// compound rule 14 required: true, 15 email: true So basically I want to make sort of a global variable to hold theses rule names( what correspond to the names on that html control). My concern is the names of html controls can change and it kinda sucks that I will have to go around and change it in many places of my code to make it work again. So basically I am wondering is there away to make a global variable to store this name. So if I need to change the name I only have to change it in one spot in my javascript file sort of the way stopping magic numbers ?

    Read the article

  • MS Word opens documents hosted on WebDav share read-only on Windows Vista and 7 but only if no other

    - by rjmunro
    We have a WebDav server with some Word documents on it. (We are using PHP's HTTP_WebDAV_Server but get the same issue on tests with Apache mod_dav - both use digest authentication, basic auth doesn't work on Vista or later) We have a web page that opens the word documents using javascript like: Doc = new ActiveXObject("Sharepoint.OpenDocuments.3"); Doc.EditDocument(url, 'Word.Document'); which causes word to connect to the webdav server and open the document, bypassing IE and most of windows built in WebDav client. On Windows XP, this works perfectly, and (after prompting you to log in) allows you to edit the word document and save it back to the server. On Windows 7 and Windows Vista, this usually opens the document read only, but not in all cases. After quite a bit of trial and error, we found that it worked (i.e. opened read/write) if Explorer happened to be already connected to a WebDav server. Note that this works with any Webdav server, not neccesarily the one with the document that you are trying to edit. So other than telling our users to change settings on their machine, is there anything we can do in the javascript sharepoint call, or on the WebDav server that will fix this issue. Ps. We have the same problem when launching Word from an HTA file version of our system, with javascript like: wordApp = new ActiveXObject("Word.application"); wordApp = new ActiveXObject("Word.application"); wordApp.Visible = true; doc = wordApp.Documents.Open(url); Pps. Sorry if you think this question should be on Serverfault (or even SuperUser). I couldn't decide, but because we are programming the WebDav server ourself (in PHP) and I have more rep on this site than the others, I decided to post it here :-)

    Read the article

  • How to use Grails Spring Security Plugin to require logging in before access an action?

    - by Hoàng Long
    Hi all, I know that I can use annotation or Request mapping to restrict access to an ACTION by some specific ROLES. But now I have a different circumstance. My scenario is: every user of my site can create posts, and they can make their own post public, private, or only share to some other users. I implement sharing post by a database table PERMISSION, which specify if a user have the right to view a post or not. The problem arises here is that when a customer access a post through a direct link, how can I determine he/she have the privilege to view it? There's 3 circumstances: The post is public, so it can be viewed by anyone (include not-login user) The post is private, so only the login-owner can view it The post is sharing, it means only the login-user that is shared and the owner can view it. I want to process like this: If the requested post is public: ok. If the requested post is private/sharing: I want to redirect the customer to the login page; after logging in, the user will be re-direct to the page he wants to see. The problem here is that I can redirect the user to login controller/ auth action, but after that I don't know how to redirect it back. The link to every post is different by post_id, so I can't use SpringSecurityUtils.securityConfig.successHandler.defaultTargetUrl Could anyone know a way to do this?

    Read the article

  • Got problem when uploading the html into the webview in iphone sdk.

    - by Monish Kumar
    Hi Guy's NSString* appendString=@""; appendString = [appendString stringByAppendingString:@"<body>"]; appendString =[appendString stringByAppendingString:@"<table background='footer.png' width='320' height='45' style='background-repeat:no-repeat'>"]; appendString =[appendString stringByAppendingString:@"<tr>"]; appendString =[appendString stringByAppendingString:@"<td align='left' width='57' height='31' style='padding: 6px 0 0 0' ><a href='/map/'><img src='details_Back.png'/></a></td>"]; appendString =[appendString stringByAppendingString:@"<td align='left' valign='middle' style='padding: 0 0 0 65px; font-family:Helvetica; font-size:21px ; font-weight:bold ; color:#FFF'>Details</td>"]; appendString =[appendString stringByAppendingString:@"</tr>"]; appendString =[appendString stringByAppendingString:@"</table>"]; appendString =[appendString stringByAppendingString:@"<br>"]; returnString = [returnString stringByReplacingOccurrencesOfString:@"<body>" withString:appendString]; printf("\n return string :%s",[returnString UTF8String]); [myWebView loadHTMLString:returnString baseURL:[NSURL URLWithString:@"http://abc.api.abcdefg.com/"]]; here in the above code the footer.png and details_back.png are the local images stored in my resource folder. Here the problem is I am gettin the background image from the server link I had passed to the webview as baseurl but the images footer.png and details_back.png which were stored in resource is not displayed. if I use the resource bundle as the baseurl then I am not displayed the background image from the server link. Can anyone please give me the suggestions to get rid of rid of this problem. thanks to all guy's, Monish.

    Read the article

  • Hide a single content block from search engines?

    - by jonas
    A header is automatically added on top of each content URL, but its not relevant for search and messing up the all the results beeing the first line of every page (in the code its the last line but visually its the first, which google is able to notice) Solution1: You could put the header (content to exculde from google searches) in an iframe with a static url domain.com/header.html and a <meta name="robots" content="noindex" /> ? - are there takeoffs of this solution? Solution2: You could deliver it conditionally by apache mod rewrite, php or javascript -takeoff(?): google does not like it? will google ever try pages with a standard users's useragent and compare? -takeoff: The hidden content will be missing in the google cache version as well... example: add-header.php: <?php $path = $_GET['path']; echo file_get_contents($_SERVER["DOCUMENT_ROOT"].$path); ?> apache virtual host config: RewriteCond %{HTTP_USER_AGENT} !.*spider.* [NC] RewriteCond %{HTTP_USER_AGENT} !Yahoo.* [NC] RewriteCond %{HTTP_USER_AGENT} !Bing.* [NC] RewriteCond %{HTTP_USER_AGENT} !Yandex.* [NC] RewriteCond %{HTTP_USER_AGENT} !Baidu.* [NC] RewriteCond %{HTTP_USER_AGENT} !.*bot.* [NC] RewriteCond %{SCRIPT_FILENAME} \.htm$ [NC,OR] RewriteCond %{SCRIPT_FILENAME} \.html$ [NC,OR] RewriteCond %{SCRIPT_FILENAME} \.php$ [NC] RewriteRule ^(.*)$ /var/www/add-header.php?path=%1 [L]

    Read the article

  • How do i write task? (parallel code)

    - by acidzombie24
    I am impressed with intel thread building blocks. I like how i should write task and not thread code and i like how it works under the hood with my limited understanding (task are in a pool, there wont be 100 threads on 4cores, a task is not guaranteed to run because it isnt on its own thread and may be far into the pool. But it may be run with another related task so you cant do bad things like typical thread unsafe code). I wanted to know more about writing task. I like the 'Task-based Multithreading - How to Program for 100 cores' video here http://www.gdcvault.com/sponsor.php?sponsor_id=1 (currently second last link. WARNING it isnt 'great'). My fav part was 'solving the maze is better done in parallel' which is around the 48min mark (you can click the link on the left side). However i like to see more code examples and some API of how to write task. Does anyone have a good resource? I have no idea how a class or pieces of code may look after pushing it onto a pool or how weird code may look when you need to make a copy of everything and how much of everything is pushed onto a pool.

    Read the article

  • How to share the credentials between Webform and Winform?

    - by Daniel
    Hi! Question: I want to make a login form at the Clickonce deployment webpage, and only allow the authenticated users to download the application. and I want the downloaded application to use the same credentials entered at the webpage, without prompting the users to enter the credentials again. Details: I have an application(Windows Client) which needs customized settings for different users. the application is deployed through ClickOnce. Currently, the users are given the ClickOnce webpage URL, then download the application from there. after download and running the application, the application prompts users with a login form. If their credentials are authenticated, the application loads the customized settings from the server's database according to the credentials given. The problem is, any unauthenticated users can download the application if they just know the ClickOnce deployement webpage's URL. Unauthenticated users won't be able to run the application anyways, because the application asks for credentials when started, but I want to prevent the unauthenticated users from downloading the application at all. Am I asking the wrong question maybe? Your help is much appreciated!

    Read the article

  • Position absolute for rounded corners and problems in IE6

    - by danit
    Im using position absolute to give the top left corner of a DIV a rounded corner. HTML: <div id="MyDiv"> Some content <div class="topLeft">&nbsp</div> </div> CSS: #MyDiv { position: relative; padding: 12px; background: #fff url('graident.png') repeat-x top left; } .topLeft { position: absolute; top: 0; right: 0; width: 10px; height: 10px; background: transparent url('corner.png') no-repeat top right; } This works fine in all browsers expcept IE6. In IE6 the corner.png image seems to be about 1px out at the top corner, essentially not top: 0; and right: 0; but more like top: 1px; right: 1px; Can anyone explain why this might be happening only in IE6?

    Read the article

  • css: make background repeat-y with growing child content?

    - by mikemikemike
    I Have a three column layout. The center div is a container which holds all of my content. The outer columns is just a .png that fades into the body's background (left and right respectively). I want the .png to repeat-y to grow with the center container's content. It will only print the image once, and ignores the repeat-y. If I specify a height to the outside columns, it will print, but only to the specified height. I tried height: 100%, which does not work. Here is my code: #ultra_contain { text-align:left; width:900px; padding: 0px; position:relative; margin:0px auto; margin-top:0px; /*border:1px dashed #996;*/ } #gradientleft { float:left; position:relative; background: url("../i/gradient_left.png") repeat-y; /*border:1px dashed #996;*/ } #gradientright { float:right; position:relative; background: url("../i/gradient_right.png") repeat-y; /*border:1px dashed #996;*/ } #container { text-align:left; width:700px; position:relative; margin:5px auto; margin-top:0px; background:#fff; /*border:1px dashed #996;*/ }

    Read the article

  • Clickonce redirect

    - by David Hagan
    Is it possible to deploy an application (using an existing clickonce deployment URL, such that users update to that version) which changes the deployment URL of the deployed application? The scenario is that I have a deployed client (A), which is stable and has been in use for over a year, and a new client (B), which is in development and will be used. However, B and A have different UIDs so that they can both be deployed on the same system together. At some point in the future, I'd like to automatically migrate users who have been using A to B, but I'd hope that Clickonce is well-designed enough to not upgrade A to B if I place B's install files in A's install directory (because it should be checking those UIDs). I know that a C# application that's been deployed through clickonce has some access to its own deployment method, and I'm wondering whether I'm able to change the upgrade-location. I'm hoping to do this quietly without much involvement of the user (and I understand that quiet redirects are heavily frowned upon, for good reasons) and am wondering whether anyone has any experience of trying to modify an installed clickonce's deployment/upgrade information with an update.

    Read the article

  • How to get associated URLRequest from Event.COMPLETE fired by URLLoader

    - by matt lohkamp
    So let's say we want to load some XML - var xmlURL:String = 'content.xml'; var xmlURLRequest:URLRequest = new URLRequest(xmlURL); var xmlURLLoader:URLLoader = new URLLoader(xmlURLRequest); xmlURLLoader.addEventListener(Event.COMPLETE, function(e:Event):void{ trace('loaded',xmlURL); trace(XML(e.target.data)); }); If we need to know the source URL for that particular XML doc, we've got that variable to tell us, right? Now let's imagine that the xmlURL variable isn't around to help us - maybe we want to load 3 XML docs, named in sequence, and we want to use throwaway variables inside of a for-loop: for(var i:uint = 3; i > 0; i--){ var xmlURLLoader:URLLoader = new URLLoader(new URLRequest('content'+i+'.xml')); xmlURLLoader.addEventListener(Event.COMPLETE, function(e:Event):void{ trace(e.target.src); // I wish this worked... trace(XML(e.target.data)); }); } Suddenly it's not so easy, right? I hate that you can't just say e.target.src or whatever - is there a good way to associate URLLoaders with the URL they loaded data from? Am I missing something? It feels unintuitive to me.

    Read the article

  • JavaScript: how to create a JS event that requires 2 seperate JS files to be loaded first while down

    - by Teddyk
    I want to perform asynchronous JavaScript downloads of two files that have dependencies attached to them. // asynch download of jquery and gmaps function addScript(url) { var script = document.createElement('script'); script.src = url; document.getElementsByTagName('head')[0].appendChild(script); } addScript('http://google.com/gmaps.js'); addScript('http://jquery.com/jquery.js'); // define some function dependecies function requiresJQuery() { ... } function requiresGmaps() { ... } function requiresBothJQueryGmaps() { ... } // do some work that has no dependencies on either JQuery or Google maps ... // QUESTION - Pseudo code below // now call a function that requires Gmaps to be loaded if (GmapsIsLoaded) { requiresGmaps(); } // QUESTION - Pseudo code below // then do something that requires both JQuery & Gmaps (or wait until they are loaded) if (JQueryAndGmapsIsLoaded) { requiresBothJQueryGmaps(); } Question: How can I create an event to indicate when: JQuery is loaded? Google Maps is loaded JQuery & Google Maps are both loaded?

    Read the article

  • PAYPAL IPN Response Problem

    - by Gorkem Tolan
    I am having a problem with Paypal IPN response. After payment is made by the customer, paypal ipn returns this url www.mywebsite.com?orderid=32&tx=2AC67201DL3533325&st=Pending&amt=2.50&cc=USD&cm=&item_number=32 There are a couple of issues 1- Postback field names are undefined or missing. Thus I can get the INVALID message. I am not sure if my website does not read POST variables. When I looked at IPN history, it shows that each IPN has been sent with the complete url. 2- Payment status keeps coming Pending. Does this issue cause the first issue? Thank you for your responses in advance. Here is the code: Dim strSandbox As String, strLive As String Dim req As HttpWebRequest strSandbox = "http://www.sandbox.paypal.com/cgi-bin/webscr/" strLive = "https://www.paypal.com/cgi-bin/webscr" req = CType(WebRequest.Create(strSandbox), HttpWebRequest) 'Set values for the request back req.Method = "POST" req.ContentType = "application/x-www-form-urlencoded" Dim param() As Byte param = Request.BinaryRead(HttpContext.Current.Request.ContentLength) Dim strRequest As String strRequest = Encoding.ASCII.GetString(param) strRequest = strRequest & "&cmd=_notify-validate" req.ContentLength = strRequest.Length 'Response.Write(strRequest) 'Send the request to PayPal and get the response Dim streamOut As StreamWriter streamOut = New StreamWriter(req.GetRequestStream(), System.Text.Encoding.ASCII) streamOut.Write(strRequest) streamOut.Close() Dim streamIn As StreamReader streamIn = New StreamReader(req.GetResponse().GetResponseStream()) Dim strResponse As String strResponse = streamIn.ReadToEnd() Response.Write(strResponse) streamIn.Close() If (strResponse = "VERIFIED") Then Response.Redirect("thankyou.aspx") ElseIf (strResponse = "INVALID") Then End If

    Read the article

  • Generate and download a text file in javascript

    - by Mark B
    All my research so far suggests this can't be done, but I'm hoping someone here has some cunning ideas. I have a form on a website which allows users to bulk upload lots of URLs to add to a list on the server. There's quite a lot of server-side processing to do on each URL, so to avoid timeouts and to display progress, I've implemented the upload using jQuery to submit the URLs one at a time using ajax. This is all working nicely. However, part of the processing on each URL is deduplicating it against the complete list. The ajax call returns a status indicating either a successful upload or a rejection due to duplication. As the upload progresses, I tell the user how many URLs have been rejected as duplicates (along with overall progress and ETA). The problem now is how to give the user a complete list of the failed duplicate URLs. I've kept them in an array in my jQuery, and would like the user to be able to click on a link on the form to download a text file containing those URLs. Is this possible just using client-side processing? The server-side processing basically handles a single keyword at a time. I'd rather not have to store the duplicates in a database table with some kind of session key which gets sent with every ajax call, and is then used at the end to generate the text file server-side (and then gets cleaned up some time later). I can see how to do this, but it seems very clunky and a bit 20th century.

    Read the article

  • How to put JFrame into existing JPanel in Java Swing?

    - by suud
    I have an open-source java swing application like this: http://i47.tinypic.com/dff4f7.jpg You can see in the screenshot, there is a JPanel divided into two area, left and right area. The left area has many text links. When I click the SLA Criteria link, it will pop-up the SLA Criteria window. The pop-up window is JFrame object. Now, I'm trying to put the pop-up window into right area of the JPanel, so that means no pop-up window anymore, i.e. when I click the SLA Criteria link, its contents will be displayed at the right area of the JPanel. The existing content of the right area of JPanel will not be used anymore. The example illustration (note: it's made and edited using image editor, this is not the real screenshot of working application) is like this: http://i48.tinypic.com/5vrxaa.jpg So, I would like to know is there a way to put JFrame into JPanel? I'm thinking of using JInternalFrame, is it possible? Or is there another way? UPDATE: Source code: http://pastebin.com/tiqRbWP8 (VTreePanel.java, this is the JPanel) http://pastebin.com/330z3yuT (CPanel.java, this is the super class of VTreePanel) http://pastebin.com/MkNsbtjh (AWindow.java, this is the JFrame, pop-up window) http://pastebin.com/2rsppQeE (CFrame.java, this is the super class of AWindow)

    Read the article

  • Efficiently sending protocol buffer messages with http on an android platform

    - by Ben Griffiths
    I'm trying to send messages generated by Google Protocol Buffer code via a simple HTTP scheme to a server. What I have currently have implemented is here (forgive the obvious incompletion...): HttpClient client = new DefaultHttpClient(); String url = "http://192.168.1.69:8888/sdroidmarshal"; HttpPost postRequest = new HttpPost(url); String proto = offers.build().toString(); List<NameValuePair> nameValuePairs = new ArrayList<NameValuePair>(1); nameValuePairs.add(new BasicNameValuePair("sdroidmsg", proto)); postRequest.setEntity(new UrlEncodedFormEntity(nameValuePairs)); try { ResponseHandler<String> responseHandler = new BasicResponseHandler(); String responseBody = client.execute(postRequest, responseHandler); } catch (Throwable t) { } I'm not that experienced with communications over the internet and no more so with HTTP - while I do understand the basics... So my question, before I blindly develop the rest of the application around this, is whether or not this is particularly efficient? I ideally would like to keep messages small and I assume toString() adds some unnecessary formatting.

    Read the article

  • How to process events chain.

    - by theblackcascade
    I need to process this chain using one LoadXML method and one urlLoader object: ResourceLoader.Instance.LoadXML("Config.xml"); ResourceLoader.Instance.LoadXML("GraphicsSet.xml"); Loader starts loading after first frameFunc iteration (why?) I want it to start immediatly.(optional) And it starts loading only "GraphicsSet.xml" Loader class LoadXml method: public function LoadXML(URL:String):XML { urlLoader.addEventListener(Event.COMPLETE,XmlLoadCompleteListener); urlLoader.load(new URLRequest(URL)); return xml; } private function XmlLoadCompleteListener(e:Event):void { var xml:XML = new XML(e.target.data); trace(xml); trace(xml.name()); if(xml.name() == "Config") XMLParser.Instance.GameSetup(xml); else if(xml.name() == "GraphicsSet") XMLParser.Instance.GraphicsPoolSetup(xml); } Here is main: public function Main() { Mouse.hide(); this.addChild(Game.Instance); this.addEventListener(Event.ENTER_FRAME,Game.Instance.Loop); } And on adding a Game.Instance to the rendering queue in game constuctor i start initialize method: public function Game():void { trace("Constructor"); if(_instance) throw new Error("Use Instance Field"); Initialize(); } its code is: private function Initialize():void { trace("initialization"); ResourceLoader.Instance.LoadXML("Config.xml"); ResourceLoader.Instance.LoadXML("GraphicsSet.xml"); } Thanks.

    Read the article

  • How to code a 'Next in Results' within search results in PHP

    - by thebluefox
    Right, bit of a head scratcher, although I've got a feeling there's an obvious answer and I'm just not seeing the wood for the trees. Baiscally, using Solr as a search engine for my site, bringing back 15 results per page. When you click on a result, you get a detail page, that has a "Next in Results" link on it, which obviously forwards you on to the next result. Whats the best way of doing this? I've come up with a few solutions but they're either too inpractical or just don't work. I could store all the ids in a session array, then grab the one after the current one and put that in the link. But with possibly hundreds/thousands of results, the memory that array would need, and the performance hit of dealing with it isn't practical. I could take the same approach and put it into the db, but I'll still have to deal with a potentially huge array when I grab them out of the db. Or; I could do the search again, only returning the id's, and grab the one after the one we're currently looking at. I think this could be the best option? Although it does seem kind of messy, namely because of when I have to select the id thats on a different 'page' (ie the 16th, 31st etc result). Unless I pass through where it was in the results, and select from there, but that still doesn't seem like the right way to do it. I'm really sorry if this is just complete nonsense, any help is massively appreciated as always, Cheers guys!

    Read the article

  • facebook authentication / login trouble

    - by salmane
    I have setup facebook authentication using php and it goes something like this first getting the authorization here : https://graph.facebook.com/oauth/authorize?client_id=<?= $facebook_app_id ?>&redirect_uri=http://www.example.com/facebook/oauth/&scope=user_about_me,publish_stream then getting the access Token here : $url = "https://graph.facebook.com/oauth/access_token?client_id=".$facebook_app_id."&redirect_uri=http://www.example.com/facebook/oauth/&client_secret=".$facebook_secret."&code=".$code;" function get_string_between($string, $start, $end){ $string = " ".$string; $ini = strpos($string,$start); if ($ini == 0) return ""; $ini += strlen($start); $len = strpos($string,$end,$ini) - $ini; return substr($string,$ini,$len); } $access_token = get_string_between(file_get_contents($url), "access_token=", "&expires="); then getting user info : $facebook_user = file_get_contents('https://graph.facebook.com/me?access_token='.$access_token); $facebook_id = json_decode($facebook_user)->id; $first_name = json_decode($facebook_user)->first_name; $last_name = json_decode($facebook_user)->last_name; this is pretty ugly ( in my opinion ) but it works....how ever....the user is still not logged in...because i did not create or retrieve any session variables to confirm that the user is logged in to facebook... which means that after getting the authentication done the use still has to login .... first: is there a better way using php to do what i did above ? second: how do i set/ get session variable / cookies that ensure that the user doesnt have to click login thanks for your help

    Read the article

  • Problems solving oddly acting labels in ie7.

    - by Qwibble
    Okay so this is sort of a double question so I'll split it into two. First part In modern browsers the main bold labels sit above their corresponding form elements, and align to the left as is expected. However in ie7, they randomly site 10-15px inset. I went through the developer tools and could find nothing to fix it. I've made sure all my margins and padding is reset so I don't really understand =S Here's the page demo - link Maybe some of you ie bug fixing genius's know what the problem is? =D Second part Again with labels, this time the in-line ones resident next to the check boxes and radio buttons. In modern browsers again, the side beside the form elements as expected, but not so in ie7 where they take a new line. I've tried floating, changing margins and everything but to no effect in sitting it in-line with the div.checker or div.radio that is created by the uniform Jquery plugin. Here's the page demo - link Sorry for troubling you with my ie7 problems, I know they arent the most fun to solve. Hopefully someone has the patience to help. Matt

    Read the article

  • How do I display a view as if it's the front page via a module?

    - by Justin
    I have a simple view that feeds a home page. I have a custom module that registers some specific URLs in hook_menu that I pass into my module so I can pass them as arguments into the view. I can get the module to display the view all right, but it doesn't use the teaser/is_front view that outputs when I access the home page. I looked through the APIs but I can't seem to figure out how I can output the view via my module as if it's the front page, meaning $is_front is true and the teasers would appear. The reason I'm not passing in the arguments via the URL bar into the view itself is: My argument list is known and finite The argument order is mixed, meaning I will sometimes have /argument1, /argument1/argument2 or just /argument2. I only want to capture the first level URL as an argument for specific, known strings (e.g. I don't want to pass /admin into my view but I do want to pass in /los-angeles, which I register in the menu system via hook_menu in my module) Here are some examples to make this more clear: /admin - loads the admin page /user - loads the login page /boston - passes into the first argument of the view; shows in front/teaser mode / - shows view with no arguments /bread - passes into argument 2 of the view; shows in front/teaser mode /boston/bread - Passes into argument 1 and 2 of the view; shows in front/teaser mode Maybe I'm going about this the wrong way? Or perhaps there is a way to have a module load a view and somehow set front/teaser mode? Details: Drupal 6, PHP 5, MySQL 5, Views, CCK

    Read the article

  • Variable not implementing correctly from if statement

    - by swiftsly
    I have an if statement that is supposed to set the variable $pc162v to a link specified in the MySQL table if content exists in the $vid column of the row. The problem is, the PHP is detecting that there's a link in the MySQL, but isn't setting the $pc162v variable correctly. Here's the variable declarations: $pc162v = ""; $vid162 = '<embed width="420" height="236" src="'.$pc162v.'" type="application/x-shockwave-flash"></embed>'; Here's the section of the if statement: if (empty($row[7])) { $vid162 = ''; } else { $pc162v = $row[7]; } In my web browsers, the part of the code where the variable $vid162 is used, shows up as the following: <embed width="420" height="236" src="" type="application/x-shockwave-flash"> I have also tried setting $vid162 to: <embed width="420" height="236" src="<?php echo $pc162v; ?>" type="application/x-shockwave-flash"></embed> and that just makes the code in my web browser: <embed width="420" height="236" src="<?php echo $pc162v; ?>" type="application/x-shockwave-flash"> Hope someone has a solution! Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

  • Jquery Bugs?? Long decimal number after two numbers multiply...

    - by Jerry
    Hi all I am working on a shopping site and I am trying to calculate the subtotal of products. I got my price from a array and quantity from getJSON response array. Two of them multiply comes to my subtotal. I can change the quantity and it will comes out different subtotal. However,when I change the quantity to certain number, the final subtotal is like 259.99999999994 or some long decimal number. I use console.log to check the $price and $qty. Both of them are in the correct format ex..299.99 and 6 quantity.I have no idea what happen. I would appreciate it if someone can help me about it. Here is my Jquery code. $(".price").each(function(index, price){ $price=$(this); //get the product id and the price shown on the page var id=$price.closest('tr').attr('id'); var indiPrice=$($price).html(); //take off $ indiPrice=indiPrice.substring(1) //make sure it is number format var aindiPrice=Number(indiPrice); //push into the array productIdPrice[id]=(aindiPrice); var url=update.php $.getJSON( url, {productId:tableId, //tableId is from the other jquery code which refers to qty:qty}, productId function(responseProduct){ $.each(responseProduct, function(productIndex, Qty){ //loop the return data if(productIdPrice[productIndex]){ //get the price from the previous array we create X Qty newSub=productIdPrice[productIndex]*Number(Qty); //productIdPrice[productIndex] are the price like 199.99 or 99.99 // Qty are Quantity like 9 or 10 or 3 sum+=newSub; newSub.toFixed(2); //try to solve the problem with toFixed but didn't work console.log("id: "+productIdPrice[productIndex]) console.log("Qty: "+Qty); console.log(newSub); **//newSub sometime become XXXX.96999999994** }; Thanks again!

    Read the article

  • Twitter API Rate Limit - Overcoming on an unauthenticated JSON Get with Objective C?

    - by Cian
    I see the rate limit is 150/hr per IP. This'd be fine, but my application is on a mobile phone network (with shared IP addresses). I'd like to query twitter trends, e.g. GET /trends/1/json. This doesn't require authorization, however what if the user first authorized with my application using OAuth, then hit the JSON API? The request is built as follows: - (void) queryTrends:(NSString *) WOEID { NSString *urlString = [NSString stringWithFormat:@"http://api.twitter.com/1/trends/%@.json", WOEID]; NSURL *url = [NSURL URLWithString:urlString]; NSURLRequest *theRequest=[NSURLRequest requestWithURL:url cachePolicy:NSURLRequestUseProtocolCachePolicy timeoutInterval:10.0]; NSURLConnection *theConnection=[[NSURLConnection alloc] initWithRequest:theRequest delegate:self startImmediately:YES]; if (theConnection) { // Create the NSMutableData to hold the received data. theData = [[NSMutableData data] retain]; } else { NSLog(@"Connection failed in Query Trends"); } //NSData *data = [NSData dataWithContentsOfURL:[NSURL URLWithString:urlString]]; } I have no idea how I'd build this request as an authenticated one however, and haven't seen any examples to this effect online. I've read through the twitter OAuth documentation, but I'm still puzzled as to how it should work. I've experimented with OAuth using Ben Gottlieb's prebuild library, and calling this in my first viewDidLoad: OAuthViewController *oAuthVC = [[OAuthViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"OAuthTwitterDemoViewController" bundle:[NSBundle mainBundle]]; // [self setViewController:aViewController]; [[self navigationController] pushViewController:oAuthVC animated:YES]; This should store all the keys required in the app's preferences, I just need to know how to build the GET request after authorizing! Maybe this just isn't possible? Maybe I'll have to proxy the requests through a server side application? Any insight would be appreciated!

    Read the article

  • Parsing the Youtube API with DOM

    - by Kirk
    I'm using the Youtube API and I can retrieve the date information without a problem, but don't know how to retrieve the description information. My Code: <?php $v = "dQw4w9WgXcQ"; $url = "http://gdata.youtube.com/feeds/api/videos/". $v; $doc = new DOMDocument; $doc->load($url); $pub = $doc->getElementsByTagName("published")->item(0)->nodeValue; $desc = $doc->getElementsByTagName("media:description")->item(0)->nodeValue; echo "<b>Video Uploaded:</b> "; echo date( "F jS, Y", strtotime( $pub ) ); echo '<br>'; if (isset ($desc)) { echo "<b>Description:</b> "; echo $desc; echo '<br>'; } ?> Here's a link to the feed: http://gdata.youtube.com/feeds/api/videos/dQw4w9WgXcQ?prettyprint=true And the excerpt of code I don't know how to retrieve data from: <media:group> <media:description type='plain'>Music video by Rick Astley performing Never Gonna Give You Up. (C) 1987 PWL</media:description> </media:group> Thanks in advance.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 588 589 590 591 592 593 594 595 596 597 598 599  | Next Page >