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• How to configure sendmail to relay through a specific server

  - by ErebusBat

  I have a tiny home server setup behind my cable modem (bresnan communications). I want to be able for this box to send out email (not receive) for notifications and whatnot. What I have already done: I have installed and configured sendmail. I have added mail.bresnan.net as my SMART_HOST directive. What I belive the problem is When I attempt to send an email I get the following in my mail log: Dec 22 10:24:17 batcave sendmail[1530]: oBMHOHrs001530: from=aburns, size=140, class=0, nrcpts=1, msgid=<[email protected]>, relay=aburns@localhost Dec 22 10:24:17 batcave sm-mta[1531]: oBMHOHWZ001531: from=<[email protected]>, size=397, class=0, nrcpts=1, msgid=<[email protected]>, proto=ESMTP, daemon=MTA-v4, relay=localhost [127.0.0.1] Dec 22 10:24:17 batcave sendmail[1530]: oBMHOHrs001530: to=<[email protected]>, ctladdr=aburns (1000/1000), delay=00:00:00, xdelay=00:00:00, mailer=relay, pri=30140, relay=[127.0.0.1] [127.0.0.1], dsn=2.0.0, stat=Sent (oBMHOHWZ001531 Message accepted for delivery) Dec 22 10:24:18 batcave sm-mta[1517]: oBMH9mVv001357: to=<[email protected]>, ctladdr=<[email protected]> (1000/1000), delay=00:14:30, xdelay=00:00:42, mailer=relay, pri=300339, relay=pmx0.bresnan.net. [69.145.248.1], dsn=4.0.0, stat=Deferred: Connection timed out with pmx0.bresnan.net. You can see where the message is accepted for delivery by my sendmail server, then where it attempts to hand off to bresnan's server and it timesout. This is where my question is. Asstute readers will notice that pmx0.bresnan.net is not what I have my SMART_HOST directive set as. This is the (outside?) MX server for the bresnan.com/net domain. Apparently bresnan has their network configured so that you can not access this server from within their own network and instead must use the mail.bresnan.net server (which I can connect to). The problem is that I don't know how to tell sendmail to use this server and not the domain. What I have tried Setting a hosts entry so that the pmx0 server points to the mail IP address. This doesn't work, which makes sense as sendmail is obviously doing an MX query to find the server which returns the IP so there is never a need to do a 'normal' DNS resolve so the hosts file never gets involved.

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• Apache certificates for some urls not working

  - by Vegaasen

  We are having a rather strange problem with a Apache-installation. Here is a short summary: Currently I'm setting up Apache with https, and server-certificates. This is fairly easy and works straight out of the box - as expected. This is the configuration for this setup: Listen 443 SSLEngine on SSLCertificateFile "/progs/apache/ssl/example-site.no.pem" SSLCertificateKeyFile "/progs/apache/ssl/example-site.no.key" SSLCACertificateFile "/progs/apache/ssl/ca/example_root.pem" SSLCADNRequestFile "/progs/apache/ssl/ca/example_intermediate.pem" SSLVerifyClient none SSLVerifyDepth 3 SSLOptions +StdEnvVars +ExportCertData RequestHeader set ssl-ClientCert-Subject-CN "%{SSL_CLIENT_S_DN}s" RewriteEngine On ProxyPreserveHost On ProxyRequests On SSLProxyEngine On ... <LocationMatch /secureStuff/$> SSLVerifyClient require Order deny,allow Allow from All </LocationMatch> ... <Proxy balancer://exBalancer> Header add Set-Cookie "EX_ROUTE=EB.%{BALANCER_WORKER_ROUTE}e; path=/" env=BALANCER_ROUTE_CHANGED BalancerMember http://10.0.0.1:7200 route=ee1 retry=300 flushpackets=off keepalive=on BalancerMember http://10.0.0.2:7200 route=ee2 retry=300 flushpackets=off keepalive=on status=+H ProxySet stickysession=EX_ROUTE scolonpathdelim=Off timeout=10 nofailover=off failonstatus=505 maxattempts=1 lbmethod=bybusyness Order deny,allow Allow from all </Proxy> RewriteCond %{REQUEST_URI} !^/index.html [NC] RewriteRule ^/(.*)$ balancer://exBalancer/$1 [P,NC] ProxyPassReverse / balancer://exBalancer/ Header edit Set-Cookie "(.*)" "$1;HttpsOnly" ... So - everything works fine and as expected for all of the pages that are not a part of the LocationMatch-directive. When requesting something that matches the LocationMatch-directive, I'm asked for a certificate (hence the SSLVerifyClient required attribute) - and getting all the correct certificates in my browser that is based on the root/intermediate chain. After choosing a certificate and clicking "OK", this is what pops up in the apache logs: [ssl:info] [pid 9530:tid 25] [client :43357] AH01998: Connection closed to child 86 with abortive shutdown ( [Thu Oct 11 09:27:36.221876 2012] [ssl:debug] [pid 9530:tid 25] ssl_engine_io.c(1171): (70014)End of file found: [client 10.235.128.55:45846] AH02007: SSL handshake interrupted by system [Hint: Stop button pressed in browser?!] And this just spams the logs. What is happening here? I can see this configuration working on my local machine, but not on one of our servers. There is no configration differences between the servers, only minor application-wise-changes. I've tried the following: 1) Removing CA-certificate-checking (works) 2) Adding required CA-certificate for the whole site (works) 3) Adding "SSLVerifyClient optional" does not work 4) ++ Server/Application Information Local: -OpenSSL v.1.0.1x -Apache 2.4.3 -Ubuntu -mpm: event -every configuration should be turned on (failing) server: -OpenSSL 0.9.8e -Apache 2.4.2 -SunOS -mpm: worker -every configuration should be turned on Please let me know if more information is needed, I'll provide it instantly. Brief sum-up: -Running apache 2.4 -Server certificates works just fine -Client certificates for some /Locations does not work, fails with errors PS: Could it be related with the OpenSSL version and the "Renegotiation" stuff related to TLS/SSLv3?

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• JBoss naming service port conflict

  - by Kramer

  I am having trouble getting JBoss started. I am running JBoss 5.1.0 on Mac OSX (yes, I know it is an old version, but that’s what the application is certified on for now). I am using Apple’s JVM 1.6.0_37. I get the following error when trying to use JBoss (there are some more exceptions, but these are the first few): Error installing to Start: name=jboss:service=Naming state=Create mode=Manual requiredState=Installed java.rmi.server.ExportException: Port already in use: 1098; nested exception is: java.net.BindException: Can't assign requested address at sun.rmi.transport.tcp.TCPTransport.listen(TCPTransport.java:310) at sun.rmi.transport.tcp.TCPTransport.exportObject(TCPTransport.java:218) Caused by: java.net.BindException: Can't assign requested address at java.net.PlainSocketImpl.socketBind(Native Method) at java.net.PlainSocketImpl.bind(PlainSocketImpl.java:383) 16:57:15,596 ERROR [AbstractKernelController] Error installing to Real: name=vfsfile:/Users/home/server/jboss-5.1.0.GA/server/myserver/conf/jboss-service.xml state=PreReal mode=Manual requiredState=Real org.jboss.deployers.spi.DeploymentException: Error deploying: jboss:service=Naming at org.jboss.deployers.spi.DeploymentException.rethrowAsDeploymentException(DeploymentException.java:49) at org.jboss.system.deployers.ServiceDeployer.deploy(ServiceDeployer.java:118) at org.jboss.system.deployers.ServiceDeployer.deploy(ServiceDeployer.java:46) Caused by: java.rmi.server.ExportException: Port already in use: 1098; nested exception is: java.net.BindException: Can't assign requested address at sun.rmi.transport.tcp.TCPTransport.listen(TCPTransport.java:310) Caused by: java.net.BindException: Can't assign requested address at java.net.PlainSocketImpl.socketBind(Native Method) Now I know what you are thinking, that I am running something that conflicts with that port, but I have used lsof and there is nothing listed on that port. I have tried changing the port in conf/bindingservice.beans/META-INF/bindings-jboss-beans.xml: <bean class="org.jboss.services.binding.ServiceBindingMetadata"> <property name="serviceName">jboss:service=Naming</property> <property name="bindingName">RmiPort</property> <property name="port">5098</property> <property name="description">Socket Naming service uses to receive RMI requests from client proxies</property> </bean> Unfortunately, I then get the name errors with the new port number. I also installed a network monitoring tool on my box and it doesn't look like any ports are being opened when I start jboss, but it is possible, that the tool might be missing a port that is opened and then closed quickly. Any ideas what could be the problem or how to fix it?

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• Why does Excel now give me already existing name range error on Copy Sheet?

  - by WilliamKF

  I've been working on a Microsoft Excel 2007 spreadsheet for several days. I'm working from a master template like sheet and copying it to a new sheet repeatedly. Up until today, this was happening with no issues. However, in the middle of today this suddenly changed and I do not know why. Now, whenever I try to copy a worksheet I get about ten dialogs, each one with a different name range object (shown below as 'XXXX') and I click yes for each one: A formula or sheet you want to move or copy contains the name 'XXXX', which already exists on the destination worksheet. Do you want to use this version of the name? To use the name as defined in destination sheet, click Yes. To rename the range referred to in the formula or worksheet, click No, and enter a new name in the Name Conflict dialog box. The name range objects refer to cells in the sheet. For example, E6 is called name range PRE on multiple sheets (and has been all along) and some of the formulas refer to PRE instead of $E$6. One of the 'XXXX' above is this PRE. These name ranges should only be resolved within the sheet within which they appear. This was not an issue before despite the same name range existing on multiple sheets before. I want to keep my name ranges. What could have changed in my spreadsheet to cause this change in behavior? I've gone back to prior sheets created this way and now they give the message too when copied. I tried a different computer and a different user and the same behavior is seen everywhere. I can only conclude something in the spreadsheet has changed. What could this be and how can I get back the old behavior whereby I can copy sheets with name ranges and not get any errors? Looking in the Name Manager I see that the name ranges being complained about show twice, once as scope Template and again as scope Workbook. If I delete the scope Template ones the error goes away on copy however, I get a bunch of #REF errors. If I delete the scope Workbook ones, all seems okay and the errors on copy go away too, so perhaps this is the answer, but I'm nervous about what effect this deletion will have and wonder how the Workbook ones came into existence in the first place. Will it be safe to just delete the Workbook name manager scoped entries and how might these have come into existence without my knowing it to begin with?

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• How to auto advance a PowerPoint slide after an exit animation is over?

  - by joooc

  PowerPoint entrance animation set up with "Start: With Previous" starts right when a new slide is advanced. However, if you set up an exit animation in the same way, it doesn't start with a slide ending sequence. Instead, the "Start: On Click" trigger needs to be used and after your exit animation is over you still need one extra click just to advance to the next slide. Workarounds to this are obvious: create a duplicate slide, make your ending animations from the original slide being your starting animations on the duplicate slide and let them be followed with whatever you want or create a transition slide with those ending animations only and set up "Change Advance slide - Automatically after - [the time it takes your animations to finish]". These workarounds will make it work for your audience, visually. However, it has an impact on slide numbers you might need to adjust accordingly and/or duplicate content changes. If you are the only one creating and using your presentation, this might be just fine. But if you are creating a presentation in collaborative mode with three other people and don't even know who will be the presenter at the end, you can mess things up. Let's be specific: most of my slides have 0.2s fly in entrance animation applied to blocks of content coming from right, bottom or left. Advancing to the next slide I want them to fly out in another 0.2s exit animation being followed by new slide 0.2s fly in entrance animation of the new blocks. The swapping of the blocks should be triggered while advancing to the next slide, as usually. As mentioned, I'm not able to achieve this without one extra click between the slides. I wrote a VBA script that should start together with an exit animation and will auto advance a slide after 0.3s when the exit animation is over. That way I should get rid of those extra clicks which are needed right now. Sub nextslide() iTime = 0.3 Start = Timer While Timer < Start + iTime DoEvents Wend With SlideShowWindows(1).View .GotoSlide (ActivePresentation.SlideShowWindow.View.Slide.SlideIndex + 1) End With End Sub It works well when binded on a box, button or another object. But I can't make it run on a single click (anywhere on the slide) so that it could start together with the exit animation onclick trigger. Creating a big transparent rectangular shape over the whole slide and binding the macro on it doesn't help either. By clicking it you only get the macro running, exit animation is not triggered. Anyway, I don't want to bind the macro to any other workaround object but the slide itself. Anyone knows how to trigger a PowerPoint VBA script on slide onclick event? Anyone knows a secret setting that will make the exit animation work as expected i.e. animating right before exiting a slide while transitioning to the next one? Anyone knows how to beat this dragon? Thank you!

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• Why would a process monitoring script use exit 1; on finding no problems?

  - by user568458

  General question: On a Linux (Centos) server, if a process monitoring script run by cron is set to close with exit 1; rather than exit 0; on finding that everything is okay and that no action is needed, is that a mistake? Or are there legitimate reasons for calling exit 1; instead of exit 0; on the "Everything's fine, no action needed" condition? exit 0; on finding no problems seems to me to be more appropriate. But maybe there's something I'm not aware of. For example, maybe there's something specific to Cron? Or maybe there's a convention in process monitoring scripts that 'failure' means 'this script failed to need to fix a problem' (rather than what I would expect which is that exit 1; would mean 'the process being monitored has failed'?) My specific case: I'm looking at a process monitoring script written by my web hosting company. By process monitoring script, I mean a script executed by Cron on a regular basis that checks if an important system process is running, and if it isn't running, takes actions such as mailing an administrator or restarting the process. Here's the (generalised) structure of their script, for a service running on port 8080 (in this case, Apache Tomcat): SERVICE=$(/usr/sbin/lsof -i tcp:8080 | wc -l); if [ $SERVICE != 0 ]; then exit 1; else #take action fi Seems simple enough even for someone with limited knowledge like me, except the exit 1; part seems odd. As I understand it, exit 0; closes a program and signifies to the parent that executed the program that everything is fine, exit n; where n0 and n<127 signifies that there has been some kind of error or problem. Here, their script seems to go against that rule - it calls exit 1; in the condition where everything is fine, and doesn't exit after taking remedial action in the problem condition. To me, this looks like a mistake - but my experience in this area is limited. Are there cases where calling exit 1; in the "Everything's fine, no action needed" condition is more appropriate than calling exit 0;? Or is it a mistake? Wider context is pretty simple. It's a Centos VPS, running Plesk. The script is being called by Cron via Plesk's "Scheduled tasks" Cron manager. There's no custom layer between Cron and this script that would respond in an unusual way to the exit call. It's a fairly average, almost out-of-the box Plesk-managed Centos VPS (in so far as there is such a thing). The process being monitored by this script is Apache Tomcat.

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• Windows 7 & Virtual PC and Internet (gateway) problems on host PC

  - by Mufasa

  I upgraded to Windows 7 on a PC that is a few years old. The CPU was one revision away from having Hyper-V on it. So, I had to install Microsoft Virtual PC 2007 (v6.0.156.0) to run full XP instances instead of the seamless XP virtualization that is advertised so much. That's fine though; the 'older' version is useful since I use it to run different versions of the whole XP/IE stack for testing. (I'm a web developer.) ...And for the one 16-bit application we still use at the office for scheduling. * sigh * The virtual instances work fine, including networking. My issue is that after a reboot or coming out of sleep mode, my host Windows 7 won't connect to the Internet. It will connect to the local network fine. If I disable the "Virtual Machine Network Services" item (I'll call "VMNS" from here on) in the LAN Connection properties box, it starts working. But than the Virtual PC instances lose their network connectivity. If I re-enable VMNS again in the same instance, everything works (Internet on host and in the virtualized instances). But after the next reboot/sleep cycle this starts over. The route table gave me a clue though. When doing a cycle w/ VMNS enabled: IPv4 Route Table =========================================================================== Active Routes: Network Destination Netmask Gateway Interface Metric 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 On-link 10.0.3.51 20 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.0.10.10 10.0.3.51 276 ... After VMNS is disabled, the first route goes away. I assume that is for VMNS to intercept virtualized instance's network connections and forward them correctly? Just a guess though. More info: I checked my Firewall settings and Services (because I'm sort of a control nazi and turn off a lot) but couldn't find anything that made sense and if turned on changed anything. So it might be something there I'm missing, but I don't know what. My current hacked solution: So, I figured I'd mess with the routes myself to see if that helped, it did. If I run a route delete 0.0.0.0 on the universal (0.0.0.0) gateway routes, and add back in just the 2nd line with route add 0.0.0.0 mask 0.0.0.0 10.0.10.10--the one that points to my actual gateway (10.0.10.10)--then I don't have to mess with the disable/enable cycle of VMNS, and everything works. Running those two commands is faster then bringing up connection options and disabling and re-enabling VMNS, but I still don't want to have use that hack script every boot either. (Oh, and I also tried messing with hard-coding TCP/IP settings in my network adapter, including setting high metrics, etc., but that didn't help either.) Any suggestions on the right way to fix this?

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• How to prevent dual booted OSes from damaging each other?

  - by user1252434

  For better compatibility and performance in games I'm thinking about installing Windows additionally to Linux. I have security concerns about this, though. Note: "Windows" in the remaining text includes not only the OS but also any software running on it. Regardless of whether it comes included or is additionally installed, whether it is started intentionally or unintentionally (virus, malware). Is there an easy way to achieve the following requirements: Windows MUST NOT be able to kill my linux partition or my data disk neither single files (virus infection) nor overwriting the whole disk Windows MUST NOT be able to read data disk (- extra protection against spyware) Linux may or may not have access to the windows partition both Linux and Windows should have full access to the graphics card this rules out desktop VM solutions for gaming I want the manufacturer's windows graphics card driver Regarding Windows to be unable to destroy my linux install: this is not just the usual paranoia, that has happened to me in the past. So I don't accept "no ext4 driver" as an argument. Once bitten, twice shy. And even if destruction targeted at specific (linux) files is nearly impossible, there should be no way to shred the whole partition. I may accept the risk of malware breaking out of a barrier (e.g. VM) around the whole windows box, though. Currently I have a system disk (SSD) and a data disk (HDD), both SATA. I expect I have to add another disk. If i don't: even better. My CPU is a Intel Core i5, with VT-x and VT-d available, though untested. Ideas I've had so far: deactivate or hide other HDs until reboot at low level possible? can the boot loader (grub) do this for me? tiny VM layer: load windows in a VM that provides access to almost all hardware, except the HDs any ready made software solution for this? Preferably free. as I said: the main problem seems to be to provide full access to the graphics card hardware switch to cut power to disks commercial products expensive and lots of warnings against cheap home built solutions preferably all three hard disks with one switch (one push) mobile racks - won't wear of daily swapping be a problem?

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• Network update solutions for a company of ~20 (5 local, 15 remote)?

  - by Margaret

  Hi all This is probably going to be a bit up in the air, because we're still in the "reaching towards solutions" phase, but I figured I'd see what you guys had to say. Plus I honestly know very little about systems and what is good and bad pratice. My organisation has always more or less worked on the concept of local machines; since it primarily employed contractors who were working from home, each of those people was largely responsible for their own machine and backup procedures and the like. We're now expanding, though we're still reasonably small (we're up to about 20 staff members). Most people still work remotely, but we have a central office where about five people are working. But we're getting large enough that we're starting to think it would be a good idea to have a central file server, and things like that - if someone gets hit by a bus, we want someone else to know where to look for the files to continue their work. A lot of the people who work for us remotely work on projects for other companies as well, so I don't want to force them to log in to our server whenever they're on a network. But I do want to make connection to be as painless as possible to do so, to improve utilisation. The other thing is that we're getting more people who would like to remote into the office server and do their work there. Our current remote connection application is an SSH install that allows people access to the network; the problem is, it's a black box to me, and I've never understood how to even connect to it (despite supposedly being de facto sysadmin). Thus far I've been able to bounce questions about how to get it working to the guy who does know it well, but he's leaving the company soon. So we probably need a solution for this that I actually understand. We were knocking around the idea of implementing a VPN with some form of remote desktop, and someone mentioned that this was largely a matter of purchasing a router capable of it; I'm not sure of the truth of that statement. This is what we have in the office: Two shiny new i7 servers, each running Windows Server 2008. Precise eventual layout is still being debated, a little, but the current suggestion is that one is primary database crunching, while the other is a warm backup of the databases, along with running Reporting Services. They currently have SQL Server 2008 installed on them, which is being connected to via the 'sa' account. We're hoping to make each person use their own account (preferably one tied to the 'central' password we set up, so we can use Windows Authentication). An older server, running XP Pro, that we are currently using as a test bed for a project that requires access to older versions of software. This machine is also being used to take backups, but I'm thinking of moving that functionality elsewhere. A spare desktop from a guy who left the company (XP Pro). We're thinking of bumping up the hard disk space and using it as the magical file server that's going to solve one particular everything. Assorted desktops, laptops, etc, at least one for each person in the office (mix of Win XP and Win 7; occasionally a person who normally works remotely might drop in to the office and bring a laptop bearing Vista, but it's pretty rare). All are set up as local user accounts at the moment; I don't know if it's the best arrangement. Purchasing more hardware is not a big problem, but we figure we might as well make use of what we've got first. Is Active Directory a big magic wand that's going to solve all the world's problems? Is there some other arrangement we should be looking to instead?

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• MySQL performance over a (local) network much slower than I would expect

  - by user15241

  MySQL queries in my production environment are taking much longer than I would expect them too. The site in question is a fairly large Drupal site, with many modules installed. The webserver (Nginx) and database server (mysql) are hosted on separated machines, connected by a 100mbps LAN connection (hosted by Rackspace). I have the exact same site running on my laptop for development. Obviously, on my laptop, the webserver and database server are on the same box. Here are the results of my database query times: Production: Executed 291 queries in 320.33 milliseconds. (homepage) Executed 517 queries in 999.81 milliseconds. (content page) Development: Executed 316 queries in 46.28 milliseconds. (homepage) Executed 586 queries in 79.09 milliseconds. (content page) As can clearly be seen from these results, the time involved with querying the MySQL database is much shorter on my laptop, where the MySQL server is running on the same database as the web server. Why is this?! One factor must be the network latency. On average, a round trip from from the webserver to the database server takes 0.16ms (shown by ping). That must be added to every singe MySQL query. So, taking the content page example above, where there are 517 queries executed. Network latency alone will add 82ms to the total query time. However, that doesn't account for the difference I am seeing (79ms on my laptop vs 999ms on the production boxes). What other factors should I be looking at? I had thought about upgrading the NIC to a gigabit connection, but clearly there is something else involved. I have run the MySQL performance tuning script from http://www.day32.com/MySQL/ and it tells me that my database server is configured well (better than my laptop apparently). The only problem reported is "Of 4394 temp tables, 48% were created on disk". This is true in both environments and in the production environment I have even tried increasing max_heap_table_size and Current tmp_table_size to 1GB, with no change (I think this is because I have some BLOB and TEXT columns).

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• Is there a way to replicate a very large file shares in real-time?

  - by fsckin

  I have an hourly cron job that copies about 40GB of data from a source folder into a new folder with the hour appended on the end. When it's done, the job prunes anything older than 24 hours. This data changes very often during work hours and is on a samba file share. Here's how the folder structure looks: \server\Version.1 \server\Version.2 \server\Version.3 ... \server\Version.24 The contents of each new folder compared to the last one usually doesn't change very much, since this is a hourly job. Now you might be thinking that I'm an idiot for setting dreaming this up. Truth is, I just found out. It's actually been used for years and is so incredibly simple, anyone could delete the ENTIRE 40GB share (imagine that dialog spooling up... deleting thousands and thousands of files) and it would actually be faster to restore by moving the latest copy back to the source than it took to delete. Brilliant! Now to top this off, I need to efficiently replicate this 960GB of "mostly similar" data to a remote server over WAN link, with the replication happening as close to real-time as possible -- think hot spare, disaster recovery, etc. My first thought was rsync. Total failure. Rsync sees it sees a deletion of the folder that is 24 hours old and the addition of a new folder with 30GB of data to sync! I also looked at rdiff-backup and unison, they both appear to use similar algorithms and do not keep enough meta-data to do this intelligently. Best thing that I can find "out of the box" to do this is Windows Server "Distributed Filesystem Replication" which uses "Remote Differential Compression" -- After reading the background information on how this works, it actually looks like exactly what I need. Problem: Both servers are running Linux. D'oh! One approach to this I'm looking at is this, say it's 5AM and the cron job finishes: New Version.5 folder arrives at on local server SSH to remote server and copy Version.4 to Version.5 Run rsync on the local server pushing changes to the remote server. Rsync finally knows to do a differential copy between Version.4 and Version.5 Is there a smarter way to replicate Samba shares as close to real-time as possible? Anything out there that does "Remote Differential Compression" on Linux?

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• debugging JBoss 100% CPU usage

  - by Nate

  We are using JBoss to run two of our WARs. One is our web app, the other is our web service. The web app accesses a database on another machine and makes requests to the web service. The web service makes JMS requests to other machines, aggregates the data, and returns it. At our biggest client, about once a month the JBoss Java process takes 100% of all CPUs. The machine running JBoss has 8 CPUs. Our web app is still accessible during this time, however pages take about 3 minutes to load. Restarting JBoss restores everything to normal. The database machine and all the other machines are fine, only the machine running JBoss is affected. Memory usage is normal. Network utilization is normal. There are no suspect error messages in the JBoss logs. I have set up a test environment as close as possible to the client's production environment and I've done load testing with as much as 2x the number of concurrent users. I have not gotten my test environment to replicate the problem. Where do we go from here? How can we narrow down the problem? Currently the only plan we have is to wait until the problem occurs in production on its own, then do some debugging to determine the cause. So far people have just restarted JBoss when the problem occurred to minimize down time. Next time it happens they will get a developer to take a look. The question is, next time it happens, what can be done to determine the cause? We could setup a separate JBoss instance on the same box and install the web app separately from the web service. This way when the problem next occurs we will know which WAR has the problem (assuming it is our code). This doesn't narrow it down much though. Should I enable JMX remote? This way the next time the problem occurs I can connect with VisualVM and see which threads are taking the CPU and what the hell they are doing. However, is there a significant down side to enabling JMX remote in a production environment? Is there another way to see what threads are eating the CPU and to get a stacktrace to see what they are doing? Any other ideas? Thanks!

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• [CentOS 4.8] nslookup resolves domains to IPs, but I can't get a response to pings to external servers

  - by Beco

  I have a fresh install of CentOS 4.8 running on an internal development server. I haven't done anything to it besides setting up sudoers and SSH. I can SSH into the server and from there resolve domains to IPs and ping internal servers, but for some reason I don't get any response from pinging external servers. The software firewall is disabled, and the problem is present with both static and DHCP-assigned network configurations. The network domain controller is a Windows Server 2003 box. $ nslookup google.com Server: 10.254.2.5 Address: 10.254.2.5#53 Non-authoritative answer: Name: google.com Address: 74.125.47.147 Name: google.com Address: 74.125.47.99 <etc...> 10.254.2.5 is the Win2K3 server. $ ping google.com PING google.com (74.125.47.106) 56(84) bytes of data. It just hangs here indefinitely. $ cat /etc/resolv.conf ; generated by /sbin/dhclient-script search <...snip...>.local nameserver 10.254.2.5 nameserver 10.254.2.124 10.254.2.124 is the backup DC server, which is currently off and tombstoned by this point. The snipped section is our company name. # ifconfig eth0 Link encap:Ethernet HWaddr <snip> inet addr:10.254.2.101 Bcast:10.254.2.255 Mask:255.255.255.0 inet6 addr: <snip>/64 Scope:Link UP BROADCAST RUNNING MULTICAST MTU:1500 Metric:1 RX packets:80066 errors:0 dropped:0 overruns:0 frame:0 TX packets:4421 errors:0 dropped:0 overruns:0 carrier:0 collisions:0 txqueuelen:1000 RX bytes:7810133 (7.4 MiB) TX bytes:590550 (576.7 KiB) Interrupt:225 Base address:0xc000 lo Link encap:Local Loopback inet addr:127.0.0.1 Mask:255.0.0.0 inet6 addr: ::1/128 Scope:Host UP LOOPBACK RUNNING MTU:16436 Metric:1 RX packets:32 errors:0 dropped:0 overruns:0 frame:0 TX packets:32 errors:0 dropped:0 overruns:0 carrier:0 collisions:0 txqueuelen:0 RX bytes:8104 (7.9 KiB) TX bytes:8104 (7.9 KiB) # route -n Kernel IP routing table Destination Gateway Genmask Flags Metric Ref Use Iface 10.254.2.0 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 U 0 0 0 eth0 169.254.0.0 0.0.0.0 255.255.0.0 U 0 0 0 eth0 0.0.0.0 10.254.2.5 0.0.0.0 UG 0 0 0 eth0 And, for good measure, a snapshot of the current ethernet config via the system-config-network GUI. Edit: I don't yet have enough rep to post images, so here's a link. Sorry! system-config-network snapshot I'm pretty green when it comes to setting up *nix dev servers and network configuration in general, so please let me know if I've left out critical information, or posted information I shouldn't have posted. Thanks!

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• What server setup for a small web development company? [closed]

  - by Giordano

  I co-own a company with a friend of mine and we have decided to buy a new server to support our business (our current server is an Asus EEE Box, working great but too limited :) ). I should mention that we are web developers but occasionally we do small-office sys admin. Thus, 99% of time we work on GNU/Linux (mainly Ubuntu) but from time to time we need to setup a Windows environment to assist some customers (e.g. setup a temporary SQL Server 2008). Our requirements: Low budget: we don't want the cheapest solution out there but we can't afford to spend too much. Budget could be ~1000-1500€ (before VAT) Robustness: we would like to setup a RAID array and maybe have an external disk where we can store backups Virtualization: we need to be able to setup few servers for development. The scenario is something like this (~8 appliances running in parallel): Redmine + GIT server Bacula server FTP server 3-4 virtual appliances that could be set up on demand to test our applications or support a customer. The appliances could be: LAMP, Tomcat+PostgreSQL, SQL Server Support: if something breaks down it shouldn't be too difficult to find a replacement. Now, given the main requirements, there are some doubts we need to clarify: Do you suggest to buy a prepackaged solution (for example a customized Dell PowerEdge T110 or T310) or to assemble the server by ourselves (buy the separate components)? What RAID configuration do you suggest? I was thinking of RAID1 (probably cheaper) or RAID5. should we buy a hardware RAID controller or is it ok to use a software RAID (mdadm)? In case, which controller do you suggest? What processor do you suggest (Intel Xeon, i3, i5, i7, AMD)? How much RAM? (I was thinking at least 8GB, ~1GB per appliance) What virtualization software do you recommend? VMWare seems to be the best choice, but what about XEN or KVM? We don't want to buy licenses at the moment so we would like to consider only free options. What OS do you recommend? We know Ubuntu, Debian, Gentoo very well (we would like to use Ubuntu Server), however it seems a lot of people goes for CentOS. Thanks in advance if you can help us with this! It's our first "serious" server so many doubts popped up :) Please feel free to add further recommendations if you have some to share ;) Have a nice day

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• Can't create a fullscreen WPF popup

  - by Scrappydog

  Using WPF .NET 4.0 in VS2010 RTM: I can't create a fullscreen WPF popup. If I create a popup that is sized 50% width and 100% height everything works fine, but if I try to create a "full screen" popup sized to 100% width and height it ends up displaying at 100% width and 75% height... the bottom is truncated. Note: The width and height are actually being expressed in pixels in code, I'm using percent to make the situation a little more understandable... It "feels" like there is some sort of limit preventing the area of a popup from exceeding ~75% of the total area of the screen. UPDATE: Here is a Hello World example that shows the problem. <Window x:Class="TechnologyVisualizer.PopupTest" xmlns="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml/presentation" xmlns:x="http://schemas.microsoft.com/winfx/2006/xaml" Title="PopupTest" WindowStyle="None" WindowState="Maximized" Background="DarkGray"> <Canvas x:Name="MainCanvas" Width="1920" Height="1080"> <Popup Placement="Center" VerticalAlignment="Center" HorizontalAlignment="Center" Width="1900" Height="1060" Name="popContent"> <TextBlock Background="Red">Hello World</TextBlock> </Popup> <Button Canvas.Left="50" Canvas.Top="50" Content="Menu" Height="60" Name="button1" Width="80" FontSize="22" Foreground="White" Background="Black" Click="button1_Click" /> </Canvas> </Window> using System; using System.Collections.Generic; using System.Linq; using System.Text; using System.Windows; using System.Windows.Controls; using System.Windows.Data; using System.Windows.Documents; using System.Windows.Input; using System.Windows.Media; using System.Windows.Media.Imaging; using System.Windows.Shapes; namespace TechnologyVisualizer { /// <summary> /// Interaction logic for PopupTest.xaml /// </summary> public partial class PopupTest : Window { public PopupTest() { InitializeComponent(); } private void button1_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { popContent.IsOpen = true; } } } If you run this the bottom 25% of the popup is missing if you change the width of the popup to 500 then it will go full height

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• Silverlight animation not smooth

  - by Andrej

  Hi, When trying to animate objects time/frame based in Silverlight (in contrast to using something like DoubleAnimation or Storyboard, which is not suitable e.g. for fast paced games), for example moving a spaceship in a particular direction every frame, the movement is jumpy and not really smooth. The screen even seems to tear. There seems to be no difference between CompositionTarget and DistpatcherTimer. I use the following approach (in pseudocode): Register Handler to Tick-Event of a DispatcherTimer In each Tick: Compute the elapsed time from the last frame in milliseconds Object.X += movementSpeed * ellapsedMilliseconds This should result in a smooth movement, right? But it doesn't. Here is an example (Controls: WASD and Mouse): Silverlight Game. Although the effect I described is not too prevalent in this sample, I can assure you that even moving a single rectangle over a canvas produces a jumpy animation. Does someone have an idea how to minimize this. Are there other approaches to to frame based animation exept using Storyboards/DoubleAnimations which could solve this? Edit: Here a quick and dirty approach, animating a rectangle with minimum code (Controls: A and D) Animation Sample Xaml: <Grid x:Name="LayoutRoot" Background="Black"> <Canvas Width="1000" Height="400" Background="Blue"> <Rectangle x:Name="rect" Width="48" Height="48" Fill="White" Canvas.Top="200" Canvas.Left="0"/> </Canvas> </Grid> C#: private bool isLeft = false; private bool isRight = false; private DispatcherTimer timer = new DispatcherTimer(); private double lastUpdate; public Page() { InitializeComponent(); timer.Interval = TimeSpan.FromMilliseconds(1); timer.Tick += OnTick; lastUpdate = Environment.TickCount; timer.Start(); } private void OnTick(object sender, EventArgs e) { double diff = Environment.TickCount - lastUpdate; double x = Canvas.GetLeft(rect); if (isRight) x += 1 * diff; else if (isLeft) x -= 1 * diff; Canvas.SetLeft(rect, x); lastUpdate = Environment.TickCount; } private void UserControl_KeyDown(object sender, KeyEventArgs e) { if (e.Key == Key.D) isRight = true; if (e.Key == Key.A) isLeft = true; } private void UserControl_KeyUp(object sender, KeyEventArgs e) { if (e.Key == Key.D) isRight = false; if (e.Key == Key.A) isLeft = false; } Thanks! Andrej

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• How to send email from an EC2 instance using GoDaddy's SMTP server?

  - by Matt Greer

  SMTP is a whole new ballgame for me, but I am reading up on it. I am attempting to send email from my EC2 instance using GoDaddy's SMTP server. My domain name is registered through GoDaddy and I have 2 email accounts with them. I can successfully send the email from my dev box no problem. my web.config <system.net> <mailSettings> <smtp from="[email protected]" deliveryMethod="Network"> <network host="smtpout.secureserver.net" clientDomain="mydomain.com" port="25" userName="[email protected]" password="mypassword" defaultCredentials="false" /> </smtp> </mailSettings> </system.net> In my ASP.NET app: MailMessage mailMessage = new MailMessage("[email protected]", recipientEmail, emailSubject, body); mailMessage.IsBodyHtml = false; SmtpClient mailClient = new SmtpClient(); mailClient.Send(mailMessage); Very typical, simple use of System.Net.Mail.SmtpClient. The mail client is picking up the settings from my web.config as expected. From the EC2 instance, the same setup yields: System.Net.Mail.SmtpException: Failure sending mail. ---> System.IO.IOException: Unable to read data from the transport connection: net_io_connectionclosed. at System.Net.Mail.SmtpReplyReaderFactory.ProcessRead(Byte[] buffer, Int32 offset, Int32 read, Boolean readLine) at System.Net.Mail.SmtpReplyReaderFactory.ReadLines(SmtpReplyReader caller, Boolean oneLine) at System.Net.Mail.SmtpReplyReaderFactory.ReadLine(SmtpReplyReader caller) at System.Net.Mail.SmtpConnection.GetConnection(ServicePoint servicePoint) at System.Net.Mail.SmtpClient.Send(MailMessage message) --- End of inner exception stack trace --- I have searched high and low and not found anyone else attempting this. All GoDaddy smtp situations I have found involve people being hosted by GoDaddy using their relay server. Some more info: My EC2 instance is Windows Server 2008 with IIS 7. The app is running in .NET 4 I can successfully use Gmail's SMTP server on the EC2 instance by using their port, setting SmtpClient.EnableSsl to true, and sending the mail through a gmail account. But we want to send the email from an account on our domain. I have port 25 open on both the Windows firewall and Amazon's Security group based firewall. I have played with Wireshark and noticed my SMTP related traffic was talking to ports in the 5,000s, so out of desperation I opened them all up to no avail (then closed them back down) As far as I know my EC2 instance's IP address is not black listed by GoDaddy. I have a feeling I'm just missing something fundamental. I also have a feeling someone is going to recommend I use AuthSmtp or something similar, I'll agree, and have had wasted the past 6 hours :)

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• Getting problem while capturing image through web cam in Java -OpenCV code.

  - by Chetan

  Hi.. I am developing Face detector using OpenCV library in java... I have written sample code for this,but it is giving Error while capturing image. can any one help please. Here is the code import java.awt.; import java.awt.event.; import java.awt.image.MemoryImageSource; import hypermedia.video.OpenCV; @SuppressWarnings("serial") public class FaceDetection extends Frame implements Runnable { ///Main method. public static void main(String[] args) { //System.out.println( "\nOpenCV face detection sample\n" ); new FaceDetection(); } // program execution frame rate (millisecond) final int FRAME_RATE = 1000/30; OpenCV cv = null; // OpenCV Object Thread t = null; // the sample thread // the input video stream image Image frame = null; // list of all face detected area Rectangle[] squares = new Rectangle[0]; //** Setup Frame and Object(s). FaceDetection() { super( "Face Detection" ); // OpenCV setup cv = new OpenCV(); //cv.capture(1, 1, 100); cv.capture( 320, 240 ); cv.cascade( OpenCV.CASCADE_FRONTALFACE_ALT ); // frame setup this.setBounds( 100, 100, cv.width, cv.height ); this.setBackground( Color.BLACK ); this.setVisible( true ); this.addKeyListener( new KeyAdapter() { public void keyReleased( KeyEvent e ) { if ( e.getKeyCode()==KeyEvent.VK_ESCAPE ) { // ESC : release OpenCV resources cv.dispose(); System.exit(0); } } } ); // start running program t = new Thread( this ); t.start(); } // Draw video frame and each detected faces area. public void paint( Graphics g ) { // draw image g.drawImage( frame, 0, 0, null ); // draw squares g.setColor( Color.RED ); for( Rectangle rect : squares ) g.drawRect( rect.x, rect.y, rect.width, rect.height ); } @SuppressWarnings("static-access") public void run() { while( t!=null && cv!=null ) { try { t.sleep( FRAME_RATE ); // grab image from video stream cv.read(); // create a new image from cv pixels data MemoryImageSource mis = new MemoryImageSource( cv.width, cv.height, cv.pixels(), 0, cv.width ); frame = createImage( mis ); // detect faces squares = cv.detect( 1.2f, 2, OpenCV.HAAR_DO_CANNY_PRUNING, 20, 20 ); // of course, repaint repaint(); } catch( InterruptedException e ) {;} } } } Error while starting capture : device 0

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• Add animation when user control get visible and collapsed In Wpf

  - by sanjeev40084

  I have two xaml files MainWindow.xaml and other user control WorkDetail.xaml file. MainWindow.xaml file has a textbox, button, listbox and reference to WorkDetail.xaml(user control which is collapsed). Whenever user enter any text, it gets added in listbox when the add button is clicked. When any items from the listbox is double clicked, the visibility of WorkDetail.xaml is set to Visible and it gets displayed. In WorkDetail.xaml (user control) it has textblock and button. The Textblock displays the text of selected item and close button sets the visibility of WorkDetail window to collapsed. Now i am trying to animate WorkDetail.xaml when it gets visible and collapse. When any items from listbox is double clicked and WorkDetail.xaml visibility is set to visible, i want to create an animation of moving WorkDetail.xaml window from right to left on MainWindow. When Close button from WorkDetail.xaml file is clicked and WorkDetail.xaml file is collapsed, i want to slide the WorkDetail.xaml file from left to right from MainWindow. Here is the screenshot: MainWindow.xaml code: <Window...> <Grid Background="Black" > <TextBox x:Name="enteredWork" Height="39" Margin="44,48,49,0" TextWrapping="Wrap" VerticalAlignment="Top"/> <ListBox x:Name="workListBox" Margin="26,155,38,45" FontSize="29.333" MouseDoubleClick="workListBox_MouseDoubleClick"/> <Button x:Name="addWork" Content="Add" Height="34" Margin="71,103,120,0" VerticalAlignment="Top" Click="Button_Click"/> <TestWpf:WorkDetail x:Name="WorkDetail" Visibility="Collapsed"/> </Grid> </Window> MainWindow.xaml.cs class code: namespace TestWpf { public partial class MainWindow : Window { public MainWindow() { this.InitializeComponent(); } private void Button_Click(object sender, RoutedEventArgs e) { workListBox.Items.Add(enteredWork.Text); } private void workListBox_MouseDoubleClick(object sender, MouseButtonEventArgs e) { WorkDetail.workTextBlk.Text = (string)workListBox.SelectedItem; WorkDetail.Visibility = Visibility.Visible; } } } WorkDetail.xaml code: <UserControl ..> <Grid Background="#FFD2CFCF"> <TextBlock x:Name="workTextBlk" Height="154" Margin="33,50,49,0" TextWrapping="Wrap" VerticalAlignment="Top" FontSize="29.333" Background="#FFF13939"/> <Button x:Name="btnClose" Content="Close" Height="62" Margin="70,0,94,87" VerticalAlignment="Bottom" Click="btnClose_Click"/> </Grid> </UserControl> WorkDetail.xaml.cs class code: namespace TestWpf { public partial class WorkDetail : UserControl { public WorkDetail() { this.InitializeComponent(); } private void btnClose_Click(object sender, System.Windows.RoutedEventArgs e) { Visibility = Visibility.Collapsed; } } } Can anyone tell how can i do this?

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• Custom JComponent not displaying in Custom JPanel

  - by Trizicus

  I've tried the add() method but nothing is displayed when I try to add Test to GraphicsTest. How should I be adding it? Can someone show me? I've included the code I'm using. import java.awt.Color; import java.awt.Graphics; import java.awt.Graphics2D; import javax.swing.JComponent; public class Test extends JComponent { Test() { setOpaque(false); setBackground(Color.white); } @Override public void paintComponent(Graphics g) { super.paintComponent(g); Graphics2D g2d = (Graphics2D) g.create(); g2d.setColor(Color.red); g2d.drawString("Hello", 50, 50); g2d.dispose(); } } import java.awt.Color; import java.awt.Graphics; import java.awt.Graphics2D; import java.awt.event.MouseEvent; import java.awt.event.MouseListener; import java.awt.geom.Rectangle2D; import javax.swing.JPanel; public class GraphicsTest extends JPanel implements MouseListener { private Graphics2D g2d; private String state; private int x, y; GraphicsTest() { add(new Test()); } @Override public void paintComponent(Graphics g) { super.paintComponent(g); g2d = (Graphics2D) g; g2d.setColor(Color.BLACK); g2d.drawString("STATE: " + state, 5, 15); g2d.drawString("Mouse Position: " + x + ", " + y, 5, 30); g2d.setColor(Color.red); Rectangle2D r2d = new Rectangle2D.Double(x, y, 10, 10); g2d.draw(r2d); g2d.dispose(); } public void setState(String state) { this.state = state; } public String getState() { return state; } public void setX(int x) { this.x = x; repaint(); } public void setY(int y) { this.y = y; repaint(); } public void mouseClicked(MouseEvent e) {} public void mousePressed(MouseEvent e) {} public void mouseReleased(MouseEvent e) {} public void mouseEntered(MouseEvent e) {} public void mouseExited(MouseEvent e) {} }

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• JLabel animation in JPanel

  - by Trizicus

  After scratching around I found that it's best to implement a custom image component by extending a JLabel. So far that has worked great as I can add multiple "images" (jlabels without the layout breaking. I just have a question that I hope someone can answer for me. I noticed that in order to animate JLabels across the screen I need to setlayout(null); and setbounds of the component and then to animate eventually setlocation(x,y);. Is this a best practice or a terrible way to animate a component? I plan on eventually making an animation class but I don't want to do so and end up having to chuck it. I have included relevant code for a quick review check. import java.awt.Color; import java.awt.Graphics; import java.awt.Graphics2D; import java.awt.event.ActionEvent; import java.awt.event.ActionListener; import javax.swing.JPanel; import javax.swing.Timer; public class GraphicsPanel extends JPanel { private Timer timer; private long startTime = 0; private int numFrames = 0; private float fps = 0.0f; private int x = 0; GraphicsPanel() { final Entity ent1 = new Entity(); ent1.setBounds(x, 0, ent1.getWidth(), ent1.getHeight()); add(ent1); //ESSENTIAL setLayout(null); //GAMELOOP timer = new Timer(30, new ActionListener() { public void actionPerformed(ActionEvent e) { getFPS(); incX(); ent1.setLocation(x, 0); repaint(); } }); timer.start(); } public void incX() { x++; } @Override public void paintComponent(Graphics g) { super.paintComponent(g); Graphics2D g2 = (Graphics2D) g.create(); g2.setClip(0, 0, getWidth(), getHeight()); g2.setColor(Color.BLACK); g2.drawString("FPS: " + fps, 1, 15); } public void getFPS() { ++numFrames; if (startTime == 0) { startTime = System.currentTimeMillis(); } else { long currentTime = System.currentTimeMillis(); long delta = (currentTime - startTime); if (delta > 1000) { fps = (numFrames * 1000) / delta; numFrames = 0; startTime = currentTime; } } } } Thank you!

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• WIA Automation for scanner color intent is not working

  - by Mike Nicholson

  I cannot get my Canon Pixma MP150 to scan a color scan from c# code. The following code is resulting in a black and white image, or if I change the value of 6146 to 2 then a grayscale image is created. I would like to be able to have a color scan from code. I know the scanner does color images because I can do one through the xp wizard in "scanners and camera". Can anyone help me figure out what value I am not setting for a color scan. All documentation and examples I can find just say to change the value of 6146. Thank you for taking the time to read this! private void ScanAndSaveOnePage () { WIA.CommonDialog Dialog1 = new WIA.CommonDialogClass(); WIA.DeviceManager DeviceManager1 = new WIA.DeviceManagerClass(); System.Object Object1 = null; System.Object Object2 = null; WIA.Device Scanner = null; Scanner = Dialog1.ShowSelectDevice(WIA.WiaDeviceType.ScannerDeviceType, false, false); WIA.Item Item1 = Scanner.Items[1]; setItem(Item1, "6146", 1); setItem(Item1, "6147", 150); setItem(Item1, "6148", 150); setItem(Item1, "6151", 150 * 8.5); setItem(Item1, "6152", 150 * 11); WIA.ImageFile Image1 = new WIA.ImageFile(); WIA.ImageProcess ImageProcess1 = new WIA.ImageProcess(); Object1 = (Object)"Convert"; ImageProcess1.Filters.Add(ImageProcess1.FilterInfos.get_Item(ref Object1).FilterID, 0); Object1 = (Object)"FormatID"; Object2 = (Object)WIA.FormatID.wiaFormatBMP; ImageProcess1.Filters[1].Properties.get_Item(ref Object1).set_Value(ref Object2); Object1 = null; Object2 = null; Image1 = (WIA.ImageFile)Item1.Transfer(WIA.FormatID.wiaFormatBMP); string DestImagePath = @"C:\test.bmp"; File.Delete(DestImagePath); Image1.SaveFile(DestImagePath); } private void setItem (IItem item, object property, object value) { WIA.Property aProperty = item.Properties.get_Item(ref property); aProperty.set_Value(ref value); }

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• Android GridView with ads below

  - by ktambascio

  Hi, I'm trying to integrate ads (admob) into my Android app. It's mostly working, except for one issue with the layout. My layout consists of: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="utf-8"?> <RelativeLayout xmlns:android="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/android" android:orientation="vertical" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent" xmlns:app="http://schemas.android.com/apk/res/com.example.photos"> <LinearLayout android:orientation="horizontal" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:id="@+id/status_layout"> <ImageView android:id="@+id/cardStatus" android:layout_width="wrap_content" android:layout_height="wrap_content" /> <TextView android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:text="@string/hello" android:id="@+id/cardStatusText" /> </LinearLayout> <GridView android:id="@+id/imageGridView" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="fill_parent" android:padding="10dp" android:verticalSpacing="10dp" android:horizontalSpacing="10dp" android:numColumns="auto_fit" android:columnWidth="100dp" android:stretchMode="columnWidth" android:gravity="center" android:layout_below="@id/status_layout" /> <!-- Place an AdMob ad at the bottom of the screen. --> <!-- It has white text on a black background. --> <!-- The description of the surrounding context is 'Android game'. --> <com.admob.android.ads.AdView android:id="@+id/ad" android:layout_width="fill_parent" android:layout_height="wrap_content" android:layout_alignParentBottom="true" app:backgroundColor="#000000" app:primaryTextColor="#FFFFFF" app:secondaryTextColor="#CCCCCC" app:keywords="Android Photo" /> </RelativeLayout> The ads are shown at the bottom of the screen, just as I want. However, they seem to be overlayed or drawn on top of the bottom portion of the grid view. I would like the gridview to be shorter, so that the ad can fill the bottom portion of the screen, and not hide part of the gridview. The problem is most annoying when you scroll all the way to the bottom of the gridview, and you still cannot fully see the last row items in the grid due to the ad. I'm not sure if this is the standard way that AdMob ads work. If this is the case, adding some padding to the bottom of the grid (if that's possible) would due the trick. That way the user can scroll a bit further, and see the last row in addition to the ad. I just switched from using LinearLayout to RelativeLayout after reading some similar issues with ListViews. Now my ad is along the bottom instead of above the grid, so I'm getting closer. Thoughts? -Kevin

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• IE7 relative/absolute positioning bug with dynamically modified page content

  - by Matthias Hryniszak

  Hi, I was wondering if there's anyone having an idea how to tackle with the following problem in IE7: <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head> <title>IE7 absolute positioning bug</title> <style type="text/css"> #panel { position: relative; border: solid 1px black; } #spacer { height: 100px; } #footer { position: absolute; bottom: 0px; } </style> <script type="text/javascript"> function toggle() { var spacer = document.getElementById("spacer"); var style = "block"; if (spacer.style.display == "block" || spacer.style.display == "") { style = "none"; } spacer.style.display = style; } </script> </head> <body> <div id="panel"> <button onclick="toggle();">Click me</button> <br /><br /><br /> <div id="spacer"></div> <div id="footer">This is some footer</div> </div> </body> </html> When you run this in IE7 you'll see that the "footer" element stays after modifying the CSS for "panel". The same example tested in IE8, FF and Chrome behaves exactly as expected. I've already tried updating the element's class but this does not work if the browser's window has been opened maximized and no further size changes were made to the window (which is about 90% of the use cases we have for our product.... :( ) I'm stuck with a CSS-based solution however I think that I can make an exception in this case if it can easily be made IE7-specific (which means that other browsers will behave in a standard way with this). Please help!

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• How can I use a custom TabItem control when databinding a TabControl in WPF?

  - by Russ

  I have a custom control that is derived from TabItem, and I want to databind that custom TabItem to a stock TabControl. I would rather avoid creating a new TabControl just for this rare case. This is what I have and I'm not having any luck getting the correct control to be loaded. In this case I want to use my ClosableTabItem control instead of the stock TabItem control. <TabControl x:Name="tabCases" IsSynchronizedWithCurrentItem="True" Controls:ClosableTabItem.TabClose="TabClosed" > <TabControl.ItemTemplate> <DataTemplate DataType="{x:Type Controls:ClosableTabItem}" > <TextBlock Text="{Binding Path=Id}" /> </DataTemplate> </TabControl.ItemTemplate> <TabControl.ContentTemplate> <DataTemplate DataType="{x:Type Entities:Case}"> <CallLog:CaseReadOnlyDisplay DataContext="{Binding}" /> </DataTemplate> </TabControl.ContentTemplate> </TabControl> EDIT: This is what I ended up with, rather than trying to bind a custom control. The "CloseCommand" im getting from a previous question. <Style TargetType="{x:Type TabItem}" BasedOn="{StaticResource {x:Type TabItem}}" > <Setter Property="Template"> <Setter.Value> <ControlTemplate TargetType="{x:Type TabItem}"> <Border Name="Border" Background="LightGray" BorderBrush="Black" BorderThickness="1" CornerRadius="25,0,0,0" SnapsToDevicePixels="True"> <StackPanel Orientation="Horizontal"> <ContentPresenter x:Name="ContentSite" VerticalAlignment="Center" HorizontalAlignment="Center" ContentSource="Header" Margin="20,1,5,1"/> <Button Command="{Binding Path=CloseCommand}" Cursor="Hand" DockPanel.Dock="Right" Focusable="False" Margin="1,1,5,1" Background="Transparent" BorderThickness="0"> <Image Source="/Russound.Windows;component/Resources/Delete.png" Height="10" /> </Button> </StackPanel> </Border> <ControlTemplate.Triggers> <Trigger Property="IsSelected" Value="True"> <Setter Property="FontWeight" Value="Bold" /> <Setter TargetName="Border" Property="Background" Value="LightBlue" /> <Setter TargetName="Border" Property="BorderThickness" Value="1,1,1,0" /> <Setter TargetName="Border" Property="BorderBrush" Value="DarkBlue" /> </Trigger> </ControlTemplate.Triggers> </ControlTemplate> </Setter.Value> </Setter> </Style>

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