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  • How to validate xml using a .dtd via a proxy and NOT using system.net.defaultproxy

    - by Lanceomagnifico
    Hi, Someone else has already asked a somewhat similar question: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/1888887/validate-an-xml-file-against-a-dtd-with-a-proxy-c-2-0/2766197#2766197 Here's my problem: We have a website application that needs to use both internal and external resources. We have a bunch of internal webservices. Requests to the CANNOT go through the proxy. If we try to, we get 404 errors since the proxy DNS doesn't know about our internal webservice domains. We generate a few xml files that have to be valid. I'd like to use the provided dtd documents to validate the xml. The dtd urls are outside our network and MUST go through the proxy. Is there any way to validate via dtd through a proxy without using system.net.defaultproxy? If we use defaultproxy, the internal webservices are busted, but the dtd validation works.# Here is what I'm doing to validate the xml right now: public static XDocument ValidateXmlUsingDtd(string xml) { var xrSettings = new XmlReaderSettings { ValidationType = ValidationType.DTD, ProhibitDtd = false }; var sr = new StringReader(xml.Trim()); XmlReader xRead = XmlReader.Create(sr, xrSettings); return XDocument.Load(xRead); } Ideally, there would be some way to assign a proxy to the XmlReader much like you can assign a proxy to the HttpWebRequest object. Or perhaps there is a way to programatically turn defaultproxy on or off? So that I can just turn it on for the call to Load the Xdocument, then turn it off again? FYI - I'm open to ideas on how to tackle this - note that the proxy is located in another domain, and they don't want to have to set up a dns lookup to our dns server for our internal webservice addresses. Cheers, Lance

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  • Eclipse buildtime and runtime classpaths for easy execution of junit test cases

    - by emeraldjava
    Hey, I've a large eclipse project with multiple junit classes. I'm trying to strike a balance between adding runtime resources to the eclipse project classpath, and the need to configure mutliple junit launch configurations. I realise the default eclipse build classpath is inherited by all unit test configurations, but some of my tests require extra runtime resources. I could add these resources to the build classpath, but this does slow my overall project build time (since it has to keep more files in synch). I don't like the idea of including * resources and jars on the runtime classpath. The two options that i have are these, the positive and negative cases as i see it are listed 1 : Add all runtime resources to eclipse classpath. POS I can select a unit test and run it without having to configure the test classpath. POS Extra resources on build classpath means eclipse slows down. NEG More difficult to ensure each test uses the correct resources. 2 : Configure the classpath of each unit test POS I know exactly what resources are being used by a test. POS Smaller build classpath means quicker build and execution by eclipse. NEG Its a pain having to setup multiple separate junit runtime classpaths. Ideally i'd like to configure one base junit runtime configuration, which takes the default eclipse build classpath, adds extra runtime jars and resources. This configuration could then be reused by the specific junit test cases, Is anything like this possible? Looking at a specific junit launch configuration which can be exported to a share project file <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8" standalone="no"?> <launchConfiguration type="org.eclipse.jdt.junit.launchconfig"> <stringAttribute key="bad_container_name" value="/CR-3089_5_1_branch."/> <listAttribute key="org.eclipse.debug.core.MAPPED_RESOURCE_PATHS"> <listEntry value="/CR-3089_5_1_branch/src/com/x/y/z/ParserJUnitTest.java"/> </listAttribute> <listAttribute key="org.eclipse.debug.core.MAPPED_RESOURCE_TYPES"> <listEntry value="1"/> </listAttribute> <stringAttribute key="org.eclipse.jdt.junit.CONTAINER" value=""/> <booleanAttribute key="org.eclipse.jdt.junit.KEEPRUNNING_ATTR" value="false"/> <stringAttribute key="org.eclipse.jdt.junit.TESTNAME" value=""/> <stringAttribute key="org.eclipse.jdt.junit.TEST_KIND" value="org.eclipse.jdt.junit.loader.junit4"/> <stringAttribute key="org.eclipse.jdt.launching.MAIN_TYPE" value="com.x.y.z.ParserJUnitTest"/> <stringAttribute key="org.eclipse.jdt.launching.PROJECT_ATTR" value="CR-3089_5_1_branch"/> </launchConfiguration> is it possible to extend/reuse this configuration, and parameterise the 'org.eclipse.jdt.launching.MAIN_TYPE' value? I'm aware of the commons launch and jar manifest file solutions to configuring the classpath, but they both seem to assume that an ant build is run before the test can execute. I want to avoid any eclipse dependency on calling an ant target when refactoting code and executing tests. Basically - What is the the easiest way to seperate and maintain the eclipse buildtime classpath and junit runtime classpaths?

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  • How do I use jquery validate remote validation on a field that depends on another field in the form?

    - by Kevin J
    I have a form in which I am using remote validation to check if an email address already exists in the database. However, the catch is that on this form, the user can select between several different "groups", and each group has its own distinct set of email addresses (thus the same email can exist once in each group). The group selection is a dropdown on the form, and the email address is an input field with remote validation. I have a couple issues. First, I have set up my remote rule like this: remote: { url: 'remote_script.php', data: { group_id: $('select.group_id').val() } } However, this seems to statically set the group_id parameter to whatever the first value in the select is. Meaning, if I change the select, then trigger the remote validation again, the group_id parameter does not change First, how can I make this parameter dynamic, depending on the value of a select in the form? Secondly, how do I manually trigger the remote validation on the email address field? When the group_id select is changed, I want to re-trigger the remote validation on the email address field (without changing the value of the field). I tried using $(selector).validate().element('.email_addr') But this appears to only trigger the standard validation (required, email), and not the remote call.

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  • ADO.NET (WCF) Data Services Query Interceptor Hangs IIS

    - by PreMagination
    I have an ADO.NET Data Service that's supposed to provide read-only access to a somewhat complex database. Logically I have table-per-type (TPT) inheritance in my data model but the EDM doesn't implement inheritance. (Limitation of EF and navigation properties on derived types. STILL not fixed in EF4!) I can query my EDM directly (using a separate project) using a copy of the query I'm trying to run against the web service, results are returned within 10 seconds. Disabling the query interceptors I'm able to make the same query against the web service, results are returned similarly quickly. I can enable some of the query interceptors and the results are returned slowly, up to a minute or so later. Alternatively, I can enable all the query interceptors, expand less of the properties on the main object I'm querying, and results are returned in a similar period of time. (I've increased some of the timeout periods) Up til this point Sql Profiler indicates the slow-down is the database. (That's a post for a different day) But when I enable all my query interceptors and expand all the properties I'd like to have the IIS worker process pegs the CPU for 20 minutes and a query is never even made against the database. This implies to me that yes, my implementation probably sucks but regardless the Data Services "tier" is having an issue it shouldn't. WCF tracing didn't reveal anything interesting to my untrained eye. Details: Data model: Agent-Person-Student Student has a collection of referrals Students and referrals are private, queries against the web service should only return "your" students and referrals. This means Person and Agent need to be filtered too. Other entities (Agent-Organization-School) can be accessed by anyone who has authenticated. The existing security model is poorly suited to perform this type of filtering for this type of data access, the query interceptors are complicated and cause EF to generate some entertaining sql queries. Sample Interceptor [QueryInterceptor("Agents")] public Expression<Func<Agent, Boolean>> OnQueryAgents() { //Agent is a Person(1), Educator(2), Student(3), or Other Person(13); allow if scope permissions exist return ag => (ag.AgentType.AgentTypeId == 1 || ag.AgentType.AgentTypeId == 2 || ag.AgentType.AgentTypeId == 3 || ag.AgentType.AgentTypeId == 13) && ag.Person.OrganizationPersons.Count<OrganizationPerson>(op => op.Organization.ScopePermissions.Any<ScopePermission> (p => p.ApplicationRoleAccount.Account.UserName == HttpContext.Current.User.Identity.Name && p.ApplicationRoleAccount.Application.ApplicationId == 124) || op.Organization.HierarchyDescendents.Any<OrganizationsHierarchy>(oh => oh.AncestorOrganization.ScopePermissions.Any<ScopePermission> (p => p.ApplicationRoleAccount.Account.UserName == HttpContext.Current.User.Identity.Name && p.ApplicationRoleAccount.Application.ApplicationId == 124))) > 0; } The query interceptors for Person, Student, Referral are all very similar, ie they traverse multiple same/similar tables to look for ScopePermissions as above. Sample Query var referrals = (from r in service.Referrals .Expand("Organization/ParentOrganization") .Expand("Educator/Person/Agent") .Expand("Student/Person/Agent") .Expand("Student") .Expand("Grade") .Expand("ProblemBehavior") .Expand("Location") .Expand("Motivation") .Expand("AdminDecision") .Expand("OthersInvolved") where r.DateCreated >= coupledays && r.DateDeleted == null select r); Any suggestions or tips would be greatly associated, for fixing my current implementation or in developing a new one, with the caveat that the database can't be changed and that ultimately I need to expose a large portion of the database via a web service that limits data access to the data authorized for, for the purpose of data integration with multiple outside parties. THANK YOU!!!

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  • Binding property to Silverlight dependency property independent of DataContext

    - by Simon_Weaver
    I'm trying to make an Address control that has an IsReadOnly property, which will make every TextBox inside read only when set to true. <my:AddressControl Grid.Column="1" Margin="5" IsReadOnly="True"/> I've managed to do this just fine with a dependency property and it works. Here's a simple class with the dependency property declared : public partial class AddressControl : UserControl { public AddressControl() { InitializeComponent(); this.DataContext = this; } public static readonly DependencyProperty IsReadOnlyProperty = DependencyProperty.Register("IsReadOnly", typeof(bool), typeof(AddressControl), null); public bool IsReadOnly { get { return (bool)GetValue(IsReadOnlyProperty); } set { SetValue(IsReadOnlyProperty, value); } } } In the XAML for this codebehind file I have a Textbox for each address line: <TextBox IsReadOnly="{Binding IsReadOnly}" Text="{Binding City, Mode=TwoWay}"/> <TextBox IsReadOnly="{Binding IsReadOnly}" Text="{Binding State, Mode=TwoWay}"/> <TextBox IsReadOnly="{Binding IsReadOnly}" Text="{Binding Zip, Mode=TwoWay}"/> Like i said this works just fine. The problem is that the Address control itself is bound to its parent object (I have several addresses I am binding). <my:AddressControl DataContext="{Binding ShippingAddress, Mode=TwoWay}" IsReadOnly="True"> <my:AddressControl DataContext="{Binding BillingAddress, Mode=TwoWay}" IsReadOnly="True"> The problem is that as soon as I set DataContext to something other than 'this' then the binding for IsReadOnly breaks. Not surprising because its looking for IsReadOnly on the Address data entity and it doesn't exist or belong there. I've tried just about every combination of binding attributes to get IsReadOnly to bind to the AddressControl obejct but can't get it working. I've tried things like this, but I can't get IsReadOnly to bind independently to the AddressControl property instead of its DataContext. <TextBox IsReadOnly="{Binding RelativeSource={RelativeSource Self}, Path=IsReadOnlyProperty}" Text="{Binding City, Mode=TwoWay}" /> I think I'm pretty close. What am I doing wrong?

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  • Best practise to send mass email within application (ASP.NET MVC 2, C#)?

    - by gurdan
    Whats the best way to implement mass email sending feature within web app? Two major cases: Email messages for separate registered users depending on their activities (just sending short reminders to user for ex about new posts in his created topic) "Send email for all registered users" functionality, it will be nice to have feature for system administrator to send some messages for all registered users. Of course adding all emails to recipient isn't the way we can go, because email addresses for each user are anonimous. As i understand for case nr1 there is no problem just create some email message via System.Net.Mail by creating new mail message and sending it... but what about case nr 2??? i guess smth like this: foreach(var emailAddress in emailAddresses) { MailMessage mail = new MailMessage(); mail.From = new MailAddress("[email protected]"); mail.To.Add(emailAddress); mail.Subject = "test"; mail.Body = "test"; SmtpClient smtp = new SmtpClient("smtp.gmail.com", 587); smtp.Send(mail); } isn't the good way :) so the question is what is the best way to achieve this ? btw we have no possiblity to deploy some serive for email sending, this should be integrated into web application.

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  • Integrate Google Maps API into an iPhone app

    - by Corey Floyd
    Update: iPhone SDk 3.0 now addresses the question here, however the NDA prevents any in depth discussion. Log in to the iPhone Dev Center if you need more info. Ok, I have to admit I'm a little lost here. I am fairly comfortable with Cocoa, but am having trouble picking up the bit of javascript needed to solve this problem. I am trying to send a request to Google for a reverse geo code. I have looked over the Google documentation I have viewed here: http://code.google.com/apis/maps/documentation/index.html http://code.google.com/apis/maps/documentation/geocoding/ Even after a rough reading, I am missing a basic concept: How do I talk to google? In some examples, they show a url being sent to google (which seems easy enough), but in others they show javascript. It seems for reverse geocoding, the request might be be harder than sending the url with some parameters (but I hope I am wrong). Can someone point me to the correct way to make a request? (In objective-C, so I can wrap my head around it)

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  • Parsing HTML using HtmlParser

    - by Blankman
    My html has 20 or so rows of the following HTML pattern. So the below is considered a single instance of the pattern. Each instance of this pattern represents a product. Again the below is a single instance, it spans multiple rows in the HTML table. <table> .. <!-- product starts here, this html comment is not in the real html --> <tr> <td rowspan="5" class="product" valign="top"><nobr> ????????????</td> </tr> <tr> <td class="title" ??????????>?????????</td> <td class="title" ??????????>?????????</td> <td class="title" ??????????>?????????</td> <td class="title" ??????????>?????????</td> <td class="title" ??????????>?????????</td> <td class="title" ??????????>?????????</td> </tr> <tr> <td class="data" ?????? </td> <td class="data" ?????? </td> <td class="data" ?????? </td> <td class="data" ?????? </td> <td class="data" ?????? </td> <td class="data" ?????? </td> </tr> </tr> <tr> <td colspan="5" ????????</td> </tr> <tr> <td colspan="6" width="100%">&nbsp;<hr></td> </tr> <!-- product ends here, this html comment is not in the real html --> <!-- above pattern repeats multiple times in the HTML --> .. <table> I am trying to use HtmlParser for this. Parser rowParser = new Parser(); rowParser.setInputHtml(page.getHtml()); // page object represents a html page rowParser.setEncoding("UTF-8"); NodeFilter productRowFilter = new AndFilter( new TagNameFilter("tr"), new HasChildFilter( new AndFilter( new TagNameFilter("td"), new HasAttributeFilter("class", "product"))) The above filter doesn't work, just showing you what I have so far. I need to somehow combine these filters, and use the last td to mark the end of the pattern i.e. the td with the colspan=6 and width=100% with child element hr. I have been struggling with this, and have resorted to Regex'ing but was told numerous times to NOT use regex for html parsing, so here I am! Your help is much appreciated!

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  • Entity Framework many-to-many using VB.Net Lambda

    - by bgs264
    Hello, I'm a newbie to StackOverflow so please be kind ;) I'm using Entity Framework in Visual Studio 2010 Beta 2 (.NET framework 4.0 Beta 2). I have created an entity framework .edmx model from my database and I have a handful of many-to-many relationships. A trivial example of my database schema is Roles (ID, Name, Active) Members (ID, DateOfBirth, DateCreated) RoleMembership(RoleID, MemberID) I am now writing the custom role provider (Inheriting System.Configuration.Provider.RoleProvider) and have come to write the implementation of IsUserInRole(username, roleName). The LINQ-to-Entity queries which I wrote, when SQL-Profiled, all produced CROSS JOIN statements when what I want is for them to INNER JOIN. Dim query = From m In dc.Members From r In dc.Roles Where m.ID = 100 And r.Name = "Member" Select m My problem is almost exactly described here: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/553918/entity-framework-and-many-to-many-queries-unusable I'm sure that the solution presented there works well, but whilst I studied Java at uni and I can mostly understand C# I cannot understand this Lambda syntax provided and I need to get a similar example in VB. I've looked around the web for the best part of half a day but I'm not closer to my answer. So please can somebody advise how, in VB, I can construct a LINQ statement which would do this equivalent in SQL: SELECT rm.RoleID FROM RoleMembership rm INNER JOIN Roles r ON r.ID = rm.RoleID INNER JOIN Members m ON m.ID = rm.MemberID WHERE r.Name = 'Member' AND m.ID = 101 I would use this query to see if Member 101 is in Role 3. (I appreciate I probably don't need the join to the Members table in SQL but I imagine in LINQ I'd need to bring in the Member object?) UPDATE: I'm a bit closer by using multiple methods: Protected Sub Page_Load(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles Me.Load Dim count As Integer Using dc As New CBLModel.CBLEntities Dim persons = dc.Members.Where(AddressOf myTest) count = persons.Count End Using System.Diagnostics.Debugger.Break() End Sub Function myTest(ByVal m As Member) As Boolean Return m.ID = "100" AndAlso m.Roles.Select(AddressOf myRoleTest).Count > 0 End Function Function myRoleTest(ByVal r As Role) As Boolean Return r.Name = "Member" End Function SQL Profiler shows this: SQL:BatchStarting SELECT [Extent1].[ID] AS [ID], ... (all columns from Members snipped for brevity) ... FROM [dbo].[Members] AS [Extent1] RPC:Completed exec sp_executesql N'SELECT [Extent2].[ID] AS [ID], [Extent2].[Name] AS [Name], [Extent2].[Active] AS [Active] FROM [dbo].[RoleMembership] AS [Extent1] INNER JOIN [dbo].[Roles] AS [Extent2] ON [Extent1].[RoleID] = [Extent2].[ID] WHERE [Extent1].[MemberID] = @EntityKeyValue1',N'@EntityKeyValue1 int',@EntityKeyValue1=100 SQL:BatchCompleted SELECT [Extent1].[ID] AS [ID], ... (all columns from Members snipped for brevity) ... FROM [dbo].[Members] AS [Extent1] I'm not certain why it is using sp_execsql for the inner join statement and why it's still running a select to select ALL members though. Thanks. UPDATE 2 I've written it by turning the above "multiple methods" into lambda expressions then all into one query, like this: Dim allIDs As String = String.Empty Using dc As New CBLModel.CBLEntities For Each retM In dc.Members.Where(Function(m As Member) m.ID = 100 AndAlso m.Roles.Select(Function(r As Role) r.Name = "Doctor").Count > 0) allIDs &= retM.ID.ToString & ";" Next End Using But it doesn't seem to work: "Doctor" is not a role that exists, I just put it in there for testing purposes, yet "allIDs" still gets set to "100;" The SQL in SQL Profiler this time looks like this: SELECT [Project1].* FROM ( SELECT [Extent1].*, (SELECT COUNT(1) AS [A1] FROM [dbo].[RoleMembership] AS [Extent2] WHERE [Extent1].[ID] = [Extent2].[MemberID]) AS [C1] FROM [dbo].[Members] AS [Extent1] ) AS [Project1] WHERE (100 = [Project1].[ID]) AND ([Project1].[C1] > 0) For brevity I turned the list of all the columns from the Members table into * As you can see it's just ignoring the "Role" query... :/

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  • Issues Connecting to SQLExpress using Oracle SQL Developer

    - by ArtDeveloper
    Hey Guys, I'm trying to create a connection inside Oracle SQL Developer to a SQLExpress database I have Everything I have resides on the same machine so there isn't any network issues I should have to deal with but everytime I follow the instructions and I try to connect I get the following message "Failure - Unable to get information from SQL Server: localhost." I can connect to the SQLExpress DB using the SQL Management Studio and through an ODBC connection. I've installed the third party extensions and I've enabled the TCP protocol on the SQL Server Configuration manager as well as enabled the IP Addresses I'm assuming that the SQLExpress Database is on port 1433 because I didn't change this when I installed but if someone can tell me how to double check that I would appreciate that info as well. I setup the new connection with the following information name: databasename I'm using windows authentication so the username and password aren't filled in host:localhost port:1433/databasename;instance=SQLEXPRESS *databasename - this is replaced with the actual DB name I've just changed the name here to protect the innocent I've spent about a full day on this trying to get it connected and many google attempts where other ppl have had this issue but have gotten it solved through various methods that I've tried and it hasn't resolved my issue. Any information would be much appreciated Thank you in Advance, AD

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  • jquery ajax call from link loaded with ajax

    - by Jay
    //deep linking $("document").ready(function(){ contM = $('#main-content'); contS = $('#second-content'); $(contM).hide(); $(contM).addClass('hidden'); $(contS).hide(); $(contS).addClass('hidden'); function loadURL(URL) { //console.log("loadURL: " + URL); $.ajax({ url: URL, type: "POST", dataType: 'html', data: {post_loader: 1}, success: function(data){ $(contM).html(data); $(contM).animW(); } }); } // Event handlers $.address.init(function(event) { //console.log("init: " + $('[rel=address:' + event.value + ']').attr('href')); }).change(function(event) { $.ajax({ url: $('[rel=address:' + event.value + ']').attr('href'), type: "POST", dataType: 'html', data: {post_loader: 1}, success: function(data){ $(contM).html(data); $(contM).animW(); }}); //console.log("change"); }) $('.update-main a').live('click', function(){ loadURL($(this).attr('href')); }); $(".update-second a").live('click', function() { var link = $(this); $.ajax({ url: link.attr("href"), dataType: 'html', data: {post_loader: 1}, success: function(data){ $(contS).html(data); $(contS).animW(); }}); }); }); I'm using jquery and the 'addresses' plugin to load content with ajax and maintain pagination. The problem I'm having is some content loads with links which are intended to load content into a secondary window. I'm using the .live() method to allow jquery to listen for new links loaded into the primary content div. This works until the .ajax() method is called for these fresh links loaded with ajax, where the method begins, but follows the original link before data can be received. I'm assuming the problem is in the client-side scripting, but it may be a problem with the call made to the server. I'm using the wordpress loop to parse the url and generate the html loaded via jquery. Thanks for any tips!

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  • Report Model; problem regarding many-to-many relations

    - by Koen
    I'm having trouble setting up a report model to create reports with report builder. I guess I'm doing something wrong when configuring the report model, but it might also due to change of primary entity in report builder. I have 3 tables: Client, Address and Product. The Client has PK ClientNumber. The Address and Product both have a FK relation on ClientNumber. The relation between Client and Address is 1-to-many and also between Client and Product: Product-(many:1)-Client-(1:many)-Address. I've created a report model (mostly auto generate) with these 3 tables, for each table I've made an Entity. Now on the Client Entity , I've got 2 roles, Address and Product. They both have a cardinality of 'OptionalMany', because Client can have multiple Addresses or Products. On both Address and Product I have a Client Role with cardinality 'One', because for each Address or Product, there has to be a Client (tried OptionalOne as well...). Now I'm trying to create a report in Report Builder (2.0) where I select fields from these three entities. I'd like an overview of Clients with their main address and their products, but I don't seem to be able to create a report with fields from both Address and Products in it. I start by selecting attributes from Client, and as soon as I add Product for example the Primary entity changes as if I'm selecting Products (instead of Clients). This is a basic example of a problem I'm facing in a much more complex model. I've tried lots of different things for 2 days, but I can't get it to work. Does anyone have an idea how to cope with this? (Using SSRS 2008)

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  • Error while dynamically loading mapi32.dll

    - by The_Fox
    Our application uses Simple MAPI to send e-mails. One of our clients has problems sending e-mail from a session on his terminal server. The mapi32.dll is loaded with a call to LoadLibrary which succeeds, but then our application tries to get the addresses of the functions MAPILogon, MAPILogOff, MAPISendMail, MAPIFreeBuffer and MAPIResolveName. The problem is that GetProcAddress fails for those functions with an ERROR_ACCESS_DENIED (code: 5) except for MAPIFreeBuffer. It looks like some sort of security thing. How can I fix this or should I use another method to send mail? FWI, here some more information about OS and contents of registry key HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SOFTWARE\Microsoft\Windows Messaging Subsystem: OS info: 5.2.3790 VER_PLATFORM_WIN32_NT Service Pack 2 Contents of SOFTWARE\Microsoft\Windows Messaging Subsystem InstallCmd: rundll32 setupapi,InstallHinfSection MSMAIL 132 msmail.inf MAPI: 1 CMCDLLNAME: mapi.dll CMCDLLNAME32: mapi32.dll CMC: 1 MAPIX: 1 MAPIXVER: 1.0.0.1 OLEMessaging: 1 Contents of SOFTWARE\Microsoft\Windows Messaging Subsystem\MSMapiApps inetsw95.exe: choosusr.dll: msab32.dll: nwab32.dll: outstore.dll: Microsoft Outlook CDOEXM.DLL: EMSMDB32.DLL: EMSABP32.DLL: newprof.exe: Microsoft Outlook outlook.exe: wfxmsrvr.exe: Microsoft Outlook msexcimc.exe: exchng32.exe: schdmapi.dll: Microsoft Outlook pilotcfg.exe: Microsoft Outlook mailmig.exe: Microsoft Outlook admin.exe: msspc32.dll: Microsoft Outlook cnfnot32.exe: Microsoft Outlook ilpilot.exe: Microsoft Outlook events.exe: I'm on Delphi 7.0, but that shouldn't matter. Edit, added version information: Fileversion info of C:\WINDOWS\system32\mapi32.dll Fileversion: 6.5.7226.0 FileDescription=Extended MAPI 1.0 for Windows NT CompanyName=Microsoft Corporation InternalName=MAPI32 Comments=Service Pack 1 LegalCopyRight=Copyright (C) 1986-2003 Microsoft Corp. All rights reserved. LegalTradeMarks=Microsoft(R) and Windows(R) are registered trademarks of Microsoft Corporation. OriginalFileName=MAPI32.DLL ProductName=Microsoft Exchange ProductVersion=6.5 Fileversion info of C:\Program Files\Common Files\SYSTEM\MSMAPI\1043\msmapi32.dll Fileversion: 11.0.5601.0 FileDescription=Extended MAPI 1.0 for Windows NT CompanyName=Microsoft Corporation InternalName=MAPI32.DLL LegalCopyRight=Copyright © 1995-2003 Microsoft Corporation. All rights reserved. OriginalFileName=MAPI32.DLL ProductName=MAPI32 ProductVersion=11.0.5601

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  • Deploying software on compromised machines

    - by Martin
    I've been involved in a discussion about how to build internet voting software for a general election. We've reached a general consensus that there exist plenty of secure methods for two way authentication and communication. However, someone came along and pointed out that in a general election some of the machines being used are almost certainly going to be compromised. To quote: Let me be an evil electoral fraudster. I want to sample peoples votes as they vote and hope I get something scandalous. I hire a bot-net from some really shady dudes who control 1000 compromised machines in the UK just for election day. I capture the voting habits of 1000 voters on election day. I notice 5 of them have voted BNP. I look these users up and check out their machines, I look through their documents on their machine and find out their names and addresses. I find out one of them is the wife of a tory MP. I leak 'wife of tory mp is a fascist!' to some blogger I know. It hits the internet and goes viral, swings an election. That's a serious problem! So, what are the best techniques for running software where user interactions with the software must be kept secret, on a machine which is possibly compromised?

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  • What is the reason of "Transaction context in use by another session"

    - by Shrike
    Hi, I'm looking for a description of the root of this error: "Transaction context in use by another session". I get it sometimes in one of my unittests so I can't provider repro code. But I wonder what is "by design" reason for the error. I've found this post: http://blogs.msdn.com/asiatech/archive/2009/08/10/system-transaction-may-fail-in-multiple-thread-environment.aspx and also that: http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ff649002.aspx But I can't understand what "Multiple threads sharing the same transaction in a transaction scope will cause the following exception: 'Transaction context in use by another session.' " means. All words are understandable but not the point. I actually can share a system transaction between threads. And there is even special mechanism for this - DependentTransaction class and Transaction.DependentClone method. I'm trying to reproduce a usecase from the first post: 1. Main thread creates DTC transaction, receives DependentTransaction (created using Transaction.Current.DependentClone on the main thread 2. Child thread 1 enlists in this DTC transaction by creating a transaction scope based on the dependent transaction (passed via constructor) 3. Child thread 1 opens a connection 4. Child thread 2 enlists in DTC transaction by creating a transaction scope based on the dependent transaction (passed via constructor) 5. Child thread 2 opens a connection with such code: using System; using System.Threading; using System.Transactions; using System.Data; using System.Data.SqlClient; public class Program { private static string ConnectionString = "Initial Catalog=DB;Data Source=.;User ID=user;PWD=pwd;"; public static void Main() { int MAX = 100; for(int i =0; i< MAX;i++) { using(var ctx = new TransactionScope()) { var tx = Transaction.Current; // make the transaction distributed using (SqlConnection con1 = new SqlConnection(ConnectionString)) using (SqlConnection con2 = new SqlConnection(ConnectionString)) { con1.Open(); con2.Open(); } showSysTranStatus(); DependentTransaction dtx = Transaction.Current.DependentClone(DependentCloneOption.BlockCommitUntilComplete); Thread t1 = new Thread(o => workCallback(dtx)); Thread t2 = new Thread(o => workCallback(dtx)); t1.Start(); t2.Start(); t1.Join(); t2.Join(); ctx.Complete(); } trace("root transaction completes"); } } private static void workCallback(DependentTransaction dtx) { using(var txScope1 = new TransactionScope(dtx)) { using (SqlConnection con2 = new SqlConnection(ConnectionString)) { con2.Open(); trace("connection opened"); showDbTranStatus(con2); } txScope1.Complete(); } trace("dependant tran completes"); } private static void trace(string msg) { Console.WriteLine(Thread.CurrentThread.ManagedThreadId + " : " + msg); } private static void showSysTranStatus() { string msg; if (Transaction.Current != null) msg = Transaction.Current.TransactionInformation.DistributedIdentifier.ToString(); else msg = "no sys tran"; trace( msg ); } private static void showDbTranStatus(SqlConnection con) { var cmd = con.CreateCommand(); cmd.CommandText = "SELECT 1"; var c = cmd.ExecuteScalar(); trace("@@TRANCOUNT = " + c); } } It fails on Complete's call of root TransactionScope. But error is different: Unhandled Exception: System.Transactions.TransactionInDoubtException: The transaction is in doubt. --- pired. The timeout period elapsed prior to completion of the operation or the server is not responding. To sum up: I want to understand what "Transaction context in use by another session" means and how to reproduce it.

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  • Join 2 children tables with a parent tables without duplicated

    - by user1847866
    Problem I have 3 tables: People, Phones and Emails. Each person has an UNIQUE ID, and each person can have multiple numbers or multiple emails. Simplified it looks like this: +---------+----------+ | ID | Name | +---------+----------+ | 5000003 | Amy | | 5000004 | George | | 5000005 | John | | 5000008 | Steven | | 8000009 | Ashley | +---------+----------+ +---------+-----------------+ | ID | Number | +---------+-----------------+ | 5000005 | 5551234 | | 5000005 | 5154324 | | 5000008 | 2487312 | | 8000009 | 7134584 | | 5000008 | 8451384 | +---------+-----------------+ +---------+------------------------------+ | ID | Email | +---------+------------------------------+ | 5000005 | [email protected] | | 5000005 | [email protected] | | 5000008 | [email protected] | | 5000008 | [email protected] | | 5000008 | [email protected] | | 8000009 | [email protected] | | 5000004 | [email protected] | +---------+------------------------------+ I am trying to joining them together without duplicates. It works great, when I try to join only Emails with People or only Phones with People. SELECT People.Name, People.ID, Phones.Number FROM People LEFT OUTER JOIN Phones ON People.ID=Phones.ID ORDER BY Name, ID, Number; +----------+---------+-----------------+ | Name | ID | Number | +----------+---------+-----------------+ | Steven | 5000008 | 8451384 | | Steven | 5000008 | 24887312 | | John | 5000005 | 5551234 | | John | 5000005 | 5154324 | | George | 5000004 | NULL | | Ashley | 8000009 | 7134584 | | Amy | 5000003 | NULL | +----------+---------+-----------------+ SELECT People.Name, People.ID, Emails.Email FROM People LEFT OUTER JOIN Emails ON People.ID=Emails.ID ORDER BY Name, ID, Email; +----------+---------+------------------------------+ | Name | ID | Email | +----------+---------+------------------------------+ | Steven | 5000008 | [email protected] | | Steven | 5000008 | [email protected] | | Steven | 5000008 | [email protected] | | John | 5000005 | [email protected] | | John | 5000005 | [email protected] | | George | 5000004 | [email protected] | | Ashley | 8000009 | [email protected] | | Amy | 5000003 | NULL | +----------+---------+------------------------------+ However, when I try to join Emails and Phones on People - I get this: SELECT People.Name, People.ID, Phones.Number, Emails.Email FROM People LEFT OUTER JOIN Phones ON People.ID = Phones.ID LEFT OUTER JOIN Emails ON People.ID = Emails.ID ORDER BY Name, ID, Number, Email; +----------+---------+-----------------+------------------------------+ | Name | ID | Number | Email | +----------+---------+-----------------+------------------------------+ | Steven | 5000008 | 8451384 | [email protected] | | Steven | 5000008 | 8451384 | [email protected] | | Steven | 5000008 | 8451384 | [email protected] | | Steven | 5000008 | 24887312 | [email protected] | | Steven | 5000008 | 24887312 | [email protected] | | Steven | 5000008 | 24887312 | [email protected] | | John | 5000005 | 5551234 | [email protected] | | John | 5000005 | 5551234 | [email protected] | | John | 5000005 | 5154324 | [email protected] | | John | 5000005 | 5154324 | [email protected] | | George | 5000004 | NULL | [email protected] | | Ashley | 8000009 | 7134584 | [email protected] | | Amy | 5000003 | NULL | NULL | +----------+---------+-----------------+------------------------------+ What happens is - if a Person has 2 numbers, all his emails are shown twice (They can not be sorted! which means they can not be removed by @last) What I want: Bottom line, playing with the @last, I want to end up with somethig like this, but @last won't work if I don't arrange ORDER columns in the righ way - and this seems like a big problem..Orderin the email column. Because seen from the example above: Steven has 2 phone number and 3 emails. The JOIN Emails with Numbers happens with each email - thus duplicated values that can not be sorted (SORT BY does not work on them). **THIS IS WHAT I WANT** +----------+---------+-----------------+------------------------------+ | Name | ID | Number | Email | +----------+---------+-----------------+------------------------------+ | Steven | 5000008 | 8451384 | [email protected] | | | | 24887312 | [email protected] | | | | | [email protected] | | John | 5000005 | 5551234 | [email protected] | | | | 5154324 | [email protected] | | George | 5000004 | NULL | [email protected] | | Ashley | 8000009 | 7134584 | [email protected] | | Amy | 5000003 | NULL | NULL | +----------+---------+-----------------+------------------------------+ Now I'm told that it's best to keep emails and number in separated tables because one can have many emails. So if it's such a common thing to do, what isn't there a simple solution? I'd be happy with a PHP Solution aswell. What I know how to do by now that satisfies it, but is not as pretty. If I do it with GROUP_CONTACT I geat a satisfactory result, but it doesn't look as pretty: I can't put a "Email type = work" next to it. SELECT People.Ime, GROUP_CONCAT(DISTINCT Phones.Number), GROUP_CONCAT(DISTINCT Emails.Email) FROM People LEFT OUTER JOIN Phones ON People.ID=Phones.ID LEFT OUTER JOIN Emails ON People.ID=Emails.ID GROUP BY Name; +----------+----------------------------------------------+---------------------------------------------------------------------+ | Name | GROUP_CONCAT(DISTINCT Phones.Number) | GROUP_CONCAT(DISTINCT Emails.Email) | +----------+----------------------------------------------+---------------------------------------------------------------------+ | Steven | 8451384,24887312 | [email protected],[email protected],[email protected] | | John | 5551234,5154324 | [email protected],[email protected] | | George | NULL | [email protected] | | Ashley | 7134584 | [email protected] | | Amy | NULL | NULL | +----------+----------------------------------------------+---------------------------------------------------------------------+

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  • Invoice & Invoice lines: How do you store customer address information?

    - by elviejo
    Hi I'm developing an invoicing application. So the general idea is to have two tables: Invoice (ID, Date, CustomerAddress, CustomerState, CustomerCountry, VAT, Total); InvoiceLine (Invoice_ID, ID, Concept, Units, PricePerUnit, Total); As you can see this basic design leads to a lot of repetiton of records where the client will have the same addrres, state and country. So the alternative is to have an address table and then make a relationship Address<-Invoice. However I think that an invoice is immutable document and should be stored just the way it was first made. Sometimes customers change their addresses, or states and if it was coming from an Address catalog that will change all the previously made invoices. So What is your experience? How is the customer address stored in an invoice? In the Invoice table? an Address Table? or something else? Can you provide pointers to a book, article or document where this is discussed in further detail?

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  • Copy Selective Data from Database to Invoice, Based on Certain Criteria

    - by Scott
    For starters, here is an example of a microsoft excel database I am working with: Month/Address/Name/Description/Amount January/123 Street/Fred/Painting/100 January/456 Avenue/Scott/Flooring/400 January/789 Road/Scott/Plumbing/100 February/123 Street/Fred/Flooring/600 February/246 Lane/Fred/Electrical/300 March/789 Road/Scott/Drywall/150 What I want to be able to do is selectively copy info from this databse to invoices (also excel). The invoice has three columns: Address/Description/Amount. I want to be able to automatically fill the invoices in as the database is filled in (either automatically, or if I have to actually manually run the macro to do it, that might be fine). Each name (Scott, Fred, etc.) will have their own set of 12 invoices for the year. So, e.g., I want to be able to produce a January invoice for all work done for Scott in January, showing the address, the description and the amount, line by line. So every time work on Scott's address(es) is done, the database is filled in, and i want it to "send" that information to the invoice on the next available line, filling in only the Address/Description/Amount columns from the database. Fred's invoice should fill in as any work is done on Fred's addresses. And once the month changes, the next invoice should start filling in. So first I need to filter the data by the month and the name (and there is actually one more column to filter by, but let's keep this example simpler). Then I need to list the remaining data on the invoice, but only certain cells from the rows that are now left. Help anyone?

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  • Incoming connections from 2 different Internet connections

    - by RJClinton
    I am hosting a Gameserver on my Windows 2003 Server 32 Bit Server. Due to some limitations of my ISP, I have to take 2 Internet connections in order to satisfy my bandwidth requirement. I am facing serious problems here. The Internet is supplied using Wimax. I am given a POE and the RJ45 from both the POE (2 connections) are plugged into a Netgear 100mbps Switch and another RJ45 connects the server to the switch. I have tried to configure the IP addresses and gateway of both connections to the single NIC in the server. The IP series and the gateway of each Internet connection are very much different. I know that this is not the proper approach, because alternate gateways are meant to be only for backup in case of main gateway failure and the usage of the gateways depends upon the metric (correct me if I am wrong). I am planning to get a second PCI NIC so that I can connect each of the Internet connections into its respective NIC. If I use this approach, will I be able to accept connections on both NICs? Also, please suggest any other alternatives that I might use.

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  • Generating %pc relative address of constant data

    - by Hudson
    Is there a way to have gcc generate %pc relative addresses of constants? Even when the string appears in the text segment, arm-elf-gcc will generate a constant pointer to the data, load the address of the pointer via a %pc relative address and then dereference it. For a variety of reasons, I need to skip the middle step. As an example, this simple function: const char * filename(void) { static const char _filename[] __attribute__((section(".text"))) = "logfile"; return _filename; } generates (when compiled with arm-elf-gcc-4.3.2 -nostdlib -c -O3 -W -Wall logfile.c): 00000000 <filename>: 0: e59f0000 ldr r0, [pc, #0] ; 8 <filename+0x8> 4: e12fff1e bx lr 8: 0000000c .word 0x0000000c 0000000c <_filename.1175>: c: 66676f6c .word 0x66676f6c 10: 00656c69 .word 0x00656c69 I would have expected it to generate something more like: filename: add r0, pc, #0 bx lr _filename.1175: .ascii "logfile\000" The code in question needs to be partially position independent since it will be relocated in memory at load time, but also integrate with code that was not compiled -fPIC, so there is no global offset table. My current work around is to call a non-inline function (which will be done via a %pc relative address) to find the offset from the compiled location in a technique similar to how -fPIC code works: static intptr_t __attribute__((noinline)) find_offset( void ) { uintptr_t pc; asm __volatile__ ( "mov %0, %%pc" : "=&r"(pc) ); return pc - 8 - (uintptr_t) find_offset; } But this technique requires that all data references be fixed up manually, so the filename() function in the above example would become: const char * filename(void) { static const char _filename[] __attribute__((section(".text"))) = "logfile"; return _filename + find_offset(); }

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  • AJAX Callback and Javascript class variables assignments

    - by Gianluca
    I am trying to build a little javascript class for geocoding addresses trough Google Maps API. I am learning Javascript and AJAX and I still can't figure out how can I initialize class variables trough a callback: // Here is the Location class, it takes an address and // initialize a GClientGeocoder. this.coord[] is where we'll store lat/lng function Location(address) { this.geo = new GClientGeocoder(); this.address = address; this.coord = []; } // This is the geoCode function, it geocodes object.address and // need a callback to handle the response from Google Location.prototype.geoCode = function(geoCallback) { this.geo.getLocations(this.address, geoCallback); } // Here we go: the callback. // I made it a member of the class so it would be able // to handle class variable like coord[]. Obviously it don't work. Location.prototype.geoCallback = function(result) { this.coord[0] = result.Placemark[0].Point.coordinates[1]; this.coord[1] = result.Placemark[0].Point.coordinates[0]; window.alert("Callback lat: " + this.coord[0] + "; lon: " + this.coord[1]); } // Main function initialize() { var Place = new Location("Tokyo, Japan"); Place.geoCode(Place.geoCallback); window.alert("Main lat: " + Place.coord[0] + " lon: " + Place.coord[1]); } google.setOnLoadCallback(initialize); Thank you for helping me out!

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  • Which itch does a gravatar scratch?

    - by WizardOfOdds
    This is a very serious question: I've seen lots of threads here about gravatars but I couldn't find and answer to this question: what computer identification/authentication (?) problem, if any, are gravatars supposed to solve? Neither the Wikipedia entry nor the official website are very useful. The official website mentions a "globally unique" picture. Unique in what sense? As far as I can see it's only the hash that is unique: two persons can have two pictures looking very similar if not identical. Note that this question is not about which problems do gravatars unarguably cause (like leaking 10% of the stackoverflow.com accounts email addresses like discussed here : "gravatars can leak email adresses" ) but about which authentication (?) problems, if any, are gravatars supposed to solve? Is the goal just to have a cool/funny/cute icon and save bandwith by having it stored on a remote website or is there more to it, like serving a real authentication purpose which I'd be completely missing? Note that I've got nothing against them and find them rather cool, but I'm just having a hard time figuring out what their purpose is and if I should care or not about them in the webapps I'm developping.

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  • Sending Email from Lotus Notes using Excel and having Attachment & HTML body

    - by Anthony
    Right I'm trying to send an Email form an excel spreadsheet though lotus notes, it has an attachment and the body needs to be in HTML. I've got some code that from all I've read should allow me to do this however it doesn't. Without the HTML body the attachment will send, when I impliment a HTML body the Email still sends but the attachment dissapears, I've tried rearanging the order of the code cutting out bits that might not be needed but all is invain. (You need to reference Lotus Domino Objects to run this code. strEmail is the email addresses strAttach is the string location of the attachment strSubject is the subject text strBody is the body text ) Sub Send_Lotus_Email(strEmail, strAttach, strSubject, strBody) Dim noSession As Object, noDatabase As Object, noDocument As Object Dim obAttachment As Object, EmbedObject As Object Const EMBED_ATTACHMENT As Long = 1454 Set noSession = CreateObject("Notes.NotesSession") Set noDatabase = noSession.GETDATABASE("", "") 'If Lotus Notes is not open then open the mail-part of it. If noDatabase.IsOpen = False Then noDatabase.OPENMAIL 'Create the e-mail and the attachment. Set noDocument = noDatabase.CreateDocument Set obAttachment = noDocument.CreateRichTextItem("strAttach") Set EmbedObject = obAttachment.EmbedObject(EMBED_ATTACHMENT, "", strAttach) 'Add values to the created e-mail main properties. With noDocument .Form = "Memo" .SendTo = strEmail '.Body = strBody ' Where to send the body if HTML body isn't used. .Subject = strSubject .SaveMessageOnSend = True End With noSession.ConvertMIME = False Set Body = noDocument.CreateMIMEEntity("Body") ' MIMEEntity to support HTML Set stream = noSession.CreateStream Call stream.WriteText(strBody) ' Write the body text to the stream Call Body.SetContentFromText(stream, "text/html;charset=iso-8859-1", ENC_IDENTITY_8BIT) noSession.ConvertMIME = True 'Send the e-mail. With noDocument .PostedDate = Now() .Send 0, strEmail End With 'Release objects from the memory. Set EmbedObject = Nothing Set obAttachment = Nothing Set noDocument = Nothing Set noDatabase = Nothing Set noSession = Nothing End Sub If somone could point me in the right direction I'd be greatly appreciated. Edit: I've done a little more investigating and I've found an oddity, if i look at the sent folder the emails all have the paperclip icon of having an attachment even though when you go into the email even in the sent the HTML ones don't show an attachment.

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  • Pythonic mapping of an array (Beginner)

    - by scott_karana
    Hey StackOverflow, I've got a question related to a beginner Python snippet I've written to introduce myself to the language. It's an admittedly trivial early effort, but I'm still wondering how I could have written it more elegantly. The program outputs NATO phoenetic readable versions of an argument, such "H2O" - "Hotel 2 Oscar", or (lacking an argument) just outputs the whole alphabet. I mainly use it for calling in MAC addresses and IQNs, but it's useful for other phone support too. Here's the body of the relevant portion of the program: #!/usr/bin/env python import sys nato = { "a": 'Alfa', "b": 'Bravo', "c": 'Charlie', "d": 'Delta', "e": 'Echo', "f": 'Foxtrot', "g": 'Golf', "h": 'Hotel', "i": 'India', "j": 'Juliet', "k": 'Kilo', "l": 'Lima', "m": 'Mike', "n": 'November', "o": 'Oscar', "p": 'Papa', "q": 'Quebec', "r": 'Romeo', "s": 'Sierra', "t": 'Tango', "u": 'Uniform', "v": 'Victor', "w": 'Whiskey', "x": 'Xray', "y": 'Yankee', "z": 'Zulu', } if len(sys.argv) < 2: for n in nato.keys(): print nato[n] else: # if sys.argv[1] == "-i" # TODO for char in sys.argv[1].lower(): if char in nato: print nato[char], else: print char, As I mentioned, I just want to see suggestions for a more elegant way to code this. My first guess was to use a list comprehension along the lines of [nato[x] for x in sys.argv[1].lower() if x in nato], but that doesn't allow me to output any non-alphabetic characters. My next guess was to use map, but I couldn't format any lambdas that didn't suffer from the same corner case. Any suggestions? Maybe something with first-class functions? Messing with Array's guts? This seems like it could almost be a Code Golf question, but I feel like I'm just overthinking :)

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  • How to actually query Chinese address in Googlemap API geocoding??

    - by Robert
    I'm following the demo code from article of phpsqlgeocode.html In the db, I inserted some Chinese addresses, which is utf8 encode. I found after urlencode the Chinese address, the output of the address will be wrong.Like this one: http://maps.google.com.tw/maps/geo?output=csv&key=ABQIAAAAfG3KxFZXjEslq8VNxMBpKRR08snBovzCxLQZ9DWwpnzxH-ROPxSAS9Q36m-6OOy0qlwTL6Ht9qp87w&q=%3F%3F%3F%3F%3F%3F%3F%3F%3F132%3F Then output(can't query from php, it have to test as browser url link), 200,5,59.3266963,18.2733433 Whose address is actually located in Taichung Taiwan, but turn out to in Sweden Europe. But when I paste the Chinese address(such as ???????? ?131?56?58?60?) in the url, the result turn out to be fine!!! So my question is how to make sure it send out the original Chiness address?? how to prevent urlencode()??? I found take urlencode() away not change anything. (I've change the MAPS_HOST from maps.google.com to maps.google.com.tw.) (I'm sure my key is right, and other English address geocoding are fine.) Thanks!!

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