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  • Hibernate Relationship Mapping/Speed up batch inserts

    - by manyxcxi
    I have 5 MySQL InnoDB tables: Test,InputInvoice,InputLine,OutputInvoice,OutputLine and each is mapped and functioning in Hibernate. I have played with using StatelessSession/Session, and JDBC batch size. I have removed any generator classes to let MySQL handle the id generation- but it is still performing quite slow. Each of those tables is represented in a java class, and mapped in hibernate accordingly. Currently when it comes time to write the data out, I loop through the objects and do a session.save(Object) or session.insert(Object) if I'm using StatelessSession. I also do a flush and clear (when using Session) when my line count reaches the max jdbc batch size (50). Would it be faster if I had these in a 'parent' class that held the objects and did a session.save(master) instead of each one? If I had them in a master/container class, how would I map that in hibernate to reflect the relationship? The container class wouldn't actually be a table of it's own, but a relationship all based on two indexes run_id (int) and line (int). Another direction would be: How do I get Hibernate to do a multi-row insert?

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  • mysql join with conditional

    - by Conor H
    Hi There, I am currently working on a MySQL query that contains a table: TBL:lesson_fee -fee_type_id (PRI) -lesson_type_id (PRI) -lesson_fee_amount this table contains the fees for a particular 'lesson type' and there are different 'fee names' (fee_type). Which means that there can be many entries in this table for one 'lesson type' In my query I am joining this table onto the rest of the query via the 'lesson_type' table using: lesson_fee INNER JOIN (other joins here) ON lesson_fee.lesson_type_id = lesson_type.lesson_type_id The problem with this is that it is currently returning duplicate data in the result. 1 row for every duplicate entry in the 'lesson fee' table. I am also joining the 'fee type' table using this 'fee_type_id' Is there a way of telling MySQL to say "Join the lesson_fee table rows that have lesson_fee.lesson_type_id and fee_type_id = client.fee_type_id". UPDATE: Query: SELECT lesson_booking.lesson_booking_id,lesson_fee.lesson_fee_amount FROM fee_type INNER JOIN (lesson_fee INNER JOIN (color_code INNER JOIN (employee INNER JOIN (horse_owned INNER JOIN (lesson_type INNER JOIN (timetable INNER JOIN (lesson_booking INNER JOIN CLIENT ON client.client_id = lesson_booking.client_id) ON lesson_booking.timetable_id = timetable.timetable_id) ON lesson_type.lesson_type_id = timetable.lesson_type_id) ON horse_owned.horse_owned_id = lesson_booking.horse_owned_id) ON employee.employee_id = timetable.employee_id) ON employee.color_code_id = color_code.color_code_id) ON lesson_fee.lesson_type_id = lesson_type.lesson_type_id) ON lesson_fee.fee_type_id = client.fee_type_id WHERE booking_date = '2010-04-06' ORDER BY lesson_booking_id ASC How do I keep the format(indentation) of my query?

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  • Customer wants some data to appear after you later delete rows. System giant / not my creation. Fast

    - by John Sullivan
    This is a fairly common problem, it probably has a name, I just don't know what it is. A.) User sees obscure piece of information in Row B of L_OBSCURE_INFO displayed on some screen at a certain point. It is in table L_Obscure_info. B.) Under certain circumstances we want to correctly delete data in L_OBSCURE_INFO. Unfortunately, nobody accounted for the fact that the user might want to backtrack and see some random piece of information that was most recently in L_OBSCURE_INFO. C.) The system is enormous and L_OBSCURE_INFO is used all the time. You have no idea what the ramifications are of implementing some kind of hack and whatever you do, you don't want to introduce more bugs. I think the best approach would be to create an L_OBSCURE_INFO_HISTORY table and record a record in there every time you change data. But god help your ensuring it's accurate in this system where L_OBSCURE_INFO is being touched everywhere and you don't have time to implement L_OBSCURE_INFO_HISTORY. Is there a particularly easy, clever design solution for this kind of problem -- basically an elegant database hack? If not, is this kind of design problem under a particular class of problems or have a name?

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  • table column accepting "0" as a member Id

    - by user682417
    I have two tables one is members table with columns member id , member first name, member last name. I have another table guest passes with columns guest pass id and member id and issue date . I have a list view that will displays guest passes details (I.e) like member name and issue date and I have two text boxes those are for entering member name and issue date . member name text box is auto complete text box that working fine.... but the problem is when I am entering the name that is not in member table at this time it will accept and displays a blank field in list view in member name column and member id is stored as "0" in guest pass table ...... I don't want to display the member name empty blank and I don t want to store "0" in guest pass table and this is the insert statement sql2 = @"INSERT INTO guestpasses(member_Id,guestPass_IssueDate)"; sql2 += " VALUES("; sql2 += "'" + tbCGuestPassesMemberId.Text + "'"; sql2 += ",'" + tbIssueDate.Text + "'"; guestpassmemberId = memberid is there any validation that need to be done can any one suggestions on this pls... and this is the auto complete text box statement sql = @"SELECT member_Id FROM members WHERE concat(member_Firstname,'',member_Lastname) ='" + tbMemberName.Text+"'"; if (dt != null) { if (dt.Rows.Count > 0) { tbCGuestPassesMemberId.Text = Convert.ToInt32(dt.Rows[0] ["member_Id"]).ToString(); } } can any one help me on this ... is there any type of validation with sql query pls help me .....

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  • jquery ajax problem in chrome

    - by spaceman
    i have the following jquery code running on my page just fine in FF and IE, but chrome seems to be freaking out.. in FF and IE the call is made and the result is appended to the div. in chrome, it calls ajaxfailed on failure. the XMLHttpRequest passed to the AjaxFailed function has a status code of "200" and the statusText is "ok". the readystate is 4 and the responseText is set to the data i wish to append to the div.. basically from what i can see its calling the failure method but it isn't failing.. i have tried with both get and post requests and it always breaks in chrome. function getBranchDetails(contactID, branchID) { $.ajax({ type: "GET", url: urlToRequestTo, data: "{}", contentType: "application/json; charset=utf-8", dataType: "json", success: branchDetailsSuccess, error: AjaxFailed }); } function branchDetailsSuccess(result) { $("#divBranchControl").empty(); $("#divBranchControl").append(" " + result); $("#branchDiv").tabs(); } function AjaxFailed(result) { alert("FAILED : " + result.status + ' ' + result.statusText); }

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  • How to pass values from array into mysql with php

    - by moustafa
    my original code is this <tr> <th> <label for="user_level"> User Level: * <?php echo isset($valid_user_level) ? $valid_user_level : NULL; ?> </label> </th> </tr> <td> <select name="user_level" id="user_level" class="sel"> <option value="">Select one…</option> <option value="1">User</option> <option value="5">Admin</option> </select> </td> this give me the option to select one of choice from the drop down menu i.e. user and when user is selected and the submit button is pressed this will insert the value 1 into the database which will when the user logs in tell the system that they are are normal user. I want to change the code to the following <tr> <td> <select name="user_level" id="user_level" class="sel"> <option value="">Select one…</option> <?php if(!empty($level)) { foreach($level as $value) { echo "<option value='{$value}'"; echo getSticky(2,'user_level',$value); echo ">{$value}</option>"; } } ?> </select> </td> </tr> With this being my array query $level = array('User','Admin'); How can I pass the values of 1 for user level and 5 for admin in this code so when the user is selected it inouts 1 into the database?

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  • how to use q.js promises to work with multiple asynchronous operations

    - by kimsia
    Note: This question is also cross-posted in Q.js mailing list over here. i had a situation with multiple asynchronous operations and the answer I accepted pointed out that using Promises using a library such as q.js would be more beneficial. I am convinced to refactor my code to use Promises but because the code is pretty long, i have trimmed the irrelevant portions and exported the crucial parts into a separate repo. The repo is here and the most important file is this. The requirement is that I want pageSizes to be non-empty after traversing all the dragged'n dropped files. The problem is that the FileAPI operations inside getSizeSettingsFromPage function causes getSizeSettingsFromPage to be async. So I cannot place checkWhenReady(); like this. function traverseFiles() { for (var i=0, l=pages.length; i<l; i++) { getSizeSettingsFromPage(pages[i], calculateRatio); } checkWhenReady(); // this always returns 0. } This works, but it is not ideal. I prefer to call checkWhenReady just ONCE after all the pages have undergone this function calculateRatio successfully. function calculateRatio(width, height, filename) { // .... code pageSizes.add(filename, object); checkWhenReady(); // this works but it is not ideal. I prefer to call this method AFTER all the `pages` have undergone calculateRatio // ..... more code... } How do I refactor the code to make use of Promises in Q.js?

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  • Make an NSString accessible in the whole class

    - by OhhMee
    Hello, I want to know how can I make an NSString accessible in the whole class. Say I have these codes: - (void) init { NSArray *elements = [xpathParser search:@"//foo"]; TFHppleElement *element = [elements objectAtIndex:0]; NSString *data = [element content]; NSArray *elements1 = [xpathParser search:@"//foo2"]; TFHppleElement *element2 = [elements1 objectAtIndex:0]; NSString *data2 = [element2 content]; } And I want to use data & data2 in the whole class, how can I do that? I want to show results here: - (UITableViewCell *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView cellForRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)indexPath { static NSString *CellIdentifier = @"Cell"; UITableViewCell *cell = [tableView dequeueReusableCellWithIdentifier:CellIdentifier]; if (cell == nil) { cell = [[[UITableViewCell alloc] initWithStyle:UITableViewCellStyleDefault reuseIdentifier:CellIdentifier] autorelease]; } // Configure the cell. switch (indexPath.row) { case 0 : cell.textLabel.text = (@"%@", data); break; case 1: cell.textLabel.text = (@"%@", data2); break; } // Email & Password Section return cell; }

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  • jqgrid questions

    - by user508518
    Hi All- I recently posted a question on SO on freezing columns in jqgrid(http://stackoverflow.com/questions/4586924/jqgrid-freeze-columns). I got the following solution to be working in IE8, but its not all perfect: I set to use two css classes, one for header and other one for the rows like below: .jqgridbodyLock{ position:relative; left: expression(parentNode.parentNode.parentNode.parentNode.parentNode.scrollLeft); z-index: 10; } .jqgridheaderLocked{ position:relative; left: expression(parentNode.parentNode.parentNode.parentNode.parentNode.scrollLeft); /* IE5+ only */ z-index:30; } Then in colModel, I used the property classes {name:'column1', width:100, index:'column1', sorttype:"string", classes:'jqgridbodyLock'},//lock the body row and to lock the respective header I used code as below: $("#grid").setLabel("column1","column1","jqgridheaderLocked"); Though the solution works, I have the following problems: 1) The header values shake a lot when scrolling to the right though they remain frozen 2) The body values of the frozen column disappear when the cursor is taken out of the grid. 3) How to lock a normal table in firefox. I see that 'expression' is exclusive only to IE browser Thanks a lot

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  • [SOLVED]Django - Passing variables to template based on db

    - by George 'Griffin
    I am trying to add a feature to my app that would allow me to enable/disable the "Call Me" button based on whether or not I am at [home|the office]. I created a model in the database called setting, it looks like this: class setting(models.Model): key = models.CharField(max_length=200) value = models.CharField(max_length=200) Pretty simple. There is currently one row, available, the value of it is the string True. I want to be able to transparently pass variables to the templates like this: {% if available %} <!-- Display button --> {% else %} <!-- Display grayed out button --> {% endif %} Now, I could add logic to every view that would check the database, and pass the variable to the template, but I am trying to stay DRY. What is the best way to do this? UPDATE I created a context processor, and added it's path to the TEMPLATE_CONTEXT_PROCESSORS, but it is not being passed to the template def available(request): available = Setting.objects.get(key="available") if open.value == "True": return {"available":True} else: return {} UPDATE TWO If you are using the shortcut render_to_response, you need to pass an instance of RequestContext to the function. from the django documentation: If you're using Django's render_to_response() shortcut to populate a template with the contents of a dictionary, your template will be passed a Context instance by default (not a RequestContext). To use a RequestContext in your template rendering, pass an optional third argument to render_to_response(): a RequestContext instance. Your code might look like this: def some_view(request): # ... return render_to_response('my_template.html', my_data_dictionary, context_instance=RequestContext(request)) Many thanks for all the help!

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  • When to use CTEs to encapsulate sub-results, and when to let the RDBMS worry about massive joins.

    - by IanC
    This is a SQL theory question. I can provide an example, but I don't think it's needed to make my point. Anyone experienced with SQL will immediately know what I'm talking about. Usually we use joins to minimize the number of records due to matching the left and right rows. However, under certain conditions, joining tables cause a multiplication of results where the result is all permutations of the left and right records. I have a database which has 3 or 4 such joins. This turns what would be a few records into a multitude. My concern is that the tables will be large in production, so the number of these joined rows will be immense. Further, heavy math is performed on each row, and the idea of performing math on duplicate rows is enough to make anyone shudder. I have two questions. The first is, is this something I should care about, or will SQL Server intelligently realize these rows are all duplicates and optimize all processing accordingly? The second is, is there any advantage to grouping each part of the query so as to get only the distinct values going into the next part of the query, using something like: WITH t1 AS ( SELECT DISTINCT... [or GROUP BY] ), t2 AS ( SELECT DISTINCT... ), t3 AS ( SELECT DISTINCT... ) SELECT... I have often seen the use of DISTINCT applied to subqueries. There is obviously a reason for doing this. However, I'm talking about something a little different and perhaps more subtle and tricky.

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  • Get notified when UITableView has finished asking for data?

    - by kennethmac2000
    Hi everyone, Is there some way to find out when a UITableView has finished asking for data from its data source? None of the viewDidLoad/viewWillAppear/viewDidAppear methods of the associated view controller (UITableViewController) are of use here, as they all fire too early. None of them (entirely understandably) guarantee that queries to the data source have finished for the time being (eg, until the view is scrolled). One workaround I have found is to call reloadData in viewDidAppear, since, when reloadData returns, the table view is guaranteed to have finished querying the data source as much as it needs to for the time being. However, this seems rather nasty, as I assume it is causing the data source to be asked for the same information twice (once automatically, and once because of the reloadData call) when it is first loaded. The reason I want to do this at all is that I want to preserve the scroll position of the UITableView - but right down to the pixel level, not just to the nearest row. When restoring the scroll position (using scrollRectToVisible:animated:), I need the table view to already have sufficient data in it, or else the scrollRectToVisible:animated: method call does nothing (which is what happens if you place the call on its own in any of viewDidLoad, viewWillAppear or viewDidAppear). Thanks in advance for your assistance!

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  • Dynamic jQuery dialog after data append w/o reloading page. Possible?

    - by Arun
    Howdy, So I have a page with an enormous table in a CRUD interface of sorts. Each link within a span calls a jQuery UI Dialog Form which fetches it's content from another page. When the action taking place (in this case, a creation) has completed, it appends the resulting new data to the table and forces a resort of the table. This all happens within the JS and the DOM. The problem with this, is that the new table row's CRUD links don't actually trigger the dialog form creation as all the original links in spans are only scanned on document.ready and since I'm not reloading the page, the new links cannot be seen. Code is as follows: $(document).ready(function() { var $loading = $('<img src="/images/loading.gif" alt="Loading">'); $('span a').each(function() { var $dialog = $('<div></div>') .append($loading.clone()); var $link = $(this).one('click', function() { // Dialog Stuff success: function(data) { $('#studies tbody').append( '<tr>' + '<td><span><a href="./?action=update&study=' + data.study_id + '" title="Update Study">Update</a></span></td>' + '</tr>' ); fdTableSort.init(#studies); // This re-sorts the table. $(this).dialog('close'); } $link.click(function() { $dialog.dialog('open'); return false; }); return false; }); }); }); Basically, my question is if there is any way in which to trigger a jQuery re-evaluation of the pages links without forcing me to do a browser page refresh?

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  • SharePoint 2007 - Content deployment and swapping content database

    - by Mel Lota
    Hi all, I'm currently working on a SharePoint 2007 site which is setup to allow clients to author content on a staging server and then this is automatically pushed up to the live environment via content deployment. The content deployment is setup in the 'Content deployment jobs and paths' in central admin. Now the problem I've got is that it seems that historically there have been a mixture of full and incremental deployments done to the live site collection which according to Stefan Goßner's best practices post (http://blogs.technet.com/stefan_gossner/pages/content-deployment-best-practices.aspx) is a bad idea due to the fact that things soon become out of sync. It's gotten to the point where the content deployment has just stopped working and incremental or full deployments are throwing errors in the logs. What I'm thinking is that I probably need to perform a full content deployment to an empty site collection and then somehow switch the new clean site collection with the current live one. I was wondering if anybody has any experience with this and could provide any pointers, I'm currently investigating the feasibility of performing the clean content deployment and then switching the live content database with the new one, however in my tests I've found that as soon as I switch content databases, the incremental deployment still fails. Any help much appreciated. (Note: I did post this on SharePoint Overflow as well, but thought I'd put it on here in case anybody else has any ideas) Cheers

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  • Android Java error handling XML file

    - by Paul
    I'm using SAX and XML reader to read XML weather info from the web and it works fine if the page exists. But if for instance the user inputs an invalid city, zip etc the XML page that gets read from is empty and the app force closes with nullpointerexception. The area that generates the error is here right at open inputstream. Any suggestions?: SAXParserFactory spf = SAXParserFactory.newInstance(); SAXParser sp = null; try { sp = spf.newSAXParser(); } catch (ParserConfigurationException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); } catch (SAXException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); } /* Get the XMLReader of the SAXParser we created. */ XMLReader xr = null; try { xr = sp.getXMLReader(); } catch (SAXException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); } /* Create a new ContentHandler and apply it to the XML-Reader*/ WeatherHandler myExampleHandler = new WeatherHandler(); xr.setContentHandler(myExampleHandler); /* Parse the xml-data from our URL. */ try { xr.parse(new InputSource(url.openStream())); parsedWeatherDataSet = myExampleHandler.getParsedData(); } catch (IOException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); } catch (SAXException e) { // TODO Auto-generated catch block e.printStackTrace(); } return parsedWeatherDataSet.toString();

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  • Rails 4 testing bug?

    - by Jamato
    Situation: if we add two identic line items into a cart, we update line item quantity instead of adding a duplicate.In browser everything works fine but in unit testing section something fails because of an empty cycle in code. Which I wanted to use to update all prices. Why? Is that a unit test engine bug? LineItem.all and cart.line_items in process of testing produce two DIFFERENT structures. #<LineItem id: 980190964, product_id: 1, cart_id: 999, created_at: "2014-06-01 00:21:28", updated_at: "2014-06-01 00:21:28", quantity: 2, price: #<BigDecimal:ba0fb544,'0.4E1',9(27)>> #<LineItem id: 980190964, product_id: 1, cart_id: 999, created_at: "2014-06-01 00:21:28", updated_at: "2014-06-01 00:21:28", quantity: 1, price: #<BigDecimal:ba0d1b04,'0.4E1',9(27)>> cart.line_items guy did not update quantity Code itself (produces LineItem which is then saved in line_item_controller which calls this method) class Cart < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :line_items, dependent: :destroy def add_product(product_id) # LOOK THIS CYCLE BREAKS UNIT TEST, SRSLY, I MEAN IT line_items.each do |item| end current_item = line_items.find_by(product_id: product_id) fresh_price = Product.find_by(id: product_id).price if current_item current_item.quantity += 1 else current_item = line_items.build(product_id: product_id, price: fresh_price) end return current_item end ... Unit test code test "non-unique item added" do cart = Cart.new(:id => 999) line_item0 = cart.add_product(2) line_item0.save line_item1 = cart.add_product(1) line_item1.save assert_equal 2, cart.line_items.size #success line_item2 = cart.add_product(1) line_item2.save assert_equal 2, cart.line_items.size, "what?" assert cart.total_price > 15 #fail, prices are not enough, quantity of product1 = 1 #we get total price from quantity, it's a simple method in model end And once again: IT DOES WORK in browser as it should. Even with cycle. I feel so dumb right now...

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  • PHP delete script, return to 'viewsubjects.php?classroom_id=NO VALUE'

    - by Derek
    Hi, As the title states... I am deleting a 'subject' from a 'classroom' I view classrooms, then can click on a classroom to view the subject for that classroom. So the link where I am viewing subjects looks like: viewsubjects.php?classroom=23 When the user selects the delete button (in a row) to remove a subject from a class, I simply want the user to be redirected back to the list of subjects for the classroom (exactly where they were before!!) So I though this is simply a case of calling up the classroom ID within my delete script. Here is what I have: EDIT: corrected spelling mistake in code (this was not the problem) $subject_id = $_GET['subject_id']; $classroom_id = $_GET['classroom_id']; $sql = "DELETE FROM subjects WHERE subject_id=".$subject_id; $result = mysql_query($sql, $connection) or die("MySQL Error: ".mysql_error()); header("Location: viewsubjects.php?classroom_id=".$classroom_id); exit(); The subject is being removed from the DB, but when I am redirected back the URI is displaying with an empty classroom ID like: viewsubjects.php?classroom_id= Is there a way to carry the classroom ID through successfully through the delete script so it can be displayed after, allowing the user to be redirected back to the page? Thanks for any help!

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  • PHP foreach help

    - by sea_1987
    Hello I have an array that looks like this, Array ( [cfi_title] => Mr [cfi_firstname] => Firstname [cfi_surname] => Lastname [cfi_email] => [email protected] [cfi_subscribe_promotional] => [cfi_tnc] => [friendsName] => Array ( [0] => Firstname 1 [1] => Firstname 2 [2] => Firstname 3 ) [friendsEmail] => Array ( [0] => [email protected] [1] => [email protected] [2] => [email protected] ) [submit_form] => Submit ) My dilema is I need to save the values from the friendsName and friendsEmail arrays into a database, I know I can loop through them but how can I send the matching data, for example I need to save [friendsName][0] and friendsEmail][0] on the same row of database? I know I need to use a foreach but I just cannot figure out the logic.

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  • reformatting a matrix in matlab with nan values

    - by Kate
    This post follows a previous question regarding the restructuring of a matrix: re-formatting a matrix in matlab An additional problem I face is demonstrated by the following example: depth = [0:1:20]'; data = rand(1,length(depth))'; d = [depth,data]; d = [d;d(1:20,:);d]; Here I would like to alter this matrix so that each column represents a specific depth and each row represents time, so eventually I will have 3 rows (i.e. days) and 21 columns (i.e. measurement at each depth). However, we cannot reshape this because the number of measurements for a given day are not the same i.e. some are missing. This is known by: dd = sortrows(d,1); for i = 1:length(depth); e(i) = length(dd(dd(:,1)==depth(i),:)); end From 'e' we find that the number of depth is different for different days. How could I insert a nan into the matrix so that each day has the same depth values? I could find the unique depths first by: unique(d(:,1)) From this, if a depth (from unique) is missing for a given day I would like to insert the depth to the correct position and insert a nan into the respective location in the column of data. How can this be achieved?

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  • What is the "un-tab" sequence in (g)Vim?

    - by OwenP
    This is an annoyance I've had for a long time. (Nitpicky section: I prefer 4 space characters to tab characters. It's a lot easier to type "tab" instead of explaining that. When I say "tab", I mean "the action that happens when you press the tab key" which is probably more simply stated as "increase indentation".) I'm using smartindent while editing a document where indentation has some significance. In "dumb" windows text editors I can press Shift+Tab to remove a tab or, more appropriately, decrease the indentation level of the current line. I can't figure out how to do this from edit mode in Vim; Shift+Tab seems to count just the same as Tab. I know in Command mode << will decrease indentation. I want the equivalent in edit mode. These are the solutions I've found so far and why I don't like them, one in particular may be the key to the answer. Use Notepad++ or some other dumb editor. I've done this for a couple of years but I really miss Vim. Exit edit mode, use <<, enter edit mode. This just puts the cursor at column 0; if I wanted this I wouldn't have tried smartindent. Stop using smartindent. I don't decrease indent as often as I need to keep the same indent level; this would be a loss of productivity. The left arrow key seems to decrease the indent by one level. I'd rather something I can do without leaving the home row. This is the most promising choice. Maybe there's an option I can set? Maybe I can rebind left arrow to something? (If it requires rebinding please explain in detail; I've never delved into reconfiguring (g)Vim.

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  • Display error message at top of form

    - by moustafa
    Hello, I'm trying to get the following error to show when some once presses the submit button and has not filled in the required field/s. My PHP code is. <?php require_once("includes/database.php"); require_once("includes/functions.php"); if(isset($_POST['full_name'])) { $required = array('full_name','user_name','email','pwd','pwd2'); $missing = array(); $validation = array( 'full_name' => 'Please provide your full name', 'user_name' => 'Please provide your username', 'email' => 'Please provide your valid email address', 'pwd' => 'Please provide your password', 'pwd2' => 'Please confirm your password', 'userdup' => 'Username already registered', 'emaildup' => 'Email address already registered', 'mismatch' => 'Passwords do not match' ); //Sanitise and clean function $full_name = escape($_POST['full_name']); $user_name = escape($_POST['user_name']); $email = escape($_POST['email']); $pwd = escape($_POST['pwd']); $pwd2 = escape($_POST['pwd2']); foreach($_POST as $key => $value) { $value = trim($value); if(empty($value) && in_array($key,$required)) { array_push($missing,$key); } else { ${$key} = escape($value); } }

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  • Rails HTML Table update fields in mongo with AJAX

    - by qwexar
    I'm building a Rails app backed by mongodb using mongoid. It's a one page app, with a HTML table, every field for every row of which, needs to be editable without refreshing the page. This is your usual Rails view ( like many in rails casts ) showing a table with rows and columns containing data. For example. I'm showing cars, and showing their make, model and notes They way I'm doing this is by appending _id of a mongo document to every column and marking it's field name in html id too. Then I pick up the value for $("#id") and send it to rails controller via AJAX and run @car.update_attributes method accordingly. Currently, one of my rows looks like this. <tr> <td id=<%= car.id %>_make> <%= car.make %> </td> <td id=<%= car.id %>_model> <%= car.model %> </td> <td id=<%= car.id %>_notes> <%= car.notes %> </td> </tr> // my function which is called onChange for every column function update_attributes(id){ var id = id.split[0]; var attribute = id.split[1]; $.ajax("sending id and attribute to rails controller"); } Is there any built it Rails magic which would let me update only a field in a model without refreshing the page? or. Is there a Rails plugin for this?

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  • Need a set based solution to group rows

    - by KM
    I need to group a set of rows based on the Category column, and also limit the combined rows based on the SUM(Number) column to be less than or equal to the @Limit value. For each distinct Category column I need to identify "buckets" that are <=@limit. If the SUM(Number) of all the rows for a Category column are <=@Limit then there will be only 1 bucket for that Category value (like 'CCCC' in the sample data). However if the SUM(Number)@limit, then there will be multiple bucket rows for that Category value (like 'AAAA' in the sample data), and each bucket must be <=@Limit. There can be as many buckets as necessary. Also, look at Category value 'DDDD', its one row is greater than @Limit all by itself, and gets split into two rows in the result set. Given this simplified data: DECLARE @Detail table (DetailID int primary key, Category char(4), Number int) SET NOCOUNT ON INSERT @Detail VALUES ( 1, 'AAAA',100) INSERT @Detail VALUES ( 2, 'AAAA', 50) INSERT @Detail VALUES ( 3, 'AAAA',300) INSERT @Detail VALUES ( 4, 'AAAA',200) INSERT @Detail VALUES ( 5, 'BBBB',500) INSERT @Detail VALUES ( 6, 'CCCC',200) INSERT @Detail VALUES ( 7, 'CCCC',100) INSERT @Detail VALUES ( 8, 'CCCC', 50) INSERT @Detail VALUES ( 9, 'DDDD',800) INSERT @Detail VALUES (10, 'EEEE',100) SET NOCOUNT OFF DECLARE @Limit int SET @Limit=500 I need one of these result set: DetailID Bucket | DetailID Category Bucket -------- ------ | -------- -------- ------ 1 1 | 1 'AAAA' 1 2 1 | 2 'AAAA' 1 3 1 | 3 'AAAA' 1 4 2 | 4 'AAAA' 2 5 3 OR 5 'BBBB' 1 6 4 | 6 'CCCC' 1 7 4 | 7 'CCCC' 1 8 4 | 8 'CCCC' 1 9 5 | 9 'DDDD' 1 9 6 | 9 'DDDD' 2 10 7 | 10 'EEEE' 1

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  • How to convert object to string list?

    - by user1381501
    I want to get two values by using linq select query and try to convert object to string list. I am trying to convert list to list. The code as below. I got the error when I convert object to string list : return returnvalue = (List)userlist; public List<string> GetUserList(string username) { List<User> UserList = new List<User>(); List<string> returnvalue=new List<string>(); try { string returnstring = string.Empty; DataTable dt = null; dt = Library.Helper.FindUser(username, 200); foreach (DataRow dr in dt.Rows) { User user = new User(); spuser.id = dr["ID"].ToString(); spuser.name = dr["Name"].ToString(); UserList.Adduser } } catch (Exception ex) { } List<SharePointMentoinUser> userlist = UserList.Select(a => new User { name = (string)a.name, id = (string)a.id }).ToList(); **return returnvalue = (List<string>)userlist;** }

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  • Processing a resultset to look up foriegn keys (and poulate a new table!)

    - by Gilly
    Hi, I've been handed a dataset that has some fairly basic table structures with no keys at all. eg {myRubishTable} - Area(varchar),AuthorityName(varchar),StartYear(varchar),StartMonth(varcha),EndYear(varchar),EndMonth(varchar),Amount(Money) there are other tables that use the Area and AuthorityName columns as well as a general use of Month and Years so I I figured a good first step was to pull Area and Authority into their own tables. I now want to process the data in the original table and lookup the key value to put into my new table with foreign keys which looks like this. (lookup Tables) {Area} - id (int, PK), name (varchar(50)) {AuthorityName} - id(int, PK), name(varchar(50) (TargetTable) {myBetterTable} - id (int,PK), area_id(int FK-Area),authority_name_id(int FK-AuthorityName),StartYear (varchar),StartMonth(varchar),EndYear(varchar),EndMonth(varchar),Amount(money) so row one in the old table read MYAREA, MYAUTHORITY,2009,Jan,2010,Feb,10000 and I want to populate the new table with 1,1,1,2009,Jan,2010,Feb,10000 where the first '1' is the primary key and the second two '1's are the ids in the lookup tables. Can anyone point me to the most efficient way of achieving this using just SQL? Thanks in advance Footnote:- I've achieved what I needed with some pretty simple WHERE clauses (I had left a rogue tablename in the FROM which was throwing me :o( ) but would be interested to know if this is the most efficient. ie SELECT [area].[area_id], [authority].[authority_name_id], [myRubishTable].[StartYear], [myRubishTable].[StartMonth], [myRubishTable].[EndYear], [myRubishTable].[EndMonth], [myRubishTable].[Amount] FROM [myRubishTable],[Area],[AuthorityName] WHERE [myRubishTable].[Area]=[Area].[name] AND [myRubishTable].[Authority Name]=[dim_AuthorityName].[name] TIA

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