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  • Where should global Application Settings be stored on Windows 7?

    - by Kerido
    Hi everybody, I'm working hard on making my product work seamlessly on Windows 7. The problem is that there is a small set of global (not user-specific) application settings that all users should be able to change. On previous versions I used HKLM\Software\__Company__\__Product__ for that purpose. This allowed Power Users and Administrators to modify the Registry Key and everything worked correctly. Now that Windows Vista and Windows 7 have this UAC feature, by default, even an Administrator cannot access the Key for writing without elevation. A stupid solution would, of course, mean adding requireAdministrator option into the application manifest. But this is really unprofessional since the product itself is extremely far from administration-related tasks. So I need to stay with asInvoker. Another solution could mean programmatic elevation during moments when write access to the Registry Key is required. Let alone the fact that I don't know how to implement that, it's pretty awkward also. It interferes with normal user experience so much that I would hardly consider it an option. What I know should be relatively easy to accomplish is adding write access to the specified Registry Key during installation. I created a separate question for that. This also very similar to accessing a shared file for storing the settings. My feeling is that there must be a way to accomplish what I need, in a way that is secure, straightforward and compatible with all OS'es. Any ideas?

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  • How does SVN store commit time

    - by Salman
    I am working on a project that involves extracting details from a SVN server using SVNKit. My project is already complete and has been working we for a while now. During the testing, I noticed something rather very strange. the Commit Times my extract data seems is alway different from whats there in SVN Logs. I couldnt find any code in my project that could be inducing this difference but now I am looking as to how SVN server stores the Commit time in itself. As we have developer working from different part of the world thus resulting in different timezones, I was thinking that SVN might be storing time after converting them to GMT or timezone of the system on which SVN server is running. But that does not seem to be happening. Instead the times are stored as per the time when the commit was done and in that local timezone itself. I have been unable to find any substantial document on internet to support my theory so far. Can anybody in brief explain as how SVN store the Commit Time for each change? Documentaion links referring to this will be of great help.

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  • jQuery $.ajax calls success handler when reuqest fails because of browser reloading

    - by Martin
    I have the following code: $.ajax({ type: "POST", url: url, data: sendable, dataType: "json", success: function(data) { if(customprocessfunc) customprocessfunc(data); }, error: function(XMLHttpRequest, textStatus, errorThrown){ // error handler here } }); I have a timer which makes AJAX requests often. If I do not receive anything in 'data', I show an error message to the user - it means, something wnet bad on the server. The problem is when user reloads the page while the AJAX call is in progress. I can see in the firebug that the AJAX call fails (URL is colored red and no HTTP status is displayed) so I expect that jQuery will stop the reuqest or at least go to the error handler. But it goes to the success handler and passes null in the 'data' variable. As a result, when user reloads the page, sometimes he can see my big red message about unknown error (because data is null). Is there any way to make jQuery abort the request on complete reloading all at least not to call my success function? I have no way to know in the success handler why the data is null - did it came empty from the server or the call was aborted because of reload.

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  • C# performance methods of receiving data from a socket?

    - by Daniel
    Lets assume we have a simple internet socket, and its going to send 10 megabytes (because i want to ignore memory issues) of random data through. Is there any performance difference or a best practice method that one should use for receiving data? The final output data should be represented by a byte[]. Yes i know writing an arbitrary amount of data to memory is bad, and if I was downloading a large file i wouldn't be doing it like this. But for argument sake lets ignore that and assume its a smallish amount of data. I also realise that the bottleneck here is probably not the memory management but rather the socket receiving. I just want to know what would be the most efficient method of receiving data. A few dodgy ways can think of is: Have a List and a buffer, after the buffer is full, add it to the list and at the end list.ToArray() to get the byte[] Write the buffer to a memory stream, after its complete construct a byte[] of the stream.Length and read it all into it in order to get the byte[] output. Is there a more efficient/better way of doing this?

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  • How to systematically generate images from data?

    - by adamvickers
    I work for a performing arts nonprofit. We have seating charts for each of the theaters we work with; each seating chart shows the number of sections, the shape of each section, and the number of rows in each section. We'd like to create dynamic seating charts based on this info. We'd like them to look/feel kinda like this: http://www.fansnap.com/tickets/177754-on. But the tricky part is we'd like to be able to store all the info about each theater (the section names, shape/size of each section, and number of rows in each section) as data and then build a system that reads this data and uses it to create a dynamic map. I'm a life-long web developer, but I don't have have any experience with a difficult graphics problem like this. I realize it's a complex problem and I don't expect anyone to give me a complete answer here, but I would love direction on where I should be looking for more info. Is what I'm describing possible? Does this sort of technique have a name? Where can I learn more about how to accomplish this? What software should I use? Any info would be helpful.

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  • php link to call another php page

    - by user2086894
    i have a php page which contain this field: Delete i want when i press on the Delete to call the delcat.php and send a categoryid which is in a field in the same table. any one can help me to reach this please? here my complete table code: <table border="0" align='center' class="styled-table"> <tr class="thh"> <th class="thh">Category Code</th> <th class="thh">Category Name </th> <th class="thh">Category IMage </th> <th class="thh">Edit</th> <th class="thh">Delete</th> </tr> <?php for ($counter = 0; $row = mysql_fetch_row ($resultSet); $counter++) { print ("<tr align='center' class='trh'>"); print ("<td align='center' class='tdh'>$row[0]</td>"); print ("<td align='center' class='tdh'>$row[1]</td>"); print ("<td align='center' class='tdh'><img src='$row[2]' width='50' height='50'></td>"); print ("<td align='center' class='tdh' width='50' align='center'><a href src='#'>Edit</a></td>"); print ("<td align='center' class='tdh' width='50' align='center'><a href src='delcat.php'>Delete</a></td>"); print("</tr>"); }

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  • Contacts & Autocomplete

    - by Vince
    First post. I'm new to android and programming in general. What I'm attempting to is to have an autocomplete text box pop up with auto complete names from the contact list. IE, if they type in "john" it will say "John Smith" or any john in their contacts. The code is basic, I pulled it from a few tutorials. private void autoCompleteBox() { ContentResolver cr = getContentResolver(); Uri contacts = Uri.parse("content://contacts/people"); Cursor managedCursor1 = cr.query(contacts, null, null, null, null); if (managedCursor1.moveToFirst()) { String contactname; String cphoneNumber; int nameColumn = managedCursor1.getColumnIndex("name"); int phoneColumn = managedCursor1.getColumnIndex("number"); Log.d("int Name", Integer.toString(nameColumn)); Log.d("int Number", Integer.toString(phoneColumn)); do { // Get the field values contactname = managedCursor1.getString(nameColumn); cphoneNumber = managedCursor1.getString(phoneColumn); if ((contactname != " " || contactname != null) && (cphoneNumber != " " || cphoneNumber != null)) { c_Name.add(contactname); c_Number.add(cphoneNumber); Toast.makeText(this, contactname, Toast.LENGTH_SHORT) .show(); } } while (managedCursor1.moveToNext()); } name_Val = (String[]) c_Name.toArray(new String[c_Name.size()]); phone_Val = (String[]) c_Number.toArray(new String[c_Name.size()]); ArrayAdapter<String> adapter = new ArrayAdapter<String>(this, android.R.layout.simple_dropdown_item_1line, name_Val); personName.setAdapter(adapter); } personName is my autocompletetextbox. So it actually works when I use it in the emulator (4.2) with manually entered contacts through the people app, but when I use it on my device, it will not pop up with any names. I'm sure it's something ridiculous but I've tried to find the answer and I'm getting nowhere. Can't learn if I don't ask.

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  • NHibernate: What are child sessions and why and when should I use them?

    - by stefando
    In the comments for the ayende's blog about the auditing in NHibernate there is a mention about the need to use a child session:session.GetSession(EntityMode.Poco). As far as I understand it, it has something to do with the order of the SQL operation which session.Flush will emit. (For example: If I wanted to perform some delete operation in the pre-insert event but the session was already done with deleting operations, I would need some way to inject them in.) However I did not find documentation about this feature and behavior. Questions: Is my understanding of child sessions correct? How and in which scenarios should I use them? Are they documented somewhere? Could they be used for session "scoping"? (For example: I open the master session which will hold some data and then I create 2 child-sessions from the master one. I'd expect that the two child-scopes will be separated but the will share objects from the master session cache. Is this the case?) Are they first class citizens in NHibernate or are they just hack to support some edge-case scenarios? Thanks in advance for any info.

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  • WCF + Azure = Nightmare!

    - by lsb
    Hi! I've spent the prior week trying to get a secure form of WCF to work on Azure, but all to no avail! My use case is pretty simple. I want to call a WCF endpoint in the cloud and pass messages to be queued for a Worker Role. Beyond that I want to limit access to pre-authrorized users, authenticated via username & password. I've tried to get this working with Transport, TransportWithMessageCredential and Message security but nothing seems to work. Indeed, I've worked through every example and snippet that I could find, most recently the "Service using binary HTTP binding with transport security and message credentials and Silverlight client" example on the http://code.msdn.microsoft.com/wcfazure page. I'm pretty sure that I'm being knocked down by small bugs and beta changes but the end result is that I'm totally stuck. This is a critical path item for me so any suggestions would be greatly appreciated. A complete working example or a walkthrough would be even better!

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  • Can one connection get details of another? Or, how can I get the most detailed pending transaction

    - by bob-the-destroyer
    Is there a Mysql statement which provides full details of any other open connection or user? For this particular case, on myisam tables specifically. Looking at Mysql's SHOW TABLE STATUS documentation, it's missing some very important information for my purpose. For example: remote odbc connection one is inserting several thousand records, which due to a slow connection speed can take up to an hour. Tcp connection two, using PHP on the server's localhost, is running select queries with aggregate functions on that data. Before allowing connection two to run those queries, I'd like connection two to first check to make sure there's no pending inserts on any other connection on those specific tables so it can instead wait until all data is available. If the table is currently being written to, I'd like to spit back to the user of connection two an approximation of how much longer to wait based on the number of pending inserts. Ideally by table, I'd like to get back using a query the timestamp when connection one began the write, total inserts left to be done, and total inserts already completed. Instead of insert counts, even knowing number of bytes written and left to write would work just fine here. Obviously since connection two is a tcp connection via a PHP script, all I can really use in that script is some sort of query. I suppose if I have to, since it is on localhost, I can exec() it if the only way is by a mysql command line option that outputs this info, but I'd rather not. I suppose I could simply update a custom-made transaction log before and after this massive insert task which the PHP script can check, but hopefully there's already a built-in Mysql feature I can take advantage of.

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  • MVC design for archived data view

    - by Hemant Tank
    Implementation of a standard archive process in ASP.Net MVC. Backend SQL Server 2005 We've an existing web app built in MVC. We've an Entity "Claim" and it has some child entities like ClaimDetails, Files, etc... A pretty standard setup in DB. Each entity has its own table and are linked via FK. Now, we need to have an "Archive" feature in web app which will allow admin to archive a Claim and its child entities. An archived Claim shud become readonly when visited again. Here're some points on which I need your valued opinion - To keep it simple and scalable (for a few million records) for now we plan to simply add a bit field "Archived" to the Claim table in db. And change the behavior accordingly in the web app. We've a 'Manage claim' page which renders a bunch of diff views for Claim and its child entities. Now, for a readonly view we can either use the same views or have a separate set of views. What do you suggest? At controller level, we can identify archived claim and select which view to render. At model level, though it'd be great to be able to use the same model used for Manage Claim - but it might not get us the "text" of some lookup fields. For example, Claim.BrandId is rendered as a dropdown in Manage claim (requires only BrandId) but for readonly view we need 'BrandText'. Any existing ref or architecture level example would be great. Here's my prev SO post but its more about db level changes: Design a process to archive data (SQL Server 2005) Thank you.

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  • I'm annoyed with asp .net mvc action links? Is there something better in MVC3?

    - by Jonathon Kresner
    After almost 3 years with mvc I'm scratching my head. Is it just me, or does the way we specify links in asp .net mvc suck? @Html.ActionLink("Log Off", "LogOff", "Account") In the previews for mvc 1 we had the funky generic action links which gave us intellisense and compile checking, which I LOVED. I know they removed them because of performance issues and because you could not actually guarantee that the route would resolve all the time... However the default way of doing it just doesn't make me feel safe enough in a big application. I've also used T4Mvc with MVC2, to be honest, I didn't really like it. It's not part of the Mvc framework and frustrating to develop with especially with source control in big teams and continuous integration builds. I guess I could also import Mvc Futures and keep using the generic types (it's probably what I'll do). I'm just about to start a very big project and was wondering what other people are thinking? Is anyone else annoyed with the options or has a new solution? It seems like ActionLinks are the most basic & frequently used feature. Shouldn't there be a good out of the box solution, we're just about to hit revision 3 of this framework.

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  • calling same function on different buttons not loaded yet

    - by Jordan Faust
    I can not get this to work for every button and I cannot find anything explaining why. I guessing it is something small that I am missing $(document).ready(function() { // delete the selected row from the database $(document).on('click', '#business-area-delete-button', { model: "BusinessArea" }, deleteRow); $(document).on('click', '#business-type-delete-button', { model: "BusinessType" }, deleteRow); $(document).on('click', '#client-delete-button', { model: "Client" }, deleteRow); $(document).on('click', '#client-type-delete-button', { model: "ClientType" }, deleteRow); $(document).on('click', '#communication-channel-type', { model: "CommunicationChannelType" }, deleteRow); $(document).on('click', '#parameter-type-delete-button', { model: "ParameterType" }, deleteRow); $(document).on('click', '#validation-method-delete-button', { model: "ValidationMethod" }, deleteRow); } the event function deleteRow(event){ $.ajax( { type:'POST', data: { id: $(".delete-row").attr("id") }, url:"/mysite/admin/delete" + event.data.model, success:function(data,textStatus){ $('#main-content').html(data); }, error:function(XMLHttpRequest,textStatus,errorThrown){ jQuery('#alerts').html(XMLHttpRequest.responseText); }, complete:function(XMLHttpRequest,textStatus){ placeAlerts() } } ); return false }; This works only for a the button with id validation-method-delete-button. I use document and not the button its self because the button is contained in a template that is loaded later via ajax. I have this working for a similar function that is selecting a row in a table however I am not attempting to pass data in that scenario.

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  • How hide some nodes in Richfaces Tree (do not render nodes by condition)?

    - by VestniK
    I have a tree of categories and courses in my SEAM application. Courses may be active and inactive. I want to be able to show only active or all courses in my tree. I've decided to always build complete tree in my PAGE scope component since building this tree is quite expensive operation. I have boolean flag courseActive in the data wrapped by TreeNode<T>. Now I can't find the way to show courses node only if this flag is true. The best result I've achieved with the following code: <h:outputLabel for="showInactiveCheckbox" value="show all courses: "/> <h:selectBooleanCheckbox id="showInactiveCheckbox" value="#{categoryTreeEditorModel.showAllCoursesInTree}"> <a4j:support event="onchange" reRender="categoryTree"/> </h:selectBooleanCheckbox> <rich:tree id="categoryTree" value="#{categoryTree}" var="item" switchType="ajax" ajaxSubmitSelection="true" reRender="categoryTree,controls" adviseNodeOpened="#{categoryTreeActions.adviseRootOpened}" nodeSelectListener="#{categoryTreeActions.processSelection}" nodeFace="#{item.typeName}"> <rich:treeNode type="Category" icon="..." iconLeaf="..."> <h:outputText value="#{item.title}"/> </rich:treeNode> <rich:treeNode type="Course" icon="..." iconLeaf="..." rendered="#{item.courseActive or categoryTreeEditorModel.showAllCoursesInTree}"> <h:outputText rendered="#{item.courseActive}" value="#{item.title}"/> <h:outputText rendered="#{not item.courseActive}" value="#{item.title}" style="color:#{a4jSkin.inactiveTextColor}"/> </rich:treeNode> </rich:tree> the only problem is if some node is not listed in any rich:treeNode it just still shown with title obtained by Object.toString() method insted of being hidden. Does anybody know how to not show some nodes in the Richfases tree according to some condition?

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  • How to pass data to a C++0x lambda function that will run in a different thread?

    - by Dimitri C.
    In our company we've written a library function to call a function asynchronously in a separate thread. It works using a combination of inheritance and template magic. The client code looks as follows: DemoThread thread; std::string stringToPassByValue = "The string to pass by value"; AsyncCall(thread, &DemoThread::SomeFunction, stringToPassByValue); Since the introduction of lambda functions I'd like to use it in combination with lambda functions. I'd like to write the following client code: DemoThread thread; std::string stringToPassByValue = "The string to pass by value"; AsyncCall(thread, [=]() { const std::string someCopy = stringToPassByValue; }); Now, with the Visual C++ 2010 this code doesn't work. What happens is that the stringToPassByValue is not copied. Instead the "capture by value" feature passes the data by reference. The result is that if the function is executed after stringToPassByValue has gone out of scope, the application crashes as its destructor is called already. So I wonder: is it possible to pass data to a lambda function as a copy? Note: One possible solution would be to modify our framework to pass the data in the lambda parameter declaration list, as follows: DemoThread thread; std::string stringToPassByValue = "The string to pass by value"; AsyncCall(thread, [=](const std::string stringPassedByValue) { const std::string someCopy = stringPassedByValue; } , stringToPassByValue); However, this solution is so verbose that our original function pointer solution is both shorter and easier to read. Update: The full implementation of AsyncCall is too big to post here. In short, what happens is that the AsyncCall template function instantiates a template class holding the lambda function. This class is derived from a base class that contains a virtual Execute() function, and upon an AsyncCall() call, the function call class is put on a call queue. A different thread then executes the queued calls by calling the virtual Execute() function, which is polymorphically dispatched to the template class which then executes the lambda function.

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  • Silverlight Business Application template with WCF is throwing warning.

    - by Manoj
    Hi, I am using the Silvelight Business Application template. I wrote a function which uses Membership.getUserList function to return the user list. I tried exposing it as Service using WCF. But when I try to compile the client side code it throws a warning saying "Client Proxy Generation for user_authentication.Web.Service1 failed'. Why does it happen? The complete warning message is: Warning 4 Client proxy generation for service 'user_authentication.Web.Service1' failed: Generating metadata files... Warning: Unable to load a service with configName 'user_authentication.Web.Service1'. To export a service provide both the assembly containing the service type and an executable with configuration for this service. Details:Either none of the assemblies passed were executables with configuration files or none of the configuration files contained services with the config name 'user_authentication.Web.Service1'. Warning: No metadata files were generated. No service contracts were exported. To export a service, use the /serviceName option. To export data contracts, specify the /dataContractOnly option. This can sometimes occur in certain security contexts, such as when the assembly is loaded over a UNC network file share. If this is the case, try copying the assembly into a trusted environment and running it.

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  • Cannot open a SQL2000 DTS package I imported into SQL2008

    - by RJ
    I am running into a problem trying to open a SQL2000 DTS package I imported into SQL2008. I set up a new server and installed a fresh install of SQL2008. The database I need to run is a SQL2000 database. I moved the database over with no problem but there are a few DTS packages that need to run in legacy on SQL2008. I exported the DTS packages I need out of SQL2000 and imported them successfully into SQL2008. My SQL2008 server is x64. I can see the DTS packages under Data Transformation Service in Legacy but when I try to open the package I get this message. "SQL Server 2000 DTS Designer components are required to edit DTS packages. Install the special web download, "SQL Server 2000 DTS Designer components" to use this feature. (Microsoft.SqlServer.DtsObjectExplorerUI)" I downloaded the components and installed them and still get this error. I researched and found an article about this not working on x64 so I have an x86 machine that I installed the SQL2008 tools and tried to open the package from there and got the same error. I have spent days on this and need help. Has anyone run across this and can tell me what to do. If you have solved this problem, please help me out. Thanks.

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  • Do you catch expected exceptions in the controller or business service of your asp.net mvc application

    - by Pascal
    I am developing an asp.net mvc application where user1 could delete data records which were just loaded before by user2. User2 either changes this non-existent data record (Update) or is doing an insert with this data in another table that a foreign-key constraint is violated. Where do you catch such expected exceptions? In the Controller of your asp.net mvc application or in the business service? Just a sidenote: I only catch the SqlException here if its a ForeignKey constraint exception to tell the user that another user has deleted a certain parent record and therefore he can not create the testplan. But this code is not fully implemented yet! Controller:   public JsonResult CreateTestplan(Testplan testplan)   {    bool success = false;    string error = string.Empty;    try   {    success = testplanService.CreateTestplan(testplan);    }   catch (SqlException ex)    {    error = ex.Message;    }    return Json(new { success = success, error = error }, JsonRequestBehavior.AllowGet);   } OR Business service: public Result CreateTestplan(Testplan testplan) { Result result = new Result(); try { using (var con = new SqlConnection(_connectionString)) using (var trans = new TransactionScope()) { con.Open(); _testplanDataProvider.AddTestplan(testplan); _testplanDataProvider.CreateTeststepsForTestplan(testplan.Id, testplan.TemplateId); trans.Complete(); result.Success = true; } } catch (SqlException e) { result.Error = e.Message; } return result; } then in the Controller: public JsonResult CreateTestplan(Testplan testplan)   {    Result result = testplanService.CreateTestplan(testplan);       return Json(new { success = result.success, error = result.error }, JsonRequestBehavior.AllowGet);   }

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  • Optimization of SQL query regarding pair comparisons

    - by InfiniteSquirrel
    Hi, I'm working on a pair comparison site where a user loads a list of films and grades from another site. My site then picks two random movies and matches them against each other, the user selects the better of the two and a new pair is loaded. This gives a complete list of movies ordered by whichever is best. The database contains three tables; fm_film_data - this contains all imported movies fm_film_data(id int(11), imdb_id varchar(10), tmdb_id varchar(10), title varchar(255), original_title varchar(255), year year(4), director text, description text, poster_url varchar(255)) fm_films - this contains all information related to a user, what movies the user has seen, what grades the user has given, as well as information about each film's wins/losses for that user. fm_films(id int(11), user_id int(11), film_id int(11), grade int(11), wins int(11), losses int(11)) fm_log - this contains records of every duel that has occurred. fm_log(id int(11), user_id int(11), winner int(11), loser int(11)) To pick a pair to show the user, I've created a mySQL query that checks the log and picks a pair at random. SELECT pair.id1, pair.id2 FROM (SELECT part1.id AS id1, part2.id AS id2 FROM fm_films AS part1, fm_films AS part2 WHERE part1.id <> part2.id AND part1.user_id = [!!USERID!!] AND part2.user_id = [!!USERID!!]) AS pair LEFT JOIN (SELECT winner AS id1, loser AS id2 FROM fm_log WHERE fm_log.user_id = [!!USERID!!] UNION SELECT loser AS id1, winner AS id2 FROM fm_log WHERE fm_log.user_id = [!!USERID!!]) AS log ON pair.id1 = log.id1 AND pair.id2 = log.id2 WHERE log.id1 IS NULL ORDER BY RAND() LIMIT 1 This query takes some time to load, about 6 seconds in our tests with two users with about 800 grades each. I'm looking for a way to optimize this but still limit all duels to appear only once. The server runs MySQL version 5.0.90-community.

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  • Flash - can't access classes in another SWF

    - by Ashley Muller
    Hi, I'm trying to load a local SWF file and use the classes in that SWF (its a code only SWF, nothing in library). Here's the code that loads the library: var AD:ApplicationDomain = ApplicationDomain.currentDomain; var context:LoaderContext = new LoaderContext(false, AD); SA_gamecore_loader = new Loader(); SA_gamecore_loader.contentLoaderInfo.addEventListener(Event.COMPLETE, onGameCoreLibraryDataComplete); SA_gamecore_loader.load(new URLRequest("GameCore.swf"), context); Here's the code that tries to instantiate a class from GameCore.swf: var test:Class = GetClassFromDefinition("MenuArt") as Class; var testInstance:Object = new test(); public function GetClassFromDefinition(theStr:String):Object { var theClass:Object; try { theClass = GameCoreLibraryData.applicationDomain.getDefinition(theStr); } catch(e:ReferenceError) { trace(e); return null; } return theClass; } And this is the message that's traced: ReferenceError: Error #1065: Variable MenuArt is not defined. The GameCore.swf is in the same location as the parent swf. I'm using Flash Develop if that helps. Anyone able to point out what I'm doing wrong?

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  • JavaScript audio not playing outside of jQuery function

    - by user1814016
    I know the question title doesn't make much sense, but I can't think of a better way to put it. I am a newbie to jQuery and I'm using this code to fade in a <div> and play a sound: $(document).ready(function(){ $('#speech').fadeIn('medium', function() { play('msg_appear'); var sptx = $('<p class="stext">').text('There is nothing here.'); $('#speech').append(sptx); $('.stext').typeOut({marker: '', delay: 22}); }); }); This code runs fine however the sound plays after the fade-in is complete. I wanted it to play while it was fading in, so I tried placing the play() call outside of the fade-in function like this: $(document).ready(function(){ play('msg_appear'); $('#speech').fadeIn('medium', function() { However, now it's not playing at all. There's no errors on the JavaScript console so I'm unsure if it's a syntax error, and probably something obvious, but I don't know what. play() is a function I found to play audio, here it is if it matters at all. I placed it in the same file the above code is; right above the $(document).ready(). function play(sound) { if (window.HTMLAudioElement) { var snd = new Audio(''); if(snd.canPlayType('audio/ogg')) { snd = new Audio(sound + '.ogg'); } else if(snd.canPlayType('audio/mp3')) { snd = new Audio(sound + '.mp3'); } snd.play(); } else { alert('HTML5 Audio is not supported by your browser!'); } }

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  • How do I determine whether calculation was completed, or detect interrupted calculation?

    - by BenTobin
    I have a rather large workbook that takes a really long time to calculate. It used to be quite a challenge to get it to calculate all the way, since Excel is so eager to silently abort calculation if you so much as look at it. To help alleviate the problem, I created some VBA code to initiate the the calculation, which is initiated by a form, and the result is that it is not quite as easy to interrupt the calculation process, but it is still possible. (I can easily do this by clicking the close X on the form, but I imagine there are other ways) Rather than taking more steps to try and make it harder to interrupt calculation, I'd like to have the code detect whether calculation is complete, so it can notify the user rather than just blindly forging on into the rest of the steps in my code. So far, I can't find any way to do that. I've seen references to Application.CalculationState, but the value is xlDone after I interrupt calculation, even if I interrupt the calculation after a few seconds (it normally takes around an hour). I can't think of a way to do this by checking the value of cells, since I don't know which one is calculated last. I see that there is a way to mark cells as "dirty" but I haven't been able to find a way to check the dirtiness of a cell. And I don't know if that's even the right path to take, since I'd likely have to check every cell in every sheet. The act of interrupting calculation does not raise an error, so my ON ERROR doesn't get triggered. Is there anything I'm missing? Any ideas? Any ideas?

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  • Can I share code & resources between Android projects without using a library?

    - by Tom
    The standard advice for sharing code & resources between Android projects is to use a library. Personally I find this works poorly if (a) the shared code changes a lot, or (b) your computer isn't fast enough. I also don't want to get into deploying multiple APK's, which seems to be necessary when I use dependent projects (i.e. Java Build Path, Projects Tab). On the other hand, sharing a folder of source code by using the Eclipse linked source feature works great (Java Build Path, Source tab, Link Source button), but for these two issues: 1) I can't use the same technique to share resources. I can create the link to the resources parent folder but then things get wonky and the shared resources don't get compiled (I'm using ADT 21). 2) So then I settle for copying the shared resources into each project, but this doesn't work because either. The shared code can't import the copy of its resources because it doesn't know the package name of the project that uses it. The solution I've been using is to access the resources dynamically, but that has become cumbersome as the number of resources grows. So, I need a solution to either (1) or (2), or I'll have to go back to a library project. (Or maybe there is another option I haven't thought of?)

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  • Controller actions appear to be synchronous though on different requests?

    - by Oded
    I am under the impression that the below code should work asynchronously. However, when I am looking at firebug, I see the requests fired asynchronously, but the results coming back synchronously: Controller: [HandleError] public class HomeController : Controller { public ActionResult Status() { return Content(Session["status"].ToString()); } public ActionResult CreateSite() { Session["status"] += "Starting new site creation"; Thread.Sleep(20000); // Simulate long running task Session["status"] += "<br />New site creation complete"; return Content(string.Empty); } } Javascript/jQuery: $(document).ready(function () { $.ajax({ url: '/home/CreateSite', async: true, success: function () { mynamespace.done = true; } }); setTimeout(mynamespace.getStatus, 2000); }); var mynamespace = { counter: 0, done: false, getStatus: function () { $('#console').append('.'); if (mynamespace.counter == 4) { mynamespace.counter = 0; $.ajax({ url: '/home/Status', success: function (data) { $('#console').html(data); } }); } if (!mynamespace.done) { mynamespace.counter++; setTimeout(mynamespace.getStatus, 500); } } } Addtional information: IIS 7.0 Windows 2008 R2 Server Running in a VMWare virutual machine Can anyone explain this? Shouldn't the Status action be returning practically immediately instead of waiting for CreateSite to finish? Edit: How can I get the long running process to kick off and still get status updates?

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  • Cannot redeclare class on a copy of a site

    - by Polity
    I've developed a small SMS utility for a customer in PHP. The details are of non-importance. This project is hosted in: http://project.example.com/customer1 Now a second customer requests almost the same functionality, one cheap way of providing this is to copy the project from the first customer and modify it slightly. So i made a direct copy of the project for customer1 to another folder for customer 2. This project is hosted in: http://project.example.com/customer2 Now when i try and run the project for customer2 (calling a single page), i get the error message: Fatal error: Cannot redeclare class SmsService in /var/www/html/project/customer1/application/service.class.php on line 3 Here, service.class.php is a simple interface with 3 methods: interface SmsService { public function SendSms($mobile, $customerId, $customerName, $message); public function QueryIncomingResponse(); public function CleanExpiredConfirmations($maxConfirmationDays); } printing the backtrace in service.class.php reveals something interresting: #0 require_once() called at [/var/www/html/project/customer2/endpoint/queryIncomingResponse.php:2] Fatal error: Cannot redeclare class SmsService in /var/www/html/project/customer1/application/service.class.php on line 3 Line 2 in queryIncomingResponses is the very first require line there is. Line 3 in service.class.php is the first statement there is in the file (Line 2 is an empty line and line 1 is the php file opening tag). Naturally, I only work with relative requires (double checked this) so there is no way one include/require from customer2 actually refers to a file for customer1. It seems to me that in some way SmsService and other classes gets cached by PHP. (I have little control over the server environment). One solution to this would be namespaces. Unfortunatly, we work with PHP 5.1.7 where namespaces are not a part of the language feature just yet. Another way would be to mimic namespaces by prefixing all classes but this approach just feels dirty. Does anyone have more information on this problem and possibly solutions? Many thanks in advance!

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