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  • Database Error Handling: What if You have to Call Outside service and the Transaction Fails?

    - by Ngu Soon Hui
    We all know that we can always wrap our database call in transaction ( with or without a proper ORM), in a form like this: $con = Propel::getConnection(EventPeer::DATABASE_NAME); try { $con->begin(); // do your update, save, delete or whatever here. $con->commit(); } catch (PropelException $e) { $con->rollback(); throw $e; } This way would guarantee that if the transaction fails, the database is restored to the correct status. But the problem is that let's say when I do a transaction, in addition to that transaction, I need to update another database ( an example would be when I update an entry in a column in databaseA, another entry in a column in databaseB must be updated). How to handle this case? Let's say, this is my code, I have three databases that need to be updated ( dbA, dbB, dbc): $con = Propel::getConnection("dbA"); try { $con->begin(); // update to dbA // update to dbB //update to dbc $con->commit(); } catch (PropelException $e) { $con->rollback(); throw $e; } If dbc fails, I can rollback the dbA but I can't rollback dbb. I think this problem should be database independent. And since I am using ORM, this should be ORM independent as well. Update: Some of the database transactions are wrapped in ORM, some are using naked PDO, oledb ( or whatever bare minimum language provided database calls). So my solution has to take care this. Any idea?

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  • Why is it a bad practice to call System.gc?

    - by zneak
    After answering to a question about how to force-free objects in Java (the guy was clearing a 1.5GB HashMap) with System.gc(), I've been told it's a bad practice to call System.gc() manually, but the comments seemed mitigated about it. So much that no one dared to upvote it, nor downvote it. I've been told there it's a bad practice, but then I've also been told garbage collector runs don't systematically stop the world anymore, and that it could also be only seen as a hint, so I'm kind of at loss. I do understand that usually the JVM knows better than you when it needs to reclaim memory. I also understand that worrying about a few kilobytes of data is silly. And I also understand that even megabytes of data isn't what it was a few years back. But still, 1.5 gigabyte? And you know there's like 1.5 GB of data hanging around in memory; it's not like it's a shot in the dark. Is System.gc() systematically bad, or is there some point at which it becomes okay? So the question is actually double: Why is it or not a bad practice to call System.gc()? Is it really a hint under certain implementations, or is it always a full collection cycle? Are there really garbage collector implementations that can do their work without stopping the world? Please shed some light over the various assertions people have made. Where's the threshold? Is it never a good idea to call System.gc(), or are there times when it's acceptable? If any, what are those times?

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  • Jboss EAP 5 and Tomcat 6 on the same Win env. (Jboss gets Toncat`s home page when`s up)

    - by Eddie
    Hi guys, I`m newbie to Java technologies, just trying to catch up some idea of it. I was trying to build a java environment to play with Eclipse, Mysql, Tomcat and Jboss and integrate these together. I did: 1. Installed jdk1.6.0_20 (including JAVA_HOME and path variables; I work on Win Vista), mysql 5 and eclipse-jee-galileo (the latest one, 3.6 I believe) and all went good - java programs are compiled and run getting a DB connection. 2. Installed Jboss enterprise-installer-5.0.1.jar with localhost:8080 and this also went good - run.bat started it and I could log in as admin thru its home page. I integrated it with eclipse and could start and stop it from there too. 3. I got apache-tomcat-6.0.26-windows-x86 and this also runs and stops from command line and from eclipse. But this one uses localhost:8080 without asking. Now the problem is when I start jboss I get Tomcat home page and I can`t fix it. Is it probably because both now use localhost:8080? BTW, does Jboss EAP 5 contain Tomcat inside and I shouldn't add that Tomcat separately? Thanks for you help in advance, Eddie

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  • Cassandra random read speed

    - by Jody Powlette
    We're still evaluating Cassandra for our data store. As a very simple test, I inserted a value for 4 columns into the Keyspace1/Standard1 column family on my local machine amounting to about 100 bytes of data. Then I read it back as fast as I could by row key. I can read it back at 160,000/second. Great. Then I put in a million similar records all with keys in the form of X.Y where X in (1..10) and Y in (1..100,000) and I queried for a random record. Performance fell to 26,000 queries per second. This is still well above the number of queries we need to support (about 1,500/sec) Finally I put ten million records in from 1.1 up through 10.1000000 and randomly queried for one of the 10 million records. Performance is abysmal at 60 queries per second and my disk is thrashing around like crazy. I also verified that if I ask for a subset of the data, say the 1,000 records between 3,000,000 and 3,001,000, it returns slowly at first and then as they cache, it speeds right up to 20,000 queries per second and my disk stops going crazy. I've read all over that people are storing billions of records in Cassandra and fetching them at 5-6k per second, but I can't get anywhere near that with only 10mil records. Any idea what I'm doing wrong? Is there some setting I need to change from the defaults? I'm on an overclocked Core i7 box with 6gigs of ram so I don't think it's the machine. Here's my code to fetch records which I'm spawning into 8 threads to ask for one value from one column via row key: ColumnPath cp = new ColumnPath(); cp.Column_family = "Standard1"; cp.Column = utf8Encoding.GetBytes("site"); string key = (1+sRand.Next(9)) + "." + (1+sRand.Next(1000000)); ColumnOrSuperColumn logline = client.get("Keyspace1", key, cp, ConsistencyLevel.ONE); Thanks for any insights

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  • stack overflow on XMLListCollection collectionEvent

    - by reidLinden
    I'm working on a Flex 3 project, and I'm using a pair of XMLListCollection(s) to manage a combobox and a data grid. The combobox piece is working perfectly. The XMLListCollection for this is static. The user picks an item, and, on "change", it fires off an addItem() to the second collection. The second collection's datagrid then displays the updated list, and all is well. The datagrid, however, is editable. A further complication is that I have another event handler bound to the second XMLLIstCollection's "change" event, and in that handler, I do make additional changes to the second list. This essentially causes an infinite loop (a stack overflow :D ), of the second lists "change" handler. I'm not really sure how to handle this. Searching has brought up an idea or two regarding AutoUpdate functionality, but I wasn't able to get much out of them. In particular, the behavior persists, executing the 'updates' as soon as I re-enable, so I imagine I may be doing it wrong. I want the update to run, in general, just not DURING that code block. Thanks for your help!

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  • How to best show progress info when using ADO.NET?

    - by Yadyn
    I want to show the user detailed progress information when performing potentially lengthy database operations. Specifically, when inserting/updating data that may be on the order of hundreds of KB or MB. Currently, I'm using in-memory DataTables and DataRows which are then synced with the database via TableAdapter.Update calls. This works fine and dandy, but the single call leaves little opportunity to glean any kind of progress info to show to the user. I have no idea how much data is passing through the network to the remote DB or its progress. Basically, all I know is when Update returns and it is assumed complete (barring any errors or exceptions). But this means all I can show is 0% and then a pause and then 100%. I can count the number of rows, even going so far to cound how many are actually Modified or Added, and I could even maybe calculate per DataRow its estimated size based on the datatype of each column, using sizeof for value types like int and checking length for things like strings or byte arrays. With that, I could probably determine, before updating, an estimated total transfer size, but I'm still stuck without any progress info once Update is called on the TableAdapter. Am I stuck just using an indeterminate progress bar or mouse waiting cursor? Would I need to radically change our data access layer to be able to hook into this kind of information? Even if I can't get it down to the precise KB transferred (like a web browser file download progress bar), could I at least know when each DataRow/DataTable finishes or something? How do you best show this kind of progress info using ADO.NET?

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  • In Perl, how can a subroutine get a coderef that points to itself?

    - by hillu
    For learning purposes, I am toying around with the idea of building event-driven programs in Perl and noticed that it might be nice if a subroutine that was registered as an event handler could, on failure, just schedule another call to itself for a later time. So far, I have come up with something like this: my $cb; my $try = 3; $cb = sub { my $rc = do_stuff(); if (!$rc && --$try) { schedule_event($cb, 10); # schedule $cb to be called in 10 seconds } else { do_other_stuff; } }; schedule_event($cb, 0); # schedule initial call to $cb to be performed ASAP Is there a way that code inside the sub can access the coderef to that sub so I could do without using an extra variable? I'd like to schedule the initial call like this. schedule_event( sub { ... }, 0); I first thought of using caller(0)[3], but this only gives me a function name, (__ANON__ if there's no name), not a code reference that has a pad attached to it.

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  • Empty UIView with minimal drawRect: overhead

    - by Benjohn Barnes
    Hi, I have an application that has three nested views that are mechanically important, but have no visual elements: A vanila UIView that doesn't have any content of its own, and is simply used as a host for CALayers. A UIScrollView (that is queried for it's origin and used to position CALayers in 3d: I really only use this view to faithfully replicate the scroll view's "mechanics"), The scroll view's contents: a UIView subclass. It simply picks up touch events and passes them to a delegate - all that is important are its UIResponder machinery. The UIView hosting CALayers is a sibling of a UIImageView that is a background image over which the CALayers are drawn. I'd really like to ensure that none of these empty UIViews have any drawing or compositing overhead (in time, or storage) associated with them, or if that's not possible, to get this overhead as small as possible, and to understand it so that I can perhaps decide if I should try a different approach. In interface builder, I've set all of the views to not clear their context before drawing. I've not set them to be opaque though, because they definitely are not opaque - they are completely transparent. I've found that I need to give the scroll view contents a transparent clear colour (again in IB by setting the background colour's opacity to zero), and this suggests that it is being drawn, which I don't want. So, in short, I've not got much idea of what is and isn't getting drawn (anyone know of a tool like Quartz Debug for iPhone / simulator?), or how to go about stopping things from getting drawn. Advice would be very welcome! Thanks, Benjohn

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  • My simple program runs on Android emulator, but not on my Nexus One

    - by noisesolo
    To clarify, I have no trouble getting the Nexus One connected in developer's mode. I can actually get Eclipse to "run" my program on my Nexus One. However, my Nexus One simply gets stuck in a reboot loop. I've also created an .apk file and put it onto my Nexus One, installing it with apkInstaller. However, it crashed while installing. I see my app on my phone, but I'm kind of afraid to run it. I am not doing anything fancy in my program; all it does is generate text by shuffling a couple arrays of strings together. It uses a bunch of text views, two buttons, and a spinner. I have only edited the main source file, the strings XML file, and the layout XML file, nothing else. It's a 2.1-update1 program and it runs fine on the emulator. Does anyone have any idea what's going on? I'm using Windows 7 (32 bit) and my Nexus One is running Cyanogen 5.0.7.1. I'm pretty sure it's my code that's causing the problem. Now I'm just wondering if there are any common mistakes that would lead my app to run on the emulator but not on my device. Thanks in advance.

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  • ASP.NET: Custom MembershipProvider with a custom user table

    - by blahblah
    I've recently started tinkering with ASP.NET MVC, but this question should apply to classic ASP.NET as well. For what it's worth, I don't know very much about forms authentication and membership providers either. I'm trying to write my own MembershipProvider which will be connected to my own custom user table in my database. My user table contains all of the basic user information such as usernames, passwords, password salts, e-mail addresses and so on, but also information such as first name, last name and country of residence. As far as I understand, the standard way of doing this in ASP.NET is to create a user table without the extra information and then a "profile" table with the extra information. However, this doesn't sound very good to me, because whenever I need to access that extra information I would have to make one extra database query to get it. I read in the book "Pro ASP.NET 3.5 in C# 2008" that having a separate table for the profiles is not a very good idea if you need to access the profile table a lot and have many different pages in your website. Now for the problem at hand... As I said, I'm writing my own custom MembershipProvider subclass and it's going pretty well so far, but now I've come to realize that the CreateUser doesn't allow me to create users in the way I'd like. The method only takes a fixed number of arguments and first name, last name and country of residence are not part of them. So how would I create an entry for the new user in my custom table without this information at hand in CreateUser of my MembershipProvider?

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  • Cascading input control is empty while accessing a Jasper Report

    - by Yogesh R
    I call a jasper report through an independent URL through which I pass one of the input controls needed to run the report. E.g. http:// localhost:8080/jasperserver/flow.html?_flowId=viewReportFlow&standAlone=true&reportUnit=xyz&ParentFolderUri=abcd&j_username=xyz&j_password=xyz&parameter1=value1& . . . As you can see in the URL, I pass the JasperServer username and password, reportUnit name and location and other mandatory parameters, along with the report input parameter, i.e., "parameter1" which can have a value like "value1". I used a mandatory, read-only and visible input control for this input value. Its value would come from the URL, showed in the box but was read-only and hence could not be changed. The report was working absolutely fine upto this point. But the tragedy began when my client rejected this idea. He wanted a completely invisible input control to my report and the input value would be passed through the URL, just like illustrated above. And then my client asked me to refer to this and made me work on cascading input controls. Recently I added a cascading input control to this report. The input control type is a single select query, which utilizes two parameters that I pass to the report through the URL. Now when the Jasper server responds to the URL with the input parameters, all the other static parameters work properly, except for the cascaded one. When I click the select box of the cascaded input, I can see the desired options for a second, and then, it just goes empty while I'm viewing the select list. But when I make the "Parameter1" input control visible, the cascading input control works! And then I turn in invisible, the cascading input control turns into a beast that does things by itself and not listen to his master. I am not able to understand why this is happening. Could anybody please provide me a solution to this?

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  • Normalizing chains of .Skip() and .Take() calls

    - by dtb
    I'm trying to normalize arbitrary chains of .Skip() and .Take() calls to a single .Skip() call followed by an optional single .Take() call. Here are some examples of expected results, but I'm not sure if these are correct: .Skip(5) => .Skip(5) .Take(7) => .Skip(0).Take(7) .Skip(5).Skip(7) => .Skip(12) .Skip(5).Take(7) => .Skip(5).Take(7) .Take(7).Skip(5) => .Skip(5).Take(2) .Take(5).Take(7) => .Skip(0).Take(5) .Skip(5).Skip(7).Skip(11) => .Skip(23) .Skip(5).Skip(7).Take(11) => .Skip(12).Take(11) .Skip(5).Take(7).Skip(3) => .Skip(8).Take(4) .Skip(5).Take(7).Take(3) => .Skip(5).Take(4) .Take(11).Skip(5).Skip(3) => .Skip(8).Take(3) .Take(11).Skip(5).Take(7) => .Skip(5).Take(6) .Take(11).Take(5).Skip(3) => .Skip(3).Take(2) .Take(11).Take(5).Take(3) => .Skip(0).Take(3) Can anyone confirm these are the correct results to be expected? Here is the basic algorithm that I derived from the examples: class Foo { private int skip; private int? take; public Foo Skip(int value) { if (value < 0) value = 0; this.skip += value; if (this.take.HasValue) this.take -= value; return this; } public Foo Take(int value) { if (value < 0) value = 0; if (!this.take.HasValue || value < this.take) this.take = value; return this; } } Any idea how I can confirm if this is the correct algorithm?

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  • CakePHP belongsTo relationship with a variable 'model' field.

    - by gomezuk
    I've got a problem with a belongsTo relationship in CakePHP. I've got an "Action" model that uses the "actions" table and belongs to one of two other models, either "Transaction" or "Tag". The idea being that whenever a user completes a transaction or adds a tag, the action model is created to keep a log of it. I've got that part working, whenever a Transaction or Tag is saved, the aftersave() method also adds an Action record. The problem comes when I try to do a find('all') on the Action model, the related Transaction or Tag record is not being returned. actions: id model model_id created I thought I could use the "conditions" parameter in the belongsTo relationship like this: <?php class Action extends AppModel { var $name = 'Action'; var $actsAs = array('Containable'); var $belongsTo = array( 'Transaction' => array( 'foreignKey' => 'model_id', 'conditions' => array("Action.model"=>"Transaction") ), 'User' => array( 'fields' => array('User.username') ), 'Recommendation' => array( 'conditions' => array("Action.model"=>"Recommendation"), 'foreignKey' => 'model_id' ) ); } ?> But that doesn't work. Am I missing something here, are my relationships wrong (I suspect so)? After Googling this problem I cam across something called Polymorphic Behaviour but I'm not sure this will help me.

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  • Why can't I get a TRUE return in this prepared statement?

    - by Cortopasta
    I can't seem to get this to do anything but return false. My best guess is that the prepared statement isn't executing, but I have no idea why. private function check_credentials($plain_username, $md5_password) { global $dbcon; $ac = new ac(); $ac->dbconnect(); $userid = $dbcon->prepare('SELECT id FROM users WHERE username = :username AND password = :password LIMIT 1'); $userid->bindParam(':username', $plain_username); $userid->bindParam(':password', $md5_password); $userid->execute(); $id = $userid->fetch(); Return $id; } *EDIT:*I've even tried hard coding the username and password into the function itself to try and isolate the problem like this: private function check_credentials($plain_username, $md5_password) { global $dbcon; $plain_username = "jim"; $md5_username = "waffles"; $ac = new ac(); $ac->dbconnect(); $userid = $dbcon->prepare('SELECT id FROM users WHERE username = :username AND password = :password LIMIT 1'); $userid->bindParam(':username', $plain_username); $userid->bindParam(':password', $md5_password); $userid->execute(); print_r($dbcon->errorInfo()); $id = $userid->fetch(); Return $id; } Still nothing :-/

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  • How do I match complete XML objects in a string?

    - by cyclotis04
    I'm attempting to find complete XML objects in a string. They have been placed in the string by an XmlSerializer, but may or may not be complete. I've toyed with the idea of using a regular expression, because it seems like the kind of thing they were built for, except for the fact that I'm trying to parse XML. I'm trying to find complete objects in the form: <?xml version="1.0"?> <type> <field>value</field> ... </type> My thought was a regex to find <?xml version="1.0"?><type> and </type>, but if a field has the same name as type, it obviously won't work. There's plenty of documentation on XML parsers, but they seem to all need a complete, fully-formed document to parse. My XML objects can be in a string surrounded by pretty much anything else (including other complete objects). hw<e>reR@lot$0fr@ndm&nchrs%<?xml version="1.0"?><type><field>...</field>...</type>@ndH#r$omOre!!>nuT6erjc?y!<?xml version="1.0"?><type><field>...</field>...</type>ty!=] A regex would be able to match a string while excluding the random characters, but not find a complete XML object. I'd like some way to extract an object, parse it with a serializer, then repeat until the string contains no more valid objects.

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  • JConsole does not connect when a program (running in eclipse) is waiting for a console input

    - by Calm Storm
    Hi, I have a problem similar to the one mentioned here. I have a program which launches a selenium browser and refreshes it every 2 seconds. My idea here was to monitor the memory usage of my application as the page is being hit. This console program does a "System.in.read" and when a user presses enter key, this stops the browser refresh thread. I run the program and it runs as I would expect it to. But when I fire jconsole and attach it to the process, it looks like jconsole waits forever to attach. This is because of the "System.in.read", apparently as shown in the JConsole source. In my code it makes perfect sense for me to terminte the browser when user presses something so is there any alternative available at all ? (Posted code sample below) package com.ekanathk; import java.util.ArrayList; import java.util.List; import org.junit.Test; public class MultiThread { @Test public void testSimple() throws Exception { List<Integer> x = new ArrayList<Integer>(); for(int i = 0; i < 1000; i++) { x.add(i); } System.out.print("Press Enter to stop (try attach a jconsole now...."); System.in.read(); } } The problem here seems to be that any System.in.read (either in Main thread or any threads) seems to completely block jconsole. I guess the problem essentially boils down to multiple threads requesting system inputs at the same time? Is there a solution ? UPDATE 1: It seems this works fine when launching the class from a command line, however when I run from eclipse, jconsole cant connect. Any reasons ?

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  • import problem with twisted.web server

    - by Carson Myers
    I'm just getting started with twisted.web, and I'm having trouble importing a Python module into a .rpy script. in C:\py\twisted\mysite.py, I have this: from twisted.web.resource import Resource from twisted.web import server class MySite(Resource): def render_GET(self, request): request.write("<!DOCTYPE html>") request.write("<html><head>") request.write("<title>Twisted Driven Site</title>") request.write("</head><body>") request.write("<h1>Twisted Driven Website</h1>") request.write("<p>Prepath: <pre>{0}</pre></p>".format(request.prepath)) request.write("</body></html>") request.finish() return server.NOT_DONE_YET and in C:\py\twisted\index.rpy, I have this: import mysite reload(mysite) resource = mysite.MySite() I ran twistd -n web --port 8888 --path C:\py\twisted in command prompt and the server started successfully. But when I requested localhost:8888 I got a (huge) stack trace originating from an ImportError: <type 'exceptions.ImportError'>: No module named mysite I can import the module from the interpreter, and if i just execute index.rpy as a python script, I don't get the import error. The documentation on this subject is a bit vague, it just says "However, it is often a better idea to define Resource subclasses in Python modules. In order for changes in modules to be visible, you must either restart the Python process, or reload the module:" (from here). Does anyone know the proper way to do this?

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  • What's the best practice to setup testing for ASP.Net MVC? What to use/process/etc?

    - by melaos
    hi there, i'm trying to learn how to properly setup testing for an ASP.Net MVC. and from what i've been reading here and there thus far, the definition of legacy code kind of piques my interests, where it mentions that legacy codes are any codes without unit tests. so i did my project in a hurry not having the time to properly setup unit tests for the app and i'm still learning how to properly do TDD and unit testing at the same time. then i came upon selenium IDE/RC and was using it to test on the browser end. it was during that time too that i came upon the concept of integration testing, so from my understanding it seems that unit testing should be done to define the test and basic assumptions of each function, and if the function is dependent on something else, that something else needs to be mocked so that the tests is always singular and can be run fast. Questions: so am i right to say that the project should have started with unit test with proper mocks using something like rhino mocks. then anything else which requires 3rd party dll, database data access etc to be done via integration testing using selenium? because i have a function which calls a third party dll, i'm not sure whether to write a unit test in nunit to just instantiate the object and pass it some dummy data which breaks the mocking part to test it or just cover that part in my selenium integration testing when i submit my forms and call the dll. and for user acceptance tests, is it safe to say we can just use selenium again? Am i missing something or is there a better way/framework? i'm trying to put in more tests for regression testing, and to ensure that nothing breaks when we put in new features. i also like the idea of TDD because it helps to better define the function, sort of like a meta documentation. thanks!! hope this question isn't too subjective because i need it for my case.

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  • Why I can't update my UIImageView?

    - by Tattat
    I make my own UIImageView, like this: @interface MyImageView : UIImageView{ } And I have the initWithFrame like this: - (void)initWithFrame{ UIImage *img = [UIImage imageWithContentsOfFile: [[NSBundle mainBundle] pathForResource:@"myImage" ofType:@"png"]]; CGRect cropRect = CGRectMake(175, 0, 175, 175); CGImageRef imageRef = CGImageCreateWithImageInRect([img CGImage], cropRect); self = [[UIImageView alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(0, 0, 175, 175)]; self.image = [UIImage imageWithCGImage:imageRef]; [self addSubview:imageView]; CGImageRelease(imageRef); } I want to change the image when the user touchesBegin, so I have something like this: - (void)touchesBegan:(NSSet *)touches withEvent:(UIEvent *)event { UIImage *img = [UIImage imageWithContentsOfFile: [[NSBundle mainBundle] pathForResource:@"myImage2" ofType:@"png"]]; CGRect cropRect = CGRectMake(0, 0, 175, 175); CGImageRef imageRef = CGImageCreateWithImageInRect([img CGImage], cropRect); self = [[UIImageView alloc] initWithFrame:CGRectMake(0, 0, 175, 175)]; [self setImage:[UIImage imageWithCGImage:imageRef]]; CGImageRelease(imageRef); } I find that I can't change the image. So, I add a line [self addSubview:imageView]; in the touchesBegan method, that's work. But I have no idea on why I can't change the image from the touchesBegan, thz.

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  • wordpress conditional statements

    - by codedude
    I am using this code in wordpress to display different content when different pages are loaded. I have 5 pages on the site called Home, Bio, Work, Contact and Notes. The Notes page is being used as a blog. Here is the code I am using. <?php if (is_page('contact')) { ?> get in touch with me <?php } elseif (is_single()) { ?> a note from me <?php } elseif (is_page('notes')) { ?> the notes of me <?php } else { ?> the <?php the_title(); ?> of me <?php } ?> So if it the contact page, it displays "get in touch with me" and if it is a single blog post page it displays "a note from me". However this is where I have a problem. The next statement should display "the notes of me" when it is on the Notes page. However, this does not happen. Instead it shows the default content which is in the "else" statement. any idea on why this is happening?

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  • With Apache/mod_wsgi how can I redirect to ssl and require Auth?

    - by justin
    I have a Media Temple DV server hosting dev.example.com with django mounted at /. There is a legacy directory in my httpdocs I need to continue to serve at /legacy. But for this directory I need to redirect anyone coming over http over to https, then prompt for http basic auth. In the virtual host conf, I'm pointing the root to a django application: WSGIScriptAlias / /var/django-projects/myproject/apache/django.wsgi <Directory /var/django-projects/myproject/apache> Order allow,deny Allow from all </Directory> Then I alias the legacy directory. Alias /legacy/ /var/www/vhosts/example.com/subdomains/dev/httpdocs/legacy/ <Directory /var/www/vhosts/example.com/subdomains/dev/httpdocs> Order deny,allow Allow from all RewriteEngine On RewriteCond %{SERVER_PORT} 80 RewriteRule ^(.*)$ https://dev.example.com/$1 [R,L] </Directory> This works. It isn't served by django, and the url redirects to https. However, it serves httpdocs/legacy instead of httpsdocs/legacy (where I have an .htaccess that prompts for auth.) Any idea of how I can manage this?

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  • Multi-tenant Access Control: Repository or Service layer?

    - by FreshCode
    In a multi-tenant ASP.NET MVC application based on Rob Conery's MVC Storefront, should I be filtering the tenant's data in the repository or the service layer? 1. Filter tenant's data in the repository: public interface IJobRepository { IQueryable<Job> GetJobs(short tenantId); } 2. Let the service filter the repository data by tenant: public interface IJobService { IList<Job> GetJobs(short tenantId); } My gut-feeling says to do it in the service layer (option 2), but it could be argued that each tenant should in essence have their own "virtual repository," (option 1) where this responsibility lies with the repository. Which is the most elegant approach: option 1, option 2 or is there a better way? Update: I tried the proposed idea of filtering at the repository, but the problem is that my application provides the tenant context (via sub-domain) and only interacts with the service layer. Passing the context all the way to the repository layer is a mission. So instead I have opted to filter my data at the service layer. I feel that the repository should represent all data physically available in the repository with appropriate filters for retrieving tenant-specific data, to be used by the service layer. Final Update: I ended up abandoning this approach due to the unnecessary complexities. See my answer below.

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  • Doing large updates against indexed view

    - by user217136
    We have an indexed view that runs across three large tables. Two of these tables (A & B) are constantly getting updated with user transactions and the other table (C) contains data product info that is needs to be updated once a week. This product table contains over 6 million records. We need this view across these three tables for our core business process and unfortunately we cannot change this aspect. We even had a sql server MVP come in to help test under load to make sure we have the most efficient configuration. There is one column in the product table that gets utilized in the view and has to be updated each week. The problem we are now encountering is that as volume is increasing on our transactions against tables A & B, the update to Table C is causing deadlocks. I have tried several different methods to no avail: 1) I was hoping that we could change the view so that table C could be a dirty read "WITH (NOLOCK)" but apparently that functionality is not available with indexes views. 2) I thought about updating a new column in Table C and then just renaming it when the process is done but you cannot do that due to the dependency in the view. 3) I also entertained the idea of writing this value to a temporary product table, and then running an ALTER statement against the view to have it point to my new table. however when i did that the indexes on my view were dropped and it took quite a bit of time to recreate them. 4) we tried to do the weekly update in small chunks (as small as 100 records at a time) but we still run into dead locks. questions: a) we are using sql server 2005. Does sql server 2008 have a new functionality with their indexed views that would help us? Is there now a way to do dirty reads w/ an indexed view? b) a better approach to altering an existing view to point to a new table? thanks!

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  • Writing a JMS Publisher without "public static void main"

    - by The Elite Gentleman
    Hi guys, Every example I've seen on the web, e.g. http://www.codeproject.com/KB/docview/jms_to_jms_bridge_activem.aspx, creates a publisher and subscriber with a public static void main method. I don't think that'll work for my web application. I'm learning JMS and I've setup Apache ActiveMQ to run on JBoss 5 and Tomcat 6 (with no glitches). I'm writing a messaging JMS service that needs to send email asynchronously. I've already written a JMS subscriber that receives the message (the class inherits MessageListener). My question is simple: How do I write a publisher that will so that my web applications can call it? Does it have to be published somewhere? My thought is to create a publisher with a no-attribute constructor (in there) and get the MessageQueue Factory, etc. from the JNDI pool (in the constructor). Is my idea correct? How do I subscribe my subscriber to the Queue Receiver? (So far, the subscriber has no constructor, and if I write a constructor, do I always subscribe myself to the Queue receiver?) Thanks for your help, sorry if my terminology is not up to scratch, there are too many java terminologies that I get lost sometimes (maybe a java GPS will do! :-) ) PS Is there a tutorial out there that explains how to write a "better" (better can mean anything, but in my case it's all about performance in high demand requests) JMS Publisher and Subscriber that I can run on Application Server such as JBoss or Glassfish? Don't forget that the JMS application will needs a "guarantee" uptime as many applications will use this.

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  • Using VSTO in a standalone application to access Excel sheets

    - by chiccodoro
    Dear all, tried to research on that but sometimes I seem to lack some googling skills... I want to develop a (standalone) WinForms application which uses automation for communicating with Excel. I already know how to use the Interop, but I thought the VSTO tools would provide a more comfortable or sophisticated way to do that. My idea was: I could build a new standalone project with the excel references prepared. I could use a more sophisticated object model supplied by VSTO to communicate with Excel. However, my findings so far make me think that: VSTO can only be used to build add-ins/worksheets for Excel, not to build standalone application. There is no more sophisticated object model than the one provided by the Interop (which has such ugly things as a locale bug, a "Open(Missing, Missing, Missing...)" method and so on. I found a Worksheet and a Workbook class in the VSTO namespace, but as far as I understand it, these always refer to the CS classes for sheets and workbook which you implement when defining an Excel add-in or a workbook extension. - They cannot be used as comfortable wrappers in a standalone application. Can anybody confirm these statements or correct me where I am wrong? Further, if there should be a way to use VSTO and its "Workbook" class to load an excel workbook from a standalone application, then how do I do that? Thx, chiccodoro

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