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  • C# struct with object as data member

    - by source-energy
    As we know, in C# structs are passed by value, not by reference. So if I have a struct with the following data members: private struct MessageBox { // data members private DateTime dm_DateTimeStamp; // a struct type private TimeSpan dm_TimeSpanInterval; // also a struct private ulong dm_MessageID; // System.Int64 type, struct private String dm_strMessage; // an object (hence a reference is stored here) // more methods, properties, etc ... } So when a MessageBox is passed as a parameter, a COPY is made on the stack, right? What does that mean in terms of how the data members are copied? The first two are struct types, so copies should be made of DateTime and TimeSpan. The third type is a primitive, so it's also copied. But what about the dm_strMessage, which is a reference to an object? When it's copied, another reference to the same String is created, right? The object itself resides in the heap, and is NOT copied (there is only one instance of it on the heap.) So now we have to references to the same object of type String. If the two references are accessed from different threads, it's conceivable that the String object could be corrupted by being modified from two different directions simultaneously. The MSDN documentation says that System.String is thread safe. Does that mean that the String class has a built-in mechanism to prevent an object being corrupted in exactly the type of situation described here? I'm trying to figure out if my MessageBox struct has any potential flaws / pitfalls being a structure vs. a class. Thanks for any input. Source.Energy.

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  • Permuting a binary tree without the use of lists

    - by Banang
    I need to find an algorithm for generating every possible permutation of a binary tree, and need to do so without using lists (this is because the tree itself carries semantics and restraints that cannot be translated into lists). I've found an algorithm that works for trees with the height of three or less, but whenever I get to greater hights, I loose one set of possible permutations per height added. Each node carries information about its original state, so that one node can determine if all possible permutations have been tried for that node. Also, the node carries information on weather or not it's been 'swapped', i.e. if it has seen all possible permutations of it's subtree. The tree is left-centered, meaning that the right node should always (except in some cases that I don't need to cover for this algorithm) be a leaf node, while the left node is always either a leaf or a branch. The algorithm I'm using at the moment can be described sort of like this: if the left child node has been swapped swap my right node with the left child nodes right node set the left child node as 'unswapped' if the current node is back to its original state swap my right node with the lowest left nodes' right node swap the lowest left nodes two childnodes set my left node as 'unswapped' set my left chilnode to use this as it's original state set this node as swapped return null return this; else if the left child has not been swapped if the result of trying to permute left child is null return the permutation of this node else return the permutation of the left child node if this node has a left node and a right node that are both leaves swap them set this node to be 'swapped' The desired behaviour of the algoritm would be something like this: branch / | branch 3 / | branch 2 / | 0 1 branch / | branch 3 / | branch 2 / | 1 0 <-- first swap branch / | branch 3 / | branch 1 <-- second swap / | 2 0 branch / | branch 3 / | branch 1 / | 0 2 <-- third swap branch / | branch 3 / | branch 0 <-- fourth swap / | 1 2 and so on... Sorry for the ridiculisly long and waddly explanation, would really, really apreciate any sort of help you guys could offer me. Thanks a bunch!

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  • Run-time error 459 when using WithEvents with a class that implements another

    - by Ken Keenan
    I am developing a VBA project in Word and have encountered a problem with handling events when using a class that implements another. I define an empty class, IMyInterface: Public Sub Xyz() End Sub Public Event SomeEvent() And a class, MyClass that implements the above: Implements IMyInterface Public Event SomeEvent() Public Sub Xyz() ' ... code ... RaiseEvent SomeEvent End Sub Private Sub IMyInterface_Xyz() Xyz End Sub If I create a third class, OtherClass, that declares a member variable with the type of the interface class: Private WithEvents mMy As IMyInterface and try to initialize this variable with an instance of the implementing class: Set mMy = New MyClass I get a run-time error '459': This component doesn't support this set of events. The MSDN page for this error message states: "You tried to use a WithEvents variable with a component that can't work as an event source for the specified set of events. For example, you may be sinking events of an object, then create another object that Implements the first object. Although you might think you could sink the events from the implemented object, that isn't automatically the case. Implements only implements an interface for methods and properties." The above pretty much sums up what I'm trying to do. The wording, "that isn't automatically the case", rather than "this is flat-out impossible", seems to suggest that there is some bit of manual work I need to do to get it to work, but it doesn't tell me what! Does anybody know if this is possible in VBA?

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  • JavaScript Module Pattern - What about using "return this"?

    - by Rob
    After doing some reading about the Module Pattern, I've seen a few ways of returning the properties which you want to be public. One of the most common ways is to declare your public properties and methods right inside of the "return" statement, apart from your private properties and methods. A similar way (the "Revealing" pattern) is to provide simply references to the properties and methods which you want to be public. Lastly, a third technique I saw was to create a new object inside your module function, to which you assign your new properties before returning said object. This was an interesting idea, but requires the creation of a new object. So I was thinking, why not just use "this.propertyName" to assign your public properties and methods, and finally use "return this" at the end? This way seems much simpler to me, as you can create private properties and methods with the usual "var" or "function" syntax, or use the "this.propertyName" syntax to declare your public methods. Here's the method I'm suggesting: (function() { var privateMethod = function () { alert('This is a private method.'); } this.publicMethod = function () { alert('This is a public method.'); } return this; })(); Are there any pros/cons to using the method above? What about the others?

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  • jQuery/JavaScript Date form validation

    - by Victor Jackson
    I am using the jQuery date picker calendar in a form. Once submitted the form passes params along via the url to a third party site. Everything works fine, except for one thing. If the value inserted into the date field by the datepicker calendar is subsequently deleted, or if the default date, that is in the form on page load, is deleted and the form is submitted I get the following error: "Conversion from string "" to type 'Date' is not valid." The solution to my problem is really simple, I want to validate the text field where the date is submitted and send out a default date (current date) if the field is empty for any reason. The problem is I am terrible at Javascript and cannot figure out how to do this. Here is the form code for my date field. [var('default_date' = date)] <input type="text" id="datepicker" name="txtdate" value="[$default_date]" onfocus="if (this.value == '[$default_date]') this.value = '';" onchange="form.BeginDate.value = this.value; form.EndDate.value = this.value;" /> <input type="hidden" name="BeginDate" value="[$default_date]"/> <input type="hidden" name="EndDate" value="[$default_date]"/>

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  • Adjust width of td to make make row widths even

    - by user1729886
    I am trying to produce a table with a different number of cells in each row. The first row is a header row (every other row contains cells). This header is the width of the table. The second row has 2 cells in it... the third has 1 cell... the fourth has 4 cells... the fifth and final row has 3 cells. I want the table set up so that the rows span the full width of the table. If the table is 1000px... The header would be 1000px wide the cells in the 2nd row would be 500px EACH the cell in the 3rd row would be 1000px the cells in the 4th row would be 250px EACH and the cells in the 5th row would be 333px, 334px, and 333px each (left-to-right) I figured out I could use colspan for the first 4 rows, but the 5th (with 3 cells) would require a non-integer value. The cells in the 5th row won't expand beyond their column without colspan that I can tell... trying the width:## CSS code inside a div tag for each cell inside the td tag creating a class or classes that define the cell widths id-ing each cell, with or without a div tag, and defining widths individually and adjuting the table-layout: option After several days, I'm now at my rope's end. The only thing I can come up with is deliberately tripling the number of cells in each row so that colspan would be all integer values. That sounds inconvenient and unreasonably difficult to format the table the way I'd like. It's a table of Batman movies for a website -- a practice website I'm building, in order to learn HTML/CSS. I've been working on-and-off with HTML for several months, and CSS for a few weeks. PS: It is not being used for layout, I am simply trying to adjust the layout of the table itself.

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  • Javascript "Match" Function Not Returning Proper Results in Safari or IE (but yes in FF)

    - by Jascha
    Forgive me as this is a time sensitive issue and I will have to switch the site back in a few hours so the link will be bad... but: I am simply comparing two strings looking for a match with this function... I have an array of objects called linkArray and I need to match the .src of each object to a .src I send it (the src of the clicked image). if the the src of the image I clicked matches the src of an object in my array, I set a variable to the link string of that object and return true, letting my page know that the link is available. Now, this works great in FF. But not in any other browser and I can't figure out for the life of me why. I have set up a dialogue box to literally compare, by eye, the two strings that should at the very least throw the message "match". Can anyone see what I am missing here??? here is the link... http://7thart.com/Jewish-History-and-Culture/Jews-and-Baseball-An-American-Love-Story If you click any of the thumbnails on the left, you will activate the function. Again, I apologize as after a few hours I have to switch back to the original site and this link will be invalid. Thanks in advance for your help. (function below)... function matchLink(a){ for(var i=0;i<linkArray.length;i++){ var fixLink = '../' + linkArray[i]['src']; alert(fixLink + '\n = \n' + a); if(fixLink == a){ alert('match'); newLink = linkArray[i]['link']; return true; } } return false; } Note: The "match" will return on two of the images.. the initial image, and the first thumbnail on the left. The second thumbnail SHOULD match, and the third one SHOULD NOT match.

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  • How do I pass an NSString through 3 ViewControllers?

    - by dBloc
    hey, I'm currently using the iPhone SDK and I'm having trouble passing an NSString through 3 views I am able to pass an NSString between 2 view controllers but I am unable to pass it through another one. My code is as follows... `- (void)tableView:(UITableView *)tableView didSelectRowAtIndexPath:(NSIndexPath *)index`Path { NSString *string1 = nil; NSDictionary *dictionary = [listOfItems objectAtIndex:indexPath.section]; NSArray *array = [dictionary objectForKey:@"items"]; string1 = [array objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]; //Initialize the detail view controller and display it. ViewController2 *vc2 = [[ViewController2 alloc] initWithNibName:@"ViewController2" bundle:[NSBundle mainBundle]]; vc2.string1 = string1; [self.navigationController pushViewController:vc2 animated:YES]; [vc2 release]; vc2 = nil; } in the "ViewController 2" implementations I am able use "string1" in the title bar by doing the following.... - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; self.navigationItem.title = string1; UIBarButtonItem *addButton = [[[UIBarButtonItem alloc] initWithImage:[UIImage imageNamed:@"icon_time.png"] style:UIBarButtonItemStylePlain //style:UIBarButtonItemStyleBordered target:self action:@selector(goToThirdView)] autorelease]; self.navigationItem.rightBarButtonItem = addButton; } but I also have a NavBar Button on the right side that I would like to push a new view - (void)goToThirdView { ViewController3 *vc3 = [[ViewController3 alloc] initWithNibName:@"ViewController3" bundle:[NSBundle mainBundle]]; [self.navigationController pushViewController:NESW animated:YES]; vc3.string1 = string1 ; [vc3 release]; vc3 = nil; } How do I pass on that same string to the third view? (or fourth)

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  • problem with joomla, php and json

    - by sebastian
    hi, i have a problem with a joomla component. i'm, unsing php and json for some dynamic drop down boxes. here is the code:` jQuery( function () { //jQuery.ajaxSetup({error : function (a,b) {console.dir(a); console.dir(b);}}); jQuery("#util, #loc").change( function() { var locatie = jQuery("#loc").val(); var utilitate = jQuery("#util").val(); if ( (locatie!= '---') && (utilitate!='---') ) jQuery.getJSON( "index.php?option=com_calculator&opt=json_contor&format=raw", { locatie: locatie, utilitate: utilitate }, function (data) { var html = ""; if ( data.success == 'ok' ) for (var i in data.val) html += "<option name=den_contor value ='"+ i+"' >" + data.val[i]+ " </option>"; jQuery("#den_contor").html( html ) } ) }) }); the query works, but only on one PC. we have exactly the same xampp server, exactly the same files. on one pc it works, and on a online server and on my pc it doesn't. EDIT: i have three drop down boxes, the first is populated directly from the database, the second has 4 predefined values. and the third is populated depending on combination of the first two. i have a test site online. http://contor.redxart.com must be logged in to use Calculator in the menu. you can make an new account :) "Adaugare Index" is the part that isn't working any ideas? thanks, sebastian

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  • Cannot use Java 7 instalation if Java 8 is installed

    - by Sebastien Diot
    I normally still use Java 7 for all my coding projects (it's a company "politics" issue), but I installed Java 8 for one third-party project I am contributing to. Now, it seems I cannot have Java 8 installed in Windows 7 x64, and still use Java 7 by default: C:\>"%JAVA_HOME%\bin\java.exe" -version java version "1.7.0_55" Java(TM) SE Runtime Environment (build 1.7.0_55-b13) Java HotSpot(TM) 64-Bit Server VM (build 24.55-b03, mixed mode) C:\>java.exe -version java version "1.8.0_05" Java(TM) SE Runtime Environment (build 1.8.0_05-b13) Java HotSpot(TM) 64-Bit Server VM (build 25.5-b02, mixed mode) As you can see, JAVA_HOME is completely ignored. I also have Java in the path, using "%JAVA_HOME%\bin", which resolve correctly to Java 7 when I check the path in a DOS box, but it still makes no difference. I checked in the "Java Control Panel" (not sure if this affects the default command-line Java version). Under the "Java" tab, the "View..." button, you get to see "registered" Java versions. I can add all the versions under the "User" tab, but under "System" there is only Java 8, and no way to change it. Am I missing something, or did Oracle just make it impossible to use Java 7, unless I de-install Java 8? I don't want to have to specify the "source" and "target" everywhere, and I don't even know if it is possible for me to specify it everywhere, where Java is used. EDIT: What I did is I de-installed all Java. Then installed the latest Java7 (both 86 and x64), and then the latest Java8 (both 86 and x64). After I did that, I noticed that the x64 JDK was gone. It seems Java8 killed it. So I re-installed the JDK 7 x64, after the JDK 8 x64. Still, JDK7 x64 did not seem to "replace" the "java.exe" which is copied into the "Windows" directory itself (I assume THAT is the problem).

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  • IIS to SQL Server kerberos auth issues

    - by crosan
    We have a 3rd party product that allows some of our users to manipulate data in a database (on what we'll call SvrSQL) via a website on a separate server (SvrWeb). On SvrWeb, we have a specific, non-default website setup for this application so instead of going to http://SvrWeb.company.com to get to the website we use http://application.company.com which resolves to SvrWeb and the host headers resolve to the correct website. There is also a specific application pool set up for this site which uses an Active Directory account identity we'll call "company\SrvWeb_iis". We're setup to allow delegation on this account and to allow it to impersonate another login which we want it to do. (we want this account to pass along the AD credentials of the person signed into the website to SQL Server instead of a service account. We also set up the SPNs for the SrvWeb_iis account via the following command: setspn -A HTTP/SrvWeb.company.com SrvWeb_iis The website pulls up, but the section of the website that makes the call to the database returns the message: Cannot execute database query. Login failed for user 'NT AUTHORITY\ANONYMOUS LOGON'. I thought we had the SPN information set up correctly, but when I check the security event log on SrvWeb I see entries of my logging in, but it seems to be using NTLM and not kerberos: Logon Type: 3 Logon Process: NtLmSsp Authentication Package: NTLM Any ideas or articles that cover this setup in detail would be extremely appreciated! If it helps, we are using SQL Server 2005, and both the web and SQL servers are Windows 2003.

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  • C# generics when T could be an array

    - by bufferz
    I am writing a C# wrapper for a 3rd party library that reads both single values and arrays from a hardware device, but always returns an object[] array even for one value. This requires repeated calls to object[0] when I'd like the end user to be able to use generics to receive either an array or single value. I want to use generics so the callee can use the wrapper in the following ways: MyWrapper<float> mw = new MyWrapper<float>( ... ); float value = mw.Value; //should return float; MyWrapper<float[]> mw = new MyWrapper<float[]>( ... ); float[] values = mw.Value; //should return float[]; In MyWrapper I have the Value property currently as the following: public T Value { get { if(_wrappedObject.Values.Length > 1) return (T)_wrappedObject.Value; //T could be float[]. this doesn't compile. else return (T)_wrappedObject.Values[0]; //T could be float. this compiles. } } I get a compile error in the first case: Cannot convert type 'object[]' to 'T' If I change MyWrapper.Value to T[] I receive: Cannot convert type 'object[]' to 'T[]' Any ideas of how to achieve my goal? Thanks!

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  • Eclipse cannot find existing project in build path

    - by PNS
    Here is probably one of the idiosyncrasies of Eclipse and its handling of build paths, which cannot be fixed despite all sorts of workarounds tested so far. The issue relates to a workspace of several projects, each of which compiles into its own JAR. Dependencies among the projects are resolved by adding the relevant ones to the build path (no Maven or other external tool or plugin is used), via Project -> Properties -> Java Build Path -> Projects Among all these projects, a couple (say, com.example.p1 and com.example.p2) refuse to recognize a third (and simple) one (say, com.example.p3), while all other projects do. So, although P3 is added to the build path, all related classes from P3 are imported properly and the source code of each such class is accessible by hitting F3, Eclipse keeps complaining that The import com.example.p3 cannot be resolved and SomeClass cannot be resolved to a type where com.example.p3.SomeClass is one of the P3 classes. If instead of the P3 project I put its compiled JAR in the build path, the issue disappears. However, code in P3 changes frequently and it is a time waste to keep compiling and refreshing the workspace so that the change is picked up, not to mention that this should not happen in an IDE anyway (and it does not for the other projects using P3). Among the workarounds tried are things like: Removing and adding again P1, P2, P3 Cleaning up and recompiling everything Checking whether any other project loads the P3 JAR Putting P3 at the top of the Eclipse build path "Order and Export" list Using the "Fix project setup" suggestion of Eclipse (available when hovering the mouse over the red-underlined-error compilation line). Actually, this option offers adding to the build path either P3 or its JAR, but if P3 is added, the issue reappears. Any ideas?

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  • How to get a unique WindowRef in a dockable Qt application on Mac

    - by Robin
    How do I get a unique WindowRef from a Qt application that includes docked windows on the Mac? My code boils down to: int main(int argc, char* argv[]) { QApplication* qtApp = new QApplication(argc, argv); MyQMainWindow mainwin; mainwin.show(); } class MyQMainWindow : public QMainWindow { //... QDockWidget* mDock; MyQWidget* mDrawArea; QStackedWidget* mCentralStack; }; MyQMainWindow::MyQMainWindow() { mDock = new QDockWidget(tr("Docked Widget"), this); mDock->setMaximumWidth(180); //... addDockWidget(Qt::RightDockWidgetArea, mDock); mDrawArea = new MyQWidget(this); mCentralStack = new QStackedWidget(); mCentralStack->addWidget(mDrawArea); // Other widgets added to stack in production code. setCentralWidget(mCentralStack); //... } (Apologies if the above isn't syntactically correct, it's just easier to illustrate than to describe.) I added the following temporary code at the end of the above constructor: HIViewRef view1 = (HIViewRef) mDrawArea->winId(); HIViewRef view2 = (HIViewRef) mDock->winId(); WindowRef win1 = HIViewGetWindow(view1); WindowRef win2 = HIViewGetWindow(view2); My problem is that view1 and view2 are different, but win1 and win2 are the same! I tried the following equivalent on Windows: HWND win1 = (HWND)(mCentralDrawArea->winId()); HWND win2 = (HWND)(mDock1->winId()); This time win1 and win2 are different. I need the window handle to pass on to a 3rd party SDK so that it can draw into the central area only. BTW, I appreciate that the winId() method comes with lots of portability warnings, but a substantial refactor is out of the question for me. The same goes for using Carbon instead of Cocoa. Thanks.

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  • Loading Dimension Tables - Methodologies

    - by Nev_Rahd
    Hello, Recently I been working on project, where need to populated Dim Tables from EDW Tables. EDW Tables are of type II which does maintain historical data. When comes to load Dim Table, for which source may be multiple EDW Tables or would be single table with multi level pivoting (on attributes). Mean: There would be 10 records - one for each attribute which need to be pivoted on domain_code to make a single row in Dim. Out of these 10 records there would be some attributes with same domain_code but with different sub_domain_code, which needs further pivoting on subdomain code. Ex: if i got domain code: 01,02, 03 = which are straight pivot on domain code I would also have domain code: 10 with subdomain code / version as 2006,2007,2008,2009 That means I need to split my source table with above attributes into two = one for domain code and other for domain_code + version. so far so good. When it comes to load Dim Table: As per design specs for Dimensions (originally written by third party), what they want is: for every single change in EDW (attribute), it should assemble all the related records (for that NK) mean new one with other attribute values which are current = process them to create a new dim record and insert it. That mean if a single extract contains 100 records updated (one for each NK), it should assemble 100 + (100*9) records to insert / update dim table. How good is this approach. Other way I tried to do is just do a lookup into dim table for that NK get the value's of recent records (attributes which not changed) and insert it and update the current one. What would be the better approach assembling records at source side for one attribute change or looking into dim table's recent record and process it. If this doesn't make sense, would like to elaborate it further. Thanks

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  • import csv file/excel into sql database asp.net

    - by kiev
    Hi everyone! I am starting a project with asp.net visual studio 2008 / SQL 2000 (2005 in future) using c#. The tricky part for me is that the existing DB schema changes often and the import files columns will all have to me matched up with the existing db schema since they may not be one to one match on column names. (There is a lookup table that provides the tables schema with column names I will use) I am exploring different ways to approach this, and need some expert advice. Is there any existing controls or frameworks that I can leverage to do any of this? So far I explored FileUpload .NET control, as well as some 3rd party upload controls to accomplish the upload such as SlickUpload but the files uploaded should be < 500mb Next part is reading of my csv /excel and parsing it for display to the user so they can match it with our db schema. I saw CSVReader and others but for excel its more difficult since I will need to support different versions. Essentially The user performing this import will insert and/or update several tables from this import file. There are other more advance requirements like record matching but and preview of the import records, but I wish to get through understanding how to do this first. Update: I ended up using csvReader with LumenWorks.Framework for uploading the csv files.

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  • What is the procedure for debugging a production-only error?

    - by Lord Torgamus
    Let me say upfront that I'm so ignorant on this topic that I don't even know whether this question has objective answers or not. If it ends up being "not," I'll delete or vote to close the post. Here's the scenario: I just wrote a little web service. It works on my machine. It works on my team lead's machine. It works, as far as I can tell, on every machine except for the production server. The exception that the production server spits out upon failure originates from a third-party JAR file, and is skimpy on information. I search the web for hours, but don't come up with anything useful. So what's the procedure for tracking down an issue that occurs only on production machines? Is there a standard methodology, or perhaps category/family of tools, for this? The error that inspired this question has already been fixed, but that was due more to good fortune than a solid approach to debugging. I'm asking this question for future reference. Some related questions: Test accounts and products in a production system Running test on Production Code/Server

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  • How to modify Keyboard interrupt (under Windows XP) from a C++ Program ?

    - by rockr90
    Hi everyone ! We have been given a little project (As part of my OS course) to make a Windows program that modifies keyboard input, so that it transforms any lowercase character entered into an uppercase one (without using caps-lock) ! so when you type on the keyboard you'll see what you're typing transformed into uppercase ! I have done this quite easily using Turbo C by calling geninterrupt() and using variables _AH, _AL, i had to read a character using: _AH = 0x07; // Reading a character without echo geninterrupt(0x21); // Dos interrupt Then to transform it into an Upercase letter i have to mask the 5th bit by using: _AL = _AL & 0xDF; // Masking the entered character with 11011111 and then i will display the character using any output routine. Now, this solution will only work under old C DOS compilers. But what we intend to do is to make a close or similar solution to this by using any modern C/C++ compiler under Windows XP ! What i have first thought of is modifying the Keyboard ISR so that it masks the fifth bit of any entered character to turn it uppercase ! But i do not know how exactly to do this. Second, I wanted to create a Win32 console program to either do the same solution (but to no avail) or make a windows-compatible solution, still i do not know which functions to use ! Third I thought to make a windows program that modifies the ISR directly to suit my needs ! and i'm still looking for how to do this ! So please, If you could help me out on this, I would greatly appreciate it ! Thank you in advance ! (I'm using Windows XP on intel X86 with mingw-GCC compiler.)

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  • Implementing client callback functionality in WCF

    - by PoweredByOrange
    The project I'm working on is a client-server application with all services written in WCF and the client in WPF. There are cases where the server needs to push information to the client. I initially though about using WCF Duplex Services, but after doing some research online, I figured a lot of people are avoiding it for many reasons. The next thing I thought about was having the client create a host connection, so that the server could use that to make a service call to the client. The problem however, is that the application is deployed over the internet, so that approach requires configuring the firewall to allow incoming traffic and since most of the users are regular users, that might also require configuring the router to allow port forwarding, which again is a hassle for the user. My third option is that in the client, spawns a background thread which makes a call to the GetNotifications() method on server. This method on the server side then, blocks until an actual notification is created, then the thread is notified (using an AutoResetEvent object maybe?) and the information gets sent to the client. The idea is something like this: Client private void InitializeListener() { Task.Factory.StartNew(() => { while (true) { var notification = server.GetNotifications(); // Display the notification. } }, CancellationToken.None, TaskCreationOptions.LongRunning, TaskScheduler.Default); } Server public NotificationObject GetNotifications() { while (true) { notificationEvent.WaitOne(); return someNotificationObject; } } private void NotificationCreated() { // Inform the client of this event. notificationEvent.Set(); } In this case, NotificationCreated() is a callback method called when the server needs to send information to the client. What do you think about this approach? Is this scalable at all?

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  • can I acces a struct inside of a struct without using the dot operator?

    - by yan bellavance
    I have 2 structures that have 90% of their fields the same. I want to group those fields in a structure but I do not want to use the dot operator to access them. The reason is I already coded with the first structure and have just created the second one. before: struct{ int a; int b; int c; object1 name; }str1; struct{ int a; int b; int c; object2 name; }str2; now I would create a third struct: struct{ int a; int b; int c; }str3; and would change the str1 and atr2 to this: struct{ str3 str; object1 name; }str1; struct { str3 str; object2 name; }str2; Finally I would like to be able to access a,b and c by doing: str1 myStruct; myStruct.a; myStruct.b; myStruct.c; and not: myStruct.str.a; myStruct.str.b; myStruct.str.c; Is there a way to do such a thing. The reason for doing this is I want keep the integrety of the data if chnges to the struct were to occur and to not repeat myself and not have to change my existing code and not have fields nested too deeply.

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  • Progressively stream the output of an ASP.NET page - or render a page outside of an HTTP request

    - by Evgeny
    I have an ASP.NET 2.0 page with many repeating blocks, including a third-party server-side control (so it's not just plain HTML). Each is quite expensive to generate, in terms of both CPU and RAM. I'm currently using a standard Repeater control for this. There are two problems with this simple approach: The entire page must be rendered before any of it is returned to the client, so the user must wait a long time before they see any data. (I write progress messages using Response.Write, so there is feedback, but no actual results.) The ASP.NET worker process must hold everything in memory at the same time. There is no inherent needs for this: once one block is processed it won't be changed, so it could be returned to the client and the memory could be freed. I would like to somehow return these blocks to the client one at a time, as each is generated. I'm thinking of extracting the stuff inside the Repeater into a separate page and getting it repeatedly using AJAX, but there are some complications involved in that and I wonder if there is some simper approach. Ideally I'd like to keep it as one page (from the client's point of view), but return it incrementally. Another way would be to do something similar, but on the server: still create a separate page, but have the server access it and then Response.Write() the HTML it gets to the response stream for the real client request. Is there a way to avoid an HTTP request here, though? Is there some ASP.NET method that would render a UserControl or a Page outside of an HTTP request and simply return the HTML to me as a string? I'm open to other ideas on how to do this as well.

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  • Javascript toggle using custom attributes

    - by Jacob
    Can't seem to get this to work for me, can anyone offer me some help? http://codepen.io/anon/pen/kABjC This should open and close a section of text based on click, it takes the ID # which is just a digit (1,2,3,4,etc) and using that id targets an id to open and close the section. Javascript $(document).ready(function(){ $('.classclick').click(function(){ $('#class'+$(this).Attr('data-id')+"show").show(400); }); }); HTML <div class="classes"> <?php foreach ($classes as $class): ?> <div class="class"> <div class="classclick" data-id="<?=$class['cid']?>"> <div class="class-title"> <?=$class['className']?> </div> <div class="class-intensity"> Intensity: <?=$class['classIntensity']?> </div> </div> <div class="class-show hidden" id="class<?=$class['cid']?>show"> <div class="class-inner-content"> <div class="two-thirds"> <?=$class['classDesc']?> </div> <div class="one-third"> Things To Know: asdfasd asdf afsdadfs fsda dfsa dfsadfsa </div> </div> </div> </div> <?php endforeach; ?> </div>

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  • testng multiple suites

    - by Eli
    Hi people. my problem is as follows: i am testing a web-ui using selenium and testng. i have a test suite with many test classes in it. i have a method with the @BeforeSuite witch also has a @Parameters annotation, this method recieves as a parameter the browser in witch the selenium will test by run,executing the lines: selenium = new DefaultSelenium("localhost", 4444, **browser**, "http://localhost:8099"); selenium.start(); the xml im using to run the test suite is: <suite name="suite"> <parameter name = "browser" value = "*firefox"/> <test name="allTests"> <classes> <class name="test.webui.MemcachedDeploymentTest" /> </classes> </test> </suite> this works fine and the test runs in firefox. my problem is that i would like to somehow run this suite again, immediatly after the first run finishes, but this time with chrome as the browser. i now have 2 xml suites, one with chrome and one with firefox, is there any way to run these test suites one after the other automatically? maybe using a third xml? Thanks in advance

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  • C programming - How to print numbers with a decimal component using only loops?

    - by californiagrown
    I'm currently taking a basic intro to C programming class, and for our current assignment I am to write a program to convert the number of kilometers to miles using loops--no if-else, switch statements, or any other construct we haven't learned yet are allowed. So basically we can only use loops and some operators. The program will generate three identical tables (starting from 1 kilometer through the input value) for one number input using the while loop for the first set of calculations, the for loop for the second, and the do loop for the third. I've written the entire program, however I'm having a bit of a problem with getting it to recognize an input with a decimal component. Here is what I have for the while loop conversions: #include <stdio.h> #define KM_TO_MILE .62 main (void) { double km, mi, count; printf ("This program converts kilometers to miles.\n"); do { printf ("\nEnter a positive non-zero number"); printf (" of kilometers of the race: "); scanf ("%lf", &km); getchar(); }while (km <= 1); printf ("\n KILOMETERS MILES (while loop)\n"); printf (" ========== =====\n"); count = 1; while (count <= km) { mi = KM_TO_MILE * count; printf ("%8.3lf %14.3lf\n", count, mi); ++count; } getchar(); } The code reads in and converts integers fine, but because the increment only increases by 1 it won't print a number with a decimal component (e.g. 3.2, 22.6, etc.). Can someone point me in the right direction on this? I'd really appreciate any help! :)

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  • Groovy & Grails Concurrency ( quartz, executor )

    - by Pietro
    What I'm trying to do is to run multiple threads at some starting time. Those threads must stay alive for 90minutes after start. During the 90minutes they execute something after a random sleep time (ex: 5minutes to 15minutes). Here is a pseudo code on how I would implement it. The problem is that doing it in this way the threads run in an unexpected way. How can I implement correctly something like this? Class MyJob { static triggers = { cron name: 'first', cronExpression: "0 30 21 * * FRI" cron name: 'second', cronExpression: "0 30 19 * * FRI" cron name: 'third', cronExpression: "0 30 17 * * FRI" def myService def execute() { switch( between trigger name ) case 'first': model = Model.findByAttribute(...) ... myService.run( model, start_time ) break; ... } } class MyService { def run( model, start_time ) { def end_time = end_time.plusMinutes(90) model.fields.each( field -> Thread.start { executeSomeTasks( field, start_time, end_time ) } ) } def executeSomeTasks( field, start_time, end_time ) { while( start_time < end_time ) { ...do something ... sleep( Random.nextInt( 1000 ) ); } } }

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