Search Results

Search found 93609 results on 3745 pages for 'one terrorist'.

Page 649/3745 | < Previous Page | 645 646 647 648 649 650 651 652 653 654 655 656  | Next Page >

  • jQuery - Not sure which method to use, closest() and parent() don't work.

    - by Nike
    Hello, again. :) God i feel like i'm spamming stackoverflow, this is my 3rd post for today. Sorry, heh. I even posted a question regarding this before, kind of, but i've changed the code a bit since so i thought it was better to post a new question. $('.pmlist ul li h4 .toggle').click(function() { $(this).closest('.meddel').toggle(250); }); That's what i've got now. The reason why the closest() method isn't working is because the div .meddel is just next to the h4 element. And closest() only crawls right up the DOM tree, ignoring other child elements. Right? parent() works almost the same and doesn't work either. And as i only want to toggle the closest .meddel div in the element, i need something that, yeah justs grabs the nearest one, and not all of them. To clear it up a bit, here's the HTML for one list item: <li class="item"> <h4><a class="toggle">ämne</a><small>2010-04-17 kl 12:54 by <u>nike1</u></small></h4> <div class="meddel"> <span> <img style="max-width: 70%; min-height: 70%;" src="profile-images/nike1.jpg" alt="" /> <a href="account.php?usr=47">nike1</a> </span> <p>text</p> </div> </li> I have several items like that, and if i click one toggle link, i just want the nearest .meddel to be toggled, as mentioned before. Thanks. -Nike

    Read the article

  • Append a dynamically changing watermark to a PDF in SharePoint

    - by ccomet
    This is primarily a question of possibilities more than instructions. I'm a programming consultant working on a WSS project site system for my client. We have a document library in which files are uploaded to go through a complex approval process. With multiple stages in this process, we have an extra field which dictates what the current status of the document is. Now, my client has become enamored with the idea of PDF watermarking. He wants the document (which is already a PDF) to be affixed with a watermark corresponding to the current status, such that with each stage of the approval process the watermark will change. One method, the traditional method for PDF watermarking, of accomplishing this is to have one "clean" copy of the document somewhere hidden on the site, and create a new PDF from it that has the watermark at each stage of the approval process. Since the filename will never change, this new PDF can be uploaded continually to a public library, always overwriting the old version and simulating a "dynamically changing watermark". However, in the various stages there will also be people uploading clean copies with corrections and suggestions, nevermind the complex nature of juggling around two libraries and the fact we double the number of files stored. My client and I agree that this is not a practical path to choose. What we would like to do is be able to "modify" the watermark in a PDF, so that we only have to keep one copy of the file. Unfortunately, from what I've seen, in most cases when you make something like a watermark, which in its nature is supposed to be "unmodifyable", you won't be able to edit it later. So, is it possible to have a part of a PDF which cannot be changed by anyone who downloads the file, but can be changed as part of a workflow or other object model process? Thanks in advance!

    Read the article

  • Weblogic 10.3.0 : Loosing a stateless session bean in the bean pool

    - by KlasE
    Hi, We have a strange situation where we loose a Stateless SessionBean in a Bean Pool in Weblogic 10.3.0 Since we only have one bean in the pool, this effectively hangs all incoming calls. We do not want more than one instance in the pool because of application restrictions. In the Weblogic admin console, we can see that there are 1 instance in the bean pool, 0 beans in use and 1 waiting incoming request. The question is, what can have caused the system to not send the request to the one obviously free bean instance? This happens after several hours and over 100000 incoming requests, and the same scenario worked fine in the old weblogic 8 environment. We get the following stacktrace: "[ACTIVE] ExecuteThread: '5' for queue: 'weblogic.kernel.Default (self-tuning)'" waiting for lock java.util.concurrent.locks.AbstractQueuedSynchronizer$ConditionObject@b0d484 TIMED_WAITING sun.misc.Unsafe.park(Native Method) java.util.concurrent.locks.LockSupport.parkNanos(LockSupport.java:198) java.util.concurrent.locks.AbstractQueuedSynchronizer$ConditionObject.await(AbstractQueuedSynchronizer.java:2054) weblogic.ejb.container.pool.StatelessSessionPool.waitForBean(StatelessSessionPool.java:269) weblogic.ejb.container.pool.StatelessSessionPool.getBean(StatelessSessionPool.java:111) weblogic.ejb.container.manager.StatelessManager.preInvoke(StatelessManager.java:148) weblogic.ejb.container.internal.BaseRemoteObject.preInvoke(BaseRemoteObject.java:227) weblogic.ejb.container.internal.StatelessRemoteObject.preInvoke(StatelessRemoteObject.java:52) com.mycompany.beans.MessageLogFacace_n73y0z_EOImpl.isMyStuffValid(MessageLogFacace_n73y0z_EOImpl.java:261) com.mycompany.beans.MessageLogFacace_n73y0z_EOImpl_WLSkel.invoke(Unknown Source) weblogic.rmi.internal.BasicServerRef.invoke(BasicServerRef.java:589) weblogic.rmi.cluster.ClusterableServerRef.invoke(ClusterableServerRef.java:230) weblogic.rmi.internal.BasicServerRef$1.run(BasicServerRef.java:477) weblogic.security.acl.internal.AuthenticatedSubject.doAs(AuthenticatedSubject.java:363) weblogic.security.service.SecurityManager.runAs(Unknown Source) weblogic.rmi.internal.BasicServerRef.handleRequest(BasicServerRef.java:473) weblogic.rmi.internal.wls.WLSExecuteRequest.run(WLSExecuteRequest.java:118) weblogic.work.ExecuteThread.execute(ExecuteThread.java:201) weblogic.work.ExecuteThread.run(ExecuteThread.java:173) Any help would be very welcome. Regards Klas

    Read the article

  • CSS background image being downloaded more than once

    - by Nick Clarke
    I noticed in my current project that Firefox (3.5.4) downloads the background image (set in CSS) for my divs more than once. I've checked with both firebug and wireshark and it really does appear that it does not wait for the first request to finish and then simply use the cached version. Wireshark also confirms that Chrome and IE8 do as expected and only request the image once. Any ideas what might be causing this? Here is a small test: Sample Page or <html> <head> <style> #one { height: 300px; width:100%; background: #FFF url('random.jpg'); } #two { height: 300px; width:100%; background: #FFF url('random.jpg'); } #three { height: 300px; width:100%; background: #FFF url('random.jpg'); } </style> </head> <body> <div id="one"></div> <div id="two"></div> <div id="three"></div> </body> EDIT I opened up a bug request as I could not find one already on bugzilla, but it turns out to be an old bug with 3.5. https://bugzilla.mozilla.org/show_bug.cgi?id=497665

    Read the article

  • Looking for streaming xml pretty printer in C/C++ using expat or libxml2

    - by Mark Zeren
    I'm looking for a streaming xml pretty printer for C/C++ that's either self contained or that uses libxml2 or expat. I've searched a bit and not found one. It seems like something that would be generally useful. Am I missing an obvious tool that does this? Background: I have a library that outputs xml without whitespace all on one line. In some cases I'd like to pretty print that output. I'm looking for a BSD-ish licensed C/C++ library or sample code that will take a raw xml byte stream and pretty print it. Here's some pseudo code showing one way that I might use this functionality: void my_write(const char* buf, int len); PrettyPrinter pp(bind(&my_write)); while (...) { // ... get some more xml ... const char* buf = xmlSource.get_buf(); int len = xmlSource.get_buf_len(); int written = pp.write(buf, len); // calls my_write with pretty printed xml // ... error handling, maybe call write again, etc. ... } I'd like to avoid instantiating a DOM representation. I already have dependencies on the expat and libxml2 shared libraries, and I'd rather not add any more shared library dependencies.

    Read the article

  • How can I coordinate code review tool and RCS (specifically git)

    - by Chris Nelson
    We're committed to git for code management. We're trying to find a tool that will help us systematize code reviews. We're considering Gerrit and Code Collaborator but would welcome other suggestions. We're having a problem answering the question, "How do we know every commit was reviewed?" (Or "What commits have yet to be reviewed?") One answer would be to submit every commit or every push for review and track incomplete reviews in the review tool. I'm not entirely happy with relying on a another tool -- especially if it's not open source -- to tell us this. What seems to be a better answer is to rely on sign offs in git (e.g., "Signed-off-by: Chris Nelson") and use a hook in the review tool to sign off commits on behalf of the reviewer. And advantage of this is if we use some other review mechanism for some commits, we have just one place to look for results. One problem with this is that we can't require review before push because the review tool is unlikely to have access to the developer's private repository clone to add the sign-off. Any ideas on integrating code review with code management to achieve ease of use and high visibility of unreviewed changes?

    Read the article

  • how to queue function behind ajax request

    - by user1052335
    What I'm asking is conceptual rather than why my code doesn't work. I'm trying to make a web app that displays content fetched from a database in a sequence, one at a time, and then waits for a response from the user before continuing to the next one. I'm working with javascript on the client side with the JQuery library and php on the server side. In theory, there's time while waiting for the user's input to fetch information from the server using an AJAX request and have it ready for the use by the time he clicks the button, but there's also a chance that such an AJAX request hasn't completed when he clicks the button. So I need something like pseudocode: display current information fetch next data point from the server in the background onUserInput { if ( ajax request complete) { present the information fetched in this request } else if (ajax request not complete) { wait for ajax request complete present information to user } My question is this: how does one implement this " else if (ajax request not complete) { wait for ajax request complete " part. I'm currently using JQuery for my AJAX needs. I'm somewhat new to working with AJAX, and I did search around, but I didn't find anything that seemed on point. I don't know what tools I should use for this. Some kind of queue maybe? I don't need to be spoon fed. I just need to know how this is done, using what tools or if my desired outcome would be accomplished in some other way entirely. Thanks.

    Read the article

  • Setting article properties for a publication using RMO in C# .NET

    - by Pavan Kumar
    I am using transaction replication with push subscription. I am developing a UI for replication using RMO in C#.NET between different instances of the same database within same machine holding similar schema and structure. I am using Single subscriber and multiple publisher topology. During creation of publication i want to set a few article properties such as Keep the existing object unchanged ,allow schema changes at subscriber to false a,copy foriegn key constarint and copy check constraints to true. How do i set the article properties using RMO in C# .NET. I am using Visual Studio 2008 SP1.I also want to know as how we can select all the objects including Tables,Views,Stored Procedures for publishing at one stretch. I could do it for one table but i want to select all the tables at one stretch. This is the code snippet i used for selecting single table for publishing. TransArticle ta = new TransArticle(); ta.Name = "Article_1"; ta.PublicationName = "TransReplication_DB2"; ta.DatabaseName = "DB2"; ta.SourceObjectName = "person"; ta.SourceObjectOwner = "dbo"; ta.ConnectionContext = conn; ta.Create();

    Read the article

  • Java: volatile guarantees and out-of-order execution

    - by WizardOfOdds
    Note that this question is solely about the volatile keyword and the volatile guarantees: it is not about the synchronized keyword (so please don't answer "you must use synchronize" for I don't have any issue to solve: I simply want to understand the volatile guarantees (or lack of guarantees) regarding out-of-order execution). Say we have an object containing two volatile String references that are initialized to null by the constructor and that we have only one way to modify the two String: by calling setBoth(...) and that we can only set their references afterwards to non-null reference (only the constructor is allowed to set them to null). For example (it's just an example, there's no question yet): public class SO { private volatile String a; private volatile String b; public SO() { a = null; b = null; } public void setBoth( @NotNull final String one, @NotNull final String two ) { a = one; b = two; } public String getA() { return a; } public String getB() { return b; } } In setBoth(...), the line assigning the non-null parameter "a" appears before the line assigning the non-null parameter "b". Then if I do this (once again, there's no question, the question is coming next): if ( so.getB() != null ) { System.out.println( so.getA().length ); } Am I correct in my understanding that due to out-of-order execution I can get a NullPointerException? In other words: there's no guarantee that because I read a non-null "b" I'll read a non-null "a"? Because due to out-of-order (multi)processor and the way volatile works "b" could be assigned before "a"? volatile guarantees that reads subsequent to a write shall always see the last written value, but here there's an out-of-order "issue" right? (once again, the "issue" is made on purpose to try to understand the semantics of the volatile keyword and the Java Memory Model, not to solve a problem).

    Read the article

  • text-overflow:ellipsis in Firefox 4?

    - by Spudley
    The text-overflow:ellipsis; CSS property must be one of the few things that Microsoft has done right for the web. All the other browsers now support it... except Firefox. The Firefox developers have been arguing over it since 2005 but despite the obvious demand for it, they can't seem to actually bring themselves to implement it (even an experimental -moz- implementation would be sufficient). A few years ago, someone worked out a way to hack Firefox 3 to make it support an ellipsis. The hack uses the -moz-binding feature to implement it using XUL. Quite a number of sites are now using this hack. The bad news? Firefox 4 is removing the -moz-binding feature, which means this hack won't work any more. So as soon as Firefox 4 is released (later this month, I hear), we're going to be back to the problem of having it not being able to support this feature. So my question is: Is there any other way around this? (I'm trying to avoid falling back to a Javascript solution if at all possible) [EDIT] Lots of up-votes, so I'm obviously not the only one who wants to know, but I've got one answer so far which basically says 'use javascript'. I'm still hoping for a solution that will either not need JS at all, or at worst only use it as a fall-back where the CSS feature doesn't work. So I'm going to post a bounty on the question, on the off chance that someone, somewhere has found an answer.

    Read the article

  • How to connect a new query script with SSMS add-in?

    - by squillman
    I'm trying to create a SSMS add-in. One of the things I want to do is to create a new query window and programatically connect it to a server instance (in the context of a SQL Login). I can create the new query script window just fine but I can't find how to connect it without first manually connecting to something else (like the Object Explorer). So in other words, if I connect Obect Explorer to a SQL instance manually and then execute the method of my add-in that creates the query window I can connect it using this code: ServiceCache.ScriptFactory.CreateNewBlankScript( Editors.ScriptType.Sql, ServiceCache.ScriptFactory.CurrentlyActiveWndConnectionInfo.UIConnectionInfo, null); But I don't want to rely on CurrentlyActiveWndConnectionInfo.UIConnectionInfo for the connection. I want to set a SQL Login username and password programatically. Does anyone have any ideas? EDIT: I've managed to get the query window connected by setting the last parameter to an instance of System.Data.SqlClient.SqlConnection. However, the connection uses the context of the last login that was connected instead of what I'm trying to set programatically. That is, the user it connects as is the one selected in the Connection Dialog that you get when you click the New Query button and don't have an Object Explorer connected. EDIT2: I'm writing (or hoping to write) an add-in to automatically send a SQL statement and the execution results to our case-tracking system when run against our production servers. One thought I had was to remove write permissions and assign logins through this add-in which will also force the user to enter a case # canceling the statement if it's not there. Another thought I've just had is to inspect the server name in ServiceCache.ScriptFactory.CurrentlyActiveWndConnectionInfo.UIConnectionInfo and compare it to our list of production servers. If it matches and there's no case # then cancel the query.

    Read the article

  • Data in two databases, eager spool resulting in query

    - by Valkyrie
    I have two databases in SQL2k5: one that holds a large amount of static data (SQL Database 1) (never updated but frequently inserted into) and one that holds relational data (SQL Database 2) related to the static data. They're separated mainly because of corporate guidelines and business requirements: assume for the following problem that combining them is not practical. There are places in SQLDB2 that PKs in SQLDB1 are referenced; triggers control the referential integrity, since cross-database relationships are troublesome in SQL Server. BUT, because of the large amount of data in SQLDB1, I'm getting eager spools on queries that join from the Id in SQLDB2 that references the data in SQLDB1. (With me so far? Maybe an example will help:) SELECT t.Id, t.Name, t2.Company FROM SQLDB1.table t INNER JOIN SQLDB2.table t2 ON t.Id = t2.FKId This query results in a eager spool that's 84% of the load of the query; the table in SQLDB1 has 35M rows, so it's completely choking this query. I can't create a view on the table in SQLDB1 and use that as my FK/index; it doesn't want me to create a constraint based on a view. Anyone have any idea how I can fix this huge bottleneck? (Short of putting the static data in the first db: believe me, I've argued that one until I'm blue in the face to no avail.) Thanks! valkyrie Edit: also can't create an indexed view because you can't put schemabinding on a view that references a table outside the database where the view resides. Dang it.

    Read the article

  • How to use a viewstate'd object as a datasource for controls on a user control

    - by user557325
    I've got a listview on a control. Each row comprises a checkbox and another listview. The outer listview is bound to a property on the control (via a method call, can't set a property as a SelectMethod on an ObjectDataSource it would appear) which is lazy loaded suchly: Public ReadOnly Property ProductLineChargeDetails() As List(Of WebServiceProductLineChargeDetail) Get If ViewState("WSProductLineChargeDetails") Is Nothing Then ViewState("WSProductLineChargeDetails") = GetWebServiceProductLineChargeDetails() End If Return DirectCast(ViewState("WSProductLineChargeDetails"), Global.System.Collections.Generic.List(Of Global.MI.Open.WebServiceProductLineChargeDetail)) End Get End Property The shape of the object referenced by the data source is something like this: (psuedocode) Product { bool Licenced; List<Charge> charges; } Charge { int property1; string property2; bool property3 . . . } The reason for the use of viewstate is this: When an one of the checkboxes on one of the outer list view rows is checked or unchecked I want to modify the object that the ODS represents (for example I'll add a couple of Charge objects to the relevant Product object) and then rebind. The problem I'm getting is that after every postback (specifically after checking or unchecking one of the rows' checkbox) my viewstate is empty. Thiss means that any changes I make to my viewstate'd object is lost. Now, I've worked out (after much googling and reading, amongst many others, Scott Mitchel's excellent bit on ViewState) that during initial databinding IsTrackingViewState is set to false. That means, I think, that assigning the return from GetWebServiceProductLineChargeDetails() to the ViewState item in my Property Get during the initial databind won't work. Mind you, even when the IsTrackingViewState is true and I call the Property Get, come the next postback, the viewstate is empty. So do you chaps have any ideas on how I keep the object referenced by the ObjectDataSource in ViewState between postbacks and update it and get those changes to stay in ViewState? This has been going on for a couple of days now and I'm getting fed up! Cheers in advance Steve

    Read the article

  • Django access data passed to form

    - by realshadow
    Hey, I have got a choiceField in my form, where I display filtered data. To filter the data I need two arguments. The first one is not a problem, because I can take it directly from an object, but the second one is dynamically generated. Here is some code: class GroupAdd(forms.Form): def __init__(self, *args, **kwargs): self.pid = kwargs.pop('parent_id', None) super(GroupAdd, self).__init__(*args, **kwargs) parent_id = forms.IntegerField(widget=forms.HiddenInput) choices = forms.ChoiceField( choices = [ [group.node_id, group.name] for group in Objtree.objects.filter( type_id = ObjtreeTypes.objects.values_list('type_id').filter(name = 'group'), parent_id = 50 ).distinct()] + [[0, 'Add a new one'] ], widget = forms.Select( attrs = { 'id': 'group_select' } ) ) I would like to change the parent_id that is passed into the Objtree.objects.filter. As you can see I tried in the init function, as well with kwargs['initial']['parent_id'] and then calling it with self, but that doesnt work, since its out of scope... it was pretty much my last effort. I need to acccess it either trough the initial parameter or directly trough parent_id field, since it already holds its value (passed trough initial). Any help is appreciated, as I am running out of ideas.

    Read the article

  • WinForms and ShowDialog problem.

    - by SchlaWiener
    I have a borderless WinForms app. The main window creates other forms (simple dialogs where I can click yes or no) with ShowDialog(). Every created dialog is not visible in the taskbar, my app has only one taskbar entry that focuses my app (and if a dialog is open that one is focused). If I use ALT+TAB to cycle to all open windows I only see one entry, too. However, If the dialog is created while my app doesn't have the focus (for example the user starts a long running task, starts to work on something else and while being in the background, my app shows a dialog "Task done...") and I want to go back to my app, things are getting strange. If I click on the taskbar to focus my app, the main window is focused (not the dialog). I can't use the main window (because there is still an open modal dialog). Windows 7 ALT-TAB preview shows the Dialog while taskbar mouseover preview shows the main window (In normal behavior both show the dialog in front of the main window). The only way to make my app usable again is to ALT-TAB to the entry and close the modal dialog. If I use ALT-TAB only the dialog is brought to the front and the main window is still in the background Is there a way to prevent that from happening? I know what to do, but most customers think the app crashed since the main window doesn't respond.

    Read the article

  • Add new language to existing Xcode project localization

    - by leolobato
    Hey guys, I'm working on an existing Xcode 3.2.2 Universal iPhone OS project which is already localized for 4 languages (EN, IT, DE and FR). We are now adding a new language (JA) into this project. Each existing .lproj folder (en.lproj, it.lproj, de.lproj and fr.lproj) has almost 60 files - including PNGs, HTMLs and the Localizable.strings file. Each one of those files appear as localized groups inside Groups & Files in Xcode. They're spread all over the tree. If I right-click one of those groups (say, Localizable.strings) inside Xcode, Get Info, click on "Add Localization" and type "ja" - as the Xcode docs suggest, nothing happens. From what I read in this newgroup, it's possibly because of the way those folders are named. If they were named like English.lproj and Italian.lproj, this was supposed to work. So, for me to actually import a new language localized file into the existing group, I have to: Right-click the localized group file. Choose "Add Existing File". Select the corresponding file inside the ja.lproj folder. I'm about to get a new ja.lproj folder with those 60 localized files and would love to import them in the project in a way that doesn't involve searching for every single file in Groups & Trees and performing those steps... for every one of those 60 files. Is that possible? Is there a right (or better) way to import a new language into this Xcode project?

    Read the article

  • Relational database data explorer / visualization?

    - by Ian Boyd
    Is there a tool that can let one browse relational data as a graph of connected nodes? For example, i'm faced with trying to cleanse some anomolous data. i can start with two offending rows. In this particular example, the TransactionID should, by business rules, be unique to the table, but i find a transaction that violates that rule: SELECT * FROM LCTTrans WHERE TransactionID = 1075048 LCTID TransactionID ========= ============= 4358 1075048 4359 1075048 2 row(s) affected But really what i want to begin to hunt down all the related data, to try to see which is right. So this hypothetical software would start by showing me these two rows: Next, i want to see that transaction that is linked into this table: Now that transaction points to an MAL, so show me that: Now lets add those two LCTs, that the transaction is "on". A transaction can be on only one LCT, yet this one is pointing to two: Okay computer, both of those LCTs point to an MAL and the transaction that created them, show me those: Those last two transactions, they also point at an MAL, and they themselves point to an LCT, show me those: Okay, now are there any entries in LCTTrans that point to LCTs 4358 or 4359?... And so on, and so on. Now i did all this manually, running single selects, copying and pasting uniqueidentifier keys and converting them into friendly id numbers so i could easily see the relationships. Is there software that can do this?

    Read the article

  • How does MSN filter spam?

    - by Marius
    I am trying to create a newsletter for our business. The last few days have been spent testing, and one of things I have noticed is that MSN seemingly randomly filters out some of my test messages. This is super-frustrating. I like the PEAR Mail MIME-package, and have been using that. I may send one email from one of our servers, resulting in the message getting through, and in the next minute, the same message sent from our other server ends up in the junk folder. Then if I add an attachment to the email, and the same message passes though the filter from the server that was previously blocked. I think. What the ####? Is this like throwing a dice, without me having any control over what is trash, and what isn't? I have sent email from several servers, all of which are shared. But I am unsure this is the problem. The problem is that it is seemingly random how MSN filters email. Some emails get through, and some other don't for seemingly irrational reasons. I am running out of ideas, but I am not giving up. Therefore I am writing to you for HARDCORE technical info on how MSN filters spam.

    Read the article

  • Project with multiple binaries in Eclipse CDT

    - by Robert Schneider
    I think it is quite normal to have more than one binary in a project. However, with Eclipse CDT I don't know how to set up the IDE to get things done. I know I can create several projects - one per binary. And I know I can set the dependencies per project. However, I cannot regard them as one project in Eclipse. If I'd like to share the code with a version control system (like svn), each developer has to import the projects separately. What I miss is something like the Solution (sln file) in Visual Studio. Should I create a single project and create the make files by myself? I haven't tried it out yet, but there is this 'project set' which can be ex- and imported. Is this the solution? Can this be put into version control? My goal it to put everything under version control, not only subprojects. I cannot imagine that CDT makes only sense for single-binary applications. How can I work properly?

    Read the article

  • MSN Messenger API

    - by MarceloRamires
    back when I was not working with programming (using skills from courses and school) I started developing a simple program that is supposed to get the Artwork of the album to which the song you're currently listening in iTunes to and set it as you Display Picture in MSN Messenger (everything had to be open at the same time). I was so excited about it, made it as nicely as I could back then (now I consider it a design and usability complete fail), and it surprisingly worked. Now, a couple of versions ahead (MSN from 8.5 to 9.0, iTunes from 8 to 9, and windows from Vista to 7) I am getting some incompatibility issues. Where I work, I use Windows 7, Windows Live Messenger 2009 and iTunes 9 - it works just just like before, but at home I have the same exact setup, but something weird happens: When I open the program (having my itunes AND msn open) it doesn't use the active MSN instance, instead it opens a new one, and doesn't work even on this opened one. I've tried it with a couple of libraries: Interop.Messenger.dll - workis like described above Interop.MessengerAPI.dll - works like described above Interop.MessengerPrivate.dll - never worked MSNMessenger.dll - the one I used before - doesn't work anymore at all What could I do ? Info: Visual Studio 2008, .NET 3.5, C#, WinForms application. I'll watch this question and add any information if requested

    Read the article

  • Using singleton instead of a global static instance

    - by Farstucker
    I ran into a problem today and a friend recommended I use a global static instance or more elegantly a singleton pattern. I spent a few hours reading about singletons but a few things still escape me. Background: What Im trying to accomplish is creating an instance of an API and use this one instance in all my classes (as opposed to making a new connection, etc). There seems to be about 100 ways of creating a singleton but with some help from yoda I found some thread safe examples. ..so given the following code: public sealed class Singleton { public static Singleton Instance { get; private set; } private Singleton() { APIClass api = new APIClass(); //Can this be done? } static Singleton() { Instance = new Singleton(); } } How/Where would you instantiate the this new class and how should it be called from a separate class? EDIT: I realize the Singleton class can be called with something like Singleton obj1 = Singleton.Instance(); but would I be able to access the methods within the APIs Class (ie. obj1.Start)? (not that I need to, just asking) EDIT #2: I might have been a bit premature in checking the answer but I do have one small thing that is still causing me problems. The API is launching just fine, unfortunately Im able to launch two instances? New Code public sealed class SingletonAPI { public static SingletonAPI Instance { get; private set; } private SingletonAPI() {} static SingletonAPI() { Instance = new SingletonAPI(); } // API method: public void Start() { API myAPI = new API();} } but if I try to do something like this... SingletonAPI api = SingletonAPI.Instance; api.Start(); SingletonAPI api2 = SingletonAPI.Instance; // This was just for testing. api2.Start(); I get an error saying that I cannot start more than one instance.

    Read the article

  • Safe to update separate regions of a BufferedImage in separate threads?

    - by finnw
    I have a collection of BufferedImage instances, one main image and some subimages created by calling getSubImage on the main image. The subimages do not overlap. I am also making modifications to the subimage and I want to split this into multiple threads, one per subimage. From my understanding of how BufferedImage, Raster and DataBuffer work, this should be safe because: Each instance of BufferedImage (and its respective WritableRaster) is accessed from only one thread. The shared ColorModel is immutable The DataBuffer has no fields that can be modified (the only thing that can change is elements of the backing array.) Modifying disjoint segments of an array in separate threads is safe. However I cannot find anything in the documentation that says that it is definitely safe to do this. Can I assume it is safe? I know that it is possible to work on copies of the child Rasters but I would prefer to avoid this because of memory constraints. Otherwise, is it possible to make the operation thread-safe without copying regions of the parent image?

    Read the article

  • GAE modeling relationship options

    - by Sway
    Hi there, I need to model the following situation and I can't seem to find a consistent example on how to do it "correctly" for the google app engine. Suppose I've got a simple situation like the following: [Company] 1 ----- M [Stare] A company has one to many stores. Each store has an address made up of a address line 1, city, state, country, postcode etc. Ok. Lets say we need to create say an "Audit". An Audit is for a company and can be across one to many stares. So something like: [Audit] 1 ------ 1 [Company] 1 ------ M [Store] Now we need to query all of the "audits" based on the Store "addresses" in order to send the "Auditors" to the right locations. There seem to be numerous articles like this one: http://code.google.com/appengine/articles/modeling.html Which give examples of creating a "ContactCompany" model class. However they also say that you should use this kind of relationship only when you "really need to" and with "care" for performance. I've also read - frequently - that you should denormalize as much as possible thereby moving all of the "query-able" data into the Audit class. So what would you suggest as the best way to solve this? I've seen that there is an Expando class but I'm not sure if that is the "best" option for this. Any help or thoughts on this would be totally appreciated. Thanks in advance, Matt

    Read the article

  • Hibernate bit array to entity mapping

    - by teabot
    I am trying to map a normalized Java model to a legacy database schema using Hibernate 3.5. One particular table encodes a foreign keys in a one-to-many relationship as a bit array column. Consider tables 'person' and 'clubs' that describes people's affiliations to clubs: person .----.------. club: .----.---------.---------------------------. | id | name | | id | name | members | binary(members) | |----+------| |----+---------|---------+-----------------| | 1 | Bob | | 10 | Cricket | 0 | 000 | | 2 | Joe | | 11 | Tennis | 5 | 101 | | 3 | Sue | | 12 | Cooking | 7 | 111 | '----'------' | 13 | Golf | 3 | 100 | '----'---------'---------'-----------------' So hopefully it is clear that person.id is used as the bit index in the bit array club.members. In this example the members column tells us that: no one is a member of Cricket, Bob/Sue - Tennis, Bob/Sue/Joe - Cooking and Sue - Golf. In my Java domain I'd like to declare this with entities like so: class Person { private int id; private String name; ... } class Club { private Set<Person> members; private int id; private String name; ... } I am assuming that I must use a UserType implementation but have been unable to find any examples where the items described by the user type are references to entities - not literal field values - or composites thereof. Additionally I am aware that I'll have to consider how the person entities are fetched when a club instance is loaded. Can anyone tell me how I can tame this legacy schema with Hibernate?

    Read the article

  • VMWare steals IP addresses [closed]

    - by Ishan Amin
    I'm having a peculiar problem, that I think I have narrowed down to VMware. For the past one year, every once in a while we lose internet connection and not all users (about 10 users) go down at the same time, its usually one-by-one. First someone will call me and say "Internet is down" and then we would go reset the router and modem and switch and it would be working again for a while, then go down again without any pattern or replicatable sequence. We'd go repeat the steps again to get everyone in the office running again. We called our Internet Service Provider and they constantly say, We see your modem and we see your router and from thier end everything is OK. we replaced our router and switch and modem, twice! Last friday, it dawned upon me, that everytime we turn on a VMware machine, this sequence of taking everyone down starts, which also explains the message that my users get for "IP Conflict Found" So we do alot of VMware testing and lo and behold, it takes my Internet down. My Yahoo and Gtalk would continue working but www is down when the VMware machines are started. I do use bridged networking to all the VMware machines, but I dont know what else to set it at. now, sorry for this long rambling but anyone have any clue on how to stop this? thanks IA

    Read the article

< Previous Page | 645 646 647 648 649 650 651 652 653 654 655 656  | Next Page >