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• Remove never-run call to templated function, get allocation error on run-time

  - by Narfanator

  First off, I'm a bit at a loss as to how to ask this question. So I'm going to try throwing lots of information at the problem. Ok, so, I went to completely redesign my test project for my experimental core library thingy. I use a lot of template shenanigans in the library. When I removed the "user" code, the tests gave me a memory allocation error. After quite a bit of experimenting, I narrowed it down to this bit of code (out of a couple hundred lines): void VOODOO(components::switchBoard &board){ board.addComponent<using_allegro::keyInputs<'w'> >(); } Fundementally, what's weirding me out is that it appears that the act of compiling this function (and the template function it then uses, and the template functions those then use...), makes this bug not appear. This code is not being run. Similar code (the same, but for different key vals) occurs elsewhere, but is within Boost TDD code. I realize I certainly haven't given enough information for you to solve it for me; I tried, but it more-or-less spirals into most of the code base. I think I'm most looking for "here's what the problem could be", "here's where to look", etc. There's something that's happening during compile because of this line, but I don't know enough about that step to begin looking. Sooo, how can a (presumably) compilied, but never actually run, bit of templated code, when removed, cause another part of code to fail? Error: Unhandled exceptionat 0x6fe731ea (msvcr90d.dll) in Switchboard.exe: 0xC0000005: Access violation reading location 0xcdcdcdc1. Callstack: operator delete(void * pUser Data) allocator< class name related to key inputs callbacks ::deallocate vector< same class ::_Insert_n(...) vector< " " ::insert(...) vector<" "::push_back(...) It looks like maybe the vector isn't valid, because _MyFirst and similar data members are showing values of 0xcdcdcdcd in the debugger. But the vector is a member variable...

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• Simplifying const Overloading?

  - by templatetypedef

  Hello all- I've been teaching a C++ programming class for many years now and one of the trickiest things to explain to students is const overloading. I commonly use the example of a vector-like class and its operator[] function: template <typename T> class Vector { public: T& operator[] (size_t index); const T& operator[] (size_t index) const; }; I have little to no trouble explaining why it is that two versions of the operator[] function are needed, but in trying to explain how to unify the two implementations together I often find myself wasting a lot of time with language arcana. The problem is that the only good, reliable way that I know how to implement one of these functions in terms of the other is with the const_cast/static_cast trick: template <typename T> const T& Vector<T>::operator[] (size_t index) const { /* ... your implementation here ... */ } template <typename T> T& Vector<T>::operator[] (size_t index) { return const_cast<T&>(static_cast<const Vector&>(*this)[index]); } The problem with this setup is that it's extremely tricky to explain and not at all intuitively obvious. When you explain it as "cast to const, then call the const version, then strip off constness" it's a little easier to understand, but the actual syntax is frightening,. Explaining what const_cast is, why it's appropriate here, and why it's almost universally inappropriate elsewhere usually takes me five to ten minutes of lecture time, and making sense of this whole expression often requires more effort than the difference between const T* and T* const. I feel that students need to know about const-overloading and how to do it without needlessly duplicating the code in the two functions, but this trick seems a bit excessive in an introductory C++ programming course. My question is this - is there a simpler way to implement const-overloaded functions in terms of one another? Or is there a simpler way of explaining this existing trick to students? Thanks so much!

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• Finding open contiguous blocks of time for every day of a month, fast

  - by Chris

  I am working on a booking availability system for a group of several venues, and am having a hard time generating the availability of time blocks for days in a given month. This is happening server-side in PHP, but the concept itself is language agnostic -- I could be doing this in JS or anything else. Given a venue_id, month, and year (6/2012 for example), I have a list of all events occurring in that range at that venue, represented as unix timestamps start and end. This data comes from the database. I need to establish what, if any, contiguous block of time of a minimum length (different per venue) exist on each day. For example, on 6/1 I have an event between 2:00pm and 7:00pm. The minimum time is 5 hours, so there's a block open there from 9am - 2pm and another between 7pm and 12pm. This would continue for the 2nd, 3rd, etc... every day of June. Some (most) of the days have nothing happening at all, some have 1 - 3 events. The solution I came up with works, but it also takes waaaay too long to generate the data. Basically, I loop every day of the month and create an array of timestamps for each 15 minutes of that day. Then, I loop the time spans of events from that day by 15 minutes, marking any "taken" timeslot as false. Remaining, I have an array that contains timestamp of free time vs. taken time: //one day's array after processing through loops (not real timestamps) array( 12345678=>12345678, // <--- avail 12345878=>12345878, 12346078=>12346078, 12346278=>false, // <--- not avail 12346478=>false, 12346678=>false, 12346878=>false, 12347078=>12347078, // <--- avail 12347278=>12347278 ) Now I would need to loop THIS array to find continuous time blocks, then check to see if they are long enough (each venue has a minimum), and if so then establish the descriptive text for their start and end (i.e. 9am - 2pm). WHEW! By the time all this looping is done, the user has grown bored and wandered off to Youtube to watch videos of puppies; it takes ages to so examine 30 or so days. Is there a faster way to solve this issue? To summarize the problem, given time ranges t1 and t2 on day d, how can I determine the remaining time left in d that is longer than the minimum time block m. This data is assembled on demand via AJAX as the user moves between calendar months. Results are cached per-page-load, so if the user goes to July a second time, the data that was generated the first time would be reused. Any other details that would help, let me know. Edit Per request, the database structure (or the part that is relevant here) *events* id (bigint) title (varchar) *event_times* id (bigint) event_id (bigint) venue_id (bigint) start (bigint) end (bigint) *venues* id (bigint) name (varchar) min_block (int) min_start (varchar) max_start (varchar)

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• How do you remind your Scrum Product Owner about his promises/actions?

  - by Felix Ogg

  ** EDIT: Rephrased the question to re-focus ** Our Scrum team meets as seldomly as possible, but we meet with the product owner every chance we get. We track everyone's agreed action points (particularly theirs). We are 100% agile, but our product owner lives in traditional world, we remain off-site. We facilitate him in crossing over to our fast-paced world. There's not much wrong. The team and the PO are in good spirits. PO is present at every meeting and positively energized. Just imagine this person as a 70 year old, slow grandpa, who is forgetful, yet kind. In reality he isn't, but he is used to a working environment (public servants) that is much slooooower. Manyana-manyana etc. It is frustrating for my team to cooperate: PO lives in a non-prioritized environment, and everyone in it has learned the productivity-technique of NGTD (Not Getting Things Done). He WANTS to, it's just that he forgets or 'sinks' somewhere along the away. We have experimented with a text file, maintained by the Scrum master (low-tech), which he broadcasts by e-mail every day JIRA, our issue tracker. Turns out this is nice for programmers, but too steep for 'regular people' I Googled for Issue tracking webtools but came up empty handed: All tools are aimed at IT issue tracking, instead of meeting action point tracking/planning for mere mortals. I did find TODO-lists like RememberTheMilk, but they don't track comments, and - to be honest - I doubt we could get our product owner to use it (too complicated). We have three requirements: Register action points, assign to a team member and a deadline Offer anyone to 'comment' on progress of any action point Do not build our own tool from scratch We do not need: - impressive authorization models, - multi-project, - workflow, - crosslinking. Is there any trick/tool you use to assist your product owner 'fly' like the rest of the rest of the team? Communication before tools I agree with the general consensus that one should not try to apply technology to a communication problem, however in this case I am merely looking for a tool to save me time in setting up prioritized lists. I found www.thymer.com today, may be what I am looking for. The guys are cool. It is getting rather feature-bloated though.

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• How do I Print a dynamically created Flex component/chart that is not being displayed on the screen?

  - by Adam Jones

  I have a several chart components that I have created in Flex. Basically I have set up a special UI that allows the user to select which of these charts they want to print. When they press the print button each of the selected charts is created dynamically then added to a container. Then I send this container off to FlexPrintJob. i.e. private function prePrint():void { var printSelection:Box = new Box(); printSelection.percentHeight = 100; printSelection.percentWidth = 100; printSelection.visible = true; if (this.chkMyChart1.selected) { var rptMyChart1:Chart1Panel = new Chart1Panel(); rptMyChart1.percentHeight = 100; rptMyChart1.percentWidth = 100; rptMyChart1.visible = true; printSelection.addChild(rptMyChart1); } print(printSelection); } private function print(container:Box):void { var job:FlexPrintJob; job = new FlexPrintJob(); if (job.start()) { job.addObject(container, FlexPrintJobScaleType.MATCH_WIDTH); job.send(); } } This code works fine if the chart is actually displayed somewhere on the page but adding it dynamically as shown above does not. The print dialog will appear but nothing happens when I press OK. So I really have two questions: Is it possible to print flex components/charts when they are not visible on the screen? If so, how do I do it / what am I doing wrong? UPDATE: Well, at least one thing wrong is my use of the percentages in the width and height. Using percentages doesn't really make sense when the Box is not contained in another object. Changing the height and width to fixed values actually allows the printing to progress and solves my initial problem. printSelection.height = 100; printSelection.width = 100; But a new problem arises in that instead of seeing my chart, I see a black box instead. I have previously resolved this issue by setting the background colour of the chart to #FFFFFF but this doesn't seem to be working this time. UPDATE 2: I have seen some examples on the adobe site that add the container to the application but don't include it in the layout. This looks like the way to go. i.e. printSelection.includeInLayout = false; addChild(printSelection);

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• Can I write a test that succeeds if and only if a statement does not compile?

  - by Billy ONeal

  I'd like to prevent clients of my class from doing something stupid. To that end, I have used the type system, and made my class only accept specific types as input. Consider the following example (Not real code, I've left off things like virtual destructors for the sake of example): class MyDataChunk { //Look Ma! Implementation! }; class Sink; class Source { virtual void Run() = 0; Sink *next_; void SetNext(Sink *next) { next_ = next; } }; class Sink { virtual void GiveMeAChunk(const MyDataChunk& data) { //Impl }; }; class In { virtual void Run { //Impl } }; class Out { }; //Note how filter and sorter have the same declaration. Concrete classes //will inherit from them. The seperate names are there to ensure only //that some idiot doesn't go in and put in a filter where someone expects //a sorter, etc. class Filter : public Source, public Sink { //Drop objects from the chain-of-command pattern that don't match a particular //criterion. }; class Sorter : public Source, public Sink { //Sorts inputs to outputs. There are different sorters because someone might //want to sort by filename, size, date, etc... }; class MyClass { In i; Out o; Filter f; Sorter s; public: //Functions to set i, o, f, and s void Execute() { i.SetNext(f); f.SetNext(s); s.SetNext(o); i.Run(); } }; What I don't want is for somebody to come back later and go, "Hey, look! Sorter and Filter have the same signature. I can make a common one that does both!", thus breaking the semantic difference MyClass requires. Is this a common kind of requirement, and if so, how might I implement a test for it?

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• Live search results as you type... am I going about this the right way? jQuery + PHP

  - by dallen

  This is my first time building a tool like this, so please bare with me. I'm doing this to learn more about jQuery and AJAX. Basically, I have a search input and a hidden div. When you start typing in the search input, the hidden div becomes visible and results are brought in. In this case, I'm searching for client names. It all works fine, however I think my code could be better but I'm not sure exactly where to begin. Each keyup requests a PHP script which accesses a table in a database to find a like string. But in my PHP script, I'm echo'ing some JS/jQuery which I'm not sure is good practice. Below is my code. Am I going about this the right way or am I totally off base? Any suggestions for improvement? Javascript $("#search").keyup(function() { $("#search_results").show("fast"); $.ajax ({ type: "POST", url: "http://localhost:8888/index.php/welcome/search/" + $("#search").val(), success: function(html) { $("#search_results").html(html); } }); }); PHP function search($search_string = false) { if ($search_string) { $this->db->like('name', $search_string); $query = $this->db->get('clients'); if ($query->num_rows() == 0) { echo "No client exists."; } else { foreach ($query->result() as $row) { echo '<script>'; echo ' $("#client_results_'.$row->id.'").hide(); $("#'.$row->id.'").toggle(function() { $.ajax ({ type: "POST", url: "http://localhost:8888/index.php/welcome/search_client_ads/" + '.$row->id.', success: function(html) { $("#client_results_'.$row->id.'").html(html).show("fast"); } }); }, function() { $("#client_results_'.$row->id.'").hide("fast").html(""); });'; echo '</script>'; echo '<p><span id="'.$row->id.'">'.$row->name.'</span></p>'; echo '<div id="client_results_'.$row->id.'"></div>'; } } } else { echo ''; } } function search_client_ads($client_id) { $query = $this->db->get_where('online_ads', array('client' => $client_id)); if ($query->num_rows() == 0) { echo "No ads exist."; } else { foreach ($query->result() as $row) { echo $row->id; } } }

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• C#/.NET Project - Am I setting things up correctly?

  - by JustLooking

  1st solution located: \Common\Controls\Controls.sln and its project: \Common\Controls\Common.Controls\Common.Controls.csproj Description: This is a library that contains this class: public abstract class OurUserControl : UserControl { // Variables and other getters/setters common to our UserControls } 2nd solution located: \AControl\AControl.sln and its project: \AControl\AControl\AControl.csproj Description: Of the many forms/classes, it will contain this class: using Common.Controls; namespace AControl { public partial class AControl : OurUserControl { // The implementation } } A note about adding references (not sure if this is relevant): When I add references (for projects I create), using the names above: 1. I add Common.Controls.csproj to AControl.sln 2. In AControl.sln I turn off the build of Common.Controls.csproj 3. I add the reference to Common.Controls (by project) to AControl.csproj. This is the (easiest) way I know how to get Debug versions to match Debug References, and Release versions to match Release References. Now, here is where the issue lies (the 3rd solution/project that actually utilizes the UserControl): 3rd solution located: \MainProj\MainProj.sln and its project: \MainProj\MainProj\MainProj.csproj Description: Here's a sample function in one of the classes: private void TestMethod<T>() where T : Common.Controls.OurUserControl, new() { T TheObject = new T(); TheObject.OneOfTheSetters = something; TheObject.AnotherOfTheSetters = something_else; // Do stuff with the object } We might call this function like so: private void AnotherMethod() { TestMethod<AControl.AControl>(); } This builds, runs, and works. No problem. The odd thing is after I close the project/solution and re-open it, I have red squigglies everywhere. I bring up my error list and I see tons of errors (anything that deals with AControl will be noted as an error). I'll see errors such as: The type 'AControl.AControl' cannot be used as type parameter 'T' in the generic type or method 'MainProj.MainClass.TestMethod()'. There is no implicit reference conversion from 'AControl.AControl' to 'Common.Controls.OurUserControl'. or inside the actual method (the properties located in the abstract class): 'AControl.AControl' does not contain a definition for 'OneOfTheSetters' and no extension method 'OneOfTheSetters' accepting a first argument of type 'AControl.AControl' could be found (are you missing a using directive or an assembly reference?) Meanwhile, I can still build and run the project (then the red squigglies go away until I re-open the project, or close/re-open the file). It seems to me that I might be setting up the projects incorrectly. Thoughts?

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• remove data layer and put into it's own domain

  - by user334768

  I have a SL4 application that uses EF4 & RIA Services. DB is SQL 2008. All is working well. Now I want to put the Database and web services on one domain (A.com) with the web service exposing the same methods available in my working project. (one listed at top of message) Then put a Silverlight application (same one as above) on domain(B.com) and call the web services on A.com. I thought I had a fair understanding of RIA Services. Enough to get the above application working. Now when I say "working" I do mean on my local dev machine. I have yet to deployed as SL4 & .NET 4 application to my hosting site. But I don't think I understand it well enough. I normally create a new business app, add EF then create the RIA DomainService. Add any [Includes] I need, modify my linq queries and run application. And it works. Now I need to break off my data layer and put it on another hosting site (A.com) And put my UI and business logic on another hosting site (B.com) I think I need to do the following : On the Database & web service site: domain(A.com) create application, create EF4, create RIA Services and deploy. At this time, are the methods exposed available as a "WEB SERVICE" to other applications calling by http:// a.com/serviceName.svc address? I think I need to do the following : On the application site : domain(B.com) create a business application (later will need authentication and navigation). How can I create an EF when I don't have access to the database? (I know I do have access but I want know what happens here when I do not have access to the database, but only data provided by a web service) If I can not create an EF how do I create my RIA Service? I hope any one who takes time to help me understands what I'm asking. Sorry so long.

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• C++ DLL creation for C# project - No functions exported

  - by Yeti

  I am working on a project that requires some image processing. The front end of the program is C# (cause the guys thought it is a lot simpler to make the UI in it). However, as the image processing part needs a lot of CPU juice I am making this part in C++. The idea is to link it to the C# project and just call a function from a DLL to make the image processing part and allow to the C# environment to process the data afterwards. Now the only problem is that it seems I am not able to make the DLL. Simply put the compiler refuses to put any function into the DLL that I compile. Because the project requires some development time testing I have created two projects into a C++ solution. One is for the Dll and another console application. The console project holds all the files and I just include the corresponding header into my DLL project file. I thought the compiler should take out the functions that I marked as to be exported and make the DLL from them. Nevertheless this does not happens. Here it is how I defined the function in the header: extern "C" __declspec(dllexport) void _stdcall RobotData(BYTE* buf, int** pToNewBackgroundImage, int* pToBackgroundImage, bool InitFlag, ObjectInformation* robot1, ObjectInformation* robot2, ObjectInformation* robot3, ObjectInformation* robot4, ObjectInformation* puck); extern "C" __declspec(dllexport) CvPoint _stdcall RefPointFinder(IplImage* imgInput, CvRect &imgROI, CvScalar &refHSVColorLow, CvScalar &refHSVColorHi ); Followed by the implementation in the cpp file: extern "C" __declspec(dllexport) CvPoint _stdcall RefPointFinder(IplImage* imgInput, CvRect &imgROI,&refHSVColorLow, CvScalar &refHSVColorHi ) { \\... return cvPoint((int)( M10/M00) + imgROI.x, (int)( M01/M00 ) + imgROI.y) ;} extern "C" __declspec(dllexport) void _stdcall RobotData(BYTE* buf, int** pToNewBackgroundImage, int* pToBackgroundImage, bool InitFlag, ObjectInformation* robot1, ObjectInformation* robot2, ObjectInformation* robot3, ObjectInformation* robot4, ObjectInformation* puck) { \\ ...}; And my main file for the DLL project looks like: #ifdef _MANAGED #pragma managed(push, off) #endif /// <summary> Include files. </summary> #include "..\ImageProcessingDebug\ImageProcessingTest.h" #include "..\ImageProcessingDebug\ImageProcessing.h" BOOL APIENTRY DllMain( HMODULE hModule, DWORD ul_reason_for_call, LPVOID lpReserved) { return TRUE; } #ifdef _MANAGED #pragma managed(pop) #endif Needless to say it does not work. A quick look with DLL export viewer 1.36 reveals that no function is inside the library. I don't get it. What I am doing wrong ? As side not I am using the C++ objects (and here it is the C++ DLL part) such as the vector. However, only for internal usage. These will not appear in the headers of either function as you can observe from the previous code snippets. Any ideas? Thx, Bernat

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• Adding the text area input to a list with jquery

  - by amylynn83

  I am making a shopping list app. When an item is added to the text input, it should be converted into a list item with a class of "tile" and added to the beginning of the list with a class of ".shopping_item_list". Here is my HTML: <section> <h1 class="outline">Shopping List Items</h1> <ul class="shopping_item_list"> <li class="tile">Flowers<span class="delete">Delete</span></li> </ul> </section> My jQuery: $("input[name='shopping_item']").change(function() { var item = $(this).val(); $("<li class='tile'>+ item +</li>").prependTo(".shopping_item_list"); $(".tile").removeClass("middle"); $(".shopping_item_list li:nth-child(3n+2)").addClass("middle"); }); This isn't working, and I can't figure out why. I'm new to jQuery. Also, I need to add the "delete" span to the list item and am not sure how. Thanks for any help you can offer! Edited to add: Thanks to the feedback here, I was able to make it work with: $("input[name='shopping_item']").change(function() { var item = $(this).val(); $("<li class='tile'>" + item + "<span class='delete'>Delete</span>" + " </li>").prependTo(".shopping_item_list"); $(".tile").removeClass("middle"); $(".shopping_item_list li:nth-child(3n+2)").addClass("middle"); }); However, in my jquery, I have functions for the classes "tile" and "delete" that are not working for newly added items. // hide delete button $(".delete").hide(); // delete square $(".tile").hover(function() { $(this).find(".delete").toggle(); }); $(".tile").on("click", ".delete", function() { $(this).closest("li.tile").remove(); $(".tile").removeClass("middle"); $(".shopping_item_list li:nth-child(3n+2)").addClass("middle"); }); // cross off list $(".tile").click(function() { $(this).toggleClass("deleteAction"); }); The new items, which have these classes applied aren't using these functions at all. Do I need to add the functions below the add item? Does the order in which they appear in my js file matter? Do I need to add some kind of function?

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• Haskell data serialization of some data implementing a common type class

  - by Evan

  Let's start with the following data A = A String deriving Show data B = B String deriving Show class X a where spooge :: a -> Q [ Some implementations of X for A and B ] Now let's say we have custom implementations of show and read, named show' and read' respectively which utilize Show as a serialization mechanism. I want show' and read' to have types show' :: X a => a -> String read' :: X a => String -> a So I can do things like f :: String -> [Q] f d = map (\x -> spooge $ read' x) d Where data could have been [show' (A "foo"), show' (B "bar")] In summary, I wanna serialize stuff of various types which share a common typeclass so I can call their separate implementations on the deserialized stuff automatically. Now, I realize you could write some template haskell which would generate a wrapper type, like data XWrap = AWrap A | BWrap B deriving (Show) and serialize the wrapped type which would guarantee that the type info would be stored with it, and that we'd be able to get ourselves back at least an XWrap... but is there a better way using haskell ninja-ery? EDIT Okay I need to be more application specific. This is an API. Users will define their As, and Bs and fs as they see fit. I don't ever want them hacking through the rest of the code updating their XWraps, or switches or anything. The most i'm willing to compromise is one list somewhere of all the A, B, etc. in some format. Why? Here's the application. A is "Download a file from an FTP server." B is "convert from flac to mp3". A contains username, password, port, etc. information. B contains file path information. A and B are Xs, and Xs shall be called "Tickets." Q is IO (). Spooge is runTicket. I want to read the tickets off into their relevant data types and then write generic code that will runTicket on the stuff read' from the stuff on disk. At some point I have to jam type information into the serialized data.

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• PHP Array problems....if anyone can assist!

  - by Homer_J

  First off, the code which brings back my data into an array: function fetch_questions($page) { global $link; $proc = mysqli_prepare($link, "SELECT * FROM tques WHERE page = $page"); mysqli_stmt_bind_param($proc, "i", $page); mysqli_stmt_execute($proc); $rowq = array(); stmt_bind_assoc($proc, $rowq); // loop through all result rows while ($proc->fetch()) { // print_r($rowq); } mysqli_stmt_close($proc); mysqli_clean_connection($link); return($rowq); } Now, when I `print_r($rowq);' I get the following, which is all good: Array ( [questions] => q1 [qnum] => 1 [qtext] => I find my job meaningful [page] => 1 ) Array ( [questions] => q2 [qnum] => 2 [qtext] => I find my job interesting [page] => 1 ) Array ( [questions] => q3 [qnum] => 3 [qtext] => My work supports ABC's objective [page] => 1 ) Array ( [questions] => q4 [qnum] => 4 [qtext] => I am able to balance my work and home life [page] => 1 ) Array ( [questions] => q5 [qnum] => 5 [qtext] => I am clear about what is expected of me in my job [page] => 1 ) Array ( [questions] => q6 [qnum] => 6 [qtext] => My induction helped me to settle into my job [page] => 1 ) Array ( [questions] => q7 [qnum] => 7 [qtext] => I understand the ABC vision [page] => 1 ) Array ( [questions] => q8 [qnum] => 8 [qtext] => I know how what I do fits into my team's objectives [page] => 1 ) Now, in my php page I have the following piece of script: $questions = fetch_questions($page); And when I print_r $questions, as below: print_r($questions); I only get the following back from the array, 1 row: Array ( [questions] => q8 [qnum] => 8 [qtext] => I know how what I do fits into my team's objectives [page] => 1 ) Any ideas why that might be? Thanks in advance, Homer.

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• BroadcastReciever doesn't show SMS not Send or Not delivered

  - by user1657111

  While using broadcastreciver for checking sms status, it shows the toast when sms is sent but shows nothing when sms is not sent or delivered (im testing it by putting an abrupt number). the code im using is the one ive seen the most on every site of checking sms delivery status. But my code is only showing the status when sms is sent successfully. Can any one get a hint of what am i doing wrong ? I hav this method in doInBackground() and so obviously im using AsyncTask. Thanks guys public void send_SMS(String list, String msg, AtaskClass task) { String SENT = "SMS_SENT"; String DELIVERED = "SMS_DELIVERED"; SmsManager sms = SmsManager.getDefault(); PendingIntent sentPI = PendingIntent.getBroadcast(this, 0, new Intent(SENT), 0); PendingIntent deliveredPI = PendingIntent.getBroadcast(this, 0, new Intent(DELIVERED), 0); //---when the SMS has been sent--- registerReceiver(new BroadcastReceiver(){ @Override public void onReceive(Context context, Intent arg1) { switch (getResultCode()) { case Activity.RESULT_OK: Toast.makeText(context, "SMS sent", Toast.LENGTH_SHORT).show(); break; case SmsManager.RESULT_ERROR_GENERIC_FAILURE: Toast.makeText(context, "Generic failure", Toast.LENGTH_SHORT).show(); break; case SmsManager.RESULT_ERROR_NO_SERVICE: Toast.makeText(context, "No service", Toast.LENGTH_SHORT).show(); break; case SmsManager.RESULT_ERROR_NULL_PDU: Toast.makeText(context, "Null PDU", Toast.LENGTH_SHORT).show(); break; case SmsManager.RESULT_ERROR_RADIO_OFF: Toast.makeText(context, "Radio off", Toast.LENGTH_SHORT).show(); break; } } }, new IntentFilter(SENT)); //---when the SMS has been delivered--- registerReceiver(new BroadcastReceiver(){ @Override public void onReceive(Context context, Intent arg1) { switch (getResultCode()) { case Activity.RESULT_OK: Toast.makeText(context, "SMS delivered", Toast.LENGTH_SHORT).show(); break; case Activity.RESULT_CANCELED: Toast.makeText(context, "SMS not delivered", Toast.LENGTH_SHORT).show(); break; } } }, new IntentFilter(DELIVERED)); StringTokenizer st = new StringTokenizer(list,","); int count= st.countTokens(); int i =1; count = 1; while(st.hasMoreElements()) { // PendingIntent pi = PendingIntent.getActivity(this,0,new Intent(this, SMS.class),0); String tempMobileNumber = (String)st.nextElement(); //SmsManager sms = SmsManager.getDefault(); sms.sendTextMessage(tempMobileNumber, null, msg , sentPI, deliveredPI); Double cCom = ((double)i/count) * 100; int j = cCom.intValue(); task.doProgress(j); i++; count ++; } // class ends }

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• Updating Textures on Runtime in OpenSceneGraph

  - by Abhishek Bansal

  I am working on a project in which i am required to capture frames from external device video and render them on openSceneGraph Node. I am also using GLSL shaders. But i dont know how to update textures on runtime. For other uniforms we need to make callbacks but do we also need to make callbacks for samplers in glsl and openSceneGraph ? My code looks like this. All i am getting right now is a black window. osg::ref_ptr<osg::Geometry> pictureQuad = osg::createTexturedQuadGeometry(osg::Vec3(0.0f,0.0f,0.0f), osg::Vec3(_deviceNameToImageFrameMap[deviceName].frame->s(),0.0f,0.0f), osg::Vec3(0.0f,0.0f,_deviceNameToImageFrameMap[deviceName].frame->t()), 0.0f, 1.0f,_deviceNameToImageFrameMap[deviceName].frame->s(), _deviceNameToImageFrameMap[deviceName].frame->t()); //creating texture and setting up parameters for video frame osg::ref_ptr<osg::TextureRectangle> myTex= new osg::TextureRectangle(_deviceNameToImageFrameMap[deviceName].frame.get()); myTex->setFilter(osg::Texture::MIN_FILTER,osg::Texture::LINEAR); myTex->setFilter(osg::Texture::MAG_FILTER,osg::Texture::LINEAR); myTex->setWrap(osg::Texture::WRAP_S, osg::Texture::CLAMP_TO_EDGE); myTex->setWrap(osg::Texture::WRAP_T, osg::Texture::CLAMP_TO_EDGE); _videoSourceNameToNodeMap[sourceName].geode = new osg::Geode(); _videoSourceNameToNodeMap[sourceName].geode->setDataVariance(osg::Object::DYNAMIC); _videoSourceNameToNodeMap[sourceName].geode->addDrawable(pictureQuad.get()); //apply texture to node _videoSourceNameToNodeMap[sourceName].geode->getOrCreateStateSet()->setTextureAttributeAndModes(0, myTex.get(), osg::StateAttribute::ON); _videoSourceNameToNodeMap[sourceName].geode->getOrCreateStateSet()->setMode(GL_DEPTH_TEST, osg::StateAttribute::OFF); _videoSourceNameToNodeMap[sourceName].geode->setDataVariance(osg::Object::DYNAMIC); //Set uniform sampler osg::Uniform* srcFrame = new osg::Uniform( osg::Uniform::SAMPLER_2D, "srcFrame" ); srcFrame->set(0); //Set Uniform Alpha osg::Uniform* alpha = new osg::Uniform( osg::Uniform::FLOAT, "alpha" ); alpha->set(.5f); alpha->setUpdateCallback(new ExampleCallback()); //Enable blending _videoSourceNameToNodeMap[sourceName].geode->getOrCreateStateSet()->setMode( GL_BLEND, osg::StateAttribute::ON); //Adding blend function to node osg::BlendFunc *bf = new osg::BlendFunc(); bf->setFunction(GL_SRC_ALPHA, GL_ONE_MINUS_SRC_ALPHA); _videoSourceNameToNodeMap[sourceName].geode->getOrCreateStateSet()->setAttributeAndModes(bf); //apply shader to quad _videoSourceNameToNodeMap[sourceName].geode->getOrCreateStateSet()->setAttributeAndModes(program, osg::StateAttribute::ON); //add Uniform to shader _videoSourceNameToNodeMap[sourceName].geode->getOrCreateStateSet()->addUniform( srcFrame ); _videoSourceNameToNodeMap[sourceName].geode->getOrCreateStateSet()->addUniform( alpha );

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• backbone.js - Having multiple instances of the same view

  - by TrueWheel

  I am having problems having multiple instances in of the same view in different div elements. When I try to initialize them only the second of the two elements appear no matter what order I put them in. Here is the code for my view. var BodyShapeView = Backbone.View.extend({ thingiview: null, scene: null, renderer: null, model: null, mouseX: 0, mouseY: 0, events:{ 'click button#front' : 'front', 'click button#diag' : 'diag', 'click button#in' : 'zoomIn', 'click button#out' : 'zoomOut', 'click button#on' : 'rotateOn', 'click button#off' : 'rotateOff', 'click button#wireframeOn' : 'wireOn', 'click button#wireframeOff' : 'wireOff', 'click button#distance' : 'dijkstra' }, initialize: function(name){ _.bindAll(this, 'render', 'animate'); scene = new THREE.Scene(); camera = new THREE.PerspectiveCamera( 15, 400 / 700, 1, 4000 ); camera.position.z = 3; scene.add( camera ); camera.position.y = -5; var ambient = new THREE.AmbientLight( 0x202020 ); scene.add( ambient ); var directionalLight = new THREE.DirectionalLight( 0xffffff, 0.75 ); directionalLight.position.set( 0, 0, 1 ); scene.add( directionalLight ); var pointLight = new THREE.PointLight( 0xffffff, 5, 29 ); pointLight.position.set( 0, -25, 10 ); scene.add( pointLight ); var loader = new THREE.OBJLoader(); loader.load( "img/originalMeanModel.obj", function ( object ) { object.children[0].geometry.computeFaceNormals(); var geometry = object.children[0].geometry; console.log(geometry); THREE.GeometryUtils.center(geometry); geometry.dynamic = true; var material = new THREE.MeshLambertMaterial({color: 0xffffff, shading: THREE.FlatShading, vertexColors: THREE.VertexColors }); mesh = new THREE.Mesh(geometry, material); model = mesh; // model = object; scene.add( model ); } ); // RENDERER renderer = new THREE.WebGLRenderer(); renderer.setSize( 400, 700 ); $(this.el).find('.obj').append( renderer.domElement ); this.animate(); }, Here is how I create the instances var morphableBody = new BodyShapeView({ el: $("#morphable-body") }); var bodyShapeView = new BodyShapeView({ el: $("#mean-body") }); Any help would be really appreciated. Thanks in advance.

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• Circular database relationships. Good, Bad, Exceptions?

  - by jim

  I have been putting off developing this part of my app for sometime purely because I want to do this in a circular way but get the feeling its a bad idea from what I remember my lecturers telling me back in school. I have a design for an order system, ignoring the everything that doesn't pertain to this example I'm left with: CreditCard Customer Order I want it so that, Customers can have credit cards (0-n) Customers have orders (1-n) Orders have one customer(1-1) Orders have one credit card(1-1) Credit cards can have one customer(1-1) (unique ids so we can ignore uniqueness of cc number, husband/wife may share cc instances ect) Basically the last part is where the issue shows up, sometimes credit cards are declined and they wish to use a different one, this needs to update which their 'current' card is but this can only change the current card used for that order, not the other orders the customer may have on disk. Effectively this creates a circular design between the three tables. Possible solutions: Either Create the circular design, give references: cc ref to order, customer ref to cc customer ref to order or customer ref to cc customer ref to order create new table that references all three table ids and put unique on the order so that only one cc may be current to that order at any time Essentially both model the same design but translate differently, I am liking the latter option best at this point in time because it seems less circular and more central. (If that even makes sense) My questions are, What if any are the pros and cons of each? What is the pitfalls of circular relationships/dependancies? Is this a valid exception to the rule? Is there any reason I should pick the former over the latter? Thanks and let me know if there is anything you need clarified/explained. --Update/Edit-- I have noticed an error in the requirements I stated. Basically dropped the ball when trying to simplify things for SO. There is another table there for Payments which adds another layer. The catch, Orders can have multiple payments, with the possibility of using different credit cards. (if you really want to know even other forms of payment). Stating this here because I think the underlying issue is still the same and this only really adds another layer of complexity.

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• emacs: how do I use edebug on code that is defined in a macro?

  - by Cheeso

  I don't even know the proper terminology for this lisp syntax, so I don't know if the words I'm using to ask the question, make sense. But the question makes sense, I'm sure. So let me just show you. cc-mode (cc-fonts.el) has things called "matchers" which are bits of code that run to decide how to fontify a region of code. That sounds simple enough, but the matcher code is in a form I don't completely understand, with babckticks and comma-atsign and just comma and so on, and furthermore it is embedded in a c-lang-defcost, which itself is a macro. And I want to run edebug on that code. Look: (c-lang-defconst c-basic-matchers-after "Font lock matchers for various things that should be fontified after generic casts and declarations are fontified. Used on level 2 and higher." t `(;; Fontify the identifiers inside enum lists. (The enum type ;; name is handled by `c-simple-decl-matchers' or ;; `c-complex-decl-matchers' below. ,@(when (c-lang-const c-brace-id-list-kwds) `((,(c-make-font-lock-search-function (concat "\\<\\(" (c-make-keywords-re nil (c-lang-const c-brace-id-list-kwds)) "\\)\\>" ;; Disallow various common punctuation chars that can't come ;; before the '{' of the enum list, to avoid searching too far. "[^\]\[{}();,/#=]*" "{") '((c-font-lock-declarators limit t nil) (save-match-data (goto-char (match-end 0)) (c-put-char-property (1- (point)) 'c-type 'c-decl-id-start) (c-forward-syntactic-ws)) (goto-char (match-end 0))))))) I am reading up on lisp syntax to figure out what those things are and what to call them, but aside from that, how can I run edebug on the code that follows the comment that reads ;; Fontify the identifiers inside enum lists. ? I know how to run edebug on a defun - just invoke edebug-defun within the function's definition, and off I go. Is there a corresponding thing I need to do to edebug the cc-mode matcher code forms?

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• Model Binding with Parent/Child Relationship

  - by user296297

  I'm sure this has been answered before, but I've spent the last three hours looking for an acceptable solution and have been unable to find anything, so I apologize for what I'm sure is a repeat. I have two domain objects, Player and Position. Player's have a Position. My domain objects are POCOs tied to my database with NHibernate. I have an Add action that takes a Player, so I'm using the built in model binding. On my view I have a drop down list that lets a user select the Position for the Player. The value of the drop down list is the Id of the position. Everything gets populated correctly except that my Position object fails validation (ModelState.IsValid) because at the point of model binding it only has an Id and none of it's other required attributes. What is the preferred solution for solving this with ASP.NET MVC 2? Solutions I've tried... Fetch the Position from the database based on the Id before ModelState.IsValid is called in the Add action of my controller. I can't get the model to run the validation again, so ModelState.IsValid always returns false. Create a custom ModelBinder that inherits from the default binder and fetch the Position from the database after the base binder is called. The ModelBinder seems to be doing the validation so if I use anything from the default binder I'm hosed. Which means I have to completely roll my own binder and grab every value from the form...this seems really wrong and inefficient for such a common use-case. Solutions I think might work, I just can't figure out how to do... Turn off the validation for the Position class when used in Player. Write a custom ModelBinder leverages the default binder for most of the property binding, but lets me get the Position from the database BEFORE the default binder runs validation. So, how do the rest of you solve this? Thanks, Dan P.S. In my opinion having a PositionId on Player just for this case is not a good solution. There has to be solvable in a more elegant fashion.

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• Execution plan issue requires reset on SQL Server 2005, how to determine cause?

  - by Tony Brandner

  We have a web application that delivers training to thousands of corporate students running on top of SQL Server 2005. Recently, we started seeing that a single specific query in the application went from 1 second to about 30 seconds in terms of execution time. The application started throwing timeouts in that area. Our first thought was that we may have incorrect indexes, so we reviewed the tables and indexes. However, similar queries elsewhere in the application also run quickly. Reviewing the indexes showed us that they were configured as expected. We were able to narrow it down to a single query, not a stored procedure. Running this query in SQL Studio also runs quickly. We tried running the application in a different server environment. So a different web server with the same query, parameters and database. The query still ran slow. The query is a fairly large one related to determining a student's current list of training. It includes joins and left joins on a dozen tables and subqueries. A few of the tables are fairly large (hundreds of thousands of rows) and some of the other tables are small lookup tables. The query uses a grouping clause and a few where conditions. A few of the tables are quite active and the contents change often but the volume of added rows doesn't seem extreme. These symptoms led us to consider the execution plan. First off, as soon as we reset the execution plan cache with the SQL command 'DBCC FREEPROCCACHE', the problem went away. Unfortunately, the problem started to reoccur within a few days. The problem has continued to plague us for awhile now. It's usually the same query, but we did appear to see the problem occur in another single query recently. It happens enough to be a nuisance. We're having a heck of a time trying to fix it since we can't reproduce it in any other environment other than production. I have downloaded the High Availability guide from Red Gate and I read up more on execution plans. I hope to run the profiler on the live server, but I'm a bit concerned about impact. I would like to ask - what is the best way to figure out what is triggering this problem? Has anyone else seen this same issue?

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• NVIDIA graphics driver in Ubuntu 12.04

  - by user924501

  So my overall goal is that I want to be able to code with CUDA enabled applications. However, upon many days of searching, using installation walkthroughs, and reinstalling countless times after driver failure... I'm now here as a last resort. I cannot get Ubuntu 12.04 LTS to install the NVIDIA 295.59 driver for my GeForce GT 540M NVIDIA graphics card. My main system specs is as follows... (I believe having the Intel processor may be the problem) DELL Laptop XPS L502X Intel® Core™ i7-2620M CPU @ 2.70GHz × 4 Intel Integrated Graphics 64 bit NVIDIA GeForce GT 540M Ubuntu 12.04 LTS All other specs are irrelevant unless I forgot something? Methods Tried: aptitude install nvidia-current (all packages) Results: Nothing really happened. Nothing in the additional drivers menu appeared, nor was the NVIDIA X Server settings application allowing access because it thought there was no NVIDIA X Server installed. Downloaded driver from nvidia.com. Set nomodeset in the grub boot menu through /boot/grub/grub.cfg Went to console and turned off lightdm. Installed the driver, but it said the pre-install failed? (mean anything?) Started up lightdm again. Results: NVIDIA X Server settings still didn't notice it. Even tried to do nvidia-xconfig multiple times. I also went into the config file to make sure the driver setting said "nvidia". aptitude install nvidia-173 (all packages) Results: Couldn't find the xorg-video-abi-10 virtual package. It was nowhere to be found and the ubuntu forums everywhere had no answers. Lots of people were having this problem. This is easily done in windows, simply download the driver and debug in visual studio with no problems at all. I'd like clear step-by-step instructions on how I should go about this. I'm relatively new to linux but I can find my way around pretty well so you aren't talking to a straight-up beginner. Also, if you think another thread may have the answer please post because I was having a hard time looking for my specific type of problem. TL;DR I want to have access to my GPU so I can code with CUDA while in Ubuntu 12.04 on my 64 bit laptop that also has Intel integrated graphics on the processor. Solution: sudo apt-add-repository ppa:ubuntu-x-swat/x-updates && sudo apt-get update && sudo apt-get upgrade && sudo apt-get install nvidia-current

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• "Use of uninitialised value" despite of memset

  - by Framester

  Hi there, I allocate a 2d array and use memset to fill it with zeros. #include<stdio.h> #include<string.h> #include<stdlib.h> void main() { int m=10; int n =10; int **array_2d; array_2d = (int**) malloc(m*sizeof(int*)); if(array_2d==NULL) { printf("\n Could not malloc 2d array \n"); exit(1); } for(int i=0;i<m;i++) { ((array_2d)[i])=malloc(n*sizeof(int)); memset(((array_2d)[i]),0,sizeof(n*sizeof(int))); } for(int i=0; i<10;i++){ for(int j=0; j<10;j++){ printf("(%i,%i)=",i,j); fflush(stdout); printf("%i ", array_2d[i][j]); } printf("\n"); } } Afterwards I use valgrind [1] to check for memory errors. I get following error: Conditional jump or move depends on uninitialised value(s) for line 24 (printf("%i ", array_2d[i][j]);). I always thought memset is the function to initialize arrays. How can I get rid off this error? Thanks! Valgrind output: ==3485== Memcheck, a memory error detector ==3485== Copyright (C) 2002-2009, and GNU GPL'd, by Julian Seward et al. ==3485== Using Valgrind-3.5.0-Debian and LibVEX; rerun with -h for copyright info ==3485== Command: ./a.out ==3485== (0,0)=0 (0,1)===3485== Use of uninitialised value of size 4 ==3485== at 0x409E186: _itoa_word (_itoa.c:195) ==3485== by 0x40A1AD1: vfprintf (vfprintf.c:1613) ==3485== by 0x40A8FFF: printf (printf.c:35) ==3485== by 0x8048724: main (playing_with_valgrind.c:39) ==3485== ==3485== ==3485== ---- Attach to debugger ? --- [Return/N/n/Y/y/C/c] ---- ==3485== Conditional jump or move depends on uninitialised value(s) ==3485== at 0x409E18E: _itoa_word (_itoa.c:195) ==3485== by 0x40A1AD1: vfprintf (vfprintf.c:1613) ==3485== by 0x40A8FFF: printf (printf.c:35) ==3485== by 0x8048724: main (playing_with_valgrind.c:39) [1] valgrind --tool=memcheck --leak-check=yes --show-reachable=yes --num-callers=20 --track-fds=yes --db-attach=yes ./a.out [gcc-cmd] gcc -std=c99 -lm -Wall -g3 playing_with_valgrind.c

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• Daemonize() issues on Debian

  - by djTeller

  Hi, I'm currently writing a multi-process client and a multi-treaded server for some project i have. The server is a Daemon. In order to accomplish that, i'm using the following daemonize() code: static void daemonize(void) { pid_t pid, sid; /* already a daemon */ if ( getppid() == 1 ) return; /* Fork off the parent process */ pid = fork(); if (pid < 0) { exit(EXIT_FAILURE); } /* If we got a good PID, then we can exit the parent process. */ if (pid > 0) { exit(EXIT_SUCCESS); } /* At this point we are executing as the child process */ /* Change the file mode mask */ umask(0); /* Create a new SID for the child process */ sid = setsid(); if (sid < 0) { exit(EXIT_FAILURE); } /* Change the current working directory. This prevents the current directory from being locked; hence not being able to remove it. */ if ((chdir("/")) < 0) { exit(EXIT_FAILURE); } /* Redirect standard files to /dev/null */ freopen( "/dev/null", "r", stdin); freopen( "/dev/null", "w", stdout); freopen( "/dev/null", "w", stderr); } int main( int argc, char *argv[] ) { daemonize(); /* Now we are a daemon -- do the work for which we were paid */ return 0; } I have a strange side effect when testing the server on Debian (Ubuntu). The accept() function always fail to accept connections, the pid returned is -1 I have no idea what causing this, since in RedHat & CentOS it works well. When i remove the call to daemonize(), everything works well on Debian, when i add it back, same accept() error reproduce. I've been monitring the /proc//fd, everything looks good. Something in the daemonize() and the Debian release just doesn't seem to work. (Debian GNU/Linux 5.0, Linux 2.6.26-2-286 #1 SMP) Any idea what causing this? Thank you

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• Facebook Connect from Localhost, doing some weird stuff

  - by Brett

  So maybe the documentation is out of date, or I am just off here. But I have done a slew of FB iframe apps (connect), but I am starting my first FB Connect site. Running it from localhost, and the Connect URL is http:// my_external_IP_address. When I click on the FB login button on my site, it pops up, says waiting for facebook, and it returns my site in that box, with the URL up top with the http:// mysite/?session={session key, user_id, etc.} The user_id is infact my FB id. And so it thinks I am logged in. If I close the popup, I'm not logged in. I'm not sure why the pop up isn't doing the normal fb connect dialog. I'm following these steps. (I added spaces to the http:// as to not be detected as 'spam') html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" xmlns:fb="http://www.facebook.com/2008/fbml" right after <body> <script src="http://static.ak.connect.facebook.com/js/api_lib/v0.4/FeatureLoader.js.php" type="text/javascript"> At the end, before the body close tag: script type="text/javascript"> FB.init("fbkey", "http://127.0.0.1/xd_receiver.htm"); I have tried using xd_receiver.htm, /xd_receiver.htm (and other combos), and that brings up a blank page. using the http://127.0.0.1 at least does something. In my config file, which is called before all of those, it checks for a PHP session key to see if they are logged in, if that doesn't exist it looks for a cookie, and if that doesn't exist it does this: require_once('includes/facebook.php'); $facebook = new Facebook($fbkey, $fbsec); $user_id = $facebook->get_loggedin_user(); if($user_id > 0){ $user = $ac->getUserFromFB($user_id); $_SESSION['user_id'] = $user['user_id']; } The user_id is always empty when I echo it out to the screen to test. The session event never occurs as well. So I don't know what it is doing in the popup, but I think Facebook thinks it is logging me in. Not sure. Pretty stumped on this one. Any help would be appreciated. Thanks!

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• MVC | Linq Update Query | Help!

  - by 109221793

  Hi guys, I'm making modifications to a C# MVC application that I've inherited. I have a database, and for simplicity I'll just focus on the two tables I'm working with for this linq query. Item ItemID Int PK ItemName RepairSelection (Yes or No) RepairID Int FK Repair RepairID Int PK RepairCategory SubmissionDate DateSentForRepair Ok, so ItemID is pretty much the identifier, and the View to display the Repair details goes like this (snippet): <%= Html.LabelFor(x => x.ItemID)%> <%= Html.DisplayFor(x => x.ItemID)%><br /> <%= Html.LabelFor(x => x.Repair.RepairCategory)%> <%= Html.DisplayFor(x => x.Repair.RepairCategory, "FormTextShort")%><br /> <%= Html.LabelFor(x => x.Repair.SubmissionDate)%> <%= Html.DisplayFor(x => x.Repair.SubmissionDate)%><br /> <%= Html.LabelFor(x => x.Repair.DateSentForRepair)%> <%= Html.DisplayFor(x => x.Repair.DateSentForRepair)%><br /> <%= Html.ActionLink("Edit Repair Details", "Edit", new { ItemID= Model.ItemID})%> Here is the GET Edit action: public ActionResult Edit(Int64? itemId) { ModelContainer ctn = new ModelContainer(); var item = from i in ctn.Items where i.ItemID == itemId select i; return View(item.First()); } This is also fine, the GET Edit view displays the right details. Where I'm stuck is the linq query to update the Repair table. I have tried it so many ways today that my head is just fried (new to Linq as you may have guessed). My latest try is here (which I know is way off so go easy ;-) ): [HttpPost] public ActionResult Edit(Int64 itemId, Repair repair, Item item, FormCollection formValues) { if (formValues["cancelButton"] != null) { return RedirectToAction("View", new { ItemID = itemId }); } ModelContainer ctn = new ModelContainer(); Repair existingData = ctn.Repair.First(a => a.RepairId == item.RepairID && item.ItemID == itemId); existingData.SentForConversion = DateTime.Parse(formValues["SentForConversion"]); ctn.SaveChanges(); return RedirectToAction("View", new { ItemID = itemId }); } For the above attempt I get a Sequence Contains No Elements error. Any help or pointers would be appreciated. Thanks guys.

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