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  • iPhone OpenGL ES Texture2D Masking

    - by Robert Neagu
    What's the best choice when trying to mask a texture like ColorSplash or other apps like iSteam, etc? I started learning OPENGL ES like... 4 days ago (I'm a total rookie) and tried the following approach: 1) I created a colored texture2D, a grayscale version of the first texture and a third texture2D called mask 2) I also created a texture2D for the brush... which is grayscale and it's opaque (brush = black = 0,0,0,1 and surroundings = white = 1,1,1,1). My intention was to create an antialiased brush with smooth edges but i'm fine with a normal one right now 3) I searched for masking techniques on the internet and found this tutorial ZeusCMD - Design and Development Tutorials : OpenGL ES Programming Tutorials - Masking about masking. The tutorial tells me to use blending to achieve masking... first draw colored, then mask with glBlendFunc(GL_DST_COLOR, GL_ZERO) and then grayscale with glBlendFunc(GL_ONE, GL_ONE) ... and this gives me something close to what i want... but not exactly what i want. The result is masked but it's somehow overbright-ed 4) For drawing to the mask texture i used an extra frame buffer object (FBO) I'm not really happy with the resulting image (overbright-ed picture) nor with the speed achieved with this method. I think the normal way was to draw directly to the grayscale (overlay) texture2D affecting only it's alpha channel in the places where the brush hits. Is there a fast way to achieve this? I have searched a lot and never got an answer that's clear and understandable. Then, in the main draw loop I could only draw the colored texture and then blend the grayscale ontop with glBlendFunc(GL_SRC_ALPHA, GL_ONE_MINUS_SRC_ALPHA). I just want to learn to use OPENGL ES and it's driving me nuts because i can't get it to work properly. An advice, a link to a tutorial would be much appreciated.

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  • How the dispose() method works in C#.net?

    - by Shailesh Jaiswal
    I am developing smart device application in C#. It is a window application. In that application I have created the 4 to 5 window form. I am navigating in these forms from one form to another form by using linklabel control in C#. In linklabel_Click() method which I am using to navigate I am using the code form1.show() according to need. I read that form1.show() method automatically calls the form1.dispose() method on the from1. I also read that once we dispose the form it is removed from memory & we can not call it again. But in my application no one form gets disposed. I can see all the form even after calling the form1.show() method. when I use the link to go once again to from1 it does not get disposed. Is anything wrong in my concept? I am new in C#. Please tell me how the dispose method work in above context? What is the use of dispose method. It will be better if you describe me above issue with example.

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  • how to store/model users/faceboook users/linkedin users, etc, with ActiveRecord?

    - by crankharder
    My app has "normal" users: those which come through a typical signup page facebook(FB) users: those which come from Facebook connect "FB-normal" users: a user that can log with both email/password * FB connect Further, there's the a slew of other openID-ish login methods (I don't think openID itself will be acceptable since it doesn't link up the accounts and allow the 3rd party specific features (posting to twitter, adding a FB post, etc etc)) So, how do I model this? Right now we have User class with #facebook_user? defined -- but it gets messy with the "FB-normal" users - plus all the validations become very tricky and hard to interpret. Also, there are methods like #deliver_password_reset! which make no sense in the context for facebook-only users. (this is lame) I've thought out STI (User::Facebook, User::Normal, User::FBNormal, etc.) This makes validations super slick, but it doesn't scale to other connection types, and all the permutations between them... User::FacebookLinkedInNormal(wtf?) Doing this with a bunch of modules I think would suck a lot. Any other ideas?

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  • PHP IF stops IE content from loading

    - by Rsmithy
    scenario I have a PHP if statement to test if a user is logging in for the first time ever. This then displays, a demo in a greybox popup box. Sadly when the box loads in IE, the content of the website doesn't. This means when I user closes the box, they are left the with background. Code - I'm now using PHP include. greybox.php <?php if ($fli == 0) {echo " <script type='text/javascript'> window.onload = function() { GB_showCenter('Your first login', '../video.php'); }; </script> ";} else echo "";?> <!-- GB scrip --> <script type="text/javascript"> var GB_ROOT_DIR = "greybox/"; </script> <script type="text/javascript" src="greybox/AJS.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="greybox/AJS_fx.js"></script> <script type="text/javascript" src="greybox/gb_scripts.js"></script> <link href="greybox/gb_styles.css" rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" /> <!-- GB --> RELEVANT Script on main site <?php $fli = $_SESSION["USER"]["fli"]; ?> <?php include "greybox.php" ?> I would deeply appreicate any help at all please! :)

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  • Checking if an SSH tunnel is up and running

    - by Jarmund
    I have a perl script which, when destilled a bit, looks like this: my $randport = int(10000 + rand(1000)); # Random port as other scripts like this run at the same time my $localip = '192.168.100.' . ($port - 4000); # Don't ask... backwards compatibility system("ssh -NL $randport:$localip:23 root\@$ip -o ConnectTimeout=60 -i somekey &"); # create the tunnel in the background sleep 10; # Give the tunnel some time to come up # Create the telnet object my $telnet = new Net::Telnet( Timeout => 10, Host => 'localhost', Port => $randport, Telnetmode => 0, Errmode => \&fail, ); # SNIPPED... a bunch of parsing data from $telnet The thing is that the target $ip is on a link with very unpredictable bandwidth, so the tunnel might come up right away, it might take a while, it might not come up at all. So a sleep is necessary to give the tunnel some time to get up and running. So the question is: How can i test if the tunnel is up and running? 10 seconds is a really undesirable delay if the tunnel comes up straight away. Ideally, i would like to check if it's up and continue with creating the telnet object once it is, to a maximum of, say, 30 seconds.

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  • jQuery AJAX Redirection problem

    - by meosoft
    Hello please consider this: On page A I have a link that takes you to page B when JS is off, but when JS is on, I want to replace content on current page with content from the page B. Pages A and B are in fact the same script that is able to tell AJAX calls from regular ones and serve the content appropriately. Everything works fine, as long as there are no redirects involved. But, sometimes there is a 301 redirect and what seems to be happening is that client browser then makes a second request, which will return with a 200 OK. Only the second request is sent without a X-Requested-With header, therefore I cannot tell within my script wether it came from AJAX or not, and will send a complete page instead of just the content. I have tried checking for 301 status code in my error, success, and complete handlers but none of them worked. It seems to be handling the 301 behind the scenes. Could anyone help me with this? jQuery 1.4, PHP 5 Edit: People requested the code to this, which I didn't think was necessary but here goes: // hook up menu ajax loading $('#menu a').live("click", function(){ // update menu highlight if($(this).parents('#menu').size() > 0){ $("#menu>li").removeClass("current_page_item"); $(this).parent().addClass("current_page_item"); } // get the URL where we will be retrieving content from var url = $(this).attr('href'); window.location.hash = hash = url; $.ajax({ type: "GET", url: url, success: function(data){ // search for an ID that is only present if page is requested directly if($(data).find('#maincontent').size() > 0){ data = $(data).find('#maincontent .content-slide *').get(); } // the rest is just animating the content into view $("#scroller").html(data); $('.content-slide').each(setHeight); $('.content-slide').animate({ left: "0px" }, 1000, 'easeOutQuart', function(){ $('#home').css("left", "-760px").html(data); $('#scroller').css("left", "-760px"); $('.content-slide').each(setHeight); } ); } }); return false; });

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  • Signed and RequireAdministrator manifested executable being run from temp folder?

    - by Ian Boyd
    i manifested my executable as require administrator: <?xml version="1.0" encoding="UTF-8" standalone="yes"?> <assembly xmlns="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:asm.v1" manifestVersion="1.0"> <!-- Disable Windows Vista UAC compatability heuristics --> <trustInfo xmlns="urn:schemas-microsoft-com:asm.v2"> <security> <requestedPrivileges> <requestedExecutionLevel level="requireAdministrator"/> </requestedPrivileges> </security> </trustInfo> </assembly> And then i digitally signed it. But then when i run the executable i noticed something odd: the name of the executable on the Consent dialog changed from PingWarning.exe to pinxxxx.tmp; as though a temp copy was made, and that is being run: i dug out Process Montior, to see if anyone is creating a *.tmp file when i launch my executable, and there is: The Application Information service inside this particular svchost container is intentionally copying my executable to the Windows temp folder, and asking for user "Consent" from there; giving an invalid filename. Once consent has been granted, the executable is run from its original location: link text The file is not copied to the temp folder if i do not digitally sign it: So my problem is the invalid filename appearing on the consent dialog when i digitally sign my executable which has been manifested as requireAdministrator. What do?

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  • psqlODBC won't load after installing MS SQL ODBC driver on RHEL 6

    - by Kapil Vyas
    I had the PostgreSQL drivers working on my RHEL 6. But after I installed Microsoft® SQL Server® ODBC Driver 1.0 for Linux I can no longer connect to PosgreSQL data sources. I can connect to SQL Server data sources fine. When I had this same issue a week ago I uninstalled MS SQL Server ODBC driver from Linux and it fixed the issue. I had to copy the psqlodbcw.so files from another machine to replenish the files. I don't want to do the same this time. I want both drivers to work on Linux. This time around the setup files got deleted: /usr/lib64/libodbcpsqlS.so. Replenishing it did not fix the issue. I kept getting the following error in spite of the file being present with rwx permisions: [root@localhost lib64]# isql -v STUDENT dsname pwd12345 [01000][unixODBC][Driver Manager]Can't open lib '/usr/lib64/psqlodbc.so' : file not found [ISQL]ERROR: Could not SQLConnect [root@localhost lib64]# Here is a printout of the file permissions: [root@localhost lib64]# ls -al p*.so lrwxrwxrwx. 1 root root 12 Dec 7 09:15 psqlodbc.so -> psqlodbcw.so -rwxr-xr-x. 1 root root 519496 Dec 7 09:35 psqlodbcw.so and my odbcinst.ini file looks as follows: [PostgreSQL] Description=ODBC for PostgreSQL Driver=/usr/lib/psqlodbc.so Driver64=/usr/lib64/psqlodbc.so Setup=/usr/lib/libodbcpsqlS.so Setup64=/usr/lib64/libodbcpsqlS.so FileUsage=1 UsageCount=4 I also referred to this link: http://mailman.unixodbc.org/pipermail/unixodbc-support/2010-September.txt

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  • How to test method call order with Moq

    - by Finglas
    At the moment I have: [Test] public void DrawDrawsAllScreensInTheReverseOrderOfTheStack() { // Arrange. var screenMockOne = new Mock<IScreen>(); var screenMockTwo = new Mock<IScreen>(); var screens = new List<IScreen>(); screens.Add(screenMockOne.Object); screens.Add(screenMockTwo.Object); var stackOfScreensMock = new Mock<IScreenStack>(); stackOfScreensMock.Setup(s => s.ToArray()).Returns(screens.ToArray()); var screenManager = new ScreenManager(stackOfScreensMock.Object); // Act. screenManager.Draw(new Mock<GameTime>().Object); // Assert. screenMockOne.Verify(smo => smo.Draw(It.IsAny<GameTime>()), Times.Once(), "Draw was not called on screen mock one"); screenMockTwo.Verify(smo => smo.Draw(It.IsAny<GameTime>()), Times.Once(), "Draw was not called on screen mock two"); } But the order in which I draw my objects in the production code does not matter. I could do one first, or two it doesn't matter. However it should matter as the draw order is important. How do you (using Moq) ensure methods are called in a certain order? Edit I got rid of that test. The draw method has been removed from my unit tests. I'll just have to manually test it works. The reversing of the order though was taken into a seperate test class where it was tested so it's not all bad. Thanks for the link about the feature they are looking into. I sure hope it gets added soon, very handy.

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  • Consecutive build of VS2005 and VS2008 C++ projects causes LNK1104 error

    - by TestAccount
    I have VS2005 and VS2008 installed on the same machine. I also have a common codebase that I build using both '05 and '08. For this purpose, I have 2 VC projects.. A '08 project called XYZ_2008.vcproj and a '05 project called XYZ_2005.vcproj, and the corresponding 2 slns as well. Both projects output dlls, libs and pdbs to the same output directory (all with appropriate _2005 and _2008 suffixes). Assuming that I am starting from a clean state, I first open XYZ_2005.sln (containing XYZ_2005.vcproj) in VS2005 and build it successfully. Then I close VS2005. Next, I open XYZ_2008.sln (containing XYZ_2008.vcproj) and build (not rebuild) it. At this point, I get an error saying: LINK : fatal error LNK1104: cannot open file 'mfc80u.lib' If now I rebuild the '08 solution, the error goes away and the build succeeds. The build also succeeds if I directly do a rebuild instead of a build for the '08 sln. In spite of everything being separate, the VS08 build seems to be picking up a MFC8 file (from VS05) instead of a MFC9 file. Can somebody please help out with this issue? Thanks in advance!

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  • Coding Practices which enable the compiler/optimizer to make a faster program.

    - by EvilTeach
    Many years ago, C compilers were not particularly smart. As a workaround K&R invented the register keyword, to hint to the compiler, that maybe it would be a good idea to keep this variable in an internal register. They also made the tertiary operator to help generate better code. As time passed, the compilers matured. They became very smart in that their flow analysis allowing them to make better decisions about what values to hold in registers than you could possibly do. The register keyword became unimportant. FORTRAN can be faster than C for some sorts of operations, due to alias issues. In theory with careful coding, one can get around this restriction to enable the optimizer to generate faster code. What coding practices are available that may enable the compiler/optimizer to generate faster code? Identifying the platform and compiler you use, would be appreciated. Why does the technique seem to work? Sample code is encouraged. Here is a related question [Edit] This question is not about the overall process to profile, and optimize. Assume that the program has been written correctly, compiled with full optimization, tested and put into production. There may be constructs in your code that prohibit the optimizer from doing the best job that it can. What can you do to refactor that will remove these prohibitions, and allow the optimizer to generate even faster code? [Edit] Offset related link

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  • How to change the content of a tab while you are on the same tab using AngularJS and Bootstrap?

    - by user2958608
    Using AngularJS and Bootstrap, let say there are 3 tabs: tab1, tab2, and tab3. There are also some links on each tabs. Now for example, tab1 is active. The question is: how to change the content of the tab1 by clicking a link within the same tab? main.html: <div class="tabbable"> <ul class="nav nav-tabs"> <li ng-class="{active: activeTab == 'tab1'}"><a ng-click="activeTab = 'tab1'" href="">tab1</a></li> <li ng-class="{active: activeTab == 'tab2'}"><a ng-click="activeTab = 'tab2'" href="">tab2</a></li> <li ng-class="{active: activeTab == 'tab3'}"><a ng-click="activeTab = 'tab3'" href="">tab3</a></li> </ul> </div> <div class="tab-content"> <div ng-include="'/'+activeTab"></div> </div> tab1.html: <h1>TAB1</h1> <a href="/something">Something</a> something.html <h1>SOMETHING</h1> Now the question is how to change the tab1 content to something.html while the tab1 is active?

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  • How to get rid of white space between css horizontal list items?

    - by Curyous
    I've got the following test page and css. When displayed, there is a 4px gap between each list item. How do I get the items to be next to each other? <!DOCTYPE HTML PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD HTML 4.01 Frameset//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/html4/frameset.dtd"> <html> <head> <link type="text/css" rel="stylesheet" href="/stylesheets/test.css" /> </head> <body> <div> <ul class="nav"> <li class="nav"><a class="nav" href="#">One1</a></li> <li class="nav"><a class="nav" href="#">Two</a></li> <li class="nav"><a class="nav" href="#">Three</a></li> <li class="nav"><a class="nav" href="#">Four</a></li> </ul> </div> </body> </html> The css: ul.nav, ul li.nav { display: inline; margin: 0px; padding: 0px; } ul.nav { list-style-type: none; } li.nav { background-color: red; } a.nav { background-color: green; padding: 10px; margin: 0px; } a:hover.nav { background-color: gray; }

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  • jquery pass value class

    - by mckenzie
    $(".hidee2").click(function() { var type = $(".st").val(); } <form action="" method="POST"><input type="hidden" class="st" value="st"><div class="button">Room Status : Accepting Reservation <br /><span><span><a class="hidee2">Book Now!</a></span></span></div></form> <form action="" method="POST"><input type="hidden" class="st" value="st2"><div class="button">Room Status : Accepting Reservation <br /><span><span><a class="hidee2">Book Now!</a></span></span></div></form> <form action="" method="POST"><input type="hidden" class="st" value="st3"><div class="button">Room Status : Accepting Reservation <br /><span><span><a class="hidee2">Book Now!</a></span></span></div></form> How do i get which book now! link user click? because i need to pass over the st value? is there any way to achieve this using jquery? currently, only st value is passed over

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  • W3C error doc error? Output tag browser support.

    - by ThomasReggi
    Was looking at the reference page here : http://www.w3.org/TR/html5/offline.html I copied and pasted the code on my server here in separate files. All of the pages are linked correctly but the clock won't show. Just to double check, it wasn't my "server config" I put it on jsfiddle.net here: http://jsfiddle.net/reggi/Dy8PU/. Fails: MAC / FIREFOX 3.6.13 Wins: MAC / FIREFOX 4.0.b8 Is this dummy example code? <!-- clock.html --> <!DOCTYPE HTML> <html> <head> <title>Clock</title> <script src="clock.js"></script> <link rel="stylesheet" href="clock.css"> </head> <body> <p>The time is: <output id="clock"></output></p> </body> </html> /* clock.css */ output { font: 2em sans-serif; } /* clock.js */ setTimeout(function () { document.getElementById('clock').value = new Date(); }, 1000); UPDATE: The W3C code above works on only the NEWEST Beta releases of certain browsers Below are some viable current javascript workarounds

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  • Regular expression to Match addresses

    - by Burfi
    I have below set of strings to be searched : 1Dept Neurosci, The Univ. of New Mexico, ALBUQUERQUE, NM; 2Mol. and Human Genet., Baylor Col. of Med., Houston,, TX; 3Psychiatry, Univ. of Texas Southwestern Med. Ctr., Dallas, TX; 4Clin. Genet., Erasmus Univ. Med. Ctr., Rotterdam, Netherlands; 5Human Genet., Emory Univ., Atlanta, GA Above is a set of addresses , which starts with a digit (used to link it to the person).Need to search all the address as : 1Dept Neurosci, The Univ. of New Mexico, ALBUQUERQUE, NM 2Mol. and Human Genet., Baylor Col. of Med., Houston,, TX 3Psychiatry, Univ. of Texas Southwestern Med. Ctr., Dallas, TX 4Clin. Genet., ErasmusUniv. Med. Ctr., Rotterdam, Netherlands 5Human Genet., Emory Univ.Atlanta, GA I have written the below Regex : \d\w+,* It only matches a digit followed by a word . How can I modify it .Please suggest is there any better way.

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  • Very strange client/browser issue

    - by Jeriko
    One of our clients has logged a very strange issue with us- We launched a preview for their website, but when it's viewed on their main PC, peculiar things start to happen... At first, the stylesheet wasn't being found, and so accessing any page resulted in one void of all styles. We sent them a direct link to the stylesheet, which was viewable from all our computers in the office - but gave a "File Not Found" error on their side. I then deleted the file, and replaced it with a new blank file, which he could then access. Copy-pasted screen.css contents into this file, and he could then view it fine, and stylesheets magically worked on the site again. Now, he can view styles, but not the referenced header images. The strange thing is that this problem doesn't exist on any other PC we've tested, or on any other site on the problem computer, but obviously we'd like our client's site to work for them. The strange thing is, they can view other sites of ours, hosted on the same server, built on top of the same CMS (and so most of the files are the same) without problem - but are getting 404s for files that most definitely do exist. Stylesheets are not turned off, nor is anything specifically deactivated on their browser (as other sites are fine) Reloading with CTRL+F5 doesn't help The client is using the latest version of firefox Any ideas here on what to try / how to narrow the problem down?

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  • The XPath @root-node-position attribute info

    - by Igor Savinkin
    I couldn't find the @root-node-position XPath attribute info. Would you give me a link of where i can read about it? Is it XPath 2.0? The code (not mine) is ../preceding-sibling::div[1]/div[@root-node-position]/div applied to this HTML: <div class="left"> <div class='prod2'> <div class='name'>Dell Latitude D610-1.73 Laptop Wireless Computer </div>2 GHz Intel Pentium M, 1 GB DDR2 SDRAM, 40 GB </div> <div class='prod1'> <div class='name'>Samsung Chromebook (Wi-Fi, 11.6-Inch) </div>1.7 GHz, 2 GB DDR3 SDRAM, 16 GB </div> </div> <div class="right"> <div class='price2'>$239.95</div> <div class='price1 best'>$249.00</div> </div> Firstly i fetch a price text under class='right' with this query : //DIV[contains(@class,'best')] and then i apply the above mentioned XPath with @root-node-attribute under class='left' to retrieve the rest of the record info.

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  • W3 xHTML Validation Errors on jQuery code!

    - by Chris
    I have some jQuery code that, without it in the document it passes validation fine, but with it in it causes errors. The code in question is here: $.ajax({ type: "GET", url: "data.xml", dataType: "xml", success: function(xml) { //Update error info errors = $(xml).find("Errors").find("*").filter(function () { return $(this).children().length === 0; }); if (errors.length == 0) { statuscontent = "<img src='/web/resources/graphics/accept.png' alt='' /> System OK"; } else { statuscontent = "<img src='/web/resources/graphics/exclamation.png' alt='' /> "+errors.length+" System error"+(errors.length>1?"s":""); } $("#top-bar-systemstatus a").html(statuscontent); //Update timestamp $("#top-bar-timestamp").html($(xml).find("Timestamp").text()); //Update storename $("#top-bar-storename").html("Store: "+$(xml).find("StoreName").text()); } }); There are loads of other jQuery code on the page which all works fine and causes no errors so I cannot quite understand what is wrong with this. The page isn't "live" so cannot provide a link to it unfortunately. The error it lists is document type does not allow element "img" here And the line of code it points to is here: statuscontent = "<img src='/web/resources/graphics/accept.png' alt='' /> System OK"; It also has an issue with the next assignment to statuscontent

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  • How to best launch C++ application from web page

    - by JB
    I guess there are two parts to this question, one technical and one best practice for security and doing things "right". I'm working on a little game using C++ / directx but I would like to be able to launch it from a web page by someone clicking on a link on that page. Ideally I would like the first time they clicked for it to launch an installer downloads and installs the game on their machine, and then the next time to launch an application which updates the game from a web site if it's old and then launches it. I have no problems with the expected security popups and questions the first time it runs. I want people to be certain what they are installing and understand what they are doing. But it would be nice if once it is installed they could run it with the minimum of fuss. My question then is what technologies I could use to do this? I'm thinking that it would need a browser plugin and an activex control so that first time you'd install that, and subsequently the control/plugin would be able to launch the game. I'm not sure that under newer browser secuity models that a plugin would have the permissions to be able to run an installer though or silently invoke applications on the client machine even if they are already installed. Is there a more sensible way to achive what I want to achieve? And I'm worried about the security aspects too. I want this to be convenient for users but I of course want to do it "right". I know this can be done as I've seen several mmorpg type games that launch in this way from the browser now but it's not entirely clear to me how they've done it.

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  • Mapping one column in a table to multiple tables

    - by user1721814
    I am working on a new product development creating a WMS system. I have done it in past using ASP, VB, and other techniques where we did not hard code the mapping. But now i am working on it using MVC and entity frame work and i am stumped. How can i map one column in transaction table to a column in multiple tables. I have transaction table trans Transid orderref TType productid qty ....(More Columns) now the orderref will hold either Receiptkey, orderkey , movementkey, adjustmentkey and the TType column will tell me which type of transaction i am dealing with and based on that i would know which table to link further. Now how can i achieve this in Entity Frame work. This is the most important step. I have done this many times in my other languages but now using EF i am stuck. Please help. I have checked a lot online but i have not found it. I am new to MVC and entity frame work architecture. Any guidance would be highly appreciated. Ranjit

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  • How do I use Core Data with the Cocoa Text Input system?

    - by the Joel
    Hobbyist Cocoa programmer here. Have been looking around all the usual places, but this seems relatively under-explained: I am writing something a little out of the ordinary. It is much simpler than, but similar to, a desktop publishing app. I want editable text boxes on a canvas, arbitrarily placed. This is document-based and I’d really like to use Core Data. Now, The cocoa text-handling system seems to deal with a four-class structure: NSTextStorage, NSLayoutManager, NSTextContainer and finally NSTextView. I have looked into these and know how to use them, sort of. Have been making some prototypes and it works for simple apps. The problem arrives when I get into persistency. I don't know how to, by way of Cocoa Bindings or something else, store the contents of NSTextStorage (= the actual text) in my managed object context. I have considered overriding methods pairs like -words, -setWords: in these objects. This would let me link the words to a String, which I know how to store in Core Data. However, I’d have to override any method that affects the text - and that seems a little much. Thankful for any insights.

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  • Parsing the Youtube API with DOM

    - by Kirk
    I'm using the Youtube API and I can retrieve the date information without a problem, but don't know how to retrieve the description information. My Code: <?php $v = "dQw4w9WgXcQ"; $url = "http://gdata.youtube.com/feeds/api/videos/". $v; $doc = new DOMDocument; $doc->load($url); $pub = $doc->getElementsByTagName("published")->item(0)->nodeValue; $desc = $doc->getElementsByTagName("media:description")->item(0)->nodeValue; echo "<b>Video Uploaded:</b> "; echo date( "F jS, Y", strtotime( $pub ) ); echo '<br>'; if (isset ($desc)) { echo "<b>Description:</b> "; echo $desc; echo '<br>'; } ?> Here's a link to the feed: http://gdata.youtube.com/feeds/api/videos/dQw4w9WgXcQ?prettyprint=true And the excerpt of code I don't know how to retrieve data from: <media:group> <media:description type='plain'>Music video by Rick Astley performing Never Gonna Give You Up. (C) 1987 PWL</media:description> </media:group> Thanks in advance.

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  • How to redirect page

    - by sharun
    Hi i created one java application in which i tried to open my company's standard login page and i planned to redirect the link to open my own design page. Standard login page is displayed, instead of going to my own design page as usual its going to mail page. After sign out the mail page i'm gettting my own design page. But my need is, when i sign in the standard login page it should diplay my own design page. Is it possible? Please Help me. And this is code that i followed import java.io.IOException; import javax.servlet.http.HttpServlet; import javax.servlet.http.HttpServletRequest; import javax.servlet.http.HttpServletResponse; import com.google.appengine.api.users.UserService; import com.google.appengine.api.users.UserServiceFactory; import com.google.appengine.api.users.User; public class New extends HttpServlet { /** * */ private static final long serialVersionUID = 1L; public void doPost(HttpServletRequest req, HttpServletResponse resp) throws IOException { resp.setHeader("Cache-Control", "no-store, no-cache, must-revalidate"); resp.setContentType("text/html"); UserService userService = UserServiceFactory.getUserService(); User user = userService.getCurrentUser(); if (user != null) { if(user.getEmail().equals("[email protected]")) { resp.getWriter().println("done"); resp.sendRedirect("/login.jsp"); } else { resp.getWriter().println("Hello, " + user.getNickname()+"<br>"); resp.getWriter().println("Thanks for your interest. But this application is still not available to everybody."); resp.getWriter().println("<a href="+UserServiceFactory.getUserService().createLogoutURL(userService.createLoginURL(req.getRequestURI()))+">Log out</a>"); } } else { resp.sendRedirect(userService.createLoginURL("http://mail.yyy.edu.in")); } } } Thanks in advance Regards Sharun.

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  • How to open links in new window ONLY IF the check box is checked

    - by Travis
    Here is what i have so far. I have it so they open in new windows, but i want it only if the check box is checked... <!DOCTYPE html> <html> <head> <script> function new() { if ( document.getElementById('checkbox').checked ) window.open( 'y', 'n', 't', 'New Window' ); } else { break; } var OpenNew = document.getElementById('opennew'); OpenNew.addEventListener('click', OpenWin, false ); </script> </head> <body> <p> <form name="test"> <p>Open link in a new window &nbsp; <input type="checkbox" id="checkbox" name="check" /></p> </form> </p> <p> <h2>My favorite Websites to visit</h2> <a href="http://www.youtube.com" target="new" id="y">Youtube</a><br /> <a href="http://www.newegg.com" target="new" id="n">Newegg</a><br /> <a href="http://www.twitch.tv" target="new" id="t">Twitch.tv</a><br /> </p> </body> </html> I am unsure how to actually do the if statement if it is checked then open. It does currently open in a new tab.. i just need it to be only when its checked. Any help with this will be greatly appreciated! Thanks!

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