Search Results

Search found 37135 results on 1486 pages for 'html tables'.

Page 635/1486 | < Previous Page | 631 632 633 634 635 636 637 638 639 640 641 642  | Next Page >

  • Gotchas INSERTing into SQLite on Android?

    - by paul.meier
    Hi friends, I'm trying to set up a simple SQLite database in Android, handling the schema via a subclass of SQLiteOpenHelper. However, when I query my tables, the columns I think I've inserted are never present. Namely, in SQLiteOpenHelper's onCreate(SQLiteDatabase db) method, I use db.execSQL() to run CREATE TABLE commands, then have tried both db.execSQL and db.insert() to run INSERT commands on the tables I've just created. This appears to run fine, but when I try to query them I always get 0 rows returned (for debugging, the queries I'm running are simple SELECT * FROM table and checking the Cursor's getCount()). Anybody run into anything like this before? These commands seem to run on command-line sqlite3. Are they're gotchas that I'm missing (e.g. INSERTS must/must not be semicolon terminated, or some issue involving multiple tables)? I've attached some of the code below. Thanks for your time, and let me know if I can clarify further. @Override public void onCreate(SQLiteDatabase db) { db.execSQL("CREATE TABLE "+ LEVEL_TABLE +" (" + " "+ _ID +" INTEGER PRIMARY KEY AUTOINCREMENT," + " level TEXT NOT NULL,"+ " rows INTEGER NOT NULL,"+ " cols INTEGER NOT NULL);"); db.execSQL("CREATE TABLE "+ DYNAMICS_TABLE +" (" + " level_id INTEGER NOT NULL," + " row INTEGER NOT NULL,"+ " col INTEGER NOT NULL,"+ " type INTEGER NOT NULL);"); db.execSQL("CREATE TABLE "+ SCORE_TABLE +" (" + " level_id INTEGER NOT NULL," + " score INTEGER NOT NULL,"+ " date_achieved DATE NOT NULL,"+ " name TEXT NOT NULL);"); this.enterFirstLevel(db); } And a sample of the insert code I'm currently using, which gets called in enterFirstLevel() (some values hard-coded just to get it running...): private void insertDynamic(SQLiteDatabase db, int row, int col, int type) { ContentValues values = new ContentValues(); values.put("level_id", "1"); values.put("row", Integer.toString(row)); values.put("col", Integer.toString(col)); values.put("type", Integer.toString(type)); db.insertOrThrow(DYNAMICS_TABLE, "col", values); } Finally, query code looks like this: private Cursor fetchLevelDynamics(int id) { SQLiteDatabase db = this.leveldata.getReadableDatabase(); try { String fetchQuery = "SELECT * FROM " + DYNAMICS_TABLE; String[] queryArgs = new String[0]; Cursor cursor = db.rawQuery(fetchQuery, queryArgs); Activity activity = (Activity) this.context; activity.startManagingCursor(cursor); return cursor; } finally { db.close(); } }

    Read the article

  • Passing params in rails... Breakthrough in understanding params, aka, the "aha" moment

    - by Brian McDonough
    I have a simple has_many belongs_to relationship and I want to include the parent object for the view of the belongs_to model and I have had some success, but I want it to work better. class Submission < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :user belongs_to :contest end class Contest < ActiveRecord::Base belongs_to :user has_many :submissions, :dependent => :destroy end In the case that works, I pass contest_id to submissions by placing it in the url: <%= link_to 'Submit Contest Entry', new_submission_path(:contest_id => @contest.id), :class => 'btn btn-primary btn-large mleft10' %> So that, combined with a hidden_field: <%= f.hidden_field :contest_id %> And a find_contest method in the controller (called with a before_filter): def find_contest #the next line is giving the error (line 76) @contest = Contest.find(params[:submission][:contest_id]) end Makes it work for submissions/new, but how do I add a find to the controller that just works across more than that one page, like if I want to access in show and index. Right now, I get an error: Started GET "/submissions?contest_id=5" for 127.0.0.1 at 2012-12-01 16:01:45 -0800 Processing by SubmissionsController#index as HTML Parameters: {"contest_id"=>"5"} User Load (0.3ms) SELECT "users".* FROM "users" WHERE "users"."id" = 2 ORDER BY users.created_at DESC LIMIT 1 Completed 500 Internal Server Error in 37ms NoMethodError (undefined method `[]' for nil:NilClass): app/controllers/submissions_controller.rb:76:in `find_contest' [edited] Adding show action for submissions: before_filter :find_contest, :except => [:index, :show, :edit, :update, :destroy] def find_contest @contest = Contest.find(params[:submission][:contest_id]) end def show contest_id = @submission.contest_id @submission = @commentable = Submission.find(params[:id]) @comments = @commentable.comments.order(:created_at).reverse respond_to do |format| format.html # show.html.erb format.json { render :json => @submission } end end

    Read the article

  • Any danger in calling flash messages html_safe?

    - by PreciousBodilyFluids
    I want a flash message that looks something like: "That confirmation link is invalid or expired. Click here to have a new one generated." Where "click here" is of course a link to another action in the app where a new confirmation link can be generated. Two drawbacks: One, since link_to isn't defined in the controller where the flash message is being set, I have to put the link html in myself. No big deal, but kind of messy. Number two: In order for the link to actually display properly on the page I have to html_safe the flash display function in the view, so now it looks like (using Haml): - flash.each do |name, message| = content_tag :div, message.html_safe This gives me pause. Everything else I html_safe has been HTML I've written myself in helpers and whatnot, but the contents of the flash hash are stored in a cookie client-side, and could conceivably be changed. I've thought through it, and I don't see how this could result in an XSS attack, but XSS isn't something I have a great understanding of anyway. So, two questions: 1. Is there any danger in always html_safe-ing all flash contents like this? 2. The fact that this solution is so messy (breaking MVC by using HTML in the controller, always html_safe-ing all flash contents) make me think I'm going about this wrong. Is there a more elegant, Rails-ish way to do this? I'm using Rails 3.0.0.beta3.

    Read the article

  • How best to associate code with events in jQuery?

    - by Ned Batchelder
    Suppose I have a <select> element on my HTML page, and I want to run some Javascript when the selection is changed. I'm using jQuery. I have two ways to associate the code with the element. Method 1: jQuery .change() <select id='the_select'> <option value='opt1'>One</option> <option value='opt2'>Two</option> </select> <script> $('#the_select').change(function() { alert('Changed!'); }); </script> Method 2: onChange attribute <select id='the_select' onchange='selectChanged();'> <option value='opt1'>One</option> <option value='opt2'>Two</option> </select> <script> function selectChanged() { alert('Changed!'); } </script> I understand the different modularity here: for example, method 1 keeps code references out of the HTML, but method 2 doesn't need to mention HTML ids in the code. What I don't understand is: are there operational differences between these two that would make me prefer one over the other? For example, are there edge-case browsers where one of these works and the other doesn't? Is the integration with jQuery better for either? Does the late-binding of the code to the event make a difference in the behavior of the page? Which do you pick and why?

    Read the article

  • How to retrieve MYSQL records as an INSERT statement.

    - by Aglystas
    I'm trying come up with the best method of synchronizing particular rows of 2 different database tables. So, for example there's 2 product tables in different databases as such... Origin Database product{ merchant_id, product_id, ... additional fields } Destination Database product{ merchant_id product_id ... additional fields } So, the database schema is the same for both. However I'm looking to select records with a particular merchant_id, remove all records from the destination table that have that merchant_id and replace those records with records from the origin database of the same merchant_id. My first thought was using mysqldump, parsing out the create table statements, and only running the Insert Statements. Seems like a pain though. So I was wondering if there is a better technique to do this. I would think mysql has some method of creating INSERT statements as output from a SELECT statement, so you can define how to insert specific record information into a new db. Any help would be appreciated, thank you much.

    Read the article

  • Reset auto increment column value in script mysql

    - by Lucia
    Hi, I have two mysql tables, one needs to start its auto-increment column id with the last value of the last inserted row in the other table (plus 1). According to mysql manual you can restart the value of an auto increment column like this: mysql ALTER TABLE tbl AUTO_INCREMENT = 100; However, this is not possible: mysql ALTER TABLE tb2 AUTO_INCREMENT = (SELECT MAX(id) FROM tbl1); I need to perform something like this because I'm filling the tables using a script. Is there another way to achieve it?

    Read the article

  • JQuery - Microsoft JScript runtime error: Object expected

    - by ydobonmai
    Below is the content of my .aspx page and the "jquery-ui-1.7.1.custom.min.js" is in the same location as the .aspx file. When I run the website with debugging, I get the below error. I know I am terribly missing something here. Any clue? Error :- Microsoft JScript runtime error: Object expected When I run without debugging, I get the following javascript error:- Line: 10 Error: 'jQuery' is undefined ASPX page content:- <%@ Page Language="C#" AutoEventWireup="true" CodeFile="Default3.aspx.cs" Inherits="Default3" %> <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml"> <head runat="server"> <title></title> <script src="jquery-ui-1.7.1.custom.min.js" type="text/javascript"></script> </head> <body> <form id="form1" runat="server"> <div> <script>$(function () { alert('hello') });</script> </div> </form> </body> </html>

    Read the article

  • Entity framework and database logic.

    - by Xavier Devian
    Hi all, i have a question that's being around for several years. As all you know entity framework is an ORM tool that tries to model the database to an object oriented access model. All the samples I've seen are quering directly to the database tables. So, which is the role of the views in the database now?. The views were used to model the database in a more friendly way, that is, several physical tables, one logic table. This was great for example in hidding the complex relational model on stored procedures as queryng the views inside them was much easier than reproducing the query joins over and over on each stored procedure. So the question is, why is entity framework so good if stored procedures can not take benefit of it?

    Read the article

  • In SQL Server merge replication, how does reinitializing work?

    - by Craig Shearer
    I have set up a pull subscription to a merge publication in SQL Server. I use parameterized row filters on some tables. This works fine with the initial synchronization - just the rows using the filter arrive in the replicated (client) database. However, at some later point I'd like to be able to synchronize the replicated database again from the server and have new rows that match the parameterized row filters appear on the client database. The doucmentation seems to indicate that I can call Reinitialize() to do this. However, when I do try this and Synchronize again, I get an error saying that the script 'snapshot.pre' cannot be applied to the database. I've inspected the script and can see why - it's trying to drop some functions are used by the tables in the database. It would appear that for Reinitialize() to work it requires that the database be blank. Am I misunderstanding something here? Is there a way to make this work?

    Read the article

  • How to Sum calulated fields

    - by Nazero Jerry
    I‘d like to ask I question that here that I think would be easy to some people. Ok I have query that return records of two related tables. (One to many) In this query I have about 3 to 4 calculated fields that are based on the fields from the 2 tables. Now I want to have a group by clause for names and sum clause to sum the calculated fields but it ends up in error message saying: “You tried to execute a query that is not part of aggregate function” So I decided to just run the query without the totals *(ie no group by , sum etc,,,) : And then I created another query that totals my previous query. ( i.e. using group by clause for names and sum for calculated fields… no calculation here) This is fine ( I use to do this) but I don’t like having two queries just to get summary total. Is their any other way of doing this in the design view and create only one query?. I would very much appreciate. Thankyou: JM

    Read the article

  • To join or not to join - database structure

    - by Industrial
    Hi! We're drawing up the database structure with the help of mySQL Workbench for a new app and the number of joins required to make a listing of the data is increasing drastically as the many-to-many relationships increases. The questions: Is it really that bad to merge tables where needed and thereby reducing joins? Is there a better way then pivot tables to take care of many-to-many relationships? We discussed about instead storing all data in serialized text columns and having the application make the sorting instead of the database, but this seems like a very bad idea, even though that the database will be heavily cached. What do you think? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Python 3, urllib ... Reset Connection Possible?

    - by Rhys
    In the larger scale of my program the goal of the below code is to filter out all dynamic html in a web-page source code code snippet: try: deepreq3 = urllib.request.Request(deepurl3) deepreq3.add_header("User-Agent","etc......") deepdata3 = urllib.request.urlopen(deepurl3).read().decode("utf8", 'ignore') The following code is looped 3 times in order to identify whether the target web-page is Dynamic (source code is changed at intervals) or not. If the page IS dynamic, the above code loops another 15 times and attempts to filter out the dynamic content. QUESTION: While this filtering method works 80% of the time, some pages will reload ALL 15 times and STILL contain dynamic code. HOWEVER. If I manually close down the Python Shell and re-execute my program, the dynamic html that my 'refresh-page method' could not shake off is no longer there ... it's been replaced with new dynamic html that my 'refresh-page method' cannot shake off. So I need to know, what is going on here? How is re-running my program causing the dynamic content of a page to change. AND, is there any way, any 'reset connection' command I can use to recreate this ... without manually restarting my app. Thanks for your response.

    Read the article

  • Bind a ViewModel to a DropDownListFor with a third value besides dataValueField/dataTextField

    - by Elisa
    When I show a list of testplanViewModels in my View and the user selects one the SelectedTestplanId is returned to the Controller post action. What should also be returned is the TemplateId which belongs to the SelectedTestplanId. When the AutoMapper definition is run the Testplan.TestplanId is implicitly copied over to the TestplanViewModel.TestplanId. The same could be done by providing a TemplateId on the TestplanViewModel. When the user selects now a "TestplanViewModel" in the View, how can I attach the TemplateId to the controller action to access it there? The DropDownList does not allow 2 dataValueFields! CreateMap<Testplan, TestplanViewModel>().ForMember(dest => dest.Name, opt => opt.MapFrom(src => string.Format("{0}-{1}-{2}-{3}", src.Release.Name, src.Template.Name, src.CreatedAt, src.CreatedBy))); public ActionResult OpenTestplanViewModels() { IEnumerable<Testplan> testplans = _testplanDataProvider.GetTestplans(); var viewModel = new OpenTestplanViewModel { DisplayList = Mapper.Map<IEnumerable<Testplan>, IEnumerable<TestplanViewModel>>(testplans) }; return PartialView(viewModel); } public class TestplanViewModel { public int TestplanId { get; set; } public string Name { get; set; } } public class OpenTestplanViewModel { [Required(ErrorMessage = "No item selected.")] public int SelectedTestplanId { get; set; } public IEnumerable<TestplanViewModel> DisplayList { get; set; } } OpenTestplanViewModel @using (Html.BeginForm("Open", "Testplan")) { @Html.ValidationSummary(false) @Html.DropDownListFor(x => x.SelectedTestplanId, new SelectList(Model.DisplayList, "TestplanId", "Name"), new { @class = "listviewmodel" }) }

    Read the article

  • How do I correctly use two Not Exists statements in a where clause using Access SQL VBA?

    - by Bryan
    I have 3 Tables: NotHeard,analyzed,analyzed2. In each of these tables I have two columns named UnitID and Address. What I'm trying to do right now is to select all of the records for the columns UnitID and Address from NotHeard that don't appear in either analyzed or analyzed2. The SQL statement I created was as follows: SELECT UnitID, Address INTO [NotHeardByEither] FROM [NotHeard] Where NOT EXISTS( Select analyzed.UnitID FROM analyzed WHERE [NotHeard].UnitID = analyzed.UnitID) or NOT EXISTS( Select analyzed2.UnitID FROM analyzed2 WHERE [NotHeard].UnitID = analyzed2.UnitID) Group BY UnitID, Address I thought this would work since I've used the single NOT EXISTS subquery line and it has worked just fine for me in the past. The above query however returns the same data that is in the NotHeard table whereas if I take out the or NOT EXISTS part it works correctly. Any ideas as to what I'm doing wrong or how to do what I'm wanting to do?

    Read the article

  • Nerd Dinner tutorial question (can't pull data off Model)

    - by Alexander
    I am just following the tutorial about NerdDinner and was stuck because when I am implementing the "Index" View Template I got no data from it. It seems that when I loop around in the code below: <asp:Content ID="Title" ContentPlaceHolderID="TitleContent" runat="server"> Upcoming Dinners </asp:Content> <asp:Content ID="Main" ContentPlaceHolderID="MainContent" runat="server"> <h2>Upcoming Dinners</h2> <ul> <% foreach (var dinner in Model) { %> <li> <%=Html.ActionLink(dinner.Title, "Details", new { id=dinner.DinnerID }) %> on <%=Html.Encode(dinner.EventDate.ToShortDateString())%> @ <%=Html.Encode(dinner.EventDate.ToShortTimeString())%> </li> <% } %> </ul> </asp:Content> There seems to be nothing in the Model... why is this? I am pretty sure there's data in the database because the details view template worked. FYI I am following the tutorial up to this page

    Read the article

  • Chrome: Dynamically created <style> tag does not have content?

    - by Shizhidi
    Hello. I encountered a weird problem when trying to write a cross-browser script. Basically my header looks like this <html> <head> <script src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.4.2/jquery.min.js"></script> </head> Then in the body tag: <p id="hey">Hey</p> <input type="button" value="attachStyle" name="attachStyle" onclick="attachStyle();"></input> <script> function attachStyle() { var strVar=""; strVar += "<style type='text\/css'>#hey {border:5px solid red;}<\/script>"; $("head").append(strVar); } </script> The button works in Firefox, but not in Chrome. When I looked at the html DOM elements in the developer tool, the style tag was inserted but without content, like this: <html> <head> <script src="http://ajax.googleapis.com/ajax/libs/jquery/1.4.2/jquery.min.js"></script> <style type='text/css'></script> </head> I'm curious as to what causes this? And how to create CSS style in a way that is cross-browser? Thanks!

    Read the article

  • Recommended Meta Elements?

    - by joyce
    Hi everyone! Setting up a "basic framework" for my website projects, I'm wondering which meta elements are really necessary/recommended? In particular, I'd like to know how to deal with the language attribute(s)!? In the following example, I think sth. is repeated unnecessarily... <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Strict//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-strict.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" xml:lang="en" lang="en" dir="ltr"> <head> <meta http-equiv="content-type" content="text/html; charset=utf-8" /> <meta http-equiv="content-style-type" content="text/css" /> <meta http-equiv="content-script-type" content="text/javascript" /> <meta http-equiv="content-language" content="en" /> <meta http-equiv="language" content="en" /> <title> Title </title> <base href="http://www.mydomain.com" /> <meta name="charset" content="utf-8" /> <meta name="content-language" content="en" /> <meta name="language" content="en" /> <meta name="description" content="description" /> <meta name="keywords" content="keywords" /> </head>

    Read the article

  • NHibernate and hbm2dll update attribute

    - by michael lucas
    Hi, i'm using NHibernate with Sdf database. In my hibernate.cfg.xml file i've set: <property name="hbm2ddl.auto" value="update"/> But this does not seem to work at all. "Update" attribute should make NHibernate generate missing tables and columns during application launch, but it does not happen. If i want missing tables geenrated I have to set hbm2dll.auto property to "create" which is not an option for me since it drops existing db content beforehand. I experienced the same problem with PostgreSql problem. Am I missing something?

    Read the article

  • What is the most elegant way to implement a business rule relating to a child collection in LINQ?

    - by AaronSieb
    I have two tables in my database: Wiki WikiId ... WikiUser WikiUserId (PK) WikiId UserId IsOwner ... These tables have a one (Wiki) to Many (WikiUser) relationship. How would I implement the following business rule in my LINQ entity classes: "A Wiki must have exactly one owner?" I've tried updating the tables as follows: Wiki WikiId (PK) OwnerId (FK to WikiUser) ... WikiUser WikiUserId (PK) WikiId UserId ... This enforces the constraint, but if I remove the owner's WikiUser record from the Wiki's WikiUser collection, I recieve an ugly SqlException. This seems like it would be difficult to catch and handle in the UI. Is there a way to perform this check before the SqlException is generated? A better way to structure my database? A way to catch and translate the SqlException to something more useful? Edit: I would prefer to keep the validation rules within the LINQ entity classes if possible. Edit 2: Some more details about my specific situation. In my application, the user should be able to remove users from the Wiki. They should be able to remove any user, except the user who is currently flagged as the "owner" of the Wiki (a Wiki must have exactly one owner at all times). In my control logic, I'd like to use something like this: wiki.WikiUsers.Remove(wikiUser); mRepository.Save(); And have any broken rules transferred to the UI layer. What I DON'T want to have to do is this: if(wikiUser.WikiUserId != wiki.OwnerId) { wiki.WikiUsers.Remove(wikiUser); mRepository.Save(); } else { //Handle errors. } I also don't particularly want to move the code to my repository (because there is nothing to indicate not to use the native Remove functions), so I also DON'T want code like this: mRepository.RemoveWikiUser(wiki, wikiUser) mRepository.Save(); This WOULD be acceptable: try { wiki.WikiUsers.Remove(wikiUser); mRepository.Save(); } catch(ValidationException ve) { //Display ve.Message } But this catches too many errors: try { wiki.WikiUsers.Remove(wikiUser); mRepository.Save(); } catch(SqlException se) { //Display se.Message } I would also PREFER NOT to explicitly call a business rule check (although it may become necessary): wiki.WIkiUsers.Remove(wikiUser); if(wiki.CheckRules()) { mRepository.Save(); } else { //Display broken rules }

    Read the article

  • Can a page opt out of IIS 7 compression?

    - by Glen Little
    My pages are automatically being compressed by IIS7 with GZIP. That is great... but, for one particular page, I need to stream it to the user, using Response.Flush() when needed. But when the output is being compressed, the IIS server seems to collect all my output until the page is done before compressing and sending it to the client. That nullifies my attempt to Flush the content out to the user. Is there a way that I can have this one page opt out of the compression? One possible option I've determined that if I manually set the content type to one that does not match the IIS configuration at c:\windows\system32\inetsrv\config\applicationhost.config, then IIS will not compress it. Eg. Response.ContentType = "x-text/html". This works okay with IE8, as it falls back to display the HTML. But Firefox will ask the user what to do with the unknown file type. This could work, if there was another Mime Type I could use that browsers would accept as HTML, that is not matched in the applicationhost.config. For reference, these are the mime types that will be compressed: <add mimeType="text/*" enabled="true" /> <add mimeType="message/*" enabled="true" /> <add mimeType="application/x-javascript" enabled="true" /> <add mimeType="application/atom+xml" enabled="true" /> <add mimeType="application/xaml+xml" enabled="true" /> Others options? Are there other options to opt out of compression?

    Read the article

  • From Servlet to JSP

    - by kawtousse
    When trying to pass a table built with HTML in my servlet like that: response.setContentType("text/html" ); PrintWriter out = response.getWriter(); out.println("<html>" ); out.println("<head>" ); out.println("<title>Imput OPC</title>" ); out.println("</head>" ); out.println("<body>" ); ... and then response.sendRedirect("/xxx.jsp" ); But I did not found any table in the JSP. A friend told me to use a Bean but how can i catch values from the form ( because I have a treatement with the form before constructing table)in a bean.I must use a servlet for that. So what I want is exactly to construct in the response a table then send it to jsp knowing that: .sendRedirect and getServletContext().getRequestDispatcher("/xxx.jsp").forward(request, response); gives nothing at all. Please Help its urgent. Thinks.

    Read the article

  • How to handle checkboxes in ASP.NET MVC forms?

    - by Will
    This seems a bit bizarre to me, but as far as I can tell, this is how you do it. I have a collection of objects, and I want users to select one or more of them. This says to me "form with checkboxes." My objects don't have any concept of "selected" (they're rudimentary POCO's formed by deserializing a wcf call). So, I do the following: public class SampleObject{ public Guid Id {get;set;} public string Name {get;set;} } In the view: <% using (Html.BeginForm()) { %> <%foreach (var o in ViewData.Model) {%> <%=Html.CheckBox(o.Id)%>&nbsp;<%= o.Name %> <%}%> <input type="submit" value="Submit" /> <%}%> And, in the controller, this is the only way I can see to figure out what objects the user checked: public ActionResult ThisLooksWeird(FormCollection result) { var winnars = from x in result.AllKeys where result[x] != "false" select x; // yadda } Its freaky in the first place, and secondly, for those items the user checked, the FormCollection lists its value as "true false" rather than just true. Obviously, I'm missing something. I think this is built with the idea in mind that the objects in the collection that are acted upon within the html form are updated using UpdateModel() or through a ModelBinder. But my objects aren't set up for this; does that mean that this is the only way? Is there another way to do it?

    Read the article

  • JPA Database strcture for internationalisation

    - by IrishDubGuy
    I am trying to get a JPA implementation of a simple approach to internationalisation. I want to have a table of translated strings that I can reference in multiple fields in multiple tables. So all text occurrences in all tables will be replaced by a reference to the translated strings table. In combination with a language id, this would give a unique row in the translated strings table for that particular field. For example, consider a schema that has entities Course and Module as follows :- Course int course_id, int name, int description Module int module_id, int name The course.name, course.description and module.name are all referencing the id field of the translated strings table :- TranslatedString int id, String lang, String content That all seems simple enough. I get one table for all strings that could be internationalised and that table is used across all the other tables. How might I do this in JPA, using eclipselink 2.4? I've looked at embedded ElementCollection, ala this... JPA 2.0: Mapping a Map - it isn't exactly what i'm after cos it looks like it is relating the translated strings table to the pk of the owning table. This means I can only have one translatable string field per entity (unless I add new join columns into the translatable strings table, which defeats the point, its the opposite of what I am trying to do). I'm also not clear on how this would work across entites, presumably the id of each entity would have to use a database wide sequence to ensure uniqueness of the translatable strings table. BTW, I tried the example as laid out in that link and it didn't work for me - as soon as the entity had a localizedString map added, persisting it caused the client side to bomb but no obvious error on the server side and nothing persisted in the DB :S I been around the houses on this about 9 hours so far, I've looked at this Internationalization with Hibernate which appears to be trying to do the same thing as the link above (without the table definitions it hard to see what he achieved). Any help would be gratefully achieved at this point... Edit 1 - re AMS anwser below, I'm not sure that really addresses the issue. In his example it leaves the storing of the description text to some other process. The idea of this type of approach is that the entity object takes the text and locale and this (somehow!) ends up in the translatable strings table. In the first link I gave, the guy is attempting to do this by using an embedded map, which I feel is the right approach. His way though has two issues - one it doesn't seem to work! and two if it did work, it is storing the FK in the embedded table instead of the other way round (I think, I can't get it to run so I can't see exactly how it persists). I suspect the correct approach ends up with a map reference in place of each text that needs translating (the map being locale-content), but I can't see how to do this in a way that allows for multiple maps in one entity (without having corresponding multiple columns in the translatable strings table)...

    Read the article

  • Little Employee/Shift timetable HELP!!!

    - by DAVID
    Morning Guys, I have the following tables: operator(ope_id, ope_name) ope_shift(ope_id, shift_id, shift_date) shift(shift_id, shift_start, shift_end) here is a better view of the data http://latinunit.net/emp_shift.txt here is the screenshot of a select statement to the tables http://img256.imageshack.us/img256/4013/opeshift.jpg im using this code SELECT OPE_ID, COUNT(OPE_ID) AS Total_shifts from operator_shift group by ope_id; to view the current total shifts per operator and it works, BUT if there was 500 more rows it would count them all aswell, THE QUESTION is, anyone has a better way of making my database work, or how can i tell the system that those rows are a whole month, i remember i friend said something about count then devide by 30 but im not sure, what if the month isnt finished? and you want to show the emp with highest shifts to date

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 631 632 633 634 635 636 637 638 639 640 641 642  | Next Page >