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• With the advent of HTML 5, is there a point in using COMET anymore?

  - by h2g2java

  I am very tempted to use long wait http or periodic polling by the client to set up pseudo-sockets on the browser side, for an application that would be used publicly. But then on the 2nd thought, I am thinking HTML 5 is here. But on the 3rd thought, what is the percentage of browsers out there that remain non-HTML5 within 12 months, 24 months, 36 months? If there are at least 20% of browsers still incapable of HTML5, then I cannot depend on HTML5 because 20% of users not being able to access an application is a significant amount. What do you think, how would your advice be (to me and to developers in general)? Q1. Is there any point in rigging in COMET into an application anymore? I am thinking of gwt comet - http://code.google.com/p/gwt-comet/. Q2. Should we release a new public application within the next 2 months that is dependent on HTML5 sockets and tell non-HTML5 browser users "sorry, your browser version cannot access this application"? Or should we architect the apps to use communication like GWT RPC? Q3. I am also very distrustful of long wait http request. I have never used it before but I have a horrible feeling about it. I have been using 10 to 20 second client-side polling. Is long wait http request risky (risk of hanging a browser session)? Does long wait request present any additional security risk?

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• Call Python From PHP And Get Return Code

  - by seaboy

  Hello everyone, I am calling a python script from PHP. The python program has to return some value according to the arguments passed to it. Here is a sample python program, which will give you a basic idea of what i am doing currently: #!/usr/bin/python import sys #get the arguments passed argList = sys.argv #Not enough arguments. Exit with a value of 1. if len(argList) < 3: #Return with a value of 1. sys.exit(1) arg1 = argList[1] arg2 = argList[2] #Check arguments. Exit with the appropriate value. if len(arg1) > 255: #Exit with a value of 4. sys.exit(4) if len(arg2) < 2: #Exit with a value of 8. sys.exit(8) #Do further coding using the arguments------ #If program works successfully, exit with a value of 0 As you can see from the above code, my basic aim is for the python program to return some values (0,1,4,8 etc) depending on the arguments. And then the calling PHP program to access these returned values and do the appropriate operation. Currently i have used "sys.exit(n)", for that purpose. Am i right in using sys.exit, or do I need to use something else? And also what method exists in PHP so that I can access the return code from python? Sorry for the long question, but hopefully it will help in you understanding my dilemma Thanks a ton

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• Having trouble with confusing behaviour of error between debug and release modes in Xcode

  - by Cocorico

  Hi guys, I am confused over something (what is new!). I have an iPhone program I am writing and using some sqlite in a certain method, and there is some error which is giving me a message that says "Program received signal: “EXC_BAD_ACCESS” Okay, so I am trying to hunt down why this is doing this, and I notice something: When I run the program in debug mode, it gives me this error every single time I access this method (I test on the device). However when I run the program in release mode, I can access this method 2 times, and then it will give me this error the third time. So I mean, can someone just give me an explanation of what might cause this, I think that maybe deep-down I am not that smart on the difference in XCode of debug and release modes. I think that release mode does optimizing, and I guess the actual assembly machine code comes out different, yes? I AM A BIG NEWBIE USER UNFORTUNATELY! I am not clear on a lot of things like this, or whether it needs for I to remove nslog commands in the release build and such. Maybe I should just post the actual code in separate Stack OVerflow post, and see if people can see the error, then maybe this all become clear to me.

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• Ember nested route. Load more models

  - by user3568719

  JsBin http://jsbin.com/EveQOke/153/ I know how to load more then one model to a route, using Ember.RSVP.hash. (see Jsbin Children menu). I use dynamic part to access one elem from a collection children/1. But i cant load more models to a nested resource. In my example i want to populate all the toys for a select, not just list the toys of the child. I have tried to access the model of the route children App.ChildRoute = Ember.Route.extend({ model: function(param){ return Ember.RSVP.hash({ allToys: this.modelFor("children"), child:this.store.find('child', param.child_id) }); } }); and use its model's toy property (since there have already loaded all of the toys) child.hbs <h4>All avaiable toys</h4> <table> {{#each toy in model.allToys.toys}} <tr> <td>{{toy.name}}</td> </tr> {{/each}} </table>

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• ASP.NET MVC Authorize by Subdomain

  - by Jimmo

  I have what seems like a common issue with SaaS applications, but have not seen this question on here anywhere. I am using ASP.NET MVC with Forms Authentication. I have implemented a custom membership provider to handle logic, but have one issue (perhaps the issue is in my mental picture of the system). As with many SaaS apps, customers create accounts and use the app in a way that looks like they are the only ones present (they only see their items, users, etc.). In reality, there are generic controllers and views presenting data depending on the customer represented in the URL. When calling something like the MembershipProvider.ValidateUser, I have access to the user's customer affiliation in the User object - what I don't have is the context of the request to compare whether it is a data request for the same customer as the user. As an example, One company called ABC goes to abc.mysite.com Another company called XYZ goes to xyz.mysite.com When an ABC user calls http://abc.mysite.com/product/edit/12 I have an [Authorize] attribute on the Edit method in the ProductController to make sure he is signed in and has sufficient permission to do so. If that same ABC user tried to access http://xyz.mysite.com/product/edit/12 I would not want to validate him in the context of that call. In the ValidateUser of the MembershipProvider, I have the information about the user, but not about the request. I can tell that the user is from ABC, but I cannot tell that the request is for XYZ at that point in the code. How should I resolve this?

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• MSBuild / PowerShell: Copy SQL Server 2012 database to SQL Azure via BACPAC (for Continuous Integration)

  - by giveme5minutes

  I'm creating a continuous integration MSBuild script which copies a database in on-premise SQL Server 2012 to SQL Azure. Easy right? Methods After a fair bit of research I've come across the following methods: Use PowerShell to access the DAC library directly, then use the MSBuild PowerShell extension to wrap the script. This would require installing PowerShell 3 and working out how to make the MSBuild PowerShell extension work with it, as apparently MS moved the DAC API to a different namespace in the latest version of the library. PowerShell would give direct access to the API, but may require quite a bit of boilerplate. Use the sample DAC Framework Client Side Tools, which requires compiling them myself, as the downloads available from Codeplex only include the Hosted version. It would also require fixing them to use DAC 3.0 classes as they appear to currently use an earlier version of DAC. I could then call these tools from an <Exec Command="" /> in the MSBuild script. Less boilerplate and if I hit any bumps in the road I can just make changes to the source. Processes Using whichever method, the process could be either: Export from on-premise SQL Server 2012 to local BACPAC Upload BACPAC to blog storage Import BACPAC to SQL Azure via Hosted DAC Or: Export from on-premise SQL Server 2012 to local BACPAC Import BACPAC to SQL Azure via Client DAC Question All of the above seems to be quite a lot of effort for something that seems to be a standard feature... so before I start reinventing the wheel and documenting the results for all to see, is there something really obvious that I've missed here? Is there pre-written script that MS has released that I have not yet uncovered? There's an command in the GUI of SQL Server Management Studio 2012 that does EXACTLY what I'm trying to do (right click on local database, click "Tasks", click "Deploy Database to SQL Azure"). Surely if it's a few clicks in the GUI it must be a single command on the command line somewhere??

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• Understanding many to many relationships and Entity Framework

  - by Anders Svensson

  I'm trying to understand the Entity Framework, and I have a table "Users" and a table "Pages". These are related in a many-to-many relationship with a junction table "UserPages". First of all I'd like to know if I'm designing this relationship correctly using many-to-many: One user can visit multiple pages, and each page can be visited by multiple users..., so am I right in using many2many? Secondly, and more importantly, as I have understood m2m relationships, the User and Page tables should not repeat information. I.e. there should be only one record for each user and each page. But then in the entity framework, how am I able to add new visits to the same page for the same user? That is, I was thinking I could simply use the Count() method on the IEnumerable returned by a LINQ query to get the number of times a user has visited a certain page. But I see no way of doing that. In Linq to Sql I could access the junction table and add records there to reflect added visits to a certain page by a certain user, as many times as necessary. But in the EF I can't access the junction table. I can only go from User to a Pages collection and vice versa. I'm sure I'm misunderstanding relationships or something, but I just can't figure out how to model this. I could always have a Count column in the Page table, but as far as I have understood you're not supposed to design database tables like that, those values should be collected by queries... Please help me understand what I'm doing wrong...

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• Object addSubview only works in viewDidLoad

  - by DecodingSand

  Hi, I'm new to iPhone dev and need some help with adding subViews. I have a reusable object that I made that is stored in a separate .h .m and xib file. I would like to use this object in my main project's view controller. I have included the header and the assignment of the object generates no errors. I am able to load the object into my main project but can only do things with it inside my viewDidLoad method. I intend to have a few of these objects on my screen and am looking fora solution that is more robust then just hard wiring up multiple copies of the shape object. As soon as I try to access the object outside of the viewDidLoad it produces a variable unknown error - first use in this function. Here is my viewDidLoad method: shapeViewController *shapeView = [[shapeViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@"shapeViewController" bundle:nil]; [self.view addSubview: shapeView.view]; // This is the problem line // This code works changes the display on the shape object [shapeView updateDisplay:@"123456"]; ---- but the same code outside of the viewDidLoad generates the error. So to sum up, everything works except when I try to access the shapeView object in the rest of the methods. Thanks in advance

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• Accessing we.config from Sharepoint web part

  - by philj

  I have a VS 2008 web parts project - in this project is a web.config file: something like this: ……. In my web part I am trying to access values in the appSetting section: I've tried all of the code below and each returns null: string Owner = ConfigurationManager.AppSettings.Get("MFOwner"); string stuff1 = ConfigurationManager.AppSettings["MFOwner"]; string stuff3 = WebConfigurationManager.AppSettings["MFOwner"]; string stuff4 = WebConfigurationManager.AppSettings.Get("MFOwner"); string stuff2 = ConfigurationManager.AppSettings["MFowner".ToString()]; I've tried this code I found: NameValueCollection sAll; sAll = ConfigurationManager.AppSettings; string a; string b; foreach (string s in sAll.AllKeys) { a = s; b = sAll.Get(s); } and stepped through it in debug mode - that is getting things like : FeedCacheTime FeedPageURL FeedXsl1 ReportViewerMessages which is NOT coming from anything in my web.config file....maybe a config file in sharepoint itself? How do I access a web.config (or any other kind of config file!) local to my web part??? thanks, Phil J

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• GridView on the select of row

  - by user329419

  I need to hide columns in GridView then access the values of these columns in GridViewSelectedIndex using vb.net When I set visible=false for Bound colums i cannot access the values <asp:TemplateField Visible=False> <ItemTemplate> <asp:HiddenField ID=hdnSeqID Value='<%#Eval("Seq_ID") %>' runat=server/> </ItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField> <asp:TemplateField HeaderText="FormCode" Visible=false> <ItemTemplate> <asp:HiddenField ID=hdnFormCode Value='<%#Eval("Form_Code") %>' runat=server/> </ItemTemplate> </asp:TemplateField> </Columns> <RowStyle BackColor="#EFF3FB" /> <EditRowStyle BackColor="#2461BF" /> <SelectedRowStyle BackColor="#D1DDF1" Font-Bold="True" ForeColor="#333333" /> <PagerStyle BackColor="#2461BF" ForeColor="White" HorizontalAlign="Center" /> <HeaderStyle BackColor="#507CD1" Font-Bold="True" ForeColor="White" /> <AlternatingRowStyle BackColor="White" /> </asp:GridView> Protected Sub GridView1_SelectedIndexChanged(ByVal sender As Object, ByVal e As System.EventArgs) Handles GridView1.SelectedIndexChanged Dim Instance_ID As String Dim Seq_ID As String Dim Form_Code As String Dim PARMS As String Dim DestinationURL As String Dim DestinationParms As String 'fill text box's with values from selected row ' store values from selected row 'Dim instanceID As String = CType(GridView1.SelectedRow.FindControl("hdnInstanceID"), HiddenField).Value Dim seqID As String = CType(GridView1.SelectedRow.FindControl("hdnSeqID"), HiddenField).Value Dim formCode As String = CType(GridView1.SelectedRow.FindControl("hdnFormCode"), HiddenField).Value

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• Dataset bind to Gridview within WCF REST retrieval method and Linq to Sql

  - by user643794

  I used a WCF REST template to build a WCF service library to create PUT and GET calls. PUT method works fine sending my blob to a database. On the GET, I want to be able to access the web service directly and display the results from a stored procedure as a dataset and bind this to a gridview. The stored procedure is a simple select statement, returning three of the four columns from the table. I have the following: [WebGet(UriTemplate = "/?name={name}", ResponseFormat = WebMessageFormat.Xml)] public List<Object> GetCollection(string name) { try { db.OpenDbConnection(); // Call to SQL stored procedure return db.GetCustFromName(name); } catch (Exception e) { Log.Error("Stored Proc execution failed. ", e); } finally { db.CloseDbConnection(); } return null; } I also added Linq to SQL class to include my database table and stored procedures access. I also created the Default.aspx file in addition to the other required files. protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { ServiceDataContext objectContext = new ServiceDataContext(); var source = objectContext.GetCustFromName("Tiger"); Menu1.DataSource = source; Menu1.DataBind(); } But this gives me The entity type '' does not belong to any registered model. Where should the data binding be done? What should be the return type for GetCollection()? I am stuck with this. Please provide help on how to do this.

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• Transitioning from desktop app written in C++ to a web-based app

  - by Karim

  We have a mature Windows desktop application written in C++. The application's GUI sits on top of a windows DLL that does most of the work for the GUI (it's kind of the engine). It, too, is written in C++. We are considering transitioning the Windows app to be a web-based app for various reasons. What I would like to avoid is having to writing the CGI for this web-based app in C++. That is, I would rather have the power of a 4G language like Python or a .NET language for creating the web-based version of this app. So, the question is: given that I need to use a C++ DLL on the backend to do the work of the app what technology stack would you recommend for sitting between the user's browser and are C++ dll? We can assume that the web server will be Windows. Some options: Write a COM layer on top of the windows DLL which can then be access via .NET and use ASP.NET for the UI Access the export DLL interface directly from .NET and use ASP.NET for the UI. Write a custom Python library that wraps the windows DLL so that the rest of the code can be written. Write the CGI using C++ and a C++-based MVC framework like Wt Concerns: I would rather not use C++ for the web framework if it can be avoided - I think languages like Python and C# are simply more powerful and efficient in terms of development time. I'm concerned that my mixing managed and unmanaged code with one of the .NET solutions I'm asking for lots of little problems that are hard to debug (purely anecdotal evidence for that) Same is true for using a Python layer. Anything that's slightly off the beaten path like that worries me in that I don't have much evidence one way or the other if this is a viable long term solution.

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• Good guidelines for developing an ecommerce application

  - by kaciula

  I'm making an ecommerce application on Android and, as it is my first serious project, I'm trying to figure out beforehand the best approach to do this. The application talks to a web service (magento api, meaning soap or xml rpc unfortunately) and gets all the content on the phone (product categories, product details, user credentials etc.). I think it should do lazy loading or something like that. So, I was thinking to keep the user credentials in a custom Object which will be kept in a SharedPreferences so that every Activity cand easily access it. I'll use a couple of ListViews to show the content and AsyncTask to fetch the data needed. Should I keep all the data in memory in objects or should I use some sort of cache or a local database? Also, I'm planning to use a HashMap with SoftReferences to hold the bitmaps I am downloading. But wouldn't this eat a lot of memory? How cand all the activities have access to all these objects (ecommerce basket etc.)? I'm thinking of passing them using Intents but this doesn't seem right to me. Can SharedPreferences be used for a lot of objects and are there any concurrency issues? Any pointers would be really appreciated. What are some good guidelines? What classes should I look into? Do you know of any resources on the Internet for me to check out?

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• JQuery object expected error when accessing page via url routing.

  - by Andy Evans

  In my global.asax I have url routing setup like below: routes.MapPageRoute("User Logon", "{Vendor}/Logon", "~/Logon.aspx"); In the logon.aspx page, I have a script that "stylizes" the logon button: <link href="jquery/css/flick/jquery-ui-1.8.1.custom.css" rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" /> <link href="images/style.css" rel="stylesheet" type="text/css" /> <script src="jquery/js/jquery-1.4.2.min.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script src="jquery/js/jquery-ui-1.8.1.custom.min.js" type="text/javascript"></script> <script type="text/javascript"> $(document).ready(function () { $('#<%= ButtonLogon.ClientID %>').button(); }); </script> When I access the page us a url (in debug mode) http://localhost/logon.aspx?v=1 the page loads correctly and the jquery button command loads correctly. But then I access the page using the new url route, I get this error. Microsoft JScript runtime error: Object expected Anyone have an idea why this occurs? Thanks.

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• Check if file is locked or catch error for trying to open

  - by Duncan Matheson

  I'm trying to handle the problem where a user can try to open, with an OpenFileDialog, a file that is open by Excel. Using the simple FileInfo.OpenRead(), it chucks an IOException, "The process cannot access the file 'cakes.xls' because it is being used by another process." This would be fine to display to the user except that the user will actually get "Debugging resource strings are unavailable" nonsense. It seems not possible to open a file that is open by another process, since using FileInfo.Open(FileMode.Open, FileAccess.Read, FileShare.ReadWrite) chucks a SecurityException, "File operation not permitted. Access to path 'C:\whatever\cakes.xls' is denied.", for any file. Rather unhelpful. So it's down to either finding some way of checking if the file is locked, or trying to catch the IOException. I don't want to catch all IOExceptions and assume they're all locked file errors, so I need some sort of way of classifying this type of exception as this error... but the "Debugging resource strings" nonsense along with the fact that that message itself is probably localized makes it tricky. I'm partial trust, so I can't use Marshal.GetHRForException. So: Is there any sensible way of either check if a file is locked, or at least determining if this problem occurred without just catching all IOExceptions?

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• Which source control paradigm and solution to embed in a custom editor application?

  - by Greg Harman

  I am building an application that manages a number of custom objects, which may be edited concurrently by multiple users (using different instances of the application). These objects have an underlying serialized representation, and my plan is to persist them (through my application UI) in an external source control system. Of course this implies that my application can check the current version of an object for updates, a merging interface for each object, etc. My question is what source control paradigm(s) and specific solution(s) to support and why. The way I (perhaps naively) see the source control world is three general paradigms: Single-repository, locked access (MS SourceSafe) Single-repository, concurrent access (CVS/SVN) Distributed (Mercurial, Git) I haven't heard of anyone using #1 for quite a number of years, so I am planning to disregard this case altogether (unless I get a compelling argument otherwise). However, I'm at a loss as to whether to support #2 or #3, and which specific implementations. I'm concerned that the use paradigms are subtly different enough that I can't adequately capture basic operations in a single UI. The last bit of information I should convey is that this application is intended to be deployed in a commercial setting, where a source control system may already be in use. I would prefer not to support more than one solution unless it's really a deal-breaker, so wide adoption in a corporate setting is a plus.

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• ASP.NET MVC application architecture "guidelines"

  - by Joe Future

  I'm looking for some feedback on my ASP.NET MVC based CMS application architecture. Domain Model - depends on nothing but the System classes to define types. For now, mostly anemic. Repository Layer - abstracted data access, only called by the services layer Services Layer - performs business logic on domain models. Exposes view models to the controllers. ViewModelMapper - service that translates back and forth between view models and domain models Controllers - super thin "traffic cop" style functionality that interacts with the service layer and only talks in terms of view models, never domain models My domain model is mostly used as data transfer (DTO) objects and has minimal logic at the moment. I'm finding this is nice because it depends on nothing (not even classes in the services layer). The services layer is a bit tricky... I only want the controllers to have access to viewmodels for ease of GUI programming. However, some of the services need to talk to each other. For example, I have an eventing service that notifies other listener services when content is tagged, when blog posts are created, etc. Currently, the methods that take domain models as inputs or return them are marked internal so they can't be used by the controllers. Sounds like overkill? Not enough abstraction? I'm mainly doing this as a learning exercise in being strict about architecture, not for an actual product, so please no feedback along the lines of "right depends on what you want to do". thanks! Jason

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• Python and the self parameter

  - by Svend

  I'm having some issues with the self parameter, and some seemingly inconsistent behavior in Python is annoying me, so I figure I better ask some people in the know. I have a class, Foo. This class will have a bunch of methods, m1, through mN. For some of these, I will use a standard definition, like in the case of m1 below. But for others, it's more convinient to just assign the method name directly, like I've done with m2 and m3. import os def myfun(x, y): return x + y class Foo(): def m1(self, y, z): return y + z + 42 m2 = os.access m3 = myfun f = Foo() print f.m1(1, 2) print f.m2("/", os.R_OK) print f.m3(3, 4) Now, I know that os.access does not take a self parameter (seemingly). And it still has no issues with this type of assignment. However, I cannot do the same for my own modules (imagine myfun defined off in mymodule.myfun). Running the above code yields the following output: 3 True Traceback (most recent call last): File "foo.py", line 16, in <module> print f.m3(3, 4) TypeError: myfun() takes exactly 2 arguments (3 given) The problem is that, due to the framework I work in, I cannot avoid having a class Foo at least. But I'd like to avoid having my mymodule stuff in a dummy class. In order to do this, I need to do something ala def m3(self,a1, a2): return mymodule.myfun(a1,a2) Which is hugely redundant when you have like 20 of them. So, the question is, either how do I do this in a totally different and obviously much smarter way, or how can I make my own modules behave like the built-in ones, so it does not complain about receiving 1 argument too many.

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• Help with accessing a pre-existing window AFTER opener is refreshed!

  - by Wilhelm Murdoch

  Alright, I'm at my wit's end on this issue. First, backstory. I'm working on a video management system where we're allowing users, when adding new content, to upload and, optionally, transcode a media file. We're using Java applet for the browser-based FTP client. What I want to do is allow a user to initiate an upload and then send the FTP connection instance to a popup window. This window will act as a job queue for the FTP transfer process. This will allow users to move about the main interface without having to stay on the original page until an individual file transfer is complete. For the most part I have all of this working, but here's a problem. If the window is closed, all connections are dropped and the upload process for all queued files will be canceled. So, if Window One opens the Popup Window, adds stuff to the queue, refreshes the screen or moves to a different page, how will I access the Popup Window? The popup window and its contents must remain persistent while the user navigates through the original window. The original window must be able to access the popup to add a new job to the queue. The popup window itself is independent of the opening window, so communication only happens in one direction: Parent - Popup Not Parent <- Popup Window.open(null, 'WINDOW_NAME'); will not work in this case. I need to check if a window exists BEFORE using window.open. Help!?!?

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• Using IAM for user authentication

  - by mdavis6890

  I've read lots and lots of posts that touch on what I think should be a very common use case - but without finding exactly what I want, or a simple reason why it can't be done. I have some files on S3. I want to be able to grant certain users access to certain files, via a front end that I build. So far, I've made it work this way: I built the front end in Django, using it's built-in Users and Groups I have a model for Buckets, in which I mirror my S3 buckets. I have a m2m relationship from groups to buckets representing the S3 permissions. The user logs in and authenticates against Django's users. I grab from Django the list of buckets that the user is allowed to see I use boto to grab a list of links to files from those buckets and display to user. This works, but isn't ideal, and also just doesn't feel right. I've got to keep a mirror of the buckets, and I also have to maintain my own list of user/passwords and permissions, when AWS already has all that built in. What I really want is to simply create the users in IAM and use group permissions in IAM to control access to the S3 buckets. No duplication of data or function. My app would request a UN/PW from the user and use that to connect to IAM/S3 to pull the list of buckets and files, then display links to the user. Simple. How can I, or why can't I? Am I looking at this the wrong way? What's the "right" way to address this (I assume) very common use case?

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• How to save timers with connection to OrderId?

  - by Adrian Serafin

  Hi! I have a system where clients can make orders. After making order they have 60 minutes to pay fot it before it will be deleted. On the server side when order is made i create timer and set elapsed time to 60 minutes System.Timer.Timers timer = new System.Timers.Timer(1000*60*60); timer.AutoReset = false; timer.Elapsed += HandleElapsed; timer.Start(); Because I want to be able to dispose timer if client decides to pay and I want to be able to cancel order if he doesn't I keep two Dictionaries: Dictionary<int, Timer> _orderTimer; Dictionary<Timer, int> _timerOrder; Then when client pay's I can access Timer by orderId with O(1) thanks to _orderTimer dictionary and when time elapsed I can access order with O(1) thanks to _timerOrder dictionary. My question is: Is it good aproach? Assuming that max number of rows I have to keep in dictionary in one moment will be 50000? Maybe it would be better to derive from Timer class, add property called OrderId, keep it all in List and search for order/timer using linq? Or maybe you I should do this in different way?

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• Unhandled Exception error message

  - by Joshua Green

  Does anyone know why including a term such as: t = PL_new_term_ref(); would cause an Unhandled Exception error message: 0xC0000005: Access violation reading location 0x0000000c. (Visual Studio 2008) I have a header file: class UserTaskProlog : public ArAction { public: UserTaskProlog( const char* name = " sth " ); ~UserTaskProlog( ); AREXPORT virtual ArActionDesired *fire( ArActionDesired currentDesired ); private: term_t t; }; and a cpp file: UserTaskProlog::UserTaskProlog( const char* name ) : ArAction( name, " sth " ) { char** argv; argv[ 0 ] = "libpl.dll"; PL_initialise( 1, argv ); PlCall( "consult( 'myProg.pl' )" ); } UserTaskProlog::~UserTaskProlog( ) { } ArActionDesired *UserTaskProlog::fire( ArActionDesired currentDesired ) { cout << " something " << endl; t = PL_new_term_ref( ); } Without t=PL_new_term_ref() everything works fine, but when I start adding my Prolog code (declarations first, such as t=PL_new_term_ref), I get this Access Violation error message. I'd appreciate any help. Thanks,

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• NUnit integration programmatically with spring

  - by harkon

  Hi! I have a component based architecture framework designed and I use NUnit for isolated testing - okay so far. Now I want to enable integration tests. Therefore the tests use real implementations of the existing components. Each element of the component has a life cycle (init, start and stop) and I created a NUnit component. In the start section the Console runner of the NUnit will be executed. Okay - now if I have a test fixture class in my dlls in the execution path the runner exectues them - fine! But: And this is crucial! Each to be tested implementation exists so far in the process and I want to use this instances for testing. If I use NUnit runner in the current way each instance will be created twice - and above all: I have a spring container and a implementation registry. Via this registry I can get access to all instances in the processes. But how do I give the test fixture access to the existing registry? Good: I can start the component architecture framework in the startup of the nunit runner - but this is not what I want. My guide is the apache Cactus framework (with JUnit and tomcat, JBoss etc.) Can someone help? Thanks a lot! Check: http://cone.codeplex.com

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• Retrieve values from multimdimensional array

  - by vincentlerry

  I have a great difficulty. I need to retrieve [title], [url] and [abstract] values ??from this multidimensional array. Also, I have to store those values in mysql database. thanks in advance!!! Array ( [bossresponse] = Array ( [responsecode] = 200 [limitedweb] = Array ( [start] = 0 [count] = 20 [totalresults] = 972000 [results] = Array ( [0] = Array ( [date] = [clickurl] = http://www.torchlake.com/ [url] = http://www.torchlake.com/ [dispurl] = www.torchlake.com [title] = Torch Lake, COLI Inc, Highspeed, Dial-up, Wireless ... [abstract] = Welcome to COLI Inc. Chain O' Lake Internet. Local Northern Michigan ISP, offering Dialup Internet access, Wireless access, Web design, and T1 services in Northern ... ) [1] = Array ( [date] = [clickurl] = http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Torch_Lake_(Antrim_County,_Michigan) [url] = http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Torch_Lake_(Antrim_County,_Michigan) [dispurl] = en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Torch_Lake_(Antrim_County,_Michigan) [title] = Torch Lake (Antrim County, Michigan) - Wikipedia, the free ... [abstract] = Torch Lake at 19 miles (31 km) long is Michigan's longest lake and at approximately 18,770 acres (76 km²) is Michigan's second largest lake. Within it are several ... ) this is the entire code that generates this array: require("OAuth.php"); $cc_key = ""; $cc_secret = ""; $url = "http://yboss.yahooapis.com/ysearch/limitedweb"; $args = array(); $args["q"] = "car"; $args["format"] = "json"; $args["count"] = 20; $consumer = new OAuthConsumer($cc_key, $cc_secret); $request = OAuthRequest::from_consumer_and_token($consumer, NULL,"GET", $url, $args); $request-sign_request(new OAuthSignatureMethod_HMAC_SHA1(), $consumer, NULL); $url = sprintf("%s?%s", $url, OAuthUtil::build_http_query($args)); $ch = curl_init(); $headers = array($request-to_header()); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_HTTPHEADER, $headers); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_URL, $url); curl_setopt($ch, CURLOPT_RETURNTRANSFER, TRUE); $rsp = curl_exec($ch); $results = json_decode($rsp, true);

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• ASP can't connect to SQL Server database

  - by birdus

  I'm trying to get a classic ASP application to connect to a local SQL Server 2008 database. The app and database were built by someone else. I'm just trying to get them installed and running on my machine (Windows 7). I'm getting the following error when when the ASP app tries to connect to the database: Could not connect to database: Error Number: -2147467259 Error Message: [ConnectionOpen (Connect()).] does not exist or access denied. I don't see any messages in the Windows Event Viewer. I'm looking at: Event Viewer-Windows Logs-Application. It's a fresh database install using a simple restore. The SQL Server install uses the default instance. SQL Server and Windows authentication are both allowed. I left the existing connection string (in the ASP code) in tact and just tried adding that to my SQL Server installation. Here's the connection string: strConn = "PROVIDER=SQLOLEDB;SERVER=localhost;UID=TheUser;PWD=ThePassword;DATABASE=TheDatabase;" To add that user to SQL Server, I went to Security/Logins in SSMS and added the user and the password. I selected the database in question as the Default database. I thought that might do the trick, but it didn't. Then, I went into TheDatabase, then went into Security there. I added a new user there, referencing the new user I had already added in server Security. Under Owned Schemas, I clicked db_owner and under Role Members I checked db_accessadmin and db_owner. None of this gave the ASP application access to the database. The sid values match in sys.database_principals and sys.server_principals for the login in question. I am able to login to SSMS using this login. The app needs to execute selects against the database like this: oConn.Execute('select * from someTable') I'm not a DBA and am sort of grasping at straws here. How do I get this thing connected? Thanks, Jay

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