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  • How do I use the Microsoft IIS Diagnostics Toolkit to troubleshoot my problems?

    - by smartdirt
    I have downloaded the [IIS Diagnostics Toolkit (x86)][1] [1]: http://www.microsoft.com/downloads/en/details.aspx?familyid=9bfa49bc-376b-4a54-95aa-73c9156706e7&displaylang=en and I was wondering how to use it. I'm not a system admin just a developer trying to work my way around a strange problem. I have an iis server running php(not my choice) and every once in a while the application will not allow anyone to log in and then a little while later it just starts working again. I look in the event viewer and don't see anything and the iis logs are no help either. I read somewhere about someone using the the toolkit to diagnose there problem. I just need a little guidance on how to use this tool. Thanks.

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  • Connecting via ShrewSoft VPN client means no LAN internet access (Windows 7 64 bit) - any advice please?

    - by iwishiknewmoreaboutnetworking
    I have a Windows 7 64 bit desktop machine which is connected to a LAN. I recently installed ShrewSoft VPN client v 2.1.7 on my machine so that I can connect to a license server hosted by my customer. They are running a Cisco VPN server and I originally tried (unsuccessfully!) to use the Cisco VPN client for Windows 64 bit but the default gateway wasn't being configured correctly after loading in my pcf file. Using ShrewSoft I am able to import the same pcf file, and successfully connect to the machine I need to using the VPN client software. The client machine I need to connect to has IP address 1.52.90.33. The problem is that when I am connected to the customer network using the VPN client application (and after a few minutes) I lose my LAN internet connection. I can only presume that this is because, by default the ShrewSoft VPN client application automatically tunnels all traffic through the VPN connection. I know there is an option to switch off the "Tunnel All" option on the Policy tab of the application and enter a Remote Network Resource (to "Include" or "Exclude") as "Address" and "Netmask" IP addresses however I am not sure what I need to enter here. Here is my ipconfig output before connecting to the VPN (with suffixes blanked out): Windows IP Configuration Ethernet adapter Local Area Connection: Connection-specific DNS Suffix . : ***.*** Link-local IPv6 Address . . . . . : fe80::8de3:9dbe:393a:33ba%11 IPv4 Address. . . . . . . . . . . : 150.237.13.17 Subnet Mask . . . . . . . . . . . : 255.255.255.0 Default Gateway . . . . . . . . . : 150.237.13.1 Tunnel adapter 6TO4 Adapter: Connection-specific DNS Suffix . : ***.*** IPv6 Address. . . . . . . . . . . : 2002:96ed:d11::96ed:d11 Default Gateway . . . . . . . . . : 2002:c058:6301::c058:6301 Tunnel adapter Local Area Connection* 9: Connection-specific DNS Suffix . : IPv6 Address. . . . . . . . . . . : 2001:0:4137:9e76:2cf9:38c4:6912:f2ee Link-local IPv6 Address . . . . . : fe80::2cf9:38c4:6912:f2ee%12 Default Gateway . . . . . . . . . : Tunnel adapter isatap.***.***: Media State . . . . . . . . . . . : Media disconnected Connection-specific DNS Suffix . : ***.*** Here is my route print output before connecting to the VPN: =========================================================================== Interface List 11...20 cf 30 9d ec 2a ......Realtek RTL8168D/8111D Family PCI-E Gigabit Ethern et NIC (NDIS 6.20) 1...........................Software Loopback Interface 1 14...00 00 00 00 00 00 00 e0 Microsoft 6to4 Adapter 12...00 00 00 00 00 00 00 e0 Teredo Tunneling Pseudo-Interface 13...00 00 00 00 00 00 00 e0 Microsoft ISATAP Adapter #2 =========================================================================== IPv4 Route Table =========================================================================== Active Routes: Network Destination Netmask Gateway Interface Metric 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 150.237.13.1 150.237.13.17 2 127.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 On-link 127.0.0.1 306 127.0.0.1 255.255.255.255 On-link 127.0.0.1 306 127.255.255.255 255.255.255.255 On-link 127.0.0.1 306 150.237.13.0 255.255.255.0 On-link 150.237.13.17 257 150.237.13.17 255.255.255.255 On-link 150.237.13.17 257 150.237.13.255 255.255.255.255 On-link 150.237.13.17 257 224.0.0.0 240.0.0.0 On-link 127.0.0.1 306 224.0.0.0 240.0.0.0 On-link 150.237.13.17 257 255.255.255.255 255.255.255.255 On-link 12

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  • What could cause a flurry of Microsoft-Windows-Servicing events?

    - by MattUebel
    I have a windows 2k8 machine that generated almost 40,000 WinEventLog:System events in the period of about 20 minutes. The breakdown of these events by eventcode was approximately: 4373 46% 4371 46% 4383 7% 4372 1% Microsoft-Windows-Servicing seemed to go crazy for a short time.... looking at updates, changing the state of updates etc. What could have caused this? UPDATE: Many of the events seem to come in pairs of: Windows Servicing started a process of changing package KBfoobar state from Installed(Installed) to Installed(Installed) and Windows Servicing successfully set package KBfoobar state to Installed(Intstalled)

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  • How to connect Microsoft Bluetooth Mouse 5000 to Windows 7?

    - by davidshen84
    I have a Microsoft Bluetooth 5000 mouse, and I used it with my Linux and Windows 7 system. In Linux, the mouse can always connect to the system normally. But on Windows 7, after I have successfully added the mouse to Windows 7, if I have connected the mouse to the Linux system, it will not be able to connect to the Windows 7 system any more - unless I remove the mouse and add it again. I tried to play all settings I could find in the Bluetooth settings on Windows 7, but cannot fix this problem. How can I use the mouse without having to remove and add it again ?

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  • How can I re-create Microsoft Cluster Service resource groups on a different cluster?

    - by PersonalNexus
    I use Microsoft Cluster Service on a cluster of Windows Server 2003 machines containing several dozen resource groups. In the process of migrating to newer hardware, I would like move resources to the new machines on resource group at a time spread out over a few days to ease the migration and minimize risk. I was wondering of there was a smarter way to do this than manually re-creating resources on the new and then deleting them on the old cluster? The cluster has already been set up properly, the only missing is the resource groups and the resources they contain (IP, network names, services...). I have looked through the options of the cluster admin GUI and cluster.exe's commandline options, but haven't found anything like an import/export feature to copy over the configuration of a resource or entire resource group. Does something like this exist?

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  • Shares not working on boot need to reinstall "File and Printer Sharing for Microsoft Networks" on server every morning to fix

    - by Neaox
    I had a problem a few days ago see question here: Can no longer access computer or network shares to my server from any other computers on the network The fix that I found does in fact work however when I boot my PC in the morning the shares are no longer working, to fix this I need to remote desktop into the server and re-install "File and Printer Sharing for Microsoft Networks" on the main adaptor. Doing this makes the shares work again, however it is anoying to have to do this each and every morning. On top of this my offline files are no longer available offline: I store my user profile on the server and had them selected to be "Always Available" however since this has happened they are no longer available offline and the option to make them available offline from the context menu is no longer available. Another problem, and I don't know if this is the cause or just a tell of a deeper issue but this server runs hyper-v, since these problems I can no longer remote desktop into the hyper-v client. Thanks for any help anyone can give.

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  • How to avoid Remove-Item PowerShell errors "process cannot access the file"?

    - by Michael Freidgeim
    We are using TfsDeployer and PowerShell script to remove the folders ising Remove-Item before deployment of a new version. Sometimes the PS script failed with the error Remove-Item : Cannot remove item Services\bin: The process cannot access the file Services\bin' because it is being used by another proc Get-ChildItem -Path $Destination -Recurse | Remove-Item <<<< -force -recurse + CategoryInfo : WriteError: (C:\Program File..\Services\bin:DirectoryInfo) [Remove-Item], IOException FullyQualifiedErrorId : RemoveFileSystemItemIOError,Microsoft.PowerShell.Commands.RemoveItemCommand I’ve tried to follow the answer from PowerShell remove force to pipe get-childitem -recurse into remove-item. get-childitem * -include *.csv -recurse | remove-item ,but the error still happens periodically. We are using unlocker to manually kill locking application, (it’s usually w3wp), but I prefer to find automated solution. Another (not ideal) option is to-suppress-powershell-errors get-childitem -recurse -force -erroraction silentlycontinue Any suggestions are welcome.

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  • How to limit access to Exchange 2003 Mobile Actviesync server by user?

    - by micilin
    So I was asked to set up an Exchange Activesync mobile gateway. That's done. It's a separat eExchange 2003 front-end server configured for SSL, and I've put an off-domain ISA server in front of it. Now I'm being asked to limit which users can connect to it. By default an Exchange front-end server allows any user who has a mail account to connect to the front -end server. So I'm looking at the permissions on the various IIS sites/apps on the server, but I know that it's easy to break Exchange Front-end server perms. So I've got the following in IIS: Exadmin Exchange EchWeb Microsoft-SErver-ActiveSync MobileAdmin OMA And a couple of others that I dont think are relevant. Can I change the permissions on one of these to restrict who can connect to Activesync? As a bonus: Can I do it in a way that does not affect ordinary browser based Exchange Access? Thanks in Advance!!

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  • Does Virtual Machines with Microsoft server 2003 with Host operating system Vista Home Premium suffer from Vista contraints?

    - by mokokamello
    Experts ! i have a machine with vista home premium and i wanted to share a folder with my colleagues unfortunately i vista allow only 10 concurrent connections to a shared folder one of my colleagues advised me to install a Virtual machine with windows server 2003 so that i will be able to share the folder with more than 1000 user. another colleague stated that the kind of virtual server does not matter, what matters is the host OS, in this case vista. so the folder will be shared by no more than 10 users. my Question is Does Virtual Machines with Microsoft server 2003 with Host operating system Vista Home Premium suffer from Vista contraints?

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  • Why does my Microsoft Habu force me to unplug and replug in when booting up?

    - by jordsta
    I'm not too sure why, but every single time I boot my computer, I have to unplug and replug my semi-new Microsoft Habu, when I use Windows 7. Why does it do this? I've been through my BIOS, msconfig, and what-not.. It just seems to happen all the time. I've even looked in forums, with people resorting to changing their mouse because of the same issue.. It's stupid. Hopefully someone else can help... hopefully someone with experience with this mouse.

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  • The HTTP verb POST used to access path '/' is not allowed.

    - by Ryan
    The entire error: Server Error in '/' Application. The HTTP verb POST used to access path '/' is not allowed. Description: An unhandled exception occurred during the execution of the current web request. Please review the stack trace for more information about the error and where it originated in the code. Exception Details: System.Web.HttpException: The HTTP verb POST used to access path '/' is not allowed. Source Error: An unhandled exception was generated during the execution of the current web request. Information regarding the origin and location of the exception can be identified using the exception stack trace below. Stack Trace: [HttpException (0x80004005): The HTTP verb POST used to access path '/' is not allowed.] System.Web.DefaultHttpHandler.BeginProcessRequest(HttpContext context, AsyncCallback callback, Object state) +2871966 System.Web.CallHandlerExecutionStep.System.Web.HttpApplication.IExecutionStep.Execute() +8679410 System.Web.HttpApplication.ExecuteStep(IExecutionStep step, Boolean& completedSynchronously) +155 To be honest, I'm not even sure where the error came from. I'm running Visual Studio 2008 through the Virtual Server. I just put a button: <asp:Button ID="btnRegister" runat="server" Text="Register" CssClass="bt_register" onclick="btnRegister_Click" /> On a login user control, the onclick event is just a simple response.redirect Response.Redirect("~/register.aspx"); Debugging the project, it isn't even hitting the btnRegister_Click method anyway. I'm not sure where to even begin with debugging this error. Any information will help. I can post all the code I have, but like I said, I'm not sure where this error is even being thrown at. Edit It has nothing at all to do with the button click event. I got rid of the method and the onclick parameter on the aspx page. Still coming up with the same error problem found Okay so this is for a school project and its a group project. Some one in my group thought it would be a good idea to wrap a form tag around this area telling it to post. Found it doing a diff with a revision on Google code.

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  • Is there a way in .NET to access the bytecode/IL/CLR that is currently running?

    - by Alix
    Hi. I'd like to have access to the bytecode that is currently running or about to run in order to detect certain instructions and take specific actions (depending the instructions). In short, I'd like to monitor the bytecode in order to add safety control. Is this possible? I know there are some AOP frameworks that notify you of specific events, like an access to a field or the invocation of a method, but I'd like to skip that extra layer and just look at all the bytecode myself, throughout the entire execution of the application. I've already looked at the following questions (...among many many others ;) ):     Preprocessing C# - Detecting Methods     What CLR/.NET bytecode tools exist? as well as several AOP frameworks (although not in great detail, since they don't seem to do quite what I need) and I'm familiar with Mono.Cecil. I appreciate alternative suggestions, but I don't want to introduce the overhead of an AOP framework when what I actually need is access to the bytecode, without all the stuff they add on top to make it more user-friendly (... admittedly very useful stuff when you don't want to go low-level). Thanks :)

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  • Writing to a new window with javascript... get access denied

    - by Søren
    Hello gurus :) I have been struggling with this for a while now, and decided it was time to ask for help. I am trying to create a print function on an aspx page, and I am using javascript to do this: function PrintContentCell() { var display_setting = "toolbar=yes, location=no, directories=yes, menubar=yes,"; display_setting += "scrollbars=yes, width=750, height=600, left=100, top=25"; var content_innerhtml = document.getElementById("testTable").innerHTML; var document_print = window.open("Loading.htm", "", display_setting); document_print.document.open(); document_print.document.write('<html><head><title>Print</title></head>'); document_print.document.write('<body style="font-family:verdana; font-size:12px;" onLoad="self.print();self.close();" >'); document_print.document.write(content_innerhtml); document_print.document.write('</body></html>'); document_print.print(); document_print.document.close(); return false; } I get "Access Denied" when the script tries to write to the new window. The Loading.htm file is just a very slim html document writing out the text "Loading...". I had hoped this would work after reading this thread: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/735136/ie-6-7-access-denied-trying-to-access-a-popup-window-document Anybody can help?

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  • How to access empty ASP.NET ListView.ListViewItem to apply a style after all databinding is done?

    - by Caroline S.
    We're using a ListView with a GroupTemplate to create a three-column navigation menu with six items in each column, filling in two non-data-bound rows in the last column with an EmptyItemTemplate that contains an empty HTML list item. That part works fine, but I also need to programmatically add a CSS class to the sixth (last) item in each column. That part is also working fine for the first two columns because I'm assigning the CSS class in the DataBound event, where I can iterate through the ListView.Items collection and access the sixth item in the first two columns by using a modulus operator and counter. The problem comes in the last column, where the EmptyItemTemplate has correctly filled in two empty list items, to the last of which I also need to add this CSS class. The empty items are not included in the ListView.Items collection (that's just ListViewDataItems, and the empty items are ListViewItems). I cannot find a way to access the entire collection of ListViewItems after binding. Am I missing something? I know I can access the empty items during ItemCreated, but I can't figure out how to determine where the item I'm creating falls in the flow, and whether it's the last one. Any help would be appreciated, if this can even be done -- I'm a bit stuck.

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  • In .NET, Why Can I Access Private Members of a Class Instance within the Class?

    - by AMissico
    While cleaning some code today written by someone else, I changed the access modifier from Public to Private on a class variable/member/field. I expected a long list of compiler errors that I use to "refactor/rework/review" the code that used this variable. Imagine my surprise when I didn't get any errors. After reviewing, it turns out that another instance of the Class can access the private members of another instance declared within the Class. Totally unexcepted. Is this normal? I been coding in .NET since the beginning and never ran into this issue, nor read about it. I may have stumbled onto it before, but only "vaguely noticed" and move on. Can anyone explain this behavoir to me? I would like to know the "why" I can do this. Please explain, don't just tell me the rule. Am I doing something wrong? I found this behavior in both C# and VB.NET. The code seems to take advantage of the ability to access private variables. Sincerely, Totally Confused Class Jack Private _int As Integer End Class Class Foo Public Property Value() As Integer Get Return _int End Get Set(ByVal value As Integer) _int = value * 2 End Set End Property Private _int As Integer Private _foo As Foo Private _jack As Jack Private _fred As Fred Public Sub SetPrivate() _foo = New Foo _foo.Value = 4 'what you would expect to do because _int is private _foo._int = 3 'TOTALLY UNEXPECTED _jack = New Jack '_jack._int = 3 'expected compile error _fred = New Fred '_fred._int = 3 'expected compile error End Sub Private Class Fred Private _int As Integer End Class End Class

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  • Is It Incorrect to Make Domain Objects Aware of The Data Access Layer?

    - by Noah Goodrich
    I am currently working on rewriting an application to use Data Mappers that completely abstract the database from the Domain layer. However, I am now wondering which is the better approach to handling relationships between Domain objects: Call the necessary find() method from the related data mapper directly within the domain object Write the relationship logic into the native data mapper (which is what the examples tend to do in PoEAA) and then call the native data mapper function within the domain object. Either it seems to me that in order to preserve the 'Fat Model, Skinny Controller' mantra, the domain objects have to be aware of the data mappers (whether it be their own or that they have access to the other mappers in the system). Additionally it seems that Option 2 unnecessarily complicates the data access layer as it creates table access logic across multiple data mappers instead of confining it to a single data mapper. So, is it incorrect to make the domain objects aware of the related data mappers and to call data mapper functions directly from the domain objects? Update: These are the only two solutions that I can envision to handle the issue of relations between domain objects. Any example showing a better method would be welcome.

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  • Why do pure virtual base classes get direct access to static data members while derived instances do

    - by Shamster
    I've created a simple pair of classes. One is pure virtual with a static data member, and the other is derived from the base, as follows: #include <iostream> template <class T> class Base { public: Base (const T _member) { member = _member; } static T member; virtual void Print () const = 0; }; template <class T> T Base<T>::member; template <class T> void Base<T>::Print () const { std::cout << "Base: " << member << std::endl; } template <class T> class Derived : public Base<T> { public: Derived (const T _member) : Base<T>(_member) { } virtual void Print () const { std::cout << "Derived: " << this->member << std::endl; } }; I've found from this relationship that when I need access to the static data member in the base class, I can call it with direct access as if it were a regular, non-static class member. i.e. - the Base::Print() method does not require a this- modifier. However, the derived class does require the this-member indirect access syntax. I don't understand why this is. Both class methods are accessing the same static data, so why does the derived class need further specification? A simple call to test it is: int main () { Derived<double> dd (7.0); dd.Print(); return 0; } which prints the expected "Derived: 7"

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  • SSRS How to access the current value within a list control?

    - by Dale Burrell
    In SQL Server Reporting Services I have a report which has a list control which groups on currency. Within the list control I display the detailed rows of all records filtered to those with a value = £500. i.e. the top earners. However for each row I need to calculate the percentage of its amount over the total of the entire dataset. Because I am filtering it I can't use Sum(Fields!Amount.Value) as that only sums the data after filtering, so I am trying a conditional sum over the entire dataset, but am struggling with the correct condition e.g =100.00*Fields!Amount.Value/Sum((IIf(Fields!Currency.Value = "£", Fields!Amount.Value, CDec(0))),"DataSet") So where the hardcoded currency symbol is I need to access the current value of currency for the list control, but because my sum is scoped at dataset level any field access is dataset level. Ideally I'd like something like the following, otherwise any other ideas on how to solve this problem. =100.00*Fields!Amount.Value/Sum((IIf(Fields!Currency.Value = myListControl.Value, Fields!Amount.Value, CDec(0))),"DataSet") In fact, thinking about it, it would work if I just could access the row level data at that point, but how to do that when its at dataset scope within the sum statement? Hope that makes sense, any help appreciated.

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  • Difference in BackgroundWorker thread access in VS2010 / .NET 4.0?

    - by Jonners
    Here's an interesting one - in VS2005 / VS2008 running against .NET 2.0 / .NET 3.0 / .NET 3.5, a BackgroundWorker thread may not directly update controls on a WinForms form that initiated that thread - you'll get a System.InvalidOperationException out of the BackgroundWorker stating "Cross-thread operation not valid: Control 'thecontrol' accessed from a thread other than the thread it was created on". I remember hitting this back in 2004 or so when I first started writing .NET WinForms apps with background threads. There are several ways around the problem - this is not a question asking for that answer. I've been told recently that this kind of operation is now allowed when written in VS2010 / .NET 4.0. This seems unlikely to me, since this kind of object access restriction has always been a fairly fundamental part of thread-safe programming. Allowing a BackgroundWorker thread direct access to objects owned not by itself but by its parent UI form seems contrary to that principle. A trawl through the .NET 4.0 docs hasn't revealed any obvious changes that could account for this behaviour. I don't have VS2010 / .NET 4.0 to test this out - does anyone who has access to that toolset know for sure whether the model has changed to allow that kind of thread interaction? I'd like to either take advantage of it in future, or deploy the cluestick. ;)

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  • Why Does Private Access Remain Non-Private in .NET Within a Class?

    - by AMissico
    While cleaning some code today written by someone else, I changed the access modifier from Public to Private on a class variable/member/field. I expected a long list of compiler errors that I use to "refactor/rework/review" the code that used this variable. Imagine my surprise when I didn't get any errors. After reviewing, it turns out that another instance of the Class can access the private members of another instance declared within the Class. Totally unexcepted. Is this normal? I been coding in .NET since the beginning and never ran into this issue, nor read about it. I may have stumbled onto it before, but only "vaguely noticed" and move on. Can anyone explain this behavoir to me? Am I doing something wrong? I found this behavior in both C# and VB.NET. The code seems to take advantage of the ability to access private variables. Sincerely, Totally Confused Class Foo Private _int As Integer Private _foo As Foo Private _jack As Jack Private _fred As Fred Public Sub SetPrivate() _foo = New Foo _foo._int = 3 'TOTALLY UNEXPECTED _jack = New Jack '_jack._int = 3 'expected compile error because Foo doesn't know Jack _fred = New Fred '_fred._int = 3 'expected compile error because Fred hides from Foo End Sub Private Class Fred Private _int As Integer End Class End Class Class Jack Private _int As Integer End Class

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  • How can I access a parent DOM from an iframe on a different domain?

    - by Dexter
    I have a website and my domain is registered through Network Solutions. I'm using their Web Forwarding feature which allows me to "mask" my domain so that when a user visits http://lucasmccoy.com they are actually seeing http://lucasmccoy.comlu.com/ through an HTML frame. The advantages of this are that the address bar still shows http://lucasmccoy.com/. The disadvantages are that I cannot directly edit the HTML page in which the frame is owned. For example, I cannot change the page title or favicon. I have tried doing it like so: $(function() { parent.document.title = 'Lucas McCoy'; }); But of course this gives me a JavaScript error: Unsafe JavaScript attempt to access frame with URL http://lucasmccoy.com/ from frame with URL http://lucasmccoy.comlu.com/. Domains, protocols and ports must match. I looked at this question attempting to do the same thing except the OP has access to the other pages HTML whereas I do not. Is there anyway in JavaScript/jQuery to make a cross-domain request to the DOM when you don't have access to that domain? Or is this something browsers just will not let happen for security reasons.

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  • Cross domain javascript to access localhost. Possible?

    - by Earlz
    Hello, for one reason or another I need for javascript to access a webserver on the localhost. This localhost webserver is under our control so we can have whatever software running in it. How would you do this? I've seen things like YQL but this accesses another domain from the internet. This kind of access causes a lot of problems with firewalls and such. So I want to access the same computer that the browser is running on. How would you do this with javascript and whatever software running on the localhost server? Also, the javascript is being run from an internet site. And the localhost server will not be running on the same port are the internet website is. Is this possible to do? I know about the cross-domain restrictions but I've also seen there are ways around them such as YQL. How does something like YQL work? How would you reimplement it?

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  • Flex 3 (Action Script): How to access a function from a loaded swf-file ?

    - by Trantec
    Hi, i load in ActionScript a swf file. So far no Problem, but I didn't found a way to access one of it's functions, the best thing would be if I could access the main function in the mxml part of the swf. Here is the code of the main-mxml file that belongs to the swf that should load and access another swf: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <mx:Application xmlns:mx="http://www.adobe.com/2006/mxml" layout="absolute" initialize="basket();"> <mx:Script> <![CDATA[ import mx.controls.SWFLoader; private function basket(): void { var swfLoader: SWFLoader = new SWFLoader(); swfLoader.addEventListener( Event.COMPLETE, handleSWFLoaded ); try { swfLoader.load( "../../data/InternalSWF.swf" ); } catch (error: Error) { trace( "Couldn't load file !" ); } } private function handleSWFLoaded( event: Event ): void { var swfApp:* = event.target.content; // This both ways don't work... //if (swfApp.hasOwnProperty("initApp")) { // var initApp:Function = (swfApp["initApp"] as Function); // initApp(); //} // swfApp.initApp(); } ]]> </mx:Script> <mx:Text id="output" width="100%" textAlign="center" /> </mx:Application> The if-Statement "if (swfApp.hasOwnProperty("initApp")) {" is never true and the call "swfApp.initApp()" says that this function does not exist. In the original version I added event listeners for HTTPStatusEvent.HTTP_STATUS, IOErrorEvent.IO_ERROR and SecurityErrorEvent.SECURITY_ERROR. But except for HTTP_STATUS = 0 none of them are called. Is the whole idea of how i try to do this wrong ?

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  • PHP Access property of a class from within a class instantiated in the original class.

    - by Iain
    I'm not certain how to explain this with the correct terms so maybe an example is the best method... $master = new MasterClass(); $master->doStuff(); class MasterClass { var $a; var $b; var $c; var $eventProccer; function MasterClass() { $this->a = 1; $this->eventProccer = new EventProcess(); } function printCurrent() { echo '<br>'.$this->a.'<br>'; } function doStuff() { $this->printCurrent(); $this->eventProccer->DoSomething(); $this->printCurrent(); } } class EventProcess { function EventProcess() {} function DoSomething() { // trying to access and change the parent class' a,b,c properties } } My problem is i'm not certain how to access the properties of the MasterClass from within the EventProcess-DoSomething() method? I would need to access, perform operations on and update the properties. The a,b,c properties will be quite large arrays and the DoSomething() method would be called many times during the execuction of the script. Any help or pointers would be much appreciated :)

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  • (iphone) How to access CGRect member variable inside c++ class?

    - by Eugene
    i have a c++ class with CGrect variable and i'm getting segfault when trying to access it. class Parent { //with some virtual functions/dtors }; class Child { public: void SetRect(CGRect rect) { mRect = rect; } CGRect GetRect() { return mRect; } int GetIndex() { return mIndex; } private: CGRect mRect; int mIndex; }; i'm doing CGRect rect = childPtr->GetRect(); from object c code and it segfaults. I printed *childPtr just before the call and rect looks fine with intended data value. int index = childPtr->GetIndex(); from same object c code(*.mm), works fine though. Any idea why I'm getting segfaults? Thank you edit - It's got something to do with virtual functions. (gdb) p singlePuzzlePiece-GetRect() Program received signal EXC_BAD_ACCESS, Could not access memory. Reason: KERN_PROTECTION_FAILURE at address: 0x00000001 0x00000001 in ?? () Cannot access memory at address 0x1 The program being debugged was signaled while in a function called from GDB. GDB remains in the frame where the signal was received. To change this behavior use "set unwindonsignal on" Evaluation of the expression containing the function (at 0x1) will be abandoned. (gdb) Somehow, the function is not properly compiled?

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