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  • Sys. engineer has decided to dynamically transform all XSLs into DLLs on website build process. DLL

    - by John Sullivan
    Hello, OS: Win XP. Here is my situation. I have a browser based application. It is "wrapped" in a Visual Basic application. Our "Systems Engineer Senior" has decided to spawn DLL files from all of our XSL pages (many of which have duplicate names) upon building a new instance of the website and have the active server pages (ASPX) use the DLL instead. This has created a "known issue" in which ~200 DLL naming conflicts occur and, thus, half of our application is broken. I think a solution to this problem is that, thankfully, we're generating the names of the DLLs and linking them up with our application dynamically. Therefore we can do something kludgy like generate a hash and append it to the end of the DLL file name when we build our website, then always reference the DLL that had some kind of random string / hash appended to its name. Aside from outright renaming the DLLs, is there another way to have multiple DLLs with the same name register for one application? I think the answer is "No, only between different applications using a special technique." Please confirm. Another question I have on my mind is whether this whole idea is a good practice -- converting our XSL pages (which we use in mass -- every time a response from our web app occurs) into DLL functions that call a "function" to do what the XSL page did via an active server page (ASPX), when we were before just sending an XML response to an XSL page via aspx.

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  • find and replace values in csv using PHP

    - by peirix
    I'd think there was a question on this already, but I can't find one. Maybe the solution is too easy... Anyway, I have a csv and want to let the user change the values based on a name. I've already sorted out creating new name+value-pairs using the fopen('a') mode, using jQuery to send the AJAX call with newValue and newName. But say the content looks like this: host|http:www.stackoverflow.com folder|/questions/ folder2|/users/ And now I want to change the folder value. So I'll send in folder as oldName and /tags/ as newValue. What's the best way to overwrite the value? The order in the list doesn't matter, and the name will always be on the left, followed by a |(pipe), the value and then a new-line. My first thought was to read the list, store it in an array, search all the [0]'s for oldName, then change the [1] that belongs to it, and then write it back to a file. But I feel there is a better way around this? Any ideas? Maybe regex?

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  • CakePHP 2.0: how to access properties of the parent object?

    - by PaulJ
    I just started learning CakePHP 2.0 a few days ago, and there's one thing that is leaving me stumped: say I have an User model and a Posts model: class User extends AppModel { public $name = "User"; public $hasMany=array( 'Post' => array( 'className' => 'Post', 'foreignKey' => 'author_id' ) ); } class Post extends AppModel { public $name = 'Post'; public $belongsTo = array( 'className' = 'User', 'foreignKey' = 'author_id', ); } (Where "author_id" is the foreign key in the posts table that references the Users table's primary key). And now, in the PostsController, I want to access the properties of the user that owns the current post (to show his display name, for example). What would be the proper syntax? I tried: $this->Post->User->find('first', array('conditions' => array('User.id' => "$usuario"))) But it didn't work (I guess it's because the User is the parent of the Post object, not its child). Or should CakePHP load everything automatically, once you've declared the $hasMany and $belongsTo relationships?

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  • EF Code First, how can I achieve two foreign keys from one table to other table?

    - by Yoo Matsuo
    I've recently downloaded Entity Framework Code First CTP5, and have a trouble with this scenario. I have two tables as follows: Members table ID Name Comments table ID Comment CommentedMemberID CommentMemberID And, the data should be like the following: Members ID Name 1 Mike 2 John 3 Tom Comments ID Comment CommentedMemberID CommentMemberID 1 Good 1 2 2 Good 1 3 3 Bad 2 1 Then, I coded as shown below: public class Member { public int ID {get; set; } public string Name { get; set;} public virtual ICollection Comments { get; set;} } public class Comment { public int ID { get; set; } public string Comment { get; set; } public int CommentedMemberID { get; set; } public int CommentMemberID{ get; set; } public virtual Member CommentedMember { get; set; } public virtual Member CommentMember { get; set; } } public class TestContext : DbContext { public DbSet Members { get; set; } public DbSet Comments { get; set; } } But when I run these models on my cshtml, it gives me errors saying "Cannot create CommentMember instance" or something like that (Sorry, I already changed my models to proceed the EF Code First evaluation, so can't reproduce the same error). I've also tried to use OnModelCreating on the TestContext, but can't find any good instructions and don't know what to do. I saw a blog post of the EF Code First CTP3, and it seems there was a RelatedTo attribute in that version, but now it has gone. Could anyone know how to get it work properly? Or is this a totally wrong way to go with this scenario? Thanks, Yoo

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  • How do you chain functions dynamically in jQuery?

    - by clarke78
    I want to loop through an object that contains functions which will execute one after another. My most ideal approach would be to have these chain somehow (ie. func2 waits for func1 and func3 waits for func2) but this needs to happen dynamically and the functions will all have different durations. I'm using jQuery so I thought that perhaps "queue()" may help but I haven't worked with it much. A main concern is to not add any scope/callbacks to the functions within the object. I'd rather somehow enclose them within a parent function to execute within the loop in order to create the callback/chaining. Here's an example of what I've got now, but dumbed down. Thanks for any help! var obj = [ {'name':'func1','callback':function(){ alert(1); }}, {'name':'func2','callback':function(){ alert(2); }}, {'name':'func3','callback':function(){ alert(3); }} ]; $.each(obj, function(x, el) { el.callback(); });

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  • In C, when do structure names have to be included in structure initializations and definitions?

    - by Tyler
    I'm reading The C Programming Language by K&R and in the section on structures I came across these code snippets: struct maxpt = { 320, 200 }; and /* addpoints: add two points */ struct addpoint(struct point p1, struct point p2) { p1.x += p2.x; p1.y += p2.y; return p1; } In the first case, it looks like it's assigning the values 320 and 200 to the members of the variable maxpt. But I noticed the name of the struct type is missing (shouldn't it be "struct struct_name maxpt = {320, 200}"? In the second case, the function return type is just "struct" and not "struct name_of_struct". I don't get why they don't include the struct names - how does it know what particular type of structure it's dealing with? My confusion is compounded by the fact that in previous snippets they do include the structure name, such as in the return type for the following function, where it's "struct point" and not just "struct". Why do they include the name in some cases and not in others? /* makepoint: make a point from x and y components */ struct point makepoint(int x, int y) { struct point temp; temp.x = x; temp.y = y; return temp; }

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  • XML Serialization : Has property of type Class1 : Class1 has another property : How to write the property of Class1 into XML?

    - by Wonderlander
    I want to serialize a class. In this class there's a property, type of Class1, while there are other properties in Class1. public abstract class ComponentBase { [ToSerialize]//An attribute defined my me, indicating whether or not to serialize this property. public ComponentArgs Parameters { get; set; } } public class ComponentArgs { public string WorkingPath { get; set; } public IList<Language> Languages { get; set; } public string ComponentOutputPath { get; set; } } The information serialized must be put into a Dictionary, such as ComponentSettings[str_Name]=str_Value. The method used in reading this value is Reflection. pinfo: Property Info got via Type.GetProperties(); componentSettings.Add(pinfo.Name, pinfo.GetValue((object)this, null).ToString()); The information after serialization is: <Parameters>MS.STBIntl.Pippin.Framework.ComponentArgs</Parameters> instead of the value of ComponentArgs.WorkingPath. The solution I thought of is to append to the following line an if judgement: componentSettings.Add(pinfo.Name, pinfo.GetValue((object)this, null).ToString()); if(pinfo is ComponentArgs) componentSettings.Add(pinfo.Name, pinfo.GetValue( (ComponentArgs)this, null).WorkingPath+"\n"+ LanguageList+"\n"+ //Language list is a concatinated string of all elements in the list. (ComponentArgs)this, null).ComponentOutputPath+"\n"+ ); When deserializing, add a judgement of whether the value contains more than 2 "\n", if so, extract each value from the string. But this way seems clumsy and much more like an workaround. I wonder if there's any more professional way of doing it? My reviewer is very particular and he won't accept such a solution. If you know a way, could you please share it with me? Thanks a lot.

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  • Two references to the same domain/entity model

    - by Sbossb
    Problem I want to save the attributes of a model that have changed when a user edits them. Here's what I want to do ... Retrieve edited view model Get domain model and map back updated value Call the update method on repository Get the "old" domain model and compare values of the fields Store the changed values (in JSON) into a table However I am having trouble with step number 4. It seems that the Entity Framework doesn't want to hit the database again to get the model with the old values. It just returns the same entity I have. Attempted Solutions I have tried using the Find() and the SingleOrDefault() methods, but they just return the model I currently have. Example Code private string ArchiveChanges(T updatedEntity) { //Here is the problem! //oldEntity is the same as updatedEntity T oldEntity = DbSet.SingleOrDefault(x => x.ID == updatedEntity.ID); Dictionary<string, object> changed = new Dictionary<string, object>(); foreach (var propertyInfo in typeof(T).GetProperties()) { var property = typeof(T).GetProperty(propertyInfo.Name); //Get the old value and the new value from the models var newValue = property.GetValue(updatedEntity, null); var oldValue = property.GetValue(oldEntity, null); //Check to see if the values are equal if (!object.Equals(newValue, oldValue)) { //Values have changed ... log it changed.Add(propertyInfo.Name, newValue); } } var ser = new System.Web.Script.Serialization.JavaScriptSerializer(); return ser.Serialize(changed); } public override void Update(T entityToUpdate) { //Do something with this string json = ArchiveChanges(entityToUpdate); entityToUpdate.AuditInfo.Updated = DateTime.Now; entityToUpdate.AuditInfo.UpdatedBy = Thread.CurrentPrincipal.Identity.Name; base.Update(entityToUpdate); }

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  • PHP transfer files from server to server in LAN

    - by cheapez
    So, I have 5-6 pages of requirements. I'm trying to build this application in PHP based on the requirements. I want to transfer files from one server to the other server in LAN, and then send a shell command to the other server to find out if the file has been transferred successfully. In php, I can transfer files using FTP, and send shell commands using SSH. Using the methods above, I will need to open connection to the server first, but I don't know the ftp server name, domain name, ip address, or anything like that. I only know the the server ID (I'm not sure what this ID is, but I guess it is like the computer's name). An example of the server ID is: "c23bap234" How do I open a connection with just that server ID? These servers are in the same building, have LAN connection, don't have connection to the outside world. These machines have PHP, Apache, ... installed. If my post doesn't make sense to you, it's because I'm a learner. I hope someone can help me on this. Thanks in advance.

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  • Spring MVC - Set an actionURL parameter with Javascript

    - by jeffl8n
    Is it possible to dynamically set a Spring MVC portlet:actionURL portlet:param using javascript? I have tried with the following code, but the id value always comes across as null to the controller. I have verified that setting the portlet:param manually passes the value correctly: <portlet:param name="id" value="2" /> I have also verified the value in the javascript is being set correctly and is not null. (Note: I've changed the variable names, etc. from the original code to simplify it and obfuscate it since it is my employer's code.) JSP: <portlet:actionURL var="modifyURL"> <portlet:param name="do" value="modify" /> <portlet:param name="id" value="${model.id}" /> </portlet:actionURL> ... <form:form action="${modifyURL}" id="modifyForm" modelAttribute="model"> <form:hidden path="id" id="id" /> </form:form> Javascript called when the update URL is clicked: function update() { document.forms[0]["id"].value = selectedId; document.forms[0].submit(); } Controller: @RequestMapping(params = {"do=modify"}) public void modify(@ModelAttribute("model") Model model, @RequestParam(value = "id", required=true) Long id, ActionRequest request, ActionResponse response, SessionStatus sessionStatus, ModelMap modelMap) { ....

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  • Jquery push data to the good row.

    - by marharépa
    Hi! This is my big problem. This script put the information to a table. function handleAccountFeed(result) { var entries = result.feed.getEntries(); var outputTable = ['<table><tr>', '<th>Account Name</th>', '<th>Profile Name</th>', '<th>Profile ID</th>', '<th>Table Id</th></tr>']; for (var i = 0, entry; entry = entries[i]; ++i) { var row = [ entry.getPropertyValue('ga:AccountName'), entry.getTitle().getText(), entry.getPropertyValue('ga:ProfileId'), entry.getTableId().getValue() ].join('</td><td>'); outputTable.push('<tr><td>', row, '</td></tr>'); } outputTable.push('</table>'); document.getElementById('outputDiv').innerHTML = outputTable.join(''); } I've got an own SMARTY template, which makes a table: <table id="stuffs"> <tbody> {section name=i loop=$ownsites} <tr><td>{$ownsites[i].id}</td><td>{$ownsites[i].domain}</td><td>PLACE</td></tr> {/section} <tbody> </table> I'd like to put the TableId (getTableId().getValue()) to that row's PLACE where {$ownsites[i].domain} is equal to the jquery row's Title (getTitle().getText()) How can i do this within this jQuery script?

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  • How to make restrictions on XML Schema Complex type?

    - by chobo2
    Hi I am reading the tutorials on w3cschools ( http://www.w3schools.com/schema/schema_complex.asp ) but they don't seem to mention how you could add restrictions on complex types. Like for instance I have this schema. <xs:element name="employee"> <xs:complexType> <xs:sequence> <xs:element name="firstname" type="xs:string"/> <xs:element name="lastname" type="xs:string"/> </xs:sequence> </xs:complexType> </xs:element> now I want to make sure the firstname is no more then 10 characters long. How do I do this? I tried to put in the simple type for the firstname but it says I can't do that since I am using a complex type. So how do I put restrictions like that on the file so the people who I give the schema to don't try to make the firstname 100 characters.

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  • HABTM selection seemingly ignores joinTable

    - by TheCapn
    I'm attempting to do a HABTM relationship between a Users table and Groups table. The problem is, that I when I issue this call: $this->User->Group->find('list'); The query that is issued is: SELECT [Group].[id] AS [Group__id], [Group].[name] AS [Group__name] FROM [groups] AS [Group] WHERE 1 = 1 I can only assume at this point that I have defined my relationship wrong as I would expect behavior to use the groups_users table that is defined on the database as per convention. My relationships: class User extends AppModel { var $name = 'User'; //...snip... var $hasAndBelongsToMany = array( 'Group' => array( 'className' => 'Group', 'foreignKey' => 'user_id', 'associationForeignKey' => 'group_id', 'joinTable' => 'groups_users', 'unique' => true, ) ); //...snip... } class Group extends AppModel { var $name = 'Group'; var $hasAndBelongsToMany = array ( 'User' => array( 'className' => 'User', 'foreignKey' => 'group_id', 'associationForeignKey' => 'user_id', 'joinTable' => 'groups_users', 'unique' => true, )); } Is my understanding of HABTM wrong? How would I implement this Many to Many relationship where I can use CakePHP to query the groups_users table such that a list of groups the currently authenticated user is associated with is returned?

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  • Using an objects date (without time) for a table header instead of an objects date and time (iphone)

    - by billywilliamton
    I've been working on an iphone project and have run into an issue. Currently In the table view where it displays all the objects, I use headers based on the objects datePerformed field. The only problem is that my code apparently creates a header that contains both the date and time resulting in objects not being grouped solely by their date as I intended, but rather based on their date and time. I'm not sure if it matters, but when an object is created I use a date picker to pick the date, but not the time. I was wondering if anyone could give me any suggestions or advice. Here is the code where i set up the fetchedResultsController - (NSFetchedResultsController *)fetchedResultsController { if (fetchedResultsController != nil) { return fetchedResultsController; } // Create and configure a fetch request with the Exercise entity. NSFetchRequest *fetchRequest = [[NSFetchRequest alloc] init]; NSEntityDescription *entity = [NSEntityDescription entityForName:@"Exercise" inManagedObjectContext:managedObjectContext]; [fetchRequest setEntity:entity]; // Create the sort descriptors array using date and name NSSortDescriptor *dateDescriptor = [[NSSortDescriptor alloc] initWithKey:@"datePerformed" ascending:NO]; NSSortDescriptor *nameDescriptor = [[NSSortDescriptor alloc] initWithKey:@"name" ascending:YES]; NSArray *sortDescriptors = [[NSArray alloc] initWithObjects:dateDescriptor, nameDescriptor, nil]; [fetchRequest setSortDescriptors:sortDescriptors]; // Create and initialize the fetch results controller NSFetchedResultsController *aFetchedResultsController = [[NSFetchedResultsController alloc] initWithFetchRequest:fetchRequest managedObjectContext:managedObjectContext sectionNameKeyPath:@"datePerformed" cacheName:@"Root"]; self.fetchedResultsController = aFetchedResultsController; fetchedResultsController.delegate = self; // Memory management calls [aFetchedResultsController release]; [fetchRequest release]; [dateDescriptor release]; [nameDescriptor release]; [sortDescriptors release]; return fetchedResultsController; } Here's where I set up the table header properties - (NSString *)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView titleForHeaderInSection:(NSInteger)section { // Display the exercise' date as section headings. return [[[fetchedResultsController sections] objectAtIndex:section] name]; } Any suggestions welcome. Thanks for your time. -Billy Williamton

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  • How to combine two rows and calculate the time difference between two timestamp values in MySQL?

    - by Nadar
    I have a situation that I'm sure is quite common and it's really bothering me that I can't figure out how to do it or what to search for to find a relevant example/solution. I'm relatively new to MySQL (have been using MSSQL and PostgreSQL earlier) and every approach I can think of is blocked by some feature lacking in MySQL. I have a "log" table that simply lists many different events with their timestamp (stored as datetime type). There's lots of data and columns in the table not relevant to this problem, so lets say we have a simple table like this: CREATE TABLE log ( id INT NOT NULL AUTO_INCREMENT, name VARCHAR(16), ts DATETIME NOT NULL, eventtype VARCHAR(25), PRIMARY KEY (id) ) Let's say that some rows have an eventtype = 'start' and others have an eventtype = 'stop'. What I want to do is to somehow couple each "startrow" with each "stoprow" and find the time difference between the two (and then sum the durations per each name, but that's not where the problem lies). Each "start" event should have a corresponding "stop" event occuring at some stage later then the "start" event, but because of problems/bugs/crashed with the data collector it could be that some are missing. In that case I would like to disregard the event without a "partner". That means that given the data: foo, 2010-06-10 19:45, start foo, 2010-06-10 19:47, start foo, 2010-06-10 20:13, stop ..I would like to just disregard the 19:45 start event and not just get two result rows both using the 20:13 stop event as the stop time. I've tried to join the table with itself in different ways, but the key problems for me seems to be to find a way to correctly identify the corresponding "stop" event to the "start" event for the given "name". The problem is exactly the same as you would have if you had table with employees stamping in and out of work and wanted to find out how much they actually were at work. I'm sure there must be well known solutions to this, but I can't seem to find them...

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  • Optimize Duplicate Detection

    - by Dave Jarvis
    Background This is an optimization problem. Oracle Forms XML files have elements such as: <Trigger TriggerName="name" TriggerText="SELECT * FROM DUAL" ... /> Where the TriggerText is arbitrary SQL code. Each SQL statement has been extracted into uniquely named files such as: sql/module=DIAL_ACCESS+trigger=KEY-LISTVAL+filename=d_access.fmb.sql sql/module=REP_PAT_SEEN+trigger=KEY-LISTVAL+filename=rep_pat_seen.fmb.sql I wrote a script to generate a list of exact duplicates using a brute force approach. Problem There are 37,497 files to compare against each other; it takes 8 minutes to compare one file against all the others. Logically, if A = B and A = C, then there is no need to check if B = C. So the problem is: how do you eliminate the redundant comparisons? The script will complete in approximately 208 days. Script Source Code The comparison script is as follows: #!/bin/bash echo Loading directory ... for i in $(find sql/ -type f -name \*.sql); do echo Comparing $i ... for j in $(find sql/ -type f -name \*.sql); do if [ "$i" = "$j" ]; then continue; fi # Case insensitive compare, ignore spaces diff -IEbwBaq $i $j > /dev/null # 0 = no difference (i.e., duplicate code) if [ $? = 0 ]; then echo $i :: $j >> clones.txt fi done done Question How would you optimize the script so that checking for cloned code is a few orders of magnitude faster? System Constraints Using a quad-core CPU with an SSD; trying to avoid using cloud services if possible. The system is a Windows-based machine with Cygwin installed -- algorithms or solutions in other languages are welcome. Thank you!

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  • ListSelector applies to the entire list

    - by jax
    I have a simple list with a listselector like so. <ListView android:id="@+id/list" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent" android:layout_below="@+id/round" android:listSelector="#99000000" android:clickable="true" android:cacheColorHint="#00000000" android:background="#00000000"> </ListView> As you can see android:listSelector="#99000000" but the "black alpha" color is applied to the entire list, not the selected item. So this is what I have now but the entire list still turns black ::listview_background.xml <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <selector xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android"> <item android:state_enabled="false" android:state_focused="true" android:drawable="@drawable/list_normal" /> <item android:state_pressed="true" android:drawable="@drawable/list_pressed" /> <item android:state_focused="true" android:drawable="@drawable/list_active" /> </selector> ::colors.xml <resources> <drawable name="list_normal">#96FFFFFF</drawable> <drawable name="list_active">#66000000</drawable> <drawable name="list_pressed">#CA000000</drawable> </resources> ::the xml tag in my list android:listSelector="@drawable/listview_background"

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  • Javascript append to onClick event

    - by John Hartsock
    Guys I have the following Code which I know doesnt work correctly. Yes I know how to do this in JQuery but In this case I cannot use jquery. Please no jquery answers. <form> <input type="text" name="input1" onclick="alert('hello')"> <input type="text" name="input2"> <input type="text" name="input3"> </form> <script type="text\javascript"> window.onload = function () { var currentOnClick; for (var i = 0; i < document.forms[0].elements.length; i++) { currentOnClick = document.forms[0].elements[i].onclick; document.forms[0].elements[i].onclick = function () { if (currentOnClick) { currentOnClick(); } alert("hello2"); } } } </script> What Im trying to do is iterate through the form's elements and add to the onclick function. But due to the fact that in my last iteration currentOnClick is null this does not run as expected. I want to preserve each of the elements onclick methods and play them back in the new fuction Im creating. What I want: When input1 is clicked, alert "hello" then alert "hello2" When Input2 is clicked, alert "hello2" When Input3 is clicked, alert "hello2"

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  • How can I have a Label change dynamically based on a Slider Value?

    - by duney
    I'm writing a grade calculator and I currently have a slider with a textbox beside it which displays the current value of the slider: <Slider Name="gradeSlider" Grid.Row="3" Grid.Column="2" VerticalAlignment="Center" Minimum="40" Maximum="100" IsSnapToTickEnabled="True" TickFrequency="5" TickPlacement="BottomRight"/> <TextBox Name="targetGrade" Grid.Row="3" Grid.Column="3" Width="30" Height="23" Text="{Binding ElementName=gradeSlider, Path=Value}" TextAlignment="Center"/> However I'm struggling to include a label which will show display a different grade classification based on the slider's value range. I'd have thought that I could create the label: <Label Name="gradeClass" Grid.Row="2" Grid.Column="2" HorizontalAlignment="Center" VerticalAlignment="Bottom"/> And then use code: string gradeText; if (gradeSlider.Value >= 40 && gradeSlider.Value < 50) { gradeText = "Pass"; gradeClass.Content = gradeText; } else if (gradeSlider.Value >= 50 && gradeSlider.Value < 60) { gradeText = "2:2"; gradeClass.Content = gradeText; } else { gradeText = "so on..."; gradeClass.Content = gradeText; } But the label just stays as "Pass" whatever the slider value. Could somebody please advise me as to where I'm going wrong? I tried using Content = "{Binding Source = gradeText}" on the Label xaml and removing the gradeClass.Content's in the code but it complained that gradeText was declared but never used. Many thanks to anyone who can help.

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  • inserting facebook app users details to database

    - by fusion
    i'm trying to insert user details, who authorize the app, into the database, but nothing seems to be happening. the data is null and no record is being inserted. is there something wrong with the code? function insertUser($user_id,$sk,$conn) { //$info = $facebook->api_client->users_getInfo($user_id, 'first_name, last_name', 'name', 'sex'); $info = $facebook->api_client->fql_query("SELECT uid, first_name, last_name, name, sex FROM user WHERE uid = $user_id"); for ($i=0; $i < count($info); $i++) { $record = $info[$i]; $first_name=$record['first_name']; $last_name=$record['last_name']; $full_name=$record['name']; $gender=$record['sex']; } $data= mysql_query("select uid from users where uid='{$user_id}'",$conn); if(mysql_num_rows($data)==0) { $sql = "INSERT INTO users (uid,sessionkey, active, fname, lname, full_name, gender) VALUES('{$user_id}','{$sk}','1', '{$first_name}', '{$last_name}', '{$full_name}', '{$gender}')"; mysql_query($sql,$conn); return true; } return false; }

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  • can't create partial objects with accepts_nested_attributes_for

    - by Isaac Cambron
    I'm trying to build a form that allows users to update some records. They can't update every field, though, so I'm going to do some explicit processing (in the controller for now) to update the model vis-a-vis the form. Here's how I'm trying to do it: Family model: class Family < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :people, dependent: :destroy accepts_nested_attributes_for :people, allow_destroy: true, reject_if: ->(p){p[:name].blank?} end In the controller def check edited_family = Family.new(params[:family]) #compare to the one we have in the db #update each person as needed/allowed #save it end Form: = form_for current_family, url: check_rsvp_path, method: :post do |f| = f.fields_for :people do |person_fields| - if person_fields.object.user_editable = person_fields.text_field :name, class: "person-label" - else %p.person-label= person_fields.object.name The problem is, I guess, that Family.new(params[:family]) tries to pull the people out of the database, and I get this: ActiveRecord::RecordNotFound in RsvpsController#check Couldn't find Person with ID=7 for Family with ID= That's, I guess, because I'm not adding a field for family id to the nested form, which I suppose I could do, but I don't actually need it to load anything from the database for this anyway, so I'd rather not. I could also hack around this by just digging through the params hash myself for the data I need, but that doesn't feel a slick. It seems nicest to just create an object out of the params hash and then work with it. Is there a better way? How can I just create the nested object?

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  • Is there a free tool which can help visualize the logic of a stored procedure in SQL Server 2008 R2?

    - by Hamish Grubijan
    I would like to be able to plot a call graph of a stored procedure. I am not interested in every detail, and I am not concerned with dynamic SQL (although it would be cool to detect it and skip it maybe or mark it as such.) I would like the tool to generate a tree for me, given the server name, db name, stored proc name, a "call tree", which includes: Parent stored procedure. Every other stored procedure that is being called as a child of the caller. Every table that is being modified (updated or deleted from) as a child of the stored proc which does it. Hopefully it is clear what I am after; if not - please do ask. If there is not a tool that can do this, then I would like to try to write one myself. Python 2.6 is my language of choice, and I would like to use standard libraries as much as possible. Any suggestions? EDIT: For the purposes of bounty Warning: SQL syntax is COMPLEX. I need something that can parse all kinds of SQL 2008, even if it looks stupid. No corner cases barred :) EDIT2: I would be OK if all I am missing is graphics.

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  • Passing HTML form data in the URL on local machine (file://)

    - by atzz
    Hi, I'm building a small HTML/JS application for primary use on local machine (i.e. everything is accessed via file:// protocol, though maybe in the future it will be hosted on a server within intranet). I'm trying to make a form with method="get" and action="target.html", in the hope that the browser will put form data in the URL (like, file://<path>/target.html?param1=aaa&param2=bbb). However, it's not happening (target.html opens fine, but no parameters is passed). What am I doing wrong? Is it possible to use forms over file:// at all? I can always build the url manually (via JS), but being lazy I'd prefer the browser do it for me. ;) Here is my sample form: <form name='config' action="test_form.html" method="get" enctype="application/x-www-form-urlencoded"> <input type="text" name="param1"> <input type="text" name="param2"> <input type="submit" value="Go"> </form>

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  • JQuery: Create n selects after choosing it in the select box

    - by Tom
    I have this select: <select name="main"> <option value="2">2s</option> <option value="3">3s</option> <option value="5">5s</option> </select> How do I make, that after choosing 2s, 2 selects would be created: <select name="select1"> <option value="0">0</option> <option value="1">1</option> <option value="2">2</option> </select> <select name="select2"> <option value="0">0</option> <option value="1">1</option> <option value="2">2</option> </select> After choosing 3s, it would create 3 selects and so on. Thanks Would appreciate jsfiddle example

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  • An Array returned by a model association is not an Array?

    - by Warren
    We have a model association that looks something like this: class Example < ActiveRecord::Base has_many :others, :order => 'others.rank' end The rank column is an integer type. The details of these particular models are not really important though as we have found the same problem with other has_many associations between other models. We have also added to the Enumerable module: module Enumerable def method_missing(name) super unless name.to_s[0..7] == 'collect_' method = name.to_s[8..-1] collect{|element| element.send(method)} end end This adds a collect_id method that we can use to get an array of record ids from an array of ActiveRecord objects. So if we use a normal ActiveRecord find :all, we get a nice array which we can then use collect_id on but if we use Example.others.collect_id, we get NoMethodError: undefined method `collect_id' for #<Class:0x2aaaac0060a0> Example.others.class returns "Array" so is it lying or confused? Our solution thus far has been to use it this way: Example.others.to_a.collect_id This works but this seems a bit strange. Why would you have to do that? We are on Ruby 1.8.7 and Rails 2.3.4

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