Search Results

Search found 17336 results on 694 pages for 'richard long'.

Page 636/694 | < Previous Page | 632 633 634 635 636 637 638 639 640 641 642 643  | Next Page >

  • Passing Data of WebView to Another Activity

    - by meygraph
    I've designed a training program and Html texts and image put into training. I want to address my html file by an activity to sent another activity. This is MainActivity /* * ListView item click listener. So we'll have the do stuff on click of * our ListItem */ listViewArticles.setOnItemClickListener(new OnItemClickListener() { public void onItemClick(AdapterView<?> parent, View view, int position, long id) { switch (position) { case 0: Intent newActivity0 = new Intent(TrickPage.this,a_Dotted_Lines.class); startActivity(newActivity0); break; case 1: Intent newActivity1 = new Intent(TrickPage.this,TutorialsPage.class); startActivity(newActivity1); break; case 2: Intent newActivity2 = new Intent(TrickPage.this,TutorialsPage.class); startActivity(newActivity2); break; case 3: Intent newActivity3 = new Intent(TrickPage.this,TutorialsPage.class); startActivity(newActivity3); break; default: // Nothing do! } and this SecondActivity (show WebView) public class a_Dotted_Lines extends Activity { private WebView webView; @SuppressLint("SetJavaScriptEnabled") @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.a_dotted_lines); // Button HOME ImageButton ImageButton_home = (ImageButton) findViewById(R.id.ImageButton_home); ImageButton_home.setOnClickListener(new View.OnClickListener() { @Override public void onClick(View v) { Intent intent = new Intent(); intent.setClass(a_Dotted_Lines.this, Main.class); startActivity(intent); overridePendingTransition(R.anim.fadein, R.anim.fadeout); } }); //Button Previous ImageButton ImageButton_previus = (ImageButton) findViewById(R.id.ImageButton_previus); ImageButton_previus.setOnClickListener(new View.OnClickListener() { @Override public void onClick(View v) { //Closing SecondScreen Activity finish(); } }); webView = (WebView) findViewById(R.id.webview_compontent); webView.getSettings().setJavaScriptEnabled(true); webView.loadUrl("file:///android_asset/html/article.htm"); } } I want Send "file:///android_asset/html/article.htm" or other addres from MainActivity Is it possible? Sorry My English is not good

    Read the article

  • jquery tablesorter problem in FF only - header row disappears after show-hide of rows

    - by dac
    When the page loads, all the records show. Sorting works great until show-hide is used to filter the rows so only some show. Then the header row--with the arrows for sorting--DISAPPEARS. The problem is only in Firefox. It works great in IE7 and IE8. I'm using jQuery 1.4.2 from google. Code for show-hide $(document).ready(function() { // show all the rows $("#org_status tr").show(); //find selected filter $("#filter_status a").click(function(evt) { evt.preventDefault(); $("#org_status tr").hide(); var id = $(this).attr('id'); $("." + id).show(); }); }); Here is the HTML: <!-- show-hide "buttons" --> <p id='filter_status'>Filter by status: <a href='#' id='All'>All</a> <a href='#' id='Active'>Active</a> <a href='#' id='Inactive'>Inactive</a> <a href='#' id='Pending'>Pending</a> </p> <!-- table to sort -> <table id='org_status' class='info_table tablesorter'> <thead> <tr> <th class='org-name-col'>Name</th> <th class='org-status-col'>Status</th> </tr> </thead> <tbody> <tr class='All Active'> <td><a href='admin/org_edit.php?org=29'>Foo Net</a></td> <td>Active</td>"; </tr> <tr class='All Inactive'> <td><a href='admin/org_edit.php?org=22'>Bar</a></td> <td>Active</td>"; </tr> <tr class='All Pending'> <td><a href='admin/org_edit.php?org=11'> Bar Foo Very Long Org Name Goes Here</a></td> <td>Active</td>"; </tr> </tbody> </table>

    Read the article

  • Create Duplicate Records on SELECT for Calendar Date Range

    - by peterallcdn
    Hey all, I've built a pretty shnazzy calendar system but there is one tweak that I need to make so that I'm completely happy with it. My calendar has three tables: calevents - The calendared event. caldates - The occurrences and date-range of each occurrence for each event. calcats - The categories that can be applied to an event. The short: For each calevent, there can be many caldates, one for each occurrence of calevent. So a calevent that repeats weekly and spans 3 days might have caldates like this: date_id date_eid date_start date_end 2 37 2010-06-21 2010-06-23 3 37 2010-06-28 2010-06-30 7 37 2010-07-05 2010-07-07 9 37 2010-07-12 2010-07-14 What I want to do, is when selecting all the caldates for a specified month such as 2010-06, to return not just the two records above, but instead a record for each date in the range of date_start and date_end for each caldate. So if I searched for 2010-06, I would get: date_id date_eid date_start date_end date_day 2 37 2010-06-21 2010-06-23 2010-06-21 2 37 2010-06-21 2010-06-23 2010-06-22 2 37 2010-06-21 2010-06-23 2010-06-23 3 37 2010-06-28 2010-06-30 2010-06-28 3 37 2010-06-28 2010-06-30 2010-06-29 3 37 2010-06-28 2010-06-30 2010-06-30 The Long: The reason I want to do this, is so when displaying a list of events(calevents) for a specified month, an occurrence(caldates) of that event will be displayed for EACH of the days it spans. I could do this with php by looping through each day of the current month and displaying a copy of each caldate if the month day falls between date_start and date_end. But doing it this way will prevent me from using record pagination if needed. For example, if for a specified month the following caldates were returned: date_id date_eid date_start date_end 2 37 2010-06-21 2010-06-27 94 53 2010-06-09 2010-07-08 Doing record pagination would see this as only 2 records("rows"). But looping through them with PHP would generate 29 "rows". So, I figure if I use mysql to create each row instead of PHP, I can achieve the same thing AND still be able to use pagination if a month has a lot of events/dates. As far as performance goes, I'm not sure which option is more efficient. Both would send the same amount of info to the browser, so it's really only the work required to generate the info that matters. My current query which fetches all the occurrences for a specified month, and to make things just a little more complicated... joins them with their event and category, looks like this: $sql_to_execute = " SELECT date_id, date_eid, date_start, date_end, event_id, event_title, event_category, event_private, event_location, SUBSTRING_INDEX(event_detailsstripped, ' ', 40) AS event_detailsstripped, event_time, event_starttime, event_endtime, event_active, cat_colour FROM ( caldates LEFT JOIN calevents ON caldates.date_eid = calevents.event_id ) LEFT JOIN calcats ON calevents.event_category = calcats.cat_id WHERE date_start <= '".mysql_real_escape_string($dbi_list_end_date)."' AND date_end >= '".mysql_real_escape_string($dbi_list_start_date)."' ".$dbi_category." ORDER BY date_start ASC "; Any help or advice would be greatly appreciated! Thanks, Peter

    Read the article

  • Working with hibernate/DAO problems

    - by Gandalf StormCrow
    Hello everyone here is my DAO class : public class UsersDAO extends HibernateDaoSupport { private static final Log log = LogFactory.getLog(UsersDAO.class); protected void initDao() { //do nothing } public void save(User transientInstance) { log.debug("saving Users instance"); try { getHibernateTemplate().saveOrUpdate(transientInstance); log.debug("save successful"); } catch (RuntimeException re) { log.error("save failed", re); throw re; } } public void update(User transientInstance) { log.debug("updating User instance"); try { getHibernateTemplate().update(transientInstance); log.debug("update successful"); } catch (RuntimeException re) { log.error("update failed", re); throw re; } } public void delete(User persistentInstance) { log.debug("deleting Users instance"); try { getHibernateTemplate().delete(persistentInstance); log.debug("delete successful"); } catch (RuntimeException re) { log.error("delete failed", re); throw re; } } public User findById( java.lang.Integer id) { log.debug("getting Users instance with id: " + id); try { User instance = (User) getHibernateTemplate() .get("project.hibernate.Users", id); return instance; } catch (RuntimeException re) { log.error("get failed", re); throw re; } } } Now I wrote a test class(not a junit test) to test is everything working, my user has these fields in the database : userID which is 5characters long string and unique/primary key, and fields such as address, dob etc(total 15 columns in database table). Now in my test class I intanciated User added the values like : User user = new User; user.setAddress("some address"); and so I did for all 15 fields, than at the end of assigning data to User object I called in DAO to save that to database UsersDao.save(user); and save works just perfectly. My question is how do I update/delete users using the same logic? Fox example I tried this(to delete user from table users): User user = new User; user.setUserID("1s54f"); // which is unique key for users no two keys are the same UsersDao.delete(user); I wanted to delete user with this key but its obviously different can someone explain please how to do these. thank you

    Read the article

  • On Redirect - Failed to generate a user instance of SQL Server...

    - by Craig Russell
    Hello (this is a long post sorry), I am writing a application in ASP.NET MVC 2 and I have reached a point where I am receiving this error when I connect remotely to my Server. Failed to generate a user instance of SQL Server due to failure in retrieving the user's local application data path. Please make sure the user has a local user profile on the computer. The connection will be closed. I thought I had worked around this problem locally, as I was getting this error in debug when site was redirected to a baseUrl if a subdomain was invalid using this code: protected override void Initialize(RequestContext requestContext) { string[] host = requestContext.HttpContext.Request.Headers["Host"].Split(':'); _siteProvider.Initialise(host, LiveMeet.Properties.Settings.Default["baseUrl"].ToString()); base.Initialize(requestContext); } protected override void OnActionExecuting(ActionExecutingContext filterContext) { if (Site == null) { string[] host = filterContext.HttpContext.Request.Headers["Host"].Split(':'); string newUrl; if (host.Length == 2) newUrl = "http://sample.local:" + host[1]; else newUrl = "http://sample.local"; Response.Redirect(newUrl, true); } ViewData["Site"] = Site; base.OnActionExecuting(filterContext); } public Site Site { get { return _siteProvider.GetCurrentSite(); } } The Site object is returned from a Provider named siteProvider, this does two checks, once against a database containing a list of all available subdomains, then if that fails to find a valid subdomain, or valid domain name, searches a memory cache of reserved domains, if that doesn't hit then returns a baseUrl where all invalid domains are redirected. locally this worked when I added the true to Response.Redirect, assuming a halting of the current execution and restarting the execution on the browser redirect. What I have found in the stack trace is that the error is thrown on the second attempt to access the database. #region ISiteProvider Members public void Initialise(string[] host, string basehost) { if (host[0].Contains(basehost)) host = host[0].Split('.'); Site getSite = GetSites().WithDomain(host[0]); if (getSite == null) { sites.TryGetValue(host[0], out getSite); } _site = getSite; } public Site GetCurrentSite() { return _site; } public IQueryable<Site> GetSites() { return from p in _repository.groupDomains select new Site { Host = p.domainName, GroupGuid = (Guid)p.groupGuid, IsSubDomain = p.isSubdomain }; } #endregion The Linq query ^^^ is hit first, with a filter of WithDomain, the error isn't thrown till the WithDomain filter is attempted. In summary: The error is hit after the page is redirected, so the first iteration is executing as expected (so permissions on the database are correct, user profiles etc) shortly after the redirect when it filters the database query for the possible domain/subdomain of current redirected page, it errors out.

    Read the article

  • What is the most effective way to test for combined keyboard arrow direction in ActionScript 3.0?

    - by Relee
    I need to monitor the direction a user is indicating using the four directional arrow keys on a keyboard in ActionScript 3.0 and I want to know the most efficient and effective way to do this. I've got several ideas of how to do it, and I'm not sure which would be best. I've found that when tracking Keyboard.KEY_DOWN events, the event repeats as long as the key is down, so the event function is repeated as well. This broke the method I had originally chosen to use, and the methods I've been able to think of require a lot of comparison operators. The best way I've been able to think of would be to use bitwise operators on a uint variable. Here's what I'm thinking var _direction:uint = 0x0; // The Current Direction That's the current direction variable. In the Keyboard.KEY_DOWN event handler I'll have it check what key is down, and use a bitwise AND operation to see if it's already toggled on, and if it's not, I'll add it in using basic addition. So, up would be 0x1 and down would be 0x2 and both up and down would be 0x3, for example. It would look something like this: private function keyDownHandler(e:KeyboardEvent):void { switch(e.keyCode) { case Keyboard.UP: if(!(_direction & 0x1)) _direction += 0x1; break; case Keyboard.DOWN: if(!(_direction & 0x2)) _direction += 0x2; break; // And So On... } } The keyUpHandler wouldn't need the if operation since it only triggers once when the key goes up, instead of repeating. I'll be able to test the current direction by using a switch statement labeled with numbers from 0 to 15 for the sixteen possible combinations. That should work, but it doesn't seem terribly elegant to me, given all of the if statements in the repeating keyDown event handler, and the huge switch. private function checkDirection():void { switch(_direction) { case 0: // Center break; case 1: // Up break; case 2: // Down break; case 3: // Up and Down break; case 4: // Left break; // And So On... } } Is there a better way to do this?

    Read the article

  • ggplot geom_bar - to many bars

    - by Andreas
    I am sorry for the non-informative title. exstatus <- structure(list(org = structure(c(2L, 1L, 7L, 3L, 6L, 2L, 2L, 7L, 2L, 1L, 2L, 2L, 4L, 2L, 2L, 2L, 2L, 2L, 2L, 1L, 8L, 4L, 2L, 2L, 5L, 7L, 8L, 6L, 2L, 7L, 2L, 2L, 7L, 2L, 2L, 2L, 2L, 4L, 2L, 2L, 1L, 2L, 2L, 7L, 2L, 7L, 2L, 4L, 7L, 2L, 4L, 2L, 2L, 2L, 7L, 7L, 2L, 7L, 2L, 7L, 1L, 7L, 5L, 2L, 2L, 1L, 7L, 3L, 5L, 3L, 2L, 2L, 2L, 7L, 4L, 2L, 7L, 2L, 4L, 2L, 2L, 2L, 4L, 6L, 2L, 4L, 4L, 7L, 2L, 2L, 2L, 7L, 6L, 2L, 2L, 1L, 2L, 2L, 4L, 1L, 2L, 2L, 2L, 2L, 2L, 2L, 2L, 2L, 2L, 1L, 6L, 2L, 7L, 7L, 2L, 7L, 8L, 7L, 8L, 6L, 7L, 2L, 2L, 2L, 7L, 2L, 7L, 2L, 7L, 2L, 7L, 2L, 4L, 2L, 7L, 2L, 4L, 8L, 2L, 3L, 4L, 2L, 7L, 3L, 8L, 8L, 6L, 2L, 2L, 2L, 7L, 7L, 7L, 7L, 2L, 2L, 2L, 2L, 7L, 2L, 4L, 7L, 7L, 8L, 2L, 7L, 2L, 2L, 2L, 2L, 1L, 7L, 7L, 2L, 1L, 7L, 2L, 7L, 7L, 2L, 2L, 7L, 2L, 2L, 7L, 7L, 2L, 7L, 2L, 7L, 5L, 2L), .Label = c("gl", "il", "gm", "im", "gk", "ik", "tv", "tu"), class = "factor"), art = structure(c(2L, 1L, 3L, 1L, 2L, 2L, 2L, 3L, 2L, 1L, 2L, 2L, 2L, 2L, 2L, 2L, 2L, 2L, 2L, 1L, 3L, 2L, 2L, 2L, 1L, 3L, 3L, 2L, 2L, 3L, 2L, 2L, 3L, 2L, 2L, 2L, 2L, 2L, 2L, 2L, 1L, 2L, 2L, 3L, 2L, 3L, 2L, 2L, 3L, 2L, 2L, 2L, 2L, 2L, 3L, 3L, 2L, 3L, 2L, 3L, 1L, 3L, 1L, 2L, 2L, 1L, 3L, 1L, 1L, 1L, 2L, 2L, 2L, 3L, 2L, 2L, 3L, 2L, 2L, 2L, 2L, 2L, 2L, 2L, 2L, 2L, 2L, 3L, 2L, 2L, 2L, 3L, 2L, 2L, 2L, 1L, 2L, 2L, 2L, 1L, 2L, 2L, 2L, 2L, 2L, 2L, 2L, 2L, 2L, 1L, 2L, 2L, 3L, 3L, 2L, 3L, 3L, 3L, 3L, 2L, 3L, 2L, 2L, 2L, 3L, 2L, 3L, 2L, 3L, 2L, 3L, 2L, 2L, 2L, 3L, 2L, 2L, 3L, 2L, 1L, 2L, 2L, 3L, 1L, 3L, 3L, 2L, 2L, 2L, 2L, 3L, 3L, 3L, 3L, 2L, 2L, 2L, 2L, 3L, 2L, 2L, 3L, 3L, 3L, 2L, 3L, 2L, 2L, 2L, 2L, 1L, 3L, 3L, 2L, 1L, 3L, 2L, 3L, 3L, 2L, 2L, 3L, 2L, 2L, 3L, 3L, 2L, 3L, 2L, 3L, 1L, 2L), .Label = c("Finish", "Attending", "Something"), class = "factor"), type = structure(c(2L, 2L, 5L, 3L, 1L, 2L, 2L, 5L, 2L, 2L, 2L, 2L, 3L, 2L, 2L, 2L, 2L, 2L, 2L, 2L, 4L, 3L, 2L, 2L, 1L, 5L, 4L, 1L, 2L, 5L, 2L, 2L, 5L, 2L, 2L, 2L, 2L, 3L, 2L, 2L, 2L, 2L, 2L, 5L, 2L, 5L, 2L, 3L, 5L, 2L, 3L, 2L, 2L, 2L, 5L, 5L, 2L, 5L, 2L, 5L, 2L, 5L, 1L, 2L, 2L, 2L, 5L, 3L, 1L, 3L, 2L, 2L, 2L, 5L, 3L, 2L, 5L, 2L, 3L, 2L, 2L, 2L, 3L, 1L, 2L, 3L, 3L, 5L, 2L, 2L, 2L, 5L, 1L, 2L, 2L, 2L, 2L, 2L, 3L, 2L, 2L, 2L, 2L, 2L, 2L, 2L, 2L, 2L, 2L, 2L, 1L, 2L, 5L, 5L, 2L, 5L, 4L, 5L, 4L, 1L, 5L, 2L, 2L, 2L, 5L, 2L, 5L, 2L, 5L, 2L, 5L, 2L, 3L, 2L, 5L, 2L, 3L, 4L, 2L, 3L, 3L, 2L, 5L, 3L, 4L, 4L, 1L, 2L, 2L, 2L, 5L, 5L, 5L, 5L, 2L, 2L, 2L, 2L, 5L, 2L, 3L, 5L, 5L, 4L, 2L, 5L, 2L, 2L, 2L, 2L, 2L, 5L, 5L, 2L, 2L, 5L, 2L, 5L, 5L, 2L, 2L, 5L, 2L, 2L, 5L, 5L, 2L, 5L, 2L, 5L, 1L, 2L), .Label = c("short", "long", "between", "young", "old"), class = "factor")), .Names = c("org", "art", "type"), row.names = c(NA, -192L), class = "data.frame") and then the plot ggplot(exstatus, aes(x=type, fill=art))+ geom_bar(aes(y=..count../sum(..count..)),position="dodge") The problem is that the two rightmost bars ("young", "old") are too thick - "something" takes up the whole width - whcih is not what I intended. I am sorry that I can not explain it better.

    Read the article

  • .NET unit test runner outputting FaultException.Detail

    - by Adam
    Hello, I am running some unit tests on a WCF service. The service is configured to include exception details in the fault response (with the following in my service configuration file). <serviceDebug includeExceptionDetailInFaults="true" /> If a test causes an unhandled exception on the server the fault is received by the client with a fully populated server stack trace. I can see this by calling the exception's ToString() method. The problem is that this doesn't seem to be output by any of the test runners that I have tried (xUnit, Gallio, MSTest). They appear to just output the Message and the StackTrace properties of the exception. To illustrate what I mean, the following unit test run by MSTest would output three sections: Error Message Error Stack Trace Standard Console Output (contains the information I would like, e.g. "Fault Detail is equal to An ExceptionDetail, likely created by IncludeExceptionDetailInFaults=true, whose value is: ..." try { service.CallMethodWhichCausesException(); } catch (Exception ex) { Console.WriteLine(ex); // this outputs the information I would like throw; } Having this information will make the initial phase of testing and deployment a lot less painful. I know I can just wrap each unit test in a generic exception handler and write the exception to the console and rethrow (as above) within all my unit tests but that seems a very long-winded way of achieving this (and would look pretty awful). Does anyone know if there's any way to get this information included for free whenever an unhandled exception occurs? Is there a setting that I am missing? Is my service configuration lacking in proper fault handling? Perhaps I could write some kind of plug-in / adapter for some unit testing framework? Perhaps theres a different unit testing framework which I should be using instead! My actual set-up is xUnit unit tests executed via Gallio for the development environment, but I do have a separate suite of "smoke tests" written which I would like to be able to have our engineers run via the xUnit GUI test runner (or Gallio or whatever) to simplify the final deployment. Thanks. Adam

    Read the article

  • MSSQL 2005: Update rows in a specified order (like ORDER BY)?

    - by JMTyler
    I want to update rows of a table in a specific order, like one would expect if including an ORDER BY clause, but MS SQL does not support the ORDER BY clause in UPDATE queries. I have checked out this question which supplied a nice solution, but my query is a bit more complicated than the one specified there. UPDATE TableA AS Parent SET Parent.ColA = Parent.ColA + (SELECT TOP 1 Child.ColA FROM TableA AS Child WHERE Child.ParentColB = Parent.ColB ORDER BY Child.Priority) ORDER BY Parent.Depth DESC; So, what I'm hoping that you'll notice is that a single table (TableA) contains a hierarchy of rows, wherein one row can be the parent or child of any other row. The rows need to be updated in order from the deepest child up to the root parent. This is because TableA.ColA must contain an up-to-date concatenation of its own current value with the values of its children (I realize this query only concats with one child, but that is for the sake of simplicity - the purpose of the example in this question does not necessitate any more verbosity), therefore the query must update from the bottom up. The solution suggested in the question I noted above is as follows: UPDATE messages SET status=10 WHERE ID in (SELECT TOP (10) Id FROM Table WHERE status=0 ORDER BY priority DESC ); The reason that I don't think I can use this solution is because I am referencing column values from the parent table inside my subquery (see WHERE Child.ParentColB = Parent.ColB), and I don't think two sibling subqueries would have access to each others' data. So far I have only determined one way to merge that suggested solution with my current problem, and I don't think it works. UPDATE TableA AS Parent SET Parent.ColA = Parent.ColA + (SELECT TOP 1 Child.ColA FROM TableA AS Child WHERE Child.ParentColB = Parent.ColB ORDER BY Child.Priority) WHERE Parent.Id IN (SELECT Id FROM TableA ORDER BY Parent.Depth DESC); The WHERE..IN subquery will not actually return a subset of the rows, it will just return the full list of IDs in the order that I want. However (I don't know for sure - please tell me if I'm wrong) I think that the WHERE..IN clause will not care about the order of IDs within the parentheses - it will just check the ID of the row it currently wants to update to see if it's in that list (which, they all are) in whatever order it is already trying to update... Which would just be a total waste of cycles, because it wouldn't change anything. So, in conclusion, I have looked around and can't seem to figure out a way to update in a specified order (and included the reason I need to update in that order, because I am sure I would otherwise get the ever-so-useful "why?" answers) and I am now hitting up Stack Overflow to see if any of you gurus out there who know more about SQL than I do (which isn't saying much) know of an efficient way to do this. It's particularly important that I only use a single query to complete this action. A long question, but I wanted to cover my bases and give you guys as much info to feed off of as possible. :) Any thoughts?

    Read the article

  • many-to-many performance concerns with fluent nhibernate.

    - by Ciel
    I have a situation where I have several many-to-many associations. In the upwards of 12 to 15. Reading around I've seen that it's generally believed that many-to-many associations are not 'typical', yet they are the only way I have been able to create the associations appropriate for my case, so I'm not sure how to optimize any further. Here is my basic scenario. class Page { IList<Tag> Tags { get; set; } IList<Modification> Modifications { get; set; } IList<Aspect> Aspects { get; set; } } This is one of my 'core' classes, and coincidentally one of my core tables. Virtually half of the objects in my code can have an IList<Page>, and some of them have IList<T> where T has its own IList<Page>. As you can see, from an object oriented standpoint, this is not really a problem. But from a database standpoint this begins to introduce a lot of junction tables. So far it has worked fine for me, but I am wondering if anyone has any ideas on how I could improve on this structure. I've spent a long time thinking and in order to achieve the appropriate level of association required, I cannot think of any way to improve it. The only thing I have come up with is to make intermediate classes for each object that has an IList<Page>, but that doesn't really do anything that the HasManyToMany does not already do except introduce another class. It does not extend the functionality and, from what I can tell, it does not improve performance. Any thoughts? I am also concerned about Primary Key limits in this scenario. Most everything needs to be able to have these properties, but the Pages cannot be unique to each object, because they are going to be frequently shared and joined between multiple objects. All relationships are one-sided. (That is, a Page has no knowledge of what owns it). Because of this, I also have no Inverse() mapped HasManyToMany collections. Also, I have read the similar question : Usage of ORMs like NHibernate when there are many associations - performance concerns But it really did not answer my concerns.

    Read the article

  • What Amazon S3 .NET Library is most useful and efficient?

    - by Geo
    There are two main open source .net Amazon S3 libraries. Three Sharp LitS3 I am currently using LitS3 in our MVC demo project, but there is some criticism about it. Has anyone here used both libraries so they can give an objective point of view. Below some sample calls using LitS3: On demo controller: private S3Service s3 = new S3Service() { AccessKeyID = "Thekey", SecretAccessKey = "testing" }; public ActionResult Index() { ViewData["Message"] = "Welcome to ASP.NET MVC!"; return View("Index",s3.GetAllBuckets()); } On demo view: <% foreach (var item in Model) { %> <p> <%= Html.Encode(item.Name) %> </p> <% } %> EDIT 1: Since I have to keep moving and there is no clear indication of what library is more effective and kept more up to date, I have implemented a repository pattern with an interface that will allow me to change library if I need to in the future. Below is a section of the S3Repository that I have created and will let me change libraries in case I need to: using LitS3; namespace S3Helper.Models { public class S3Repository : IS3Repository { private S3Service _repository; #region IS3Repository Members public IQueryable<Bucket> FindAllBuckets() { return _repository.GetAllBuckets().AsQueryable(); } public IQueryable<ListEntry> FindAllObjects(string BucketName) { return _repository.ListAllObjects(BucketName).AsQueryable(); } #endregion If you have any information about this question please let me know in a comment, and I will get back and edit the question. EDIT 2: Since this question is not getting attention, I integrated both libraries in my web app to see the differences in design, I know this is probably a waist of time, but I really want a good long run solution. Below you will see two samples of the same action with the two libraries, maybe this will motivate some of you to let me know your thoughts. WITH THREE SHARP LIBRARY: public IQueryable<T> FindAllBuckets<T>() { List<string> list = new List<string>(); using (BucketListRequest request = new BucketListRequest(null)) using (BucketListResponse response = service.BucketList(request)) { XmlDocument bucketXml = response.StreamResponseToXmlDocument(); XmlNodeList buckets = bucketXml.SelectNodes("//*[local-name()='Name']"); foreach (XmlNode bucket in buckets) { list.Add(bucket.InnerXml); } } return list.Cast<T>().AsQueryable(); } WITH LITS3 LIBRARY: public IQueryable<T> FindAllBuckets<T>() { return _repository.GetAllBuckets() .Cast<T>() .AsQueryable(); }

    Read the article

  • Loading the last related record instantly for multiple parent records using Entity framework

    - by Guillaume Schuermans
    Does anyone know a good approach using Entity Framework for the problem described below? I am trying for our next release to come up with a performant way to show the placed orders for the logged on customer. Of course paging is always a good technique to use when a lot of data is available I would like to see an answer without any paging techniques. Here's the story: a customer places an order which gets an orderstatus = PENDING. Depending on some strategy we move that order up the chain in order to get it APPROVED. Every change of status is logged so we can see a trace for statusses and maybe even an extra line of comment per status which can provide some extra valuable information to whoever sees this order in an interface. So an Order is linked to a Customer. One order can have multiple orderstatusses stored in OrderStatusHistory. In my testscenario I am using a customer which has 100+ Orders each with about 5 records in the OrderStatusHistory-table. I would for now like to see all orders in one page not using paging where for each Order I show the last relevant Status and the extra comment (if there is any for this last status; both fields coming from OrderStatusHistory; the record with the highest Id for the given OrderId). There are multiple scenarios I have tried, but I would like to see any potential other solutions or comments on the things I have already tried. Trying to do Include() when getting Orders but this still results in multiple queries launched on the database. Each order triggers an extra query to the database to get all orderstatusses in the history table. So all statusses are queried here instead of just returning the last relevant one, plus 100 extra queries are launched for 100 orders. You can imagine the problem when there are 100000+ orders in the database. Having 2 computed columns on the database: LastStatus, LastStatusInformation and a regular Linq-Query which gets those columns which are available through the Entity-model. The problem with this approach is the fact that those computed columns are determined using a scalar function which can not be changed without removing the formula from the computed column, etc... In the end I am very familiar with SQL and Stored procedures, but since the rest of the data-layer uses Entity Framework I would like to stick to it as long as possible, even though I have my doubts about performance. Using the SQL approach I would write something like this: WITH cte (RN, OrderId, [Status], Information) AS ( SELECT ROW_NUMBER() OVER (PARTITION BY OrderId ORDER BY Id DESC), OrderId, [Status], Information FROM OrderStatus ) SELECT o.Id, cte.[Status], cte.Information AS StatusInformation, o.* FROM [Order] o INNER JOIN cte ON o.Id = cte.OrderId AND cte.RN = 1 WHERE CustomerId = @CustomerId ORDER BY 1 DESC; which returns all orders for the customer with the statusinformation provided by the Common Table Expression. Does anyone know a good approach using Entity Framework?

    Read the article

  • Advanced SQL query with lots of joins

    - by lund.mikkel
    Hey fellow programmers Okay, first let me say that this is a hard one. I know the presentation may be a little long. But I how you'll bare with me and help me through anyway :D So I'm developing on an advanced search for bicycles. I've got a lot of tables I need to join to find all, let's say, red and brown bikes. One bike may come in more then one color! I've made this query for now: SELECT DISTINCT p.products_id, #simple product id products_name, #product name products_attributes_id, #color id pov.products_options_values_name #color name FROM products p LEFT JOIN products_description pd ON p.products_id = pd.products_id INNER JOIN products_attributes pa ON pa.products_id = p.products_id LEFT JOIN products_options_values pov ON pov.products_options_values_id = pa.options_values_id LEFT JOIN products_options_search pos ON pov.products_options_values_id = pos.products_options_values_id WHERE pos.products_options_search_id = 4 #code for red OR pos.products_options_search_id = 5 #code for brown My first concern is the many joins. The Products table mainly holds product id and it's image and the Products Description table holds more descriptive info such as name (and product ID of course). I then have the Products Options Values table which holds all the colors and their IDs. Products Options Search is containing the color IDs along with a color group ID (products_options_search_id). Red has the color group code 4 (brown is 5). The products and colors have a many-to-many relationship managed inside Products Attributes. So my question is first of all: Is it okay to make so many joins? Is i hurting the performance? Second: If a bike comes in both red and brown, it'll show up twice even though I use SELECT DISTINCT. Think this is because of the INNER JOIN. Is this possible to avoid and do I have to remove the doubles in my PHP code? Third: Bikes can be double colored (i.e. black and blue). This means that there are two rows for that bike. One where it says the color is black and one where is says its blue. (See second question). But if I replace the OR in the WHERE clause it removes both rows, because none of them fulfill the conditions - only the product. What is the workaround for that? I really hope you will and can help me. I'm a little desperate right now :D Regards Mikkel Lund

    Read the article

  • LINQ Query Returning Multiple Copies Of First Result

    - by Mike G
    I'm trying to figure out why a simple query in LINQ is returning odd results. I have a view defined in the database. It basically brings together several other tables and does some data munging. It really isn't anything special except for the fact that it deals with a large data set and can be a bit slow. I want to query this view based on a long. Two sample queries below show different queries to this view. var la = Runtime.OmsEntityContext.Positions.Where(p => p.AccountNumber == 12345678).ToList(); var deDa = Runtime.OmsEntityContext.Positions.Where(p => p.AccountNumber == 12345678).Select(p => new { p.AccountNumber, p.SecurityNumber, p.CUSIP }).ToList(); The first one should hand back a List. The second one will be a list of anonymous objects. When I do these queries in entities framework the first one will hand me back a list of results where they're all exactly the same. The second query will hand me back data where the account number is the one that I queried and the other values differ. This seems to do this on a per account number basis, ie if I were to query for one account number or another all the Position objects for one account would have the same value (the first one in the list of Positions for that account) and the second account would have a set of Position objects that all had the same value (again, the first one in it's list of Position objects). I can write SQL that is in effect the same as either of the two EF queries. They both come back with results (say four) that show the correct data, one account number with different securities numbers. Why does this happen??? Is there something that I could be doing wrong so that if I had four results for the first query above that the first record's data also appears in the 2-4th's objects??? I cannot fathom what would/could be causing this. I've searched Google for all kinds of keywords and haven't seen anyone with this issue. We partial class out the Positions class for added functionality (smart object) and some smart properties. There are even some constructors that provide some view model type support. None of this is invoked in the request (I'm 99% sure of this). However, we do this same pattern all over the app. The only thing I can think of is that the mapping in the EDMX is screwy. Is there a way that this would happen if the "primary keys" in the EDMX were not in fact unique given the way the view is constructed? I'm thinking that the dev who imported this model into the EDMX let the designer auto select what would be unique. Any help would give a haggered dev some hope!

    Read the article

  • How to retain canvas state and use it in onDraw() method

    - by marqss
    I want to make a measure tape component for my app. It should look something like this with values from 0cm to 1000cm: Initially I created long bitmap image with repeated tape background. I drew that image to canvas in onDraw() method of my TapeView (extended ImageView). Then I drew a set of numbers with drawText() on top of the canvas. public TapeView(Context context, AttributeSet attrs){ ImageView imageView = new ImageView(mContext); LayoutParams params = new LayoutParams(LayoutParams.WRAP_CONTENT, LayoutParams.FILL_PARENT); imageView.setLayoutParams(params); mBitmap = createTapeBitmap(); imageView.setImageBitmap(mBitmap); this.addView(imageView); } private Bitmap createTapeBitmap(){ Bitmap mBitmap = Bitmap.createBitmap(5000, 100, Config.ARGB_8888); //size of the tape Bitmap tape = BitmapFactory.decodeResource(getResources(),R.drawable.tape);//the image size is 100x100px Bitmap scaledTape = Bitmap.createScaledBitmap(tape, 100, 100, false); Canvas c = new Canvas(mBitmap); Paint paint = new Paint(); paint.setColor(Color.WHITE); paint.setFakeBoldText(true); paint.setAntiAlias(true); paint.setTextSize(30); for(int i=0; i<=500; i++){ //draw background image c.drawBitmap(scaledTape,(i * 200), 0, null); //draw number in the middle of that background String text = String.valueOf(i); int textWidth = (int) paint.measureText(text); int position = (i * 100) + 100 - (textWidth / 2); c.drawText(text, position, 20, paint); } return mBitmap; } Finally I added this view to HorizontalScrollView. At the beginning everything worked beautifully but I realised that the app uses a Lot of memory and sometimes crashed with OutOfMemory exception. It was obvious because a size of the bitmap image was ~4mb! In order to increase the performance, instead of creating the bitmap I use Drawable (with the yellow tape strip) and set the tile mode to REPEAT: setTileModeX(TileMode.REPEAT); The view now is very light but I cannot figure out how to add numbers. There are too many of them to redraw them each time the onDraw method is called. Is there any way that I can draw these numbers on canvas and then save that canvas so it can be reused in onDraw() method?

    Read the article

  • How do I display a jquery dialog box before the entire page is loaded?

    - by obarshay
    On my site a number of operations can take a long time to complete. When I know a page will take a while to load, I would like to display a progress indicator while the page is loading. Ideally I would like to say something along the lines of: $("#dialog").show("progress.php"); and have that overlay on top of the page that is being loaded (disappearing after the operation is completed). Coding the progress bar and displaying progress is not an issue, the issue is getting a progress indicator to pop up WHILE the page is being loaded. I have been trying to use JQuery's dialogs for this but they only appear after the page is already loaded. This has to be a common problem but I am not familiar enough with JavaScript to know the best way to do this. Here's simple example to illustrate the problem. The code below fails to display the dialog box before the 20 second pause is up. I have tried in Chrome and Firefox. In fact I don't even see the "Please Wait..." text. Here's the code I am using: <html> <head> <link type="text/css" href="http://jqueryui.com/latest/themes/base/ui.all.css" rel="stylesheet" /> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://jqueryui.com/latest/jquery-1.3.2.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://jqueryui.com/latest/ui/ui.core.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="http://jqueryui.com/latest/ui/ui.dialog.js"></script> </head> <body> <div id="please-wait">My Dialog</div> <script type="text/javascript"> $("#please-wait").dialog(); </script> <?php flush(); echo "Waiting..."; sleep(20); ?> </body> </html>

    Read the article

  • Why do some questions get closed for no reason? [closed]

    - by IVlad
    Recently there was a question asking about generating all subsets of a set using a stack and a queue, which was closed (and now deleted it seems) as not a real question for no good reason, since it didn't fit into any of these conditions: It's difficult to tell what is being asked here. No, it was clear what was being asked. This question is ambiguous, vague, incomplete, or rhetorical and cannot be reasonably answered in its current form. Not ambiguous, not vague, not incomplete, definitely not rhetorical and could easily be answered if one knew the solution. Now, the exact same thing has happened with this question: http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2791982/a-shortest-path-problem-with-superheroes-and-intergalactic-journeys/2793746#2793746 I am interested in hearing a logical argument for why that question is either ambiguous, vague, incomplete, rhetorical or cannot reasonably be answered in its current form. It seems that (the same bunch of) people like to close questions that they think are homework questions, especially when they think people want to be served the solution on a platter, which is also not the case: Any suggestions or ideas of how this problem might be solved would be most welcomed. Most of the time the people asking these questions are very reasonable and appreciate even the most vague idea, yet their question is closed. Let's go further and assume that it IS a homework problem. So what? When I registered here I didn't see any rule that said not to post homework problems, nor do I see such a rule now. What is wrong with posting homework problems that makes people hunt them down with a passion to close them without even reading the entire question body? This site is full of questions asked by people who get paid to know the things they are asking, yet their questions are considered fine. How is solving someone's homework problem worse? In some places (like where I live), computer science is a mandatory high school subject, and not everyone is interested in it. How is helping at least those people worse than doing someone's JOB? Not answering homework questions is fine and it's everyone's choice, but I consider closing them to be an act of power abuse, selfishness, and an insult to the fellow community members who are also interested in a solution or want feedback on their proposed solution. So my questions are: - Why do questions like the above get closed for reasons that do not apply? Why do you close them? Why don't you? - Why doesn't a vote to reopen a question reopen it automatically? Needing 5 votes for a reopen takes too long, and it's not fair because one reopen vote basically cancels out a close vote, making it 4 close votes (or 5 to 1, which is the same as only 4 people wanting to close the question), which isn't enough to close the question. I think a question should only be closed when CloseVotes - ReopenVotes >= 5. I'm hoping this will stay up, but I realize it probably won't. In either case, I think this is worth saying and discussing, since it IS community-related.

    Read the article

  • Blackberry ListField Text Wrapping - only two lines.

    - by Diego Tori
    Within my ListField, I want to be able to take any given long String, and just be able to wrap the first line within the width of the screen, and just take the remaining string and display it below and ellipsis the rest. Right now, this is what I'm using to detect wrapping within my draw paint call: int totalWidth = 0; int charWidth = 0; int lastIndex = 0; int spaceIndex = 0; int lineIndex = 0; String firstLine = ""; String secondLine = ""; boolean isSecondLine = false; for (int i = 0; i < longString.length(); i++){ charWidth = Font.getDefault().getAdvance(String.valueOf(longString.charAt(i))); //System.out.println("char width: " + charWidth); if(longString.charAt(i) == ' ') spaceIndex = i; if((charWidth + totalWidth) > (this.getWidth()-32)){ //g.drawText(longString.substring(lastIndex, spaceIndex), xpos, y +_padding, DrawStyle.LEFT, w - xpos); lineIndex++; System.out.println("current lines to draw: " + lineIndex); /*if (lineIndex = 2){ int idx = i; System.out.println("first line " + longString.substring(lastIndex, spaceIndex)); System.out.println("second line " + longString.substring(spaceIndex+1, longString.length())); }*/ //firstLine = longString.substring(lastIndex, spaceIndex); firstLine = longString.substring(0, spaceIndex); //System.out.println("first new line: " +firstLine); //isSecondLine=true; //xpos = 0; //y += Font.getDefault().getHeight(); i = spaceIndex + 1; lastIndex = i; System.out.println("Rest of string: " + longString.substring(lastIndex, longString.length())); charWidth = 0; totalWidth = 0; } totalWidth += charWidth; System.out.println("total width: " + totalWidth); //g.drawText(longString.substring(lastIndex, i+1), xpos, y + (_padding*3)+4, DrawStyle.ELLIPSIS, w - xpos); //secondLine = longString.substring(lastIndex, i+1); secondLine = longString.substring(lastIndex, longString.length()); //isSecondLine = true; } Now this does a great job of actually wrapping any given string (assuming the y values were properly offsetted and it only drew the text after the string width exceeded the screen width, as well as the remaining string afterwards), however, every time I try to get the first two lines, it always ends up returning the last two lines of the string if it goes beyond two lines. Is there a better way to do this sort of thing, since I am fresh out of ideas?

    Read the article

  • Soften a colour border, maybe with a gradient, programmatically.

    - by ProfK
    I have a narrow header in corporate colour, bright red, with the content below on a just-off-white background. Ive tried softening the long line where these colours meet using border type divs with intermediate backgrounds, but I think I need the original type curved gradient 'area transitions'. I could copy the 1024px wide, and too narrow (vertically), header gif from their web site, and chop it up for eight border images, but that seems clumsy, and I'm looking for something I can apply anywhere, without needing images. I am able to do round borders in the x-y plane, but I'm curious as to how I can apply a gradient to any chosen colour transition. The extra divs I'm using as border elements above and below '#top-section' arose when I was toying with making many divs for one bordered element. This seemed the ultimate in border manipulation, sans code, but very tedious to spec in CSS and lay out a new border for each bordered element. <div id="topsection"> <div style="float: right; width: 300px; padding-right: 5px;"> <div style="font-size: small; text-align: right;"> Provantage Media Management System</div> <div style="font-size: x-small; text-align: right;"> <asp:LoginStatus ID="loginStatus" runat="server" LoginText="Log in" LogoutText="Log out" /> </div> </div> <span style="padding-left: 15px;">Main Menu</span><span id="content-title"> <asp:ContentPlaceHolder ID="titlePlaceHolder" runat="server"> </asp:ContentPlaceHolder> </span> <div style="background-color: white; height: 2px;"> </div> <div style="background-color: white; height: 3px;"></div> And the CSS: #topsection { background-color: #EB2728; color: white; height: 35px; font-size: large; font-weight: bold; }

    Read the article

  • Google Map key in Android?

    - by Amandeep singh
    I am developing an android app in which i have to show map view i have done it once in a previous app but the key i used in the previous is not working int his app . It is just showing a pin in the application with blank screen. Do i have to use a different Map key for each project , If not Kindly help me how can i use my previous Key in this. and also I tried generating a new key but gave the the same key back . Here is the code i used public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.map); btn=(Button)findViewById(R.id.mapbtn); str1=getIntent().getStringExtra("LATITUDE"); str2=getIntent().getStringExtra("LONGITUDE"); mapView = (MapView)findViewById(R.id.mapView1); //View zoomView = mapView.getZoomControls(); mapView.setBuiltInZoomControls(true); //mapView.setSatellite(true); mc = mapView.getController(); btn.setOnClickListener(this); MapOverlay mapOverlay = new MapOverlay(); List<Overlay> listOfOverlays = mapView.getOverlays(); listOfOverlays.clear(); listOfOverlays.add(mapOverlay); String coordinates[] = {str1, str2}; double lat = Double.parseDouble(coordinates[0]); double lng = Double.parseDouble(coordinates[1]); p = new GeoPoint( (int) (lat * 1E6), (int) (lng * 1E6)); mc.animateTo(p); mc.setZoom(17); mapView.invalidate(); //mp.equals(o); } @Override protected boolean isRouteDisplayed() { // TODO Auto-generated method stub return false; } class MapOverlay extends com.google.android.maps.Overlay { @Override public boolean draw(Canvas canvas, MapView mapView, boolean shadow, long when) { super.draw(canvas, mapView, shadow); Paint mPaint = new Paint(); mPaint.setDither(true); mPaint.setColor(Color.RED); mPaint.setStyle(Paint.Style.FILL_AND_STROKE); mPaint.setStrokeJoin(Paint.Join.ROUND); mPaint.setStrokeCap(Paint.Cap.ROUND); mPaint.setStrokeWidth(2); //---translate the GeoPoint to screen pixels--- Point screenPts = new Point(); mapView.getProjection().toPixels(p, screenPts); //---add the marker--- Bitmap bmp = BitmapFactory.decodeResource(getResources(), R.drawable.pin); canvas.drawBitmap(bmp, screenPts.x, screenPts.y-50, null); return true; } Thanks....

    Read the article

  • Why is javac 1.5 running so slowly compared with the Eclipse compiler?

    - by Simon Nickerson
    I have a Java Maven project with about 800 source files (some generated by javacc/JTB) which is taking a good 25 minutes to compile with javac. When I changed my pom.xml over to use the Eclipse compiler, it takes about 30 seconds to compile. Any suggestions as to why javac (1.5) is running so slowly? (I don't want to switch over to the Eclipse compiler permanently, as the plugin for Maven seems more than a little buggy.) I have a test case which easily reproduces the problem. The following code generates a number of source files in the default package. If you try to compile ImplementingClass.java with javac, it will seem to pause for an inordinately long time. import java.io.File; import java.io.FileNotFoundException; import java.io.PrintStream; public class CodeGenerator { private final static String PATH = System.getProperty("java.io.tmpdir"); private final static int NUM_TYPES = 1000; public static void main(String[] args) throws FileNotFoundException { PrintStream interfacePs = new PrintStream(PATH + File.separator + "Interface.java"); PrintStream abstractClassPs = new PrintStream(PATH + File.separator + "AbstractClass.java"); PrintStream implementingClassPs = new PrintStream(PATH + File.separator + "ImplementingClass.java"); interfacePs.println("public interface Interface<T> {"); abstractClassPs.println("public abstract class AbstractClass<T> implements Interface<T> {"); implementingClassPs.println("public class ImplementingClass extends AbstractClass<Object> {"); for (int i=0; i<NUM_TYPES; i++) { String nodeName = "Node" + i; PrintStream nodePs = new PrintStream(PATH + File.separator + nodeName + ".java"); nodePs.printf("public class %s { }\n", nodeName); nodePs.close(); interfacePs.printf("void visit(%s node, T obj);%n", nodeName); abstractClassPs.printf("public void visit(%s node, T obj) { System.out.println(obj.toString()); }%n", nodeName); } interfacePs.println("}"); abstractClassPs.println("}"); implementingClassPs.println("}"); interfacePs.close(); abstractClassPs.close(); implementingClassPs.close(); } }

    Read the article

  • How to access a matrix in a matlab struct's field from a mex function?

    - by B. Ruschill
    I'm trying to figure out how to access a matrix that is stored in a field in a matlab structure from a mex function. That's awfully long winded... Let me explain: I have a matlab struct that was defined like the following: matrixStruct = struct('matrix', {4, 4, 4; 5, 5, 5; 6, 6 ,6}) I have a mex function in which I would like to be able to receive a pointer to the first element in the matrix (matrix[0][0], in c terms), but I've been unable to figure out how to do that. I have tried the following: /* Pointer to the first element in the matrix (supposedly)... */ double *ptr = mxGetPr(mxGetField(prhs[0], 0, "matrix"); /* Incrementing the pointer to access all values in the matrix */ for(i = 0; i < 3; i++){ printf("%f\n", *(ptr + (i * 3))); printf("%f\n", *(ptr + 1 + (i * 3))); printf("%f\n", *(ptr + 2 + (i * 3))); } What this ends up printing is the following: 4.000000 0.000000 0.000000 0.000000 0.000000 0.000000 0.000000 0.000000 0.000000 I have also tried variations of the following, thinking that perhaps it was something wonky with nested function calls, but to no avail: /* Pointer to the first location of the mxArray */ mxArray *fieldValuePtr = mxGetField(prhs[0], 0, "matrix"); /* Get the double pointer to the first location in the matrix */ double *ptr = mxGetPr(fieldValuePtr); /* Same for loop code here as written above */ Does anyone have an idea as to how I can achieve what I'm trying to, or what I am potentially doing wrong? Thanks! Edit: As per yuk's comment, I tried doing similar operations on a struct that has a field called array which is a one-dimensional array of doubles. The struct containing the array is defined as follows: arrayStruct = struct('array', {4.44, 5.55, 6.66}) I tried the following on the arrayStruct from within the mex function: mptr = mxGetPr(mxGetField(prhs[0], 0, "array")); printf("%f\n", *(mptr)); printf("%f\n", *(mptr + 1)); printf("%f\n", *(mptr + 2)); ...but the output followed what was printed earlier: 4.440000 0.000000 0.000000

    Read the article

  • C# - calling ext. DLL function containing Delphi "variant record" parameter

    - by CaldonCZE
    Hello, In external (Delphi-created) DLL I've got the following function that I need to call from C# application. function ReadMsg(handle: longword; var Msg: TRxMsg): longword; stdcall; external 'MyDll.dll' name 'ReadMsg'; The "TRxMsg" type is variant record, defined as follows: TRxMsg = record case TypeMsg: byte of 1: (accept, mask: longword); 2: (SN: string[6]); 3: (rx_rate, tx_rate: word); 4: (rx_status, tx_status, ctl0, ctl1, rflg: byte); end; In order to call the function from C#, I declared auxiliary structure "my9Bytes" containing array of bytes and defined that it should be marshalled as 9 bytes long array (which is exactly the size of the Delphi record). private struct my9Bytes { [MarshalAs(UnmanagedType.ByValArray, ArraySubType = UnmanagedType.U1, SizeConst = 9)] public byte[] data; } Then I declared the imported "ReadMsg" function, using the "my9bytes" struct. [DllImport("MyDll.dll")] private static extern uint ReadMsg(uint handle, ref my9Bytes myMsg); I can call the function with no problem... Then I need to create structure corresponding to the original "TRxMsg" variant record and convert my auxiliary "myMsg" array into this structure. I don't know any C# equivalent of Delphi variant array, so I used inheritance and created the following classes. public abstract class TRxMsg { public byte typeMsg; } public class TRxMsgAcceptMask:TRxMsg { public uint accept, mask; //... } public class TRxMsgSN:TRxMsg { public string SN; //... } public class TRxMsgMRate:TRxMsg { public ushort rx_rate, tx_rate; //... } public class TRxMsgStatus:TRxMsg { public byte rx_status, tx_status, ctl0, ctl1, rflg; //... } Finally I create the appropriate object and initialize it with values manually converted from "myMsg" array (I used BitConverter for this). This does work fine, this solution seems to me a little too complicated, and that it should be possible to do this somehow more directly, without the auxiliary "my9bytes" structures or the inheritance and manual converting of individual values. So I'd like to ask you for a suggestions for the best way to do this. Thanks a lot!

    Read the article

  • Is there a scheduling algorithm that optimizes for "maker's schedules"?

    - by John Feminella
    You may be familiar with Paul Graham's essay, "Maker's Schedule, Manager's Schedule". The crux of the essay is that for creative and technical professionals, meetings are anathema to productivity, because they tend to lead to "schedule fragmentation", breaking up free time into chunks that are too small to acquire the focus needed to solve difficult problems. In my firm we've seen significant benefits by minimizing the amount of disruption caused, but the brute-force algorithm we use to decide schedules is not sophisticated enough to handle scheduling large groups of people well. (*) What I'm looking for is if there's are any well-known algorithms which minimize this productivity disruption, among a group of N makers and managers. In our model, There are N people. Each person pi is either a maker (Mk) or a manager (Mg). Each person has a schedule si. Everyone's schedule is H hours long. A schedule consists of a series of non-overlapping intervals si = [h1, ..., hj]. An interval is either free or busy. Two adjacent free intervals are equivalent to a single free interval that spans both. A maker's productivity is maximized when the number of free intervals is minimized. A manager's productivity is maximized when the total length of free intervals is maximized. Notice that if there are no meetings, both the makers and the managers experience optimum productivity. If meetings must be scheduled, then makers prefer that meetings happen back-to-back, while managers don't care where the meeting goes. Note that because all disruptions are treated as equally harmful to makers, there's no difference between a meeting that lasts 1 second and a meeting that lasts 3 hours if it segments the available free time. The problem is to decide how to schedule M different meetings involving arbitrary numbers of the N people, where each person in a given meeting must place a busy interval into their schedule such that it doesn't overlap with any other busy interval. For each meeting Mt the start time for the busy interval must be the same for all parties. Does an algorithm exist to solve this problem or one similar to it? My first thought was that this looks really similar to defragmentation (minimize number of distinct chunks), and there are a lot of algorithms about that. But defragmentation doesn't have much to do with scheduling. Thoughts? (*) Practically speaking this is not really a problem, because it's rare that we have meetings with more than ~5 people at once, so the space of possibilities is small.

    Read the article

  • How could I send live video stream to remote server from my phone !!!

    - by poc
    Hello , I have a problem about streaming my video to server in real-time from my phone. that is , let my phone be a IP Camera , and server can watch the live video from my phone I have googled many many solutions, but there is no one can solve my problem. I use MediaRecorder to record . it can save video file in the SD card correctly. then , I refered this page and used some method as followings skt = new Socket(InetAddress.getByName(hostname),port); pfd =ParcelFileDescriptor.fromSocket(skt); mediaRecorder.setOutputFile(pfd.getFileDescriptor()); now it seems I can send the video stream while recording however, I wrote a receiver-side program to receive the video stream from Android , but it doesn't work . is there any error? I can receive file , but I can not open the video file . I guess the problem may caused by file format ? there are outline of my code. in android side Socket skt = new Socket(hostIP,port); ParcelFileDescriptor pfd =ParcelFileDescriptor.fromSocket(skt); .... .... mediaRecorder.setAudioSource(MediaRecorder.AudioSource.MIC); mediaRecorder.setVideoSource(MediaRecorder.VideoSource.DEFAULT); mediaRecorder.setOutputFormat(MediaRecorder.OutputFormat.MPEG_4); mediaRecorder.setOutputFile(pfd.getFileDescriptor()); ..... mediaRecorder.setAudioEncoder(MediaRecorder.AudioEncoder.DEFAULT); mediaRecorder.setVideoEncoder(MediaRecorder.VideoEncoder.MPEG_4_SP); ..... mediaRecorder.start(); in receiver side (my ACER notebook) // anyway , I don't think the file extentions will do any effect File video = new File (strDate+".3gpp"); FileOutputStream fos; try { fos = new FileOutputStream(video); byte[] data = new byte[1024]; int count =-1; while( (count = fin.read(data,0,1024) ) !=-1) { fos.write(data,0,count); fos.flush(); } fos.close(); fin.close(); I confused a long time.... thanks in advance

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 632 633 634 635 636 637 638 639 640 641 642 643  | Next Page >