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• Invalid Argument javascript error only on certain computers

  - by Jen

  Getting an error whenever we click a particular button/link on our site. It is generating a javascript "Invalid Argument" error. I know in the other posts it is typically because it is a syntax error in the javascript however it only just seems to have started happening and it doesn't happen on all pcs. ie. in our client's environment if I remote onto their web server and view the uat website I get the javascript error. If I remote onto their sql server and view the uat website I don't get the javascript error. If it was a syntax error then I would always get the error wouldn't I? both browsers are the same version of IE6 (yeah I know...) :) I have tried deleting temporary internet files - including viewing the files and deleting them myself - but no joy. client uses citrix.. and they're all getting the error :( Any ideas would be appreciated - Thanks! :) Update - Sorry I haven't posted specific code as there is too much to post (and I'm not sure where the error is occurring). The "button" launches a new window which in turn opens up a couple of aspx pages and calls lots of javascript. So the window opens ok, and there's a function that gets called to resize the window - but before it calls the resizing of the window/content it throws the invalid argument error. Am busy trying to get alerts to trigger to see if I can see where it's falling over but so far no luck. Again not sure why this error doesn't occur when I use a particular PC (same browser version)

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• How to debug memory allocation issues?

  - by amitabh

  Hi I am writing an iPhone app that that is trying to create a second a view when the user clicks on an element in UITableView. The code looks like ReplyToViewController *reply = [[ReplyToViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"ReplyTo" bundle:nil]; reply.delegate = self; Message *message = [resultData objectAtIndex:indexPath.row]; int dbid = [message.bizid intValue]; NSLog(@"dbid=%d",dbid); reply.currentMessage = message; reply.modalTransitionStyle = UIModalTransitionStyleFlipHorizontal; [self presentModalViewController:reply animated:YES]; The reply object gets created properly and the view is proper. Last line in above code segment calls some framework code which eventually calls the viewDidLoad method of the ReplyToViewController. Address of the reply object in the above code and the address of the object in viewDidLoad is not same. Any idea where this new object is coming from? How do I debug? I also added init method the following method in ReplyToViewController hoping that it will get called and I can find who is creating this new object. But it does not stop in this method. Any help will be greatly appreciated. - (id) init { /* first initialize the base class */ self = [super init]; return self; } // Following gets called from the 1st code segment. - (id)initWithNibName:(NSString *)nibNameOrNil bundle:(NSBundle *)nibBundleOrNil { if (self = [super initWithNibName:nibNameOrNil bundle:nibBundleOrNil]) { // Custom initialization } return self; } - (void)viewDidLoad { [super viewDidLoad]; NSLog(currentMessage.text]; // THIS returns nil and the program fails later in the code. }

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• Running Cargo From Maven antrun Plugin

  - by Frank

  I have a maven (multi-module) project creating some WAR and EAR files for JBoss AS 7.1.x. For one purpose, I need to deploy one generated EAR file of one module to a fresh JBoss instance and run it, call some REST web service calls against it and stop JBoss. Then I need to package the results of these calls that were written to the database. Currently, I am trying to use CARGO and the maven ant run plugin to perform this task. Unfortunately, I cannot get the three (maven, ant run and CARGO) to play together. I don't have the uberjar that is used in the ant examples of cargo. How can I configure the ant run task so that the cargo ant task can create, start, deploy my JBoss? Ideally the one unpacked and configured by the cargo-maven2-plugin in another phase? Or, is there a better way to achieve my goal of creating the database? I cannot really use the integration-test phase, as it is executed after the package phase. So, I plan to do it all in compile phase using antrun.

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• unexpected behaviour of object stored in web service Session

  - by draconis

  Hi. I'm using Session variables inside a web service to maintain state between successive method calls by an external application called QBWC. I set this up by decorating my web service methods with this attribute: [WebMethod(EnableSession = true)] I'm using the Session variable to store an instance of a custom object called QueueManager. The QueueManager has a property called ChangeQueue which looks like this: [Serializable] public class QueueManager { ... public Queue<QBChange> ChangeQueue { get; set; } ... where QBChange is a custom business object belonging to my web service. Now, every time I get a call to a method in my web service, I use this code to retrieve my QueueManager object and access my queue: QueueManager qm = (QueueManager)Session[ticket]; then I remove an object from the queue, using qm.dequeue() and then I save the modified query manager object (modified because it contains one less object in the queue) back to the Session variable, like so: Session[ticket] = qm; ready for the next web service method call using the same ticket. Now here's the thing: if I comment out this last line //Session[ticket] = qm; , then the web service behaves exactly the same way, reducing the size of the queue between method calls. Now why is that? The web service seems to be updating a class contained in serialized form in a Session variable without being asked to. Why would it do that? When I deserialize my Queuemanager object, does the qm variable hold a reference to the serialized object inside the Session[ticket] variable?? This seems very unlikely.

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• Why is my code stopping and not returning an exception?

  - by BeckyLou

  I have some code that starts a couple of threads to let them execute, then uses a while loop to check for the current time passing a set timeout period, or for the correct number of results to have been processed (by checking an int on the class object) (with a Thread.Sleep() to wait between loops) Once the while loop is set to exit, it calls Abort() on the threads and should return data to the function that calls the method. When debugging and stepping through the code, I find there can be exceptions in the code running on the separate threads, and in some cases I handle these appropriately, and at other times I don't want to do anything specific. What I have been seeing is that my code goes into the while loop and the thread sleeps, then nothing is returned from my function, either data or an exception. Code execution just stops completely. Any ideas what could be happening? Code sample: System.Threading.Thread sendThread = new System.Threading.Thread(new System.Threading.ThreadStart(Send)); sendThread.Start(); System.Threading.Thread receiveThread = new System.Threading.Thread(new System.Threading.ThreadStart(Receive)); receiveThread.Start(); // timeout Int32 maxSecondsToProcess = this.searchTotalCount * timeout; DateTime timeoutTime = DateTime.Now.AddSeconds(maxSecondsToProcess); Log("Submit() Timeout time: " + timeoutTime.ToString("yyyyMMdd HHmmss")); // while we're still waiting to receive results & haven't hit the timeout, // keep the threads going while (resultInfos.Count < this.searchTotalCount && DateTime.Now < timeoutTime) { Log("Submit() Waiting..."); System.Threading.Thread.Sleep(10 * 1000); // 1 minute } Log("Submit() Aborting threads"); // <== this log doesn't show up sendThread.Abort(); receiveThread.Abort(); return new List<ResultInfo>(this.resultInfos.Values);

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• Multiple Exception Handling in one if statement [closed]

  - by JA3N

  I am having trouble with throwing and catching exceptions. Here is the code for assignSeat(), assignSeat is called in a try block in another class. void assignSeat(String passengerName, int x, int y) throws SeatOccupiedException, InvalidPassengerNameException { Seat tSeat = airplane.getSeat(x,y); if (tSeat!=null) { if (passengerName.isEmpty() || !passengerName.matches("[a-zA-Z]+")) { throw new InvalidPassengerNameException(); } //excluded else if else if (foundPassenger(passengerName)) { airplane.seatList.get(airplane.seatNumber(passengerName)).unOccupy(); tSeat.occupy(); for (int i = 0; i<passengers.size();i++) if (passengers.get(i).getName().equals(passengerName)) passengers.get(i).changeSeat(tSeat.getSeatName()); } else if (!tSeat.occupied) { tSeat.occupy(); addPassenger(passengerName, tSeat.getSeatName()); } else if (tSeat.occupied) { throw new SeatOccupiedException(); } } and here is the code that calls assignSeat() and is in another class (I won't copy the whole class to make it look clearer) if (afComp.currentAF != null) { try { afComp.currentAF.assignSeat(nameField.getText(), x, y); //<-Problem here, "Unhandled exception type SeatOccupiedException" } catch (SeatOccupiedException exception) //<-Problem here, "Unreachable catch block, This exception is never thrown from the try statement body" { } catch(InvalidPassengerNameException exception) //<-No problems. { } } Whats wrong with the try block? why won't it throw the SeatOccupiedException? Exception classes: SeatOccupied: package a2; public class SeatOccupiedException extends Exception { public SeatOccupiedException(){} } InvalidPassengerName: package a2; public class InvalidPassengerNameException extends Exception { public InvalidPassengerNameException() {} } Every class I have is in package a2 imports for class that calls assignSeat package a2; import java.awt.event.ActionEvent; import java.awt.event.ActionListener; import java.awt.event.MouseListener; import java.awt.event.MouseMotionListener; import java.awt.event.MouseEvent; import java.awt.BorderLayout; import javax.swing.*; import javax.swing.event.*; imports for class that has assignSeat package a2; import java.util.ArrayList;

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• Statically checking a Java app for link errors

  - by monorailkitty

  I have a scenario where I have code written against version 1 of a library but I want to ship version 2 of the library instead. The code has shipped and is therefore not changeable. I'm concerned that it might try to access classes or members of the library that existed in v1 but have been removed in v2. I figured it would be possible to write a tool to do a simple check to see if the code will link against the newer version of the library. I appreciate that the code may still be very broken even if the code links. I am thinking about this from the other side - if the code won't link then I can be sure there is a problem. As far as I can see, I need to run through the bytecode checking for references, method calls and field accesses to library classes then use reflection to check whether the class/member exists. I have three-fold question: (1) Does such a tool exist already? (2) I have a niggling feeling it is much more complicated that I imagine and that I have missed something major - is that the case? (3) Do you know of a handy library that would allow me to inspect the bytecode such that I can find the method calls, references etc.? Thanks!

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• Strange behavior with large Object Types

  - by Peter Lang

  I recognized that calling a method on an Oracle Object Type takes longer when the instance gets bigger. The code below just adds rows to a collection stored in the Object Type and calls the empty dummy-procedure in the loop. Calls are taking longer when more rows are in the collection. When I just remove the call to dummy, performance is much better (the collection still contains the same number of records): Calling dummy: Not calling dummy: 11 0 81 0 158 0 Code to reproduce: Create Type t_tab Is Table Of VARCHAR2(10000); Create Type test_type As Object( tab t_tab, Member Procedure dummy ); Create Type Body test_type As Member Procedure dummy As Begin Null; --# Do nothing End dummy; End; Declare v_test_type test_type := New test_type( New t_tab() ); Procedure run_test As start_time NUMBER := dbms_utility.get_time; Begin For i In 1 .. 200 Loop v_test_Type.tab.Extend; v_test_Type.tab(v_test_Type.tab.Last) := Lpad(' ', 10000); v_test_Type.dummy(); --# Removed this line in second test End Loop; dbms_output.put_line( dbms_utility.get_time - start_time ); End run_test; Begin run_test; run_test; run_test; End; I tried with both 10g and 11g. Can anyone explain/reproduce this behavior?

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• What's the correct way to pass parameters from VBScript to COM interface implemented in C#?

  - by nopopem

  I'm trying to expose a fairly simple C# class to COM which should be usable from VBScript (among others). Some objects need to be created via COM calls and will be used in furter calls later on. The definition of the exposed classes and interfaces looks like this: namespace Test { [InterfaceType(ComInterfaceType.InterfaceIsIDispatch)] public interface IComInterface { IFoo CreateFoo(); void UseFoo(int x, IFoo f); } [ClassInterface(ClassInterfaceType.None)] public sealed class CComInterface : IComInterface { public CComInterface() {} public IFoo CreateFoo() { return new Foo(); } public void UseFoo(int x, IFoo f) { f.Bar(); } } [InterfaceType(ComInterfaceType.InterfaceIsIDispatch)] public interface IFoo { void Bar(); } [ClassInterface(ClassInterfaceType.None)] public class Foo : IFoo { internal Foo() {} public void Bar() {} } } The simplest thinkable COM client in VBScript does this: Dim ci Set ci = WScript.CreateObject("Test.CComInterface") Dim foo Set foo = ci.CreateFoo foo.Bar ci.UseFoo 0, foo While the call to Bar succeeds, calling UseFoo fails with "Error 5: invalid procedure call or invalid argument" The generated IDL seems ok to me: dispinterface IComInterface { properties: methods: [id(0x60020003)] IFoo* CreateFoo(); [id(0x60020004)] void UseFoo( [in] long x, [in] IFoo* f); }; The vbs call succeeds when I wrap the second parameter in parentheses like this: ci.UseFoo 0, (foo) As far as I understand (I'm no VBScript expert however) this forces the reference to foo to be passed by value, i.e. a copy of the reference is being made. How can I change the interface so that it can be called with the foo reference directly? Since this will be a public interface used by customers I don't like the idea of having to explain why all the objects created need to be passed back in an extra pair of parentheses...

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• How to model in J2EE / JEE?

  - by Harry

  Let's say, I have decided to go with J(2)EE stack for my enterprise application. Now, for domain modelling (or: for designing the M of MVC), which APIs can I safely assume and use, and which I should stay away from... say, via a layer of abstraction? For example, Should I go ahead and litter my Model with calls to Hibernate/JPA API? Or, should I build an abstraction... a persistence layer of my own to avoid hard-coding against these two specific persistence APIs? Why I ask this: Few years ago, there was this Kodo API which got superseded by Hibernate. If one had designed a persistence layer and coded the rest of the model against this layer (instead of littering the Model with calls to specific vendor API), it would have allowed one to (relatively) easily switch from Kodo to Hibernate to xyz. Is it recommended to make aggressive use of the *QL provided by your persistence vendor in your domain model? I'm not aware of any real-world issues (like performance, scalability, portability, etc) arising out of a heavy use of an HQL-like language. Why I ask this: I would like to avoid, as much as possible, writing custom code when the same could be accomplished via query language that is more portable than SQL. Sorry, but I'm a complete newbie to this area. Where could I find more info on this topic? Many thanks in advance. /HS

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• Releasing Autopool crashes on iOS 4.0 (and only on 4.0)

  - by samsam

  Hi there. I'm wondering what could cause this. I have several methods in my code that i call using performSelectorInBackground. Within each of these methods i have an Autoreleasepool that is being alloced/initialized at the beginning and released at the end of the method. this perfectly works on iOS 3.1.3 / 3.2 / 4.2 / 4.2.1 but it fataly crashes on iOS 4.0 with a EXC_BAD_ACCESS Exception that happens after calling [myPool release]. After I noticed this strange behaviour I was thinking about rewriting portions of my code and to make my app "less parallel" in case that the client os is 4.0. After I did that, the next point where the app crashed was within the ReachabilityCallback-Method from Apples Reachability "Framework". well, now I'm not quite sure what to do. The things i do within my threaded methods is pretty simple xml parsing (no cocoa calls or stuff that would affect the UI). After each method finishes it posts a notification which the coordinating-thread listens to and once all the parallelized methods have finished, the coordinating thread calls viewcontrollers etc... I have absolutely no clue what could cause this weird behaviour. Especially because Apples Code fails as well. any help is greatly appreciated! thanks, sam

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• tcp/ip accept not returning, but client does

  - by paquetp

  server: vxworks 6.3 calls the usual socket, bind, listen, then: for (;;) { client = accept(sfd,NULL,NULL); // pass client to worker thread } client: .NET 2.0 TcpClient constructor to connect to server that takes the string hostname and int port, like: TcpClient client = new TcpClient(server_ip, port); This is working fine when the server is compiled and executed in windows (native c++). intermittently, the constructor to TcpClient will return the instance, without throwing any exception, but the accept call in vxWorks does not return with the client fd. tcpstatShow indicates no accept occurred. What could possibly make the TcpClient constructor (which calls 'Connect') return the instance, while the accept call on the server not return? It seems to be related to what the system is doing in the background - it seems more likely to get this symptom to occur when the server is busy persisting data to flash or an NFS share when the client attempts to connect, but can happen when it isn't also. I've tried adjusting priority of the thread running accept I've looked at the size of the queue in 'listen'. There's enough. The total number of file descriptors available should be enough (haven't validated this yet though, first thing in the morning)

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• In .NET, how do you send multiple arguments into a DOS command prompt?

  - by donde

  I am trying to execute DOS commands in ASP.NET 2.0. What I have now calls a BAT file which, in turn, calls a CMD file. It works (with the end result being a file gets ftp'ed). However, I'd like to dump the BAT and CMD files and run everything in .NET. What is the format of sending multiple arguments into the command window? Here is what I have now. The .NET Code: System.Diagnostics.Process proc = new System.Diagnostics.Process(); proc.EnableRaisingEvents = false; proc.StartInfo.FileName = "C:\\MyBat.BAT"; proc.Start(); proc.WaitForExit(); The Bat File looks like this (all it does is run the cmd file): ftp.exe -s:C:\MyCMD.cmd And here is the content of the Cmd file: open <my host> <my user name> <my pw> quote site cyl pri=1 sec=1 lrecl=1786 blksize=0 recfm=fb retpd=30 put C:\MyDTLFile.dtl 'MyDTLFile.dtl' quit

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• Magento: The best way to hook into the checkout process

  - by dan.codes

  I am integrating with a third party order management system and I have to make calls to it throughout the checkout process. The problem is, I don't think there are many events available because of how the onepage checkout is all done in javascript/ajax calls. There are a few like after saving the shipping method, and none of the dynamic events seem to fit either. basically I need to know as soon as the user is getting access to the shipping method tab to pass the billing shipping address over, then after the shipping method, to pass that over. Obviously there is an event for that. I know there are ones for when you submit an order so that should be good. I guess I only need to know when the billing/shipping address is saved. I was using controller_action_layout_render_before_checkout_onepage_progress but the progress gets called way to late. It just doesn't seem like there are a lot of hooks through the onepage checkout. if anyone can give me some examples of what they have done that would be great!

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• How to run perl script with a few arguments from php

  - by Cristalla

  My html webpage calls php script to upload files to the server from a local computer as follows. <form enctype="multipart/form-data" action="upload.php" method="POST"> <p><b><h3> <font color="#003366"> (1) Upload your reading text file. </font> </h3> </b> </p> <INPUT type="file" name="uploaded" size="50" > <br/> <input type="submit" name="files" value="upload"> </form> In order to process with an uploaded file, my php script calls shell script $output=system('/bin/sh connector_0.sh'); and my shell script is composed of a series of python/perl scripts. #!/bin/sh python main_senselearner_final_0.py senseLearner.pl -i Uploaded_Files/slinput_0.txt -o Uploaded_Files/presloutput_0 .txt -model modelNNCollocations -model modelJJCollocations -model modelVBColloc ations -pos python smutngslout_0.py python genhtml_0.py Now, the problem is the following: all python scripts in shell script worked fine through php. But perl script didn't work. When I run shell script by myself in my server, all four scripts in shell worked perfectly. However, when I run shell script from php, only perl script doesn't work. Would you please give me any tips to solve this problem? Many thanks!!!

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• Spring MVC: Where to place validation and how to validation entity references.

  - by arrages

  Let's say I have the following command bean for creating a user: public class CreateUserCommand { private String userName; private String email; private Integer occupationId; pirvate Integer countryId; } occupationId and countryId are drop down selected values on the form. They map to an entity in the database (Occupation, Country). This command object is going to be fed to a service facade like so: userServiceFacade.createUser(CreateUserCommand command); This facade will construct a user entity to be sent to the actual service. So I suppose that in the facade layer I will have to make several dao calls to map all the lookup properties of the User entity. Based on this what is the best strategy to validate that occupationId and countryId map to real entities? Where is the best place to perform this validation? There is the spring validator but I am not sure this is the best place for this, for one I am wary of this method as validation is tied to the web tier, but also that means I would need to make the dao calls in the validator for validation but I would need to call the dao's in the facade layer again when the command - entity translation occurs. Is there anything I can do better? Thanks.

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• My Rails session is getting reset when I have concurrent requests

  - by alex_c

  I think I might be misunderstanding something about Rails sessions, so please bear with me, I might not be phrasing my question the best way. I'm working on an iPhone app with a Ruby on Rails backend. I have a web view which by default goes to the index action of one controller (and uses sessions), and in the background a bunch of API calls going to a different controller (and which don't need to use sessions). The problem is, the sessions set by my web view seem to be overwitten by the API calls. My staging server is pretty slow, so there's lots of time for the requests to overlap each other - what I see in the logs is basically this: Request A (first controller) starts. Session is empty. Request B (second controller) starts. Session is empty. Request A finishes. Request A has done authentication, and stored the user ID in the session. Session contains user ID. Request B finishes. Session is empty. Request C starts. Session is empty - not what I want. Now, the strange thing is that request B should NOT be writing anything to the session. I do have before and after filters which READ from the session - things like: user = User.find_by_id(session[:id]) or logger.debug session.inspect and if I remove all of those, then everything works as expected - session contents get set by request A, and they're still there when request C starts. So. I think I'm missing something about how sessions work. Why would reading from the session overwrite it? Should I be accessing it some other way? Am I completely on the wrong track and the problem is elsewhere? Thank you for any insights!

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• Inline form editing on client side

  - by bykasif

  I see some web sites use dynamic forms(I am not sure about how to call them!) to edit a group of data. For example: there is a group of data such as name, last name, city, country.etc. when user clicks on EDIT button, instead of doing postback, a form, consisisting of 2 textboxes + 2 comboboxes, dynamically opens to edit,And then when you click on Save button, edit form disappears, and all data updates.. Now, I know what happens over here is using Ajax for server calls and some javascript for dom manipulation.. I even found some jquery plugins for textbox editing.. However, I could not found anything for full implementation of form fields. Therefore I have implemented it on asp.net by jquery ajax calls and dom manipulation manually. here is my process: 1) when Edit button clicked: Make a ajax call to server to retrieve necessary formedit.aspx 2) it returns editable form fields with values assigned. 3) when Save button clicked: make ajax call to server to retrieve formupdateprocess.aspx page. it basically do the database updates and then return necessary DOM snipplet (...) to insert current page.. well it works but MY PROBLEM, is performance.. Result seems slower than samples I see in other sites.:(( IS there anything that I dont know? a better way to implement this??

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• Freetype2 (error-)return value documentation

  - by Awaki

  In short, I'm looking for documentation that would limit the error situations to check for after a Freetype library function failed, much like the OpenGL and Win32 APIs document the error codes generated by their respective functions. I can't seem to find such documentation though, so I was wondering how to best handle translation of Freetype errors to typed exceptions. Background: I am currently in the process of implementing font-rendering capability (using Freetype) for my GUI framework, which makes strong use of typed exceptions to indicate error situations. However, the Freetype docs seem to completely omit what errors can be expected from what functions. That, if such documentation does indeed not exist, would basically leave me with two options: either guessing which errors make sense for a certain Freetype function (obviously prone to mistakes on my part), or considering every error code for translation into appropriate exceptions (less verbose since I would have to write the translation only once). Performance isn't really critical in the code that calls the Freetype library, so even the latter option would probably be acceptable, but surely there must be some kind of documentation on which library calls may return what Freetype error? Is there any such documentation which I just somehow managed to not find? Should I go the route of generically expecting every error code for translation? Or are there other ways to approach this problem? By the way, I wanted to avoid introducing some kind of generic FreetypeException (containing a description of the Freetype error) since I intended to completely hide what libraries I'm using (not from a legal point-of-view, mind you), but I guess I can be convinced to do this anyway if the consensus is that it would be the best option. I don't think it matters for this question, but I'm writing in C++.

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• How to keep track of call statistics? C++

  - by tf.rz

  I'm working on a project that delivers statistics to the user. I created a class called Dog, And it has several functions. Speak, woof, run, fetch, etc. I want to have a function that spits out how many times each function has been called. I'm also interested in the constructor calls and destructor calls as well. I have a header file which defines all the functions, then a separate .cc file that implements them. My question is, is there a way to keep track of how many times each function is called? I have a function called print that will fetch the "statistics" and then output them to standard output. I was considering using static integers as part of the class itself, declaring several integers to keep track of those things. I know the compiler will create a copy of the integer and initialize it to a minimum value, and then I'll increment the integers in the .cc functions. I also thought about having static integers as a global variable in the .cc. Which way is easier? Or is there a better way to do this? Any help is greatly appreciated!

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• Expose webservice directly to webclients or keep a thin server-side script layer in between?

  - by max

  Hi, I'm developing a REST webservice (Java, Jersey). The people I'm doing this for want to directly access the webservice via Javascript. Some instinct tells me this is not a good idea, but I cannot really explain that instinct. My natural approach would have been to have the webservice do the real logic and database access, but also have some (relatively thin) server-side script layer (e.g. in PHP). Clients would talk to the PHP layer which in turn would talk to the webservice. (The webservice would be pretty local to the apache/PHP server and implicitly trust calls from the script layer. The script layer would take care of session management.) (Btw, I am not talking about just hiding the webservice behind an Apache which simply redirects calls.) But as I find myself at a lack of words/arguments to explain my instinct, I wonder whether my instinct is right - note that while I have been developing all kinds of software in all kinds of languages and frameworks for like 17 years, this is the first time I develop a webservice. So my question is basically: what are your opinions? Are there any standard setups? Is my instinct totally wrong? Or partially? ;P Many thanks, Max PS: I might add a few bits of information about the planned usage of the whole application: will be accessed by different kinds of users, partly general public, partly privileged thus, all major OS/browser combinations can be expected as clients however, writing the client is not my responsibility will potentially have very high load/traffic logic of webservice will later be massively expanded for another product which is basically a superset of the functionality of the current project there is a significant likelihood that at some point an API should be exposed which can be used by 3rd party developers - obviously, with some restrictions at some point, the public view of the product should become accessible via smartphones, too (in other words, maybe a customized version of the site to adapt to the smaller display and different input methods)

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• Passing System classes as constructor parameters

  - by mcl

  This is probably crazy. I want to take the idea of Dependency Injection to extremes. I have isolated all System.IO-related behavior into a single class so that I can mock that class in my other classes and thereby relieve my larger suite of unit tests of the burden of worrying about the actual file system. But the File IO class I end up with can only be tested with integration tests, which-- of course-- introduces complexity I don't really want to deal with when all I really want to do is make sure my FileIO class calls the correct System.IO stuff. I don't need to integration test System.IO. My FileIO class is doing more than simply wrapping System.IO functions, every now and then it does contain some logic (maybe this is the problem?). So what I'd like is to be able to test my File IO class to ensure that it makes the correct system calls by mocking the System.IO classes themselves. Ideally this would be as easy as having a constructor like so: public FileIO( System.IO.Directory directory, System.IO.File file, System.IO.FileStream fileStream ) { this.Directory = directory; this.File = file; this.FileStream = fileStream; } And then calling in methods like: public GetFilesInFolder(string folderPath) { return this.Directory.GetFiles(folderPath) } But this doesn't fly since the System.IO classes in question are static classes. As far as I can tell they can neither be instantiated in this way or subclassed for the purposes of mocking.

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• Will this cause a problem with different runtimes with DLL?

  - by Milo

  My gui application supports polymorphic timed events so that means that the user calls new, and the gui calls delete. This can create a problem if the runtimes are incompatible. So I was told a proposed solution would be this: class base; class Deallocator { void operator()(base* ptr) { delete ptr; } } class base { public: base(Deallocator dealloc) { m_deleteFunc = dealloc; } ~base() { m_deleteFunc(this); } private: Deallocator m_deleteFunc; } int main { Deallocator deletefunc; base baseObj(deletefunc); } While this is a good solution, it does demand that the user create a Deallocator object which I do not want. I was however wondering if I provided a Deallocator to each derived class: eg class derived : public base { Deallocator dealloc; public: Derived() : base(dealloc); { } }; I think this still does not work though. The constraint is that: The addTimedEvent() function is part of the Widget class which is also in the dll, but it is instanced by the user. The other constraint is that some classes which derive from Widget call this function with their own timed event classes. Given that "he who called new must call delete" what could work given these constraints? Thanks

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• How to best manage multi-frame MovieClips with classes?

  - by Arms

  After switching to AS3, I've been having a hell of a time figuring out the best way to manage MovieClips that have UI elements spread across multiple frames with a single class. An example that I am working on now is a simple email form. I have a MovieClip with two frames: the 1st frame has the form elements (text inputs, submit button) the 2nd frame has a "thank you" message and a button to go back to the first frame (to send another email) In the library I have linked the MovieClip to a custom class (Emailer). My immediate problem is how do I assign a MouseEvent.CLICK event to the button on the 2nd frame? I should note at this point that I am trying to avoid putting code on the timeline (except for stop() calls). This is how I am 'solving' the problem now: Emailer registers an event listener for a frame change ( addEventListener("frame 2", onFrameChange) ) On the 2nd frame of the MovieClip I am calling dispatchEvent(new Event("frame 2")); (I would prefer to not have this code on the frame, but I don't know what else to do) My two complaints with this method are that, first I have calls to addEventListener spread out across different class methods (I would rather have all UI event listeners registered in one method), and second that I have to dispatch those custom "onFrameChange" events. The second complaint grows exponentially for MovieClips that have more than just 2 frames. My so called solution feels makes me feel dirty and makes my brain hurt. I am looking for any advice on what to do differently. Perhaps there's a design pattern I should be looking at? Should I swallow my pride and write timeline code even though the rest of my application is written in class files (and I abhor the Flash IDE code editor)? I absolutely LOVE the event system, and have no problem coding applications with it, but I feel like I'm stuck thinking in terms of AS2 when working with mutl-frame movieclips and code. Any and all help would be greatly appreciated.

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• Is Safari on iOS 6 caching $.ajax results?

  - by user1684978

  Since the upgrade to iOS 6, we are seeing Safari's web view take the liberty of caching $.ajax calls. This is in the context of a PhoneGap application so it is using the Safari WebView. Our $.ajax calls are POST methods and we have cache set to false {cache:false}, but still this is happening. We tried manually adding a timestamp to the headers but it did not help. We did more research and found that Safari is only returning cached results for web services that have a function signature that is static and does not change from call to call. For instance, imagine a function called something like: getNewRecordID(intRecordType) This function receives the same input parameters over and over again, but the data it returns should be different every time. Must be in Apple's haste to make iOS 6 zip along impressively they got too happy with the cache settings. Has anyone else seen this behavior on iOS 6? If so, what exactly is causing it? The workaround that we found was to modify the function signature to be something like this: getNewRecordID(intRecordType, strTimestamp) and then always pass in a timestamp parameter as well, and just discard that value on the server side. This works around the issue. I hope this helps some other poor soul who spends 15 hours on this issue like I did!

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