Search Results

Search found 18244 results on 730 pages for 'controller action'.

Page 599/730 | < Previous Page | 595 596 597 598 599 600 601 602 603 604 605 606  | Next Page >

  • How save selected switch option

    - by Rkm
    System UIviewcontroller has button , Tap on button i need to fire Info Tableviewcontroller. Tableviewcontroller itself UISwitch. My question is I need to save last selected switch option ON/OFF in UISwitch how to set my control. @implementation Info // Customize the appearance of table view cells. - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { static NSString *CellIdentifier = @"Cell"; UITableViewCell *cell = [tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:CellIdentifier]; if (cell == nil) { cell = [[[UITableViewCell alloc] initWithStyle:UITableViewCellStyleDefault reuseIdentifier:CellIdentifier] autorelease]; } if (indexPath.section) { cell.textLabel.text = @"Sounds"; cell.selectionStyle = UITableViewCellSelectionStyleNone; UISwitch *switchView = [[UISwitch alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectZero]; cell.accessoryView = switchView; [switchView setOn:NO animated:NO]; [switchView addTarget:self action:@selector(switchChanged_Sounds:) forControlEvents:UIControlEventValueChanged]; [switchView release]; return cell ; } } - (void) switchChanged_Sounds:(id)sender { UISwitch* switchControl = sender; NSLog( @"The switchChanged_Sounds is %@", switchControl.on ? @"ON" : @"OFF" ); }

    Read the article

  • JQuery idleTimeout plugin: How to display the dialog after the session is timedout on ASP.NET MVC Pa

    - by Rita
    Hi I am working on migrating the ASP.NET apllication to MVC Framework. I have implemented session timeout for InActiveUser using JQuery idleTimeout plugin. I have set idletime for 30 min as below in my Master Page. So that After the user session is timedout of 30 Min, an Auto Logout dialog shows for couple of seconds and says that "You are about to be signed out due to Inactivity" Now after this once the user is logged out and redirected to Home Page. Here i again want to show a Dialog and should stay there saying "You are Logged out" until the user clicks on it. Here is my code in Master page: $(document).ready(function() { var SEC = 1000; var MIN = 60 * SEC; // http://philpalmieri.com/2009/09/jquery-session-auto-timeout-with-prompt/ <% if(HttpContext.Current.User.Identity.IsAuthenticated) {%> $(document).idleTimeout({ inactivity: 30 * MIN, noconfirm : 30 * SEC, redirect_url: '/Account/Logout', sessionAlive: 0, // 30000, //10 Minutes click_reset: true, alive_url: '', logout_url: '' }); <%} %> } Logout() Method in Account Controller: public virtual ActionResult Logout() { FormsAuthentication.SignOut(); return RedirectToAction(MVC.Home.Default()); } Appreciate your responses.

    Read the article

  • IntegrityError: foreign key violation upon delete

    - by Lukasz Korzybski
    I have Order and Shipment model. Shipment has a foreign key to Order. class Order(...): ... class Shipment() order = m.ForeignKey('Order') ... Now in one of my views I want do delete order object along with all related objects. So I invoke order.delete(). I have Django 1.0.4, PostgreSQL 8.4 and I use transaction middleware, so whole request is enclosed in single transaction. The problem is that upon order.delete() I get: ... File "/usr/local/lib/python2.6/dist-packages/django/db/backends/__init__.py", line 28, in _commit return self.connection.commit() IntegrityError: update or delete on table "main_order" violates foreign key constraint "main_shipment_order_id_fkey" on table "main_shipment" DETAIL: Key (id)=(45) is still referenced from table "main_shipment". I checked in connection.queries that proper queries are executed in proper order. First shipment is deleted, after that django executes delete on order row: {'time': '0.000', 'sql': 'DELETE FROM "main_shipment" WHERE "id" IN (17)'}, {'time': '0.000', 'sql': 'DELETE FROM "main_order" WHERE "id" IN (45)'} Foreign key have ON DELETE NO ACTION (default) and is initially deferred. I don't know why I get foreign key constraint violation. I also tried to register pre_delete signal and manually delete shipment objects before delete on order is called, but it resulted in the same error. I can change ON DELETE behaviour for this key in Postgres but it would be just a hack, I wonder if anyone has a better idea what's going on here. There is also a small detail, my Order model inherits from Cart model, so it actually doesn't have id field but cart_ptr_id and after DELETE on order is executed there is also DELETE on cart, but it seems unrelated? to the shipment-order problem so I simplified it in the example.

    Read the article

  • submit remote form with prototype

    - by badnaam
    I have a remote form like this and a checkbox in it. When I select or deselect the checkbox I would like to 1 - set the value of a hidden field 2 - ajax submit this form to its designated url. I tried $('search_form').onsubmit(), but I get an error saying onsubmit is not a function. Using prototype. Whats the best way to do this? <form onsubmit="new Ajax.Request('/searches/search_set?stype=1', {asynchronous:true, evalScripts:true, parameters:Form.serialize(this)}); return false;" method="post" id="new_search" class="new_search" action="/searches/search_set?stype=1"><div style="margin: 0pt; padding: 0pt; display: inline;"><input type="hidden" value="3TWSyMsZXI0nltz7zHAxuj1KX=" name="authenticity_token"></div> <a onclick="setSubmit(this);" href="#" class="submit-link-button fg-button ui-state-default fg-button-icon-left ui-corner-all" id="search_submit"><span class="ui-icon ui-icon-search"></span>'Search'</a> </div> <input type="checkbox" value="Energy" onclick="refreshResults(this);" name="search[conditions][article_tag][0]" id="search_conditions_article_tag_0">

    Read the article

  • Redirect website from http to https

    - by MaG3Stican
    I have a website stored on azure for which I got an SSL certificate. I am trying to redirect www.mywebsite.com to https://www.mywebsite.com but with no success. I am using the following code that should change the configuration of IIS where my project is deployed : <system.webServer> <rewrite> <rules> <rule name="Redirect to HTTPS"> <match url="(.*)" /> <conditions> <add input="{HTTPS}" pattern="off" ignoreCase="true" /> <add input="{URL}" pattern="/$" negate="true" /> <add input="{REQUEST_FILENAME}" matchType="IsFile" negate="true" /> </conditions> <action type="Redirect" url="https://{SERVER_NAME}/{R:1}" redirectType="SeeOther" /> </rule> </rules> </rewrite> But when I type my URL it does not redirect to https. By the way, rewrite appears unrecorgnized by Intellisense.

    Read the article

  • Problem in loading chart on the view in asp.net mvc?

    - by mary
    hello, I am working on the chart project in asp.net mvc. i used followinf code to genrate the chart on the controller. Chart chart1 = new Chart(); chart1.Height = 296; chart1.Width = 412; chart1.ImageType = ChartImageType.Png; Title title = chart1.Titles.Add("Main"); Series series1 = chart1.Series.Add("series1"); chart1.Series["series1"].Points.DataBindXY(xvalues, yvalues); chart1.Series["series1"].ChartType = SeriesChartType.Column ; ChartArea chartArea = chart1.ChartAreas.Add("Default"); chartArea.Area3DStyle.Enable3D = false ; MemoryStream ms = new MemoryStream(); chart1.SaveImage(ms); return File(ms.GetBuffer(), @"image/png"); and on the view page i am calling it as when i am running it on local pc its working fine but when i deployed it on server then chart is not displaying instated alernate text is showing. and its not working on another pc also. plz if anyone can know the reson tell me. thank you.

    Read the article

  • Problem in loading chart on the view in asp.net mvc?

    - by mary
    hello, I am working on the chart project in asp.net mvc. i used followinf code to genrate the chart on the controller. Chart chart1 = new Chart(); chart1.Height = 296; chart1.Width = 412; chart1.ImageType = ChartImageType.Png; Title title = chart1.Titles.Add("Main"); Series series1 = chart1.Series.Add("series1"); chart1.Series["series1"].Points.DataBindXY(xvalues, yvalues); chart1.Series["series1"].ChartType = SeriesChartType.Column ; ChartArea chartArea = chart1.ChartAreas.Add("Default"); chartArea.Area3DStyle.Enable3D = false ; MemoryStream ms = new MemoryStream(); chart1.SaveImage(ms); return File(ms.GetBuffer(), @"image/png"); and on the view page i am calling it as img src="/Home/SampleChart" alt="Sample Chart" when i am running it on local pc its working fine but when i deployed it on server then chart is not displaying instated alernate text is showing. and its not working on another pc also. plz if anyone can know the reson tell me. thank you.

    Read the article

  • jQuery Tools alert works once (but only once)

    - by Jim Miller
    I'm trying to build a simple alert mechanism with jQuery Tools -- in response to a bit of Javascript code, pop up an overlay with a message and an OK button that, when clicked, makes the overlay go away. Trivial, or it should be. I've been slavishly following http://flowplayer.org/tools/demos/overlay/trigger.html, and have something that works fine the first time it's invoked, but only that time. If I repeat the JS action that should expose the overlay, it doesn't. My content/DIV: <div class='modal' id='the_alert'> <div id='modal_content' class='modal_content'> <h2>hi there</h2> this is the body <p> <button class='close'>OK</button> </p> </div> <div id='modal_background' class='modal_background'><img src='/images/overlay/f9f9f9-180.png' class='stretch' alt='' /></div> </div> and the Javascript: function showOverlayDialog() { $('#the_alert').overlay({ mask: {color: '#cccccc', loadSpeed: 200, opacity: 0.9}, closeOnClick: false, load: true }); } As I said: When showOverlayDialog() is invoked the first time, the overlay appears just like it should, and goes away when the "OK" button is clicked. But if I cause showOverlayDialog() to run again, without reloading the page, nothing happens. If I reload the page, then the pattern repeats -- the first invocation brings up the overlay, but the second one doesn't. I'm obviously missing something -- any advice out there? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • jQuery accordion - different image for active sections

    - by Andrew Cassidy
    Hi, I'm using Ryan Stemkoski's "Stupid Simple Jquery Accordion Menu" which is available here: stemkoski.com/stupid-simple-jquery-accordion-menu/ Here is the javascript $(document).ready(function() { //ACCORDION BUTTON ACTION (ON CLICK DO THE FOLLOWING) $('.accordionButton').click(function() { //REMOVE THE ON CLASS FROM ALL BUTTONS $('.accordionButton').removeClass('on'); //NO MATTER WHAT WE CLOSE ALL OPEN SLIDES $('.accordionContent').slideUp('normal'); //IF THE NEXT SLIDE WASN'T OPEN THEN OPEN IT if($(this).next().is(':hidden') == true) { //ADD THE ON CLASS TO THE BUTTON $(this).addClass('on'); //OPEN THE SLIDE $(this).next().slideDown('normal'); } }); /*** REMOVE IF MOUSEOVER IS NOT REQUIRED ***/ //ADDS THE .OVER CLASS FROM THE STYLESHEET ON MOUSEOVER $('.accordionButton').mouseover(function() { $(this).addClass('over'); //ON MOUSEOUT REMOVE THE OVER CLASS }).mouseout(function() { $(this).removeClass('over'); }); /*** END REMOVE IF MOUSEOVER IS NOT REQUIRED ***/ /******************************************************************************************************************** CLOSES ALL S ON PAGE LOAD ********************************************************************************************************************/ $('.accordionContent').hide(); }); and the CSS #wrapper { width: 800px; margin-left: auto; margin-right: auto; } .accordionButton { width: 800px; float: left; _float: none; /* Float works in all browsers but IE6 */ background: #003366; border-bottom: 1px solid #FFFFFF; cursor: pointer; } .accordionContent { width: 800px; float: left; _float: none; /* Float works in all browsers but IE6 */ background: #95B1CE; } /*********************************************************************************************************************** EXTRA STYLES ADDED FOR MOUSEOVER / ACTIVE EVENTS ************************************************************************************************************************/ .on { background: #990000; } .over { background: #CCCCCC; } There is an "on" class which allows the style of the accordionButton class when it is active but I would like to be able to have each active accordionButton class have a different image. http://www.thepool.ie For example, in the above site the word "WORK" should be a darker grey image when the work section is selected, so should COLLAB when it is selected etc. I can't figure out how to do this, any help would be greatly appreciated. Thanks, Andrew

    Read the article

  • Can someone copyright an SQL query?

    - by Samutz
    I work for a school district. Every year we have to export a list of students from our student management system and send it to a company that handles our online exams. So to do this export, we had to hire someone who knew the inner workings of our student management system. He wrote an sql (Adaptive Sybase SQL Anywhere) query to export the students to a csv file like we needed. This was before I started working for the district, so for a while I assumed this was an actually application, until it came time for me to do the export myself. And every year he charges us $500 to update this query to export the students for the current year. So when I discovered it was only a query (.bat file and .sql file), my thought was "I can update this myself". All I have to do is change the years in the query (eg. 2009 to 2010). The query (.sql file) itself has this comment at the top: // This code was writtend by [the guy] // and is the property of [his company]...Copyright 2005,2006,2008,2009 // This code MAY NOT BE USED without the expressed written consent of // [his company]. (Yes, it really does says "writtend".) So now my boss is worried that we're violating the copyright. And that the guy is gonna find out that I updated the query myself because we haven't asked him to update it this year and take legal action. So back to the subject's question: Can he really copyright this query? And if so, is modifying it ourselves a copyright violation? In my mind, a single query isn't program code. It's more a command line command. But I don't know what it's considered legally.

    Read the article

  • Getting a connection from a Sybase datasource in WAS 6.1 fails with message "User name property miss

    - by Abel Morelos
    I have a standalone application that needs to connect to a Sybase database via a datasource, I'm trying to connect using getConnection() and get the connection from this Sybase datasource which is hosted in WAS 6.1, sadly I'm getting an error JZ004 - Sybase(R) jConnect for JDBC(TM) Programmer's Reference: SQL Exception and Warning Messages JZ004 error message is: User name property missing in DriverManager.getConnection(..., Properties) Action: Provide the required user property. As you can see, this is not a connectivity (so we can discard JNDI or lookup problems), but rather a configuration problem. For my Sybase datasource in WAS 6.1 I have set up the proper authentication alias (Component-managed Authentication Alias), and I know the credentials are alright, "Test Connection" is successful for this datasource. Somebody had a similar problem and was because of the authentication alias- http://forum.springsource.org/showthread.php?t=39915 Next, I tried calling getConnection() but now I provided the credentials like getConnection(user, password)... and this time it worked!!! So I suspect that somehow WAS 6.1 is not picking or taking the authentication info I set in the datasource as mentioned before. If you think that maybe getConnection(user, password) should be OK for my case, well, that's not the case since I have a requirement to keep the credentials in the server, the standalone application only needs to know the JNDI information to lookup the datasource. Please let me know if have faced a similar problem, or what would you suggest me to do. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Avoiding null point exception in el in JSF

    - by Buddhika Ariyaratne
    I am developing a JSF application with JPA(EclipseLink 2.0) and Primefaces. I want to know is there any way to avoid null point exception when el calls a property of a null object. I have described the situation. I have Bill class. There may be no or more BillItem objects with a Bill objects. Each BillItem object have Objects like Make, Country, Manufacturer, etc objects. I am displaying several properties of a bill within a single JSF file like this. "#{billControlled.bill.billItem.modal.name}" But if a bill is not selected, or when there are no bill items for a selected bill, the properties accessing in the el are null. I can avoid this by creating new objects for every bill, for example, new make for a new bill item, etc or by creating new properties in the controller itself for all the properties. But that is a very long way and feel like rudimentory. Is there any good practice to avoid this null point exception in el in JSF?

    Read the article

  • Test Views in ASP.NET MVC2 (ala RSpec)

    - by Dmitriy Nagirnyak
    Hi, I am really missing heavily the ability to test Views independently of controllers. The way RSpec does it. What I want to do is to perform assertions on the rendered view (where no controller is involved!). In order to do so I should provide required Model, ViewData and maybe some details from HttpContextBase (when will we get rid of HttpContext!). So far I have not found anything that allows doing it. Also it might heavily depend on the ViewEngine being used. List of things that views might contain are: Partial views (may be nested deeply). Master pages (or similar in other view engines). Html helpers generating links and other elements. Generally almost anything in a range of common sense :) . Also please note that I am not talking about client-side testing and thus Selenium is just not related to it at all. It is just plain .NET testing. So are there any options to actually do the testing of views? Thanks, Dmitriy.

    Read the article

  • grails scaffolding broken

    - by damian
    Grails scaffoldin does not work in my grails application. When I go from the main page to the specific controller page it output something like this: Error 500: Servlet: default URI: /myapp/myDomain/list Exception Message: Tag [sortableColumn] is missing required attribute [title] or [titleKey] at /webTestDummyDomain/list:25 Caused by: Error processing GroovyPageView: Tag [sortableColumn] is missing required attribute [title] or [titleKey] at /myDomain/list:25 Class: /myDomain/list At Line: [25] Code Snippet: Code snippet empty. If I try to create a new app scaffold works perfectly. Additional data: Application Status * App version: 0.1 * Grails version: 1.2.2 * JVM version: 1.6.0_20 * Controllers: 11 * Domains: 10 * Services: 19 * Tag Libraries: 26 Installed Plugins * i18n - 1.2.2 * filters - 1.2.2 * logging - 1.2.2 * core - 1.2.2 * tomcat - 1.2.2 * webtest - 2.0.4 * functionalTest - 1.2.7 * yui - 2.7.0.1 * rest - 0.3 * jquery - 1.4.2.1 * bubbling - 2.1.2 * urlMappings - 1.2.2 * groovyPages - 1.2.2 * servlets - 1.2.2 * dataSource - 1.2.2 * controllers - 1.2.2 * codecs - 1.2.2 * jqueryUi - 1.8-SNAPSHOT * grailsUi - 1.2-SNAPSHOT * domainClass - 1.2.2 * mimeTypes - 1.2.2 * scaffolding - 1.2.2 * converters - 1.2.2 * hibernate - 1.2.2 * validation - 1.2.2 * services - 1.2.2 Can you give me any pointer?

    Read the article

  • if/else statement in a function: using onclick as a switch

    - by Aurora Schmidt
    I have looked for solutions to this on google for what seems like an eternity, but I can't seem to formulate my search correctly, or nobody has posted the code I'm looking for earlier. I am currently trying to make a function that will modify one or several margins of a div element. I want to use an if/else statement within the function, so that the onclick event will switch between the two conditions. This is what I have been working on so far; function facebookToggle() { if($('#facebooktab').style.margin-left == "-250px";) { document.getElementById("facebooktab").style.marginLeft="0px"; } else { document.getElementById("facebooktab").style.marginLeft="-250px"; } } I have tried twisting it around a little, like switching between "marginLeft" and "margin-left", to see if I was just using the wrong terms.. I'm starting to wonder if it might not be possible to combine jQuery and regular javascript? I don't know.. It's all just guesses on my part at this point. Anyway, I have a div, which is now positioned (fixed) so almost all of it is hidden outside the borders of the browser. I want the margin to change onclick so that it will be fully shown on the page. And when it is shown, I want to be able to hide it again by clicking it. I might be approaching this in the wrong way, but I really hope someone can help me out, or even tell me another way to get the same results. Thank you for any help you can give me. You can see it in action at: http://www.torucon.no/test/ (EDIT: By the way, I am a complete javascript novice, I have no experience with javascript prior to this experiment. Please don't be too harsh, as I am aware I probably made some really stupid mistakes in this short code.) EDITED CODE: function facebookToggle() { if($('#facebooktab').css('margin-left', '-250px') { $('#facebooktab').css('margin-left', '0px'); } else { $('#facebooktab').css('margin-left', '-250px'); } }

    Read the article

  • Algorithm to detect how many words typed, also multi sentence support (Java)

    - by Alex Cheng
    Hello all. Problem: I have to design an algorithm, which does the following for me: Say that I have a line (e.g.) alert tcp 192.168.1.1 (caret is currently here) The algorithm should process this line, and return a value of 4. I coded something for it, I know it's sloppy, but it works, partly. private int counter = 0; public void determineRuleActionRegion(String str, int index) { if (str.length() == 0 || str.indexOf(" ") == -1) { triggerSuggestionList(1); return; } //remove duplicate space, spaces in front and back before searching int num = str.trim().replaceAll(" +", " ").indexOf(" ", index); //Check for occurances of spaces, recursively if (num == -1) { //if there is no space //no need to check if it's 0 times it will assign to 1 triggerSuggestionList(counter + 1); counter = 0; return; //set to rule action } else { //there is a space counter++; determineRuleActionRegion(str, num + 1); } } //end of determineactionRegion() So basically I find for the space and determine the region (number of words typed). However, I want it to change upon the user pressing space bar <space character>. How may I go around with the current code? Or better yet, how would one suggest me to do it the correct way? I'm figuring out on BreakIterator for this case... To add to that, I believe my algorithm won't work for multi sentences. How should I address this problem as well. -- The source of String str is acquired from textPane.getText(0, pos + 1);, the JTextPane. Thanks in advance. Do let me know if my question is still not specific enough.

    Read the article

  • Create a new app pool and assign it to a site subfolder on a remote host, using C# and IIS7

    - by Soeren
    I have a web site running on IIS7 on a remote server. I would like to do the following: Create a new subfolder under the root virtual directory. Create a new app pool. Add this new app pool to the new subfolder Normally, I would do this manually in IIS by first creating the app pool, and then right-clicking the sub folder an choose "add application", but I need to do this programmatically in C#. I've managed to make the above points 1 and 2 work, but I can't find the way to adding the application to the sub folder. This is the code I have used so far for 1 and 2: ServerManager mgr = new ServerManager(); ApplicationPool myAppPool = mgr.ApplicationPools.Add("MyAppPool"); myAppPool.AutoStart = true; myAppPool.Cpu.Action = ProcessorAction.KillW3wp; myAppPool.ManagedPipelineMode = ManagedPipelineMode.Integrated; myAppPool.ManagedRuntimeVersion = "V4.0"; myAppPool.ProcessModel.IdentityType = ProcessModelIdentityType.NetworkService; mgr.CommitChanges(); if (!Directory.Exists(@"D:\webroot\TestSite\NytSite")) { Directory.CreateDirectory(@"D:\webroot\TestSite\NytSite"); } So, I need to add "MyAppPool" to the "NytSite" folder... Is this even the correct way to do this? Any experiences out there? Thnx

    Read the article

  • Execute less compiler anywhere on the computer

    - by Xenioz
    I'm having a little problem with executing *.cmd files so I can execute them anywhere on the computer with cmd. What I exactly want is to execute the less.cmd file, which support optional arguments and uses lessc.wsf (Less.js compiler for Windows Script Host) for converting less css to pure css. The less.cmd contains: ::For convenience @cscript //nologo "%~dp0lessc.wsf" %* What I've done so far: added absolute path to lessc.cmd to the PATH system variable and moved .cmd in the PATHTEXT system variable to the beginning. Also did this: From a command prompt; assoc .bat should return with ..bat=batfile If not assoc .bat=batfile to restore the default file type association. ftype batfile should return with batfile="%1" %* If not ftype batfile="%1" %* to restore the default "Open" action for the file type. This still doesn't work unless I approach the cmd file with a absolute path in cmd, if I enter lessc anywhere else then I get C:\Intel Intel is not recognized as an internal or external command, operable program or batch file. , I've restarted my computer more than once to be sure changes will take effect. I hope somebody has the answer.

    Read the article

  • ASP.NET MVC static-asset aides/practices

    - by shannon
    I want to keep assets that are only used by one view in a view-specific folder, so my Search.aspx properly finds images/*.jpg, and helps me maintain my convention: ~/Areas/Candidate/Views/Job/Search.aspx -> ~/Assets/Candidate/Job/Search/images/*.jpg Perhaps with the ability to easily reference controller- or area-common assets manually or automatically: ~/Assets/Candidate/Job/images/*.jpg ~/Assets/Candidate/images/*.jpg If you wonder why I'm doing this, then speak up; I'm probably missing something. But here's why: I don't want stale static assets sitting in my ASP.NET MVC projects, which I expect to be an automatic outcome of the ~/Assets/Images folder: i.e. As a shared asset loses its last reference-count, who knows to delete it, especially with it being so difficult to trace content link validity in MVC projects? How do you, personally, do this? I can imagine, for example: Implement HtmlHelper extension methods for URL-generation. Extending ViewPage and ViewMasterPage with URL-generation methods. Implementing an inbound request filter to search related folders for static assets. and, are there good libraries out there for this? For example, something that also automatically appends timestamps for .JS and .CSS files, writes the / tags for me, and maybe even that allows me to inject includes in the head section from outside head code?

    Read the article

  • Thinking Sphinx with a date range

    - by Leddo
    Hi, I am implementing a full text search API for my rails apps, and so far have been having great success with Thinking Sphinx. I now want to implement a date range search, and keep getting the "bad value for range" error. Here is a snippet of the controller code, and i'm a bit stuck on what to do next. @search_options = { :page => params[:page], :per_page => params[:per_page]||50 } unless params[:since].blank? # make sure date is in specified format - YYYY-MM-DD d = nil begin d = DateTime.strptime(params[:since], '%Y-%m-%d') rescue raise ArgumentError, "Value for since parameter is not a valid date - please use format YYYY-MM-DD" end @search_options.merge!(:with => {:post_date => d..Time.now.utc}) end logger.info @search_options @posts = Post.search(params[:q], @search_options) When I have a look at the log, I am seeing this bit which seems to imply the date hasn't been converted into the same time format as the Time.now.utc. withpost_date2010-05-25T00:00:00+00:00..Tue Jun 01 17:45:13 UTC 2010 Any ideas? Basically I am trying to have the API request pass in a "since" date to see all posts after a certain date. I am specifying that the date should be in the YYYY-MM-DD format. Thanks for your help. Chris EDIT: I just changed the date parameters merge statement to this @search_options.merge!(:with = {:post_date = d.to_date..DateTime.now}) and now I get this error undefined method `to_i' for Tue, 25 May 2010:Date So obviously there is something still not setup right...

    Read the article

  • how do i keep form data after submitting the form using javascript?

    - by Lina
    When i submit this form, the values just disappears from the textboxes. I like them to stay printed in the textboxes. How do i do that? <form id="myform" method="get" action="" onSubmit="hello();"> <input id="hour" type="text" name="hour" style="width:30px; text-align:center;" /> : <input id="minute" type="text" name="minute" style="width:30px; text-align:center;" /> <br/> <input type="submit" value="Validate!" /> </form> <style type="text/css"> .error { color: red; font: 10pt verdana; padding-left: 10px } </style> <script type="text/javascript"> function hello(){ var hour = $("#hour").html(); alert(hour); } $(function() { // validate contact form on keyup and submit $("#myform").validate({ //set the rules for the fild names rules: { hour: { required: true, minlength: 1, maxlength: 2, range:[0,23] }, minute: { required: true, minlength: 1, maxlength: 2, range:[0,60] }, }, //set messages to appear inline messages: { hour: "Please enter a valid hour", minute: "Please enter a valid minute" } }); }); </script>

    Read the article

  • Submit WordPress form programmatically

    - by songdogtech
    How can I let a user access a WordPress protected page with a URL that will submit the password in the form below? I want to be able to let a user get to a password protected WordPress page without needing to type the password, so when they go to the page, the password is submitted by a POST URL on page load. This not intended to be secure in any respect; I'll need to hardcode the password in the URL and the PHP. It's just for simplicity for the user, and once they're in, the cookie will let them in for 10 more days. I will select the particular user with separate PHP function that determines their IP or WordPress login status. I used Wireshark to find the POST string: post_password=mypassword&Submit=Submit but using this URL mydomain.com/wp-pass.php?post_password=mypassword&Submit=Submit gives me a blank page. This is the form: <form action="http://mydomain.com/wp-pass.php" method="post"> Password: <input name="post_password" type="password" size="20" /> <input type="submit" name="Submit" value="Submit" /></form> This is wp-pass.php: <?php require( dirname(__FILE__) . '/wp-load.php'); if ( get_magic_quotes_gpc() ) $_POST['post_password'] = stripslashes($_POST['post_password']); setcookie('wp-postpass_' . COOKIEHASH, $_POST['post_password'], time() + 864000, COOKIEPATH); wp_safe_redirect(wp_get_referer()); ?> What am I doing wrong? Or is there a better way to let a user into a password protected page automatically?

    Read the article

  • Inactive area after device rotation

    - by Sébastien
    Hi all, I don't understand what's wrong in my very simple application with device rotation : I built my view with interface builder. (See screen capture here) I specified <key>UIInterfaceOrientation</key><string>UIInterfaceOrientationLandscapeRight</string> in my info.plist file. I had a (BOOL)shouldAutorotateToInterfaceOrientation:(UIInterfaceOrientation)interfaceOrientation {return YES;} in my root view controller. The area on the left (shown in red on the capture), around 20 pixel width, keeps inactive (nothing append if I hit a button in this area). In fact the full screen is active only in portrait mode, in landscape right mode there is this 20 pixels width inactive area, in landscape left mode this inactive area is on the right, in portrait upside down mode this area is on the bottom. I read lots of posts and documentation about UIView rotation, but I did not find anything to solve this problem (I tried to play with view.frame and view.bounds without any success). Anybody has an idea ? Thanks a lot. Regards. Sébastien.

    Read the article

  • UITableView Section Headers Drawing Above Front Subview

    - by hadronzoo
    I have a UITableView whose data have sections. I display an overlay view on top of tableView that dims it when searching: - (UIView *)blackOverlay { if (!blackOverlay) { blackOverlay = [[UIView alloc] initWithFrame:[self overlayFrame]]; blackOverlay.alpha = 0.75; blackOverlay.backgroundColor = UIColor.blackColor; [tableView insertSubview:blackOverlay aboveSubview:self.parentViewController.view]; } return blackOverlay; } This works perfectly as long as tableView does not contain sections. When tableView does contain sections and the tableView updates (such as when the view reappears after popping a view off of the navigation controller stack), the section headers are rendered above blackOverlay. This leaves tableView dimmed except for the section headers. I've tried calling [tableView bringSubviewToFront:self.blackOverlay] from within viewWillAppear:, but I get the same behavior. My current work-around is returning nil for tableView section headers while the overlay is present, but this leaves whitespace gaps in the overlaid tableView where the section headers were previously. How can I insure that tableView section headers are never drawn above blackOverlay? Or, is it possible to create a view in front of tableView from within a UITableViewController subclass that is not a subview of tableView?

    Read the article

  • Zend Sessions problem with IE8

    - by Emil
    I'm running a Zend Framework powered website and it seems to have serious problems with sessions. I have a 5 step process where I save the form data in the session between the steps and then save it into the database on the last step. When we built the site sometimes the session just went away and forced us to restart. Now it seems to work again but recently we discovered an issue with Internet Explorer 8. It fails between step 2 - 3 and forgets the session. It works fine in IE6, IE7, FF, Chrome, Safari and even in my mobile web browser (SE P1). We're storing our sessions in the database and if I deactivate the session db handler it works. What's the difference between using the database and not using it for sessions? Do I loose something if I switch back? Bootstrap: /* Start session */ $saveHandler = new Zend_Session_SaveHandler_DbTable(array( 'name' => 'sessions', 'primary' => 'id', 'modifiedColumn' => 'modified', 'dataColumn' => 'data', 'lifetimeColumn' => 'lifetime' )); Zend_Session::rememberMe((int) $config->session->lifetime); $saveHandler->setLifetime((int) $config->session->lifetime) ->setOverrideLifetime(true); Zend_Session::setSaveHandler($saveHandler); Zend_Session::start(); and in my step controller $session = new Zend_Session_Namespace('wizard'); Then I'm just working with $session saving data in a stdClass in $session.

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 595 596 597 598 599 600 601 602 603 604 605 606  | Next Page >