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• shreding xml column

  - by csetzkorn

  Hi, I have a XML column which contains XML like this: <Set> <Element> <ID> 1 </ID> <List> <ListElement> <Part1> ListElement 1 </Part1> </ListElement> <ListElement> <Part1> ListElement2 </Part1> </ListElement> </List> </Element> <Element> <ID> 2 </ID> <List> <ListElement> <Part1> ListElement3 </Part1> </ListElement> <ListElement> <Part1> ListElement4 </Part1> </ListElement> </List> </Element> </Set> I would like to shred this into a relation table containing this: ID, ListElement 1, ListElement1 1, ListElement2 2, ListElement3 2, ListElement4 I am able to obtain the content of the Parts using something like this: select List.value('(Part1/text())[1]', 'varchar(max)') as test from Table CROSS APPLY xml.nodes('// Element/List/ListElement') AS List(List) but I have not yet achieved to keep the ‘foreign key’ (the ID value). Thanks. Best wishes, Christian

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• Is it possible to return a list of numbers from a Sybase function?

  - by ps_rs4

  I'm trying to overcome a very serious performance issue in which Sybase refuses to use the primary key index on a large table because one of the required fields is specified indirectly through another table - or, in other words; SELECT ... FROM BIGTABLE WHERE KFIELD = 123 runs in ms but SELECT ... FROM BIGTABLE, LTLTBL WHERE KFIELD = LTLTBL.LOOKUP AND LTLTBL.UNIQUEID = 'STRINGREPOF123' takes 30 - 40 seconds. I've managed to work around this first problem by using a function that basically lets me do this; SELECT ... FROM BIGTABLE WHERE KFIELD = MYFUNC('STRINGREPOF123') which also runs in ms. The problem, however, is that this approach only works when there is a single value returned by MYFUNCT but I have some cases where it may return 2 or 3 values. I know that the SQL SELECT ... FROM BIGTABLE WHERE KFIELD IN (123,456,789) also returns in millis so I'd like to have a function that returns a list of possible values rather than just a single one - is this possible? Sadly the application is running on Sybase ASA 9. Yes I know it is old and is scheduled to be refreshed but there's nothing I can do about it now so I need logic that will work with this version of the DB. Thanks in advance for any assistance on this matter.

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• JPA returning null for deleted items from a set

  - by Jon

  This may be related to my question from a few days ago, but I'm not even sure how to explain this part. (It's an entirely different parent-child relationship.) In my interface, I have a set of attributes (Attribute) and valid values (ValidValue) for each one in a one-to-many relationship. In the Spring MVC frontend, I have a page for an administrator to edit these values. Once it's submitted, if any of these fields (as <input> tags) are blank, I remove the ValidValue object like so: Set<ValidValue> existingValues = new HashSet<ValidValue>(attribute.getValidValues()); Set<ValidValue> finalValues = new HashSet<ValidValue>(); for(ValidValue validValue : attribute.getValidValues()) { if(!validValue.getValue().isEmpty()) { finalValues.add(validValue); } } existingValues.removeAll(finalValues); for(ValidValue removedValue : existingValues) { getApplicationDataService().removeValidValue(removedValue); } attribute.setValidValues(finalValues); getApplicationDataService().modifyAttribute(attribute); The problem is that while the database is updated appropriately, the next time I query for the Attribute objects, they're returned with an extra entry in their ValidValue set -- a null, and thus, the next time I iterate through the values to display, it shows an extra blank value in the middle. I've confirmed that this happens at the point of a merge or find, at the point of "Execute query ReadObjectQuery(entity.Attribute). Here's the code I'm using to modify the database (in the ApplicationDataService): public void modifyAttribute(Attribute attribute) { getJpaTemplate().merge(attribute); } public void removeValidValue(ValidValue removedValue) { ValidValue merged = getJpaTemplate().merge(removedValue); getJpaTemplate().remove(merged); } Here are the relevant parts of the entity classes: Entity @Table(name = "attribute") public class Attribute { @OneToMany(cascade = CascadeType.ALL, fetch = FetchType.LAZY, mappedBy = "attribute") private Set<ValidValue> validValues = new HashSet<ValidValue>(0); } @Entity @Table(name = "valid_value") public class ValidValue { @ManyToOne(fetch = FetchType.LAZY) @JoinColumn(name = "attr_id", nullable = false) private Attribute attribute; }

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• Stop SQL returning the same result twice in a JOIN

  - by nbs189

  I have joined together several tables to get data i want but since I am new to SQL i can't figure out how to stop data being returned more than once. her's the SQL statement; SELECT T.url, T.ID, S.status, S.ID, E.action, E.ID, E.timestamp FROM tracks T, status S, events E WHERE S.ID AND T.ID = E.ID ORDER BY E.timestamp DESC The data that is returned is something like this; +----------------------------------------------------------------+ | URL | ID | Status | ID | action | ID | timestamp | +----------------------------------------------------------------+ | T.1 | 4 | hello | 4 | has uploaded a track | 4 | time | | T.2 | 3 | bye | 3 | has some news | 3 | time | | t.1 | 4 | more | 4 | has some news | 4 | time | +----------------------------------------------------------------+ That's a very basic example but does outline what happens. If you look at the third row the URL is repeated when there is a different status. This is what I want to happen; +-------------------------------------------------------+ | URL or Status | ID | action | timestamp | +-------------------------------------------------------+ | T.1 | 4 | has uploaded a track | time | | hello | 3 | has some news | time | | bye | 4 | has some news | time | +-------------------------------------------------------+ Please notice that the the url (in this case the mock one is T.1) is shown when the action is has uploaded a track. This is very important. The action in the events table is inserted on trigger of a status or track insert. If a new track is inserted the action is 'has uploaded a track' and you guess what it is for a status. The ID and timestamp is also inserted into the events table at this point. Note: There are more tables that go into the query, 3 more in fact, but I have left them out for simplicity.

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• one-to-many with criteria question

  - by brnzn

  enter code hereI want to apply restrictions on the list of items, so only items from a given dates will be retrieved. Here are my mappings: <class name="MyClass" table="MyTable" mutable="false" > <cache usage="read-only"/> <id name="myId" column="myId" type="integer"/> <property name="myProp" type="string" column="prop"/> <list name="items" inverse="true" cascade="none"> <key column="myId"/> <list-index column="itemVersion"/> <one-to-many class="Item"/> </list> </class> <class name="Item" table="Items" mutable="false" > <cache usage="read-only"/> <id name="myId" column="myId" type="integer"/> <property name="itemVersion" type="string" column="version"/> <property name="startDate" type="date" column="startDate"/> </class> I tried this code: Criteria crit = session.createCriteria(MyClass.class); crit.add( Restrictions.eq("myId", new Integer(1))); crit = crit.createCriteria("items").add( Restrictions.le("startDate", new Date()) ); which result the following quires: select ... from MyTable this_ inner join Items items1_ on this_.myId=items1_.myId where this_.myId=? and items1_.startDate<=? followed by select ... from Items items0_ where items0_.myId=? But what I need is something like: select ... from MyTable this_ where this_.myId=? followed by select ... from Items items0_ where items0_.myId=? and items0_.startDate<=? Any idea how I can apply a criteria on the list of items?

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• how can i make sure only a single record is inserted when multiple apache threads are trying to acce

  - by Ed Gl

  I have a web service (xmlrpc service to be exact) that handles among other things writing data into the database. Here's the scenario: I often receive requests to either update or insert a record. What I would do is this: If the record already exists, append to the record, If not, create a new record The issue is that there are certain times I would get a 'burst' of requests, which spawns several apache threads to handle the request. These 'bursts' would come within less than milliseconds of each other. I now have several threads performing #1 and #2. Often two threads would would 'pass' number #1 and actually create two duplicate records (except for the primary key). I'd like to use some locking mechanism to prevent other threads from accessing the table while the other thread finishes its work. I'm just afraid of using it because if something happens I don't want to leave the table locked. Is there a solid way of handling this? I'm open to using locks if I can do it properly. Thanks,

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• Index question: Select * with WHERE clause. Where and how to create index

  - by Mestika

  Hi, I’m working on optimizing some of my queries and I have a query that states: select * from SC where c_id ="+c_id” The schema of ** SC** looks like this: SC ( c_id int not null, date_start date not null, date_stop date not null, r_t_id int not null, nt int, t_p decimal, PRIMARY KEY (c_id, r_t_id, date_start, date_stop)); My immediate bid on how the index should be created is a covering index in this order: INDEX(c_id, date_start, date_stop, nt, r_t_id, t_p) The reason for this order I base on: The WHERE clause selects from c_id thus making it the first sorting order. Next, the date_start and date_stop to specify a sort of “range” to be defined in these parameters Next, nt because it will select the nt Next the r_t_id because it is a ID for a specific type of my r_t table And last the t_p because it is just a information. I don’t know if it is at all necessary to order it in a specific way when it is a SELECT ALL statement. I should say, that the SC is not the biggest table. I can say how many rows it contains but a estimate could be between <10 and 1000. The next thing to add is, that the SC, in different queries, inserts the data into the SC, and I know that indexes on tables which have insertions can be cost ineffective, but can I somehow create a golden middle way to effective this performance. Don't know if it makes a different but I'm using IBM DB2 version 9.7 database Sincerely Mestika

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• Ruby on Rails How do I access variables of a model inside itself like in this example?

  - by banditKing

  I have a Model like so: # == Schema Information # # Table name: s3_files # # id :integer not null, primary key # owner :string(255) # notes :text # created_at :datetime not null # updated_at :datetime not null # last_accessed_by_user :string(255) # last_accessed_time_stamp :datetime # upload_file_name :string(255) # upload_content_type :string(255) # upload_file_size :integer # upload_updated_at :datetime # class S3File < ActiveRecord::Base #PaperClip methods attr_accessible :upload attr_accessor :owner Paperclip.interpolates :prefix do |attachment, style| I WOULD LIKE TO ACCESS VARIABLE= owner HERE- HOW TO DO THAT? end has_attached_file( :upload, :path => ":prefix/:basename.:extension", :storage => :s3, :s3_credentials => {:access_key_id => "ZXXX", :secret_access_key => "XXX"}, :bucket => "XXX" ) #Used to connect to users through the join table has_many :user_resource_relationships has_many :users, :through => :user_resource_relationships end Im setting this variable in the controller like so: # POST /s3_files # POST /s3_files.json def create @s3_file = S3File.new(params[:s3_file]) @s3_file.owner = current_user.email respond_to do |format| if @s3_file.save format.html { redirect_to @s3_file, notice: 'S3 file was successfully created.' } format.json { render json: @s3_file, status: :created, location: @s3_file } else format.html { render action: "new" } format.json { render json: @s3_file.errors, status: :unprocessable_entity } end end end Thanks, any help would be appreciated.

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• SQL Server 2008 - Full Text Query

  - by user208662

  Hello, I have two tables in a SQL Server 2008 database in my company. The first table represents the products that my company sells. The second table contains the product manufacturer’s details. These tables are defined as follows: Product ------- ID Name ManufacturerID Description Manufacturer ------------ ID Name As you can imagine, I want to make this as easy as possible for our customers to query this data. However, I’m having problems writing a forgiving, yet powerful search query. For instance, I’m anticipating people to search based on phonetical spellings. Because of this, the data may not match the exact data in my database. In addition, I think some individuals will search by manufacturer’s name first, but I want the matching product names to appear first. Based on these requirements, I’m currently working on the following query: select p.Name as 'ProductName', m.Name as 'Manufacturer', r.Rank as 'Rank' from Product p inner join Manufacturer m on p.ManufacturerID=m.ID inner join CONTAINSTABLE(Product, Name, @searchQuery) as r Oddly, this query is throwing an error. However, I have no idea why. Squiggles appear to the right of the last parenthesis in management studio. The tool tip says "An expression of non-boolean type specified in a context where a condition is expected". I understand what this statement means. However, I guess I do not know how COntainsTable works. What am I doing wrong? Thank you

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• Using the JPA Criteria API, can you do a fetch join that results in only one join?

  - by Shaun

  Using JPA 2.0. It seems that by default (no explicit fetch), @OneToOne(fetch = FetchType.EAGER) fields are fetched in 1 + N queries, where N is the number of results containing an Entity that defines the relationship to a distinct related entity. Using the Criteria API, I might try to avoid that as follows: CriteriaBuilder builder = entityManager.getCriteriaBuilder(); CriteriaQuery<MyEntity> query = builder.createQuery(MyEntity.class); Root<MyEntity> root = query.from(MyEntity.class); Join<MyEntity, RelatedEntity> join = root.join("relatedEntity"); root.fetch("relatedEntity"); query.select(root).where(builder.equals(join.get("id"), 3)); The above should ideally be equivalent to the following: SELECT m FROM MyEntity m JOIN FETCH myEntity.relatedEntity r WHERE r.id = 3 However, the criteria query results in the root table needlessly being joined to the related entity table twice; once for the fetch, and once for the where predicate. The resulting SQL looks something like this: SELECT myentity.id, myentity.attribute, relatedentity2.id, relatedentity2.attribute FROM my_entity myentity INNER JOIN related_entity relatedentity1 ON myentity.related_id = relatedentity1.id INNER JOIN related_entity relatedentity2 ON myentity.related_id = relatedentity2.id WHERE relatedentity1.id = 3 Alas, if I only do the fetch, then I don't have an expression to use in the where clause. Am I missing something, or is this a limitation of the Criteria API? If it's the latter, is this being remedied in JPA 2.1 or are there any vendor-specific enhancements? Otherwise, it seems better to just give up compile-time type checking (I realize my example doesn't use the metamodel) and use dynamic JPQL TypedQueries.

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• Doctrine: Unable to execute either CROSS JOIN or SELECT FROM Table1, Table2?

  - by ropstah

  Using Doctrine I'm trying to execute either a 1. CROSS JOIN statement or 2. a SELECT FROM Table1, Table2 statement. Both seem to fail. The CROSS JOIN does execute, however the results are just wrong compared to executing in Navicat. The multiple table SELECT doesn't event execute because Doctrine automatically tries to LEFT JOIN the second table. The cross join statement (this runs, however it doesn't include the joined records where the refClass User_Setting doesn't have a value): $q = new Doctrine_RawSql(); $q->select('{s.*}, {us.*}') ->from('User u CROSS JOIN Setting s LEFT JOIN User_Setting us ON us.usr_auto_key = u.usr_auto_key AND us.set_auto_key = s.set_auto_key') ->addComponent('u', 'User u') ->addComponent('s', 'Setting s') ->addComponent('us', 'u.User_Setting us') ->where('s.sct_auto_key = ? AND u.usr_auto_key = ?',array(1, $this->usr_auto_key)); And the select from multiple tables (this doesn't event run. It does not spot the many-many relationship between User and Setting in the first ->from() part and throws an exception: "User_Setting" with an alias of "us" in your query does not reference the parent component it is related to.): $q = new Doctrine_RawSql(); $q->select('{s.*}, {us.*}') ->from('User u, Setting s LEFT JOIN User_Setting us ON us.usr_auto_key = u.usr_auto_key AND us.set_auto_key = s.set_auto_key') ->addComponent('u', 'User u') ->addComponent('s', 'Setting s') ->addComponent('us', 'u.User_Setting us') ->where('s.sct_auto_key = ? AND u.usr_auto_key = ?',array(1, $this->usr_auto_key));

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• managing classes when everything is relative to a user in nhibernate (orm)

  - by Schotime

  Firstly I have three entities. Users, Roles, Items A user can have multiple Roles. An item gets assigned to one or more roles. Therefore a user will have access to a distinct set of items. Now there is a few ways I can see this working. There is a Collection on Users which has Roles via a many-to-many assoc. Then each Role in this collection will have its own collection of Items. So for each user I would have to get the User (using nhib and fetch the roles and items with it) then either do a selectMany on the Items in each Role to get all the Items for the user or do a couple of foreach's to port the data to a view or dto model. Create a db trigger to automatically insert into another table that just has the relationship between user and items so that on my User entity I only have a Items collections which has all the items assigned to me. Some other way that i can't think of yet, because I'm new to nHibernate. Now i know that the trigger doesn't feel right but I'm not sure how to do this. We also have some hierarchy later where a user may be in charge of a group of users. If anyone could shed some light on how they go about these scenarios in nhibernate or another orm that would be great, or point be in a direction. I know that in the past you would have to enter all combinations into a table so that the query worked, but when you know sql its not too bad. If you need any other info then let me know. Cheers

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• Multidimensional Array To Mysql Codeigniter

  - by rochellecanale

  A little help how can I create an input query using this array? Or how can I pass it in the table? my table layout sample is this: sales_table id | product_name | price | qty | subtotal This is derived from the var_dump() function. Here is my code in array //array code from unserialized function $products = unserialize($this->session->userdata('product_list')); //This is the output. Array ( [2] => Array ( [id] => 2 [product_name] => NOKIA 5110 [product_desc] => Cellphone [product_price] => 500.00 [product_qty] => 1 [product_amount] => 500 [product_code] => NOKI2012-84353 ) [3] => Array ( [id] => 3 [product_name] => HP IPAQ RW6828 [product_desc] => Cellphone [product_price] => 1500.00 [product_qty] => 1 [product_amount] => 1500 [product_code] => HP I2012-08386 ) )

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• Quickly or concisely determine the longest string per column in a row-based data collection

  - by ccornet

  Judging from the failure of my last inquiry, I need to calculate and preset the widths of a set of columns in a table that is being made into an Excel file. Unfortunately, the string data is stored in a row-based format, but the widths must be calculated in a column-based format. The data for the spreadsheets are generated from the following two collections: var dictFiles = l.Items.Cast<SPListItem>().GroupBy(foo => foo.GetSafeSPValue("Category")).ToDictionary(bar => bar.Key); StringDictionary dictCols = GetColumnsForItem(l.Title); Where l is an SPList whose title determines which columns are used. Each SPListItem corresponds to a row of data, which are sorted into separate worksheets based on Category (hence the dictionary). The second line is just a simple StringDictionary that has the column name (A, B, C, etc.) as a key and the corresponding SPListItme field display name as the corresponding value. So for each Category, I enumerate through dictFiles[somekey] to get all the rows in that sheet, and get the particular cell data using SPListItem.Fields[dictCols[colName]]. What I am asking is, is there a quick or concise method, for any one dictFiles[somekey], to retrieve a readout of the longest string in each column provided by dictCols? If it is impossible to get both quickness and conciseness, I can settle for either (since I always have the O(n*m) route of just enumerating the collection and updating an array whenever strCurrent.Length strLongest.Length). For example, if the goal table was the following... Item# Field1 Field2 Field3 1 Oarfish Atmosphere Pretty 2 Raven Radiation Adorable 3 Sunflower Flowers Cute I'd like a function which could cleanly take the collection of items 1, 2, and 3 and output in the correct order... Sunflower, Atmosphere, Adorable Using .NET 3.5 and C# 3.0.

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• Accettend letter and other graphic simbols PHP->JS

  - by Kreker

  I have to read a txt via file php. This file contains some normal so may contains this kind of symbols : € é ò à ° % etc I read the content in php with file_get_contents and transform these for inserenting in SQL database. $contFile = file_get_contents($pathFile); $testoCommento = htmlspecialchars($contFile,ENT_QUOTES); $testoCommento = addslashes($testoCommento); Now if I have this text for example : "l'attesa ?é cruciale fino a quando il topo non viene morso dall'?€" in the database I have this: l&#039;attesa è cruciale fino a quando il topo non veniene morso dall&#039;€ When I was GETTING the data from the database I use the php function for decode html entites $descrizione = htmlspecialchars_decode($risultato['descrizione'],ENT_QUOTES); $descrizione = addslashes($descrizione); Now I use jasvascript and AJAX for getting the table content and display to an HTML page In the browser instead of getting the correct text (€,è) I have square symbol. I think there is some mess with charset code/decode but never figured out. The SQL' table is in "utf8_unicode_ci" format and the column in "utf8_general_ci". The content-type of the page is <meta http-equiv="Content-Type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8" /> Thanks for help me!

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• Wrong logic in If Statement?

  - by Charles

  $repeat_times = mysql_real_escape_string($repeat_times); $result = mysql_query("SELECT `code`,`datetime` FROM `fc` ORDER by datetime desc LIMIT 25") or die(mysql_error()); $output .=""; $seconds = time() - strtotime($fetch_array["datetime"]); if($seconds < 60) $interval = "$seconds seconds"; else if($seconds < 3600) $interval = floor($seconds / 60) . " minutes"; else if($seconds < 86400) $interval = floor($seconds / 3600) . " hours"; else $interval = floor($seconds / 86400) . " days"; while ($fetch_array = mysql_fetch_array($result)) { $fetch_array["code"] = htmlentities($fetch_array["code"]); $output .= "<li><a href=\"http://www.***.com/code=" . htmlspecialchars(urlencode($fetch_array["code"])) . "\" target=\"_blank\">" . htmlspecialchars($fetch_array["code"]) . "</a> (" . $interval . ") ago.</li>"; } $output .=""; return $output; Why is this returning janice (14461 days) instead of janice (15 minutes ago) The datetime function table has the DATETIME type in my table so it's returning a full string for the date.

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• ASP.Net MVC: Change Routes dynamically

  - by Frank

  Hi, usually, when I look at a ASP.Net MVC application, the Route table gets configured at startup and is not touched ever after. I have a couple of questions on that but they are closely related to each other: Is it possible to change the route table at runtime? How would/should I avoid threading issues? Is there maybe a better way to provide a dynamic URL? I know that IDs etc. can appear in the URL but can't see how this could be applicable in what I want to achieve. How can I avoid that, even though I have the default controller/action route defined, that default route doesn't work for a specific combination, e.g. the "Post" action on the "Comments" controller is not available through the default route? Background: Comment Spammers usually grab the posting URL from the website and then don't bother to go through the website anymore to do their automated spamming. If I regularly modify my post URL to some random one, spammers would have to go back to the site and find the correct post URL to try spamming. If that URL changes constantly I'd think that that could make the spammers' work more tedious, which should usually mean that they give up on the affected URL.

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• jQuery Suspected Naming Convention Problem

  - by donfigga

  Hi all, I'm having a problem with this jQuery function, the portion of the function that renames the id, class and name of the dropdown only works for the first dropdown, subsequent ones do not work, any ideas? I suspect it may have something to do with naming convention as in cat.parent_id but it is required for asp.net mvc model binding. $(document).ready(function () { $("table select").live("change", function () { var id = $(this).attr('id'); if ($(this).attr('classname') != "selected") { var rowIndex = $(this).closest('tr').prevAll().length; $.getJSON("/Category/GetSubCategories/" + $(this).val(), function (data) { if (data.length > 0) { //problematic portion $("#" + id).attr('classname', 'selected'); $("#" + id).attr('name', 'sel' + rowIndex); $("#" + id).attr('id', 'sel' + rowIndex); var position = ($('table').get(0)); var tr = position.insertRow(rowIndex + 1); var td1 = tr.insertCell(-1); var td2 = tr.insertCell(-1); td1.appendChild(document.createTextNode('SubCategory')); var sel = document.createElement("select"); sel.name = 'parent_id'; sel.id = 'parent_id'; sel.setAttribute('class', 'unselected'); td2.appendChild(sel); $('#parent_id').append($("<option></option>").attr("value", "-1").text("-please select item-")); $.each(data, function (GetSubCatergories, Category) { $('#parent_id').append($("<option></option>"). attr("value", Category.category_id). text(Category.name)); }); sel.name = 'cat.parent_id'; sel.id = 'cat.parent_id'; } }); } }); });

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• Pass object or id

  - by Charles

  This is just a question about best practices. Imagine you have a method that takes one parameter. This parameter is the id of an object. Ideally, I would like to be able to pass either the object's id directly, or just the object itself. What is the most elegant way to do this? I came up with the following: def method_name object object_id = object.to_param.to_i ### do whatever needs to be done with that object_id end So, if the parameter already is an id, it just pretty much stays the same; if it's an object, it gets its id. This works, but I feel like this could be better. Also, to_param returns a string, which could in some cases return a "real" string (i.e. "string" instead of "2"), hence returning 0 upon calling to_i on it. This could happen, for example, when using the friendly id gem for classes. Active record offers the same functionality. It doesn't matter if you say: Table.where(user_id: User.first.id) # pass in id or Table.where(user_id: User.first) # pass in object and infer id How do they do it? What is the best approach to achieve this effect?

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• ruby on rails implement search with auto complete

  - by user429400

  I've implemented a search box that searches the "Illnesses" table and the "symptoms" table in my DB. Now I want to add auto-complete to the search box. I've created a new controller called "auto_complete_controller" which returns the auto complete data. I'm just not sure how to combine the search functionality and the auto complete functionality: I want the "index" action in my search controller to return the search results, and the "index" action in my auto_complete controller to return the auto_complete data. Please guide me how to fix my html syntax and what to write in the js.coffee file. I'm using rails 3.x with the jquery UI for auto-complete, I prefer a server side solution, and this is my current code: main_page/index.html.erb: <p> <b>Syptoms / Illnesses</b> <%= form_tag search_path, :method => 'get' do %> <p> <%= text_field_tag :search, params[:search] %> <br/> <%= submit_tag "Search", :name => nil %> </p> <% end %> </p> auto_complete_controller.rb: class AutoCompleteController < ApplicationController def index @results = Illness.order(:name).where("name like ?", "%#{params[:term]}%") + Symptom.order(:name).where("name like ?", "%#{params[:term]}%") render json: @results.map(&:name) end end search_controller.rb: class SearchController < ApplicationController def index @results = Illness.search(params[:search]) + Symptom.search(params[:search]) respond_to do |format| format.html # index.html.erb format.json { render json: @results } end end end Thanks, Li

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• change images by clicking left and right

  - by Qin

  I want to display an image in the center of the page, then 2 buttons, left, and right, when I click on left, the image changes to previous one, and move to next image by clicking right. And my question is, the code doesn't work..=.=, very obvious, can anybody tell me where the mistakes are? <table id="frontpage"> <tr> <td><input type="button" id="left" value="left"/></td> <td><img id="image" alt="Image" src="./image/guildwars2/gw2_fight.jpg"/></td> <td><input type="button" id="right" value="right"/></td> </tr> </table> $(document).ready(function(){ var image=new Array(); var current=0; image[0]=new Image(); image[0].src="./image/guildwars2/gw2_fight.jpg"; image[1]=new Image(); image[1].src="./image/diablo3/d3.jpg"; image[2]=new Image(); image[2].src="./image/dota2/catOnWater.jpg"; $("#left").click(function(){ if(current-1<0){ current=image.length-1; $("#image").attr("src")=image[current].src; } else{ --current; $("#image").attr("src")=image[current].src; } }); $("#right").click(function(){ if(current+1>image.length-1){ current=0; $("#image").attr("src")=image[current].src; } else{ ++current; $("#image").attr("src")=image[current].src; } }); })

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• mail function not working for yahoo mail id

  - by Akash

  Hello all, I have written a code to send mail on yahoo or gmail.Mail is sending on gmail but i m not seeing any message in yahoo mail. And in gmail i m seeing all html content with message. here is my code... $headers = "From: \"".$from_name."\" <".$from_email.">\n"; $headers .= "To: \"".$to_name."\" <".$to_email.">\n"; $headers .= "Return-Path: <".$from_email.">\n"; $headers .= "MIME-Version: 1.0\n"; $headers .= "Content-Type: text/HTML; charset=ISO-8859-1\n"; // message $message = ' <html> <head> <title>Registration</title> </head> <body> <table><tr> <td> <a href="#'> Click Here To Activate Your account</a> Thanks To visit site.com </td> </tr> </table> </body> </html>'; if(mail('', $subject, $message, $headers)) echo "successfully register !! please check your mail and clik on confirmation link";

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• Virtual folder for multiple sites

  - by Cups

  I am creating a very simple flat file CMS for small (multilingual) websites. The little file writing that goes on is handled by 4 scripts in a publicly available folder in each site named /edit. Given that I have 2 websites now working on that simple system: websiteA/index.php (etc) websiteA/edit/ websiteB/index.php (etc) websiteB/edit/ What is the best way of making that /edit folder "virtual" in order that these and each subsequent website owner can login to their view of /edit and yet the code only exists in one place. I do not want the website owners to have to login from a central website, but from their own /edit directory. I have already read about different solutions seemingly using the <Directory> directive in my httpd.conf declaration for each website, and also using straight mod_rewrite but admit to now becoming confused about some of the terminology. Each website has its own config file which contains path settings and so on. What in your opinion is the best way to handle this? EDIT In light of a reply, I suppose that given a virtual host directive such as this: <VirtualHost 00.00.00.00:80> DocumentRoot /var/www/html/websitea.com ServerName www.websitea.com ServerAlias websitea.com DirectoryIndex index.htm index.php CustomLog logs/websitea combined </VirtualHost> Is it possible to create an alias inside that directive for the folder websitea.com/edit ?

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• How do you bind SQL Data to a .NET DataGridView?

  - by Jordan S

  I am trying to bind a table in an SQL database to a DataGridView Control. I would like to make it so that when the user enters a new line of data in the DataGridView that a record is automatically added to the database. Is there a way to do this using LINQ to SQL? I have tried using the code below but after I add a new entry I dont think the data gets added to the DB. Please Help! BOMClassesDataContext DB = new BOMClassesDataContext(); var mfrs = from m in DB.Manufacturers select m; BindingSource bs = new BindingSource(); bs.DataSource = mfrs; dataGridView1.DataSource = bs; I tried adding DB.SubmitChanges() to the CellValueChanged eventhandler and that partially works. If I click the bottom empty row it automatically fills in the ID (identity) column of the table with a "0" instead of the next unused value. If I change that value manually to the next available then it adds the new record fine but if I leave it at 0 it does nothing. How can i fix this?

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• jQuery slideDown + CSS Floats

  - by danilo

  I'm using a HTML Table with several rows. Every second row - containing details about the preceding row - is hidden using CSS. When clicking the first row, the second row gets showed using jQuery show(). This is quite nice, but I would prefer the slideDown-Effect. The problem is, inside the details row, there are two floating DIVs, one floating on the left, and one on the right. Now if i slideDown the previously hidden row, the contained DIVs behave strange and "jump around". See this animated gif to understand what I mean: http://ich-wars-nicht.ch/tmp/lunapic_127365879362365_.gif The markup: <tr class="row-vm"> <td>...</td> ... </tr> <tr class="row-details"> <td colspan="8"> <div class="vmdetail-left"> ... </div> <div class="vmdetail-right"> ... </div> </td> </tr> The CSS: .table-vmlist tr.row-details { display: none; } div.vmdetail-left { float: left; width: 50%; } div.vmdetail-right { float: right; width: 50%; } And the jQuery code: if ($(this).next().css('display') == 'none') { // Show details //$(this).next().show(); $(this).next().slideDown(); } else { // Hide details //$(this).next().hide(); $(this).next().slideUp(); } Is there a way to fix this behavior, and to implement a nice slideDown-effect?

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