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string categorization strategies

- by Andrew Heath

I'm the one-man dev team on a fledgling military history website. One aspect of the site is a catalog of ~1,200 individual battles, including the nations & formations (regiments, divisions, etc) which took part. The formation information (as well as the other battle info) was manually imported from a series of books by a 10-man volunteer team. The formations were listed in groups with varying formatting and abbreviation patterns. At the time I set up the data collection forms I couldn't think of a good way to process that data... and elected to store it all as strings in the MySQL database and sort it out later. Well, "later" - as it tends to happen - has arrived. :-) Each battle has 2+ records in the database - one for each nation that participated. Each record has a formations text string listing the formations present as the volunteer chose to add them. Some real examples: 39th Grenadier Rgmt, 26th Volksgrenadier Division 2nd Luftwaffe Field Division, 246th Infantry Division 247th Rifle Division, 255th Tank Brigade 2nd Luftwaffe Field Division, SS Cavalry Division 28th Tank Brigade, 158th Rifle Division, 135th Rifle Division, 81st Tank Brigade, 242nd Tank Brigade 78th Infantry Division 3rd Kure Special Naval Landing Force, Tulagi Seaplane Base personnel 1st Battalion 505th Infantry Regiment The ultimate goal is for each individual force to have an ID, so that its participation can be traced throughout the battle database. Formation hierarchy, such as the final item above 1st Battalion (of the) 505th Infantry Regiment also needs to be preserved. In that case, 1st Battalion and 505th Infantry Regiment would be split, but 1st Battalion would be flagged as belonging to the 505th. In database terms, I think I want to pull the formation field out of the current battle info table and create three new tables: FORMATION [id] [name] FORMATION_HIERARCHY [id] [parent] [child] FORMATION_BATTLE [f_id] [battle_id] It's simple to explain, but complicated to enact. What I'm looking for from the SO community is just some tips on how best to tackle this problem. Ideally there's some sort of method to solving this that I'm not aware of. However, as a last resort, I could always code a classification framework and call my volunteers back to sort through 2,500+ records...

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GAE Datastore: persisting referenced objects

- by David

Two "I'm sorries" to begin with: 1) I've looked for a solution (here, and elsewhere), and couldn't find the answer. 2) English is not my mother tongue, so I may have some typos and the sort - please ignore them. To the point: I am trying to persist Java objects to the GAE datastore. I am not sure as to how to persist object having ("non-trivial") referenced object. That is, assume I have the following. public class Father { String name; int age; Vector<Child> offsprings; //this is what I call "non-trivial" reference //ctor, getters, setters... } public class Child { String name; int age; Father father; //this is what I call "non-trivial" reference //ctor, getters, setters... } The name field is unique in each type domain, and is considered a Primary-Key. In order to persist the "trivial" (String, int) fields, all I need is to add the correct annotation. So far so good. However, I don't understand how should I persist the home-brewed (Child, Father) types referenced. Should I: Convert each such reference to hold the Primary-Key (a name String, in this example) instead of the "actual" object. So, Vector<Child> offsprings; becomes Vector<String> offspringsNames; ? If that is the case, how do I handle the object at run-time? Do I just query for the Primary-Key from Class.getName, to retrieve the refrenced objects? Convert each such reference to hold the actual Key provided to me by the Datastore upon the proper put() operation? So, Vector<Child> offsprings; becomes Vector<Key> offspringsHashKeys; ? I would very much appreciate all kinds of comments. I have read ALL the offical relevant GAE docs/example. Throughout, they always persist "trivial" references, natively supported by the Datastore (e.g. in the Guestbook example, only Strings, and Longs). Many thanks, David

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idiomatic property changed notification in scala?

- by Jeremy Bell

I'm trying to find a cleaner alternative (that is idiomatic to Scala) to the kind of thing you see with data-binding in WPF/silverlight data-binding - that is, implementing INotifyPropertyChanged. First, some background: In .Net WPF or silverlight applications, you have the concept of two-way data-binding (that is, binding the value of some element of the UI to a .net property of the DataContext in such a way that changes to the UI element affect the property, and vise versa. One way to enable this is to implement the INotifyPropertyChanged interface in your DataContext. Unfortunately, this introduces a lot of boilerplate code for any property you add to the "ModelView" type. Here is how it might look in Scala: trait IDrawable extends INotifyPropertyChanged { protected var drawOrder : Int = 0 def DrawOrder : Int = drawOrder def DrawOrder_=(value : Int) { if(drawOrder != value) { drawOrder = value OnPropertyChanged("DrawOrder") } } protected var visible : Boolean = true def Visible : Boolean = visible def Visible_=(value: Boolean) = { if(visible != value) { visible = value OnPropertyChanged("Visible") } } def Mutate() : Unit = { if(Visible) { DrawOrder += 1 // Should trigger the PropertyChanged "Event" of INotifyPropertyChanged trait } } } For the sake of space, let's assume the INotifyPropertyChanged type is a trait that manages a list of callbacks of type (AnyRef, String) = Unit, and that OnPropertyChanged is a method that invokes all those callbacks, passing "this" as the AnyRef, and the passed-in String). This would just be an event in C#. You can immediately see the problem: that's a ton of boilerplate code for just two properties. I've always wanted to write something like this instead: trait IDrawable { val Visible = new ObservableProperty[Boolean]('Visible, true) val DrawOrder = new ObservableProperty[Int]('DrawOrder, 0) def Mutate() : Unit = { if(Visible) { DrawOrder += 1 // Should trigger the PropertyChanged "Event" of ObservableProperty class } } } I know that I can easily write it like this, if ObservableProperty[T] has Value/Value_= methods (this is the method I'm using now): trait IDrawable { // on a side note, is there some way to get a Symbol representing the Visible field // on the following line, instead of hard-coding it in the ObservableProperty // constructor? val Visible = new ObservableProperty[Boolean]('Visible, true) val DrawOrder = new ObservableProperty[Int]('DrawOrder, 0) def Mutate() : Unit = { if(Visible.Value) { DrawOrder.Value += 1 } } } // given this implementation of ObservableProperty[T] in my library // note: IEvent, Event, and EventArgs are classes in my library for // handling lists of callbacks - they work similarly to events in C# class PropertyChangedEventArgs(val PropertyName: Symbol) extends EventArgs("") class ObservableProperty[T](val PropertyName: Symbol, private var value: T) { protected val propertyChanged = new Event[PropertyChangedEventArgs] def PropertyChanged: IEvent[PropertyChangedEventArgs] = propertyChanged def Value = value; def Value_=(value: T) { if(this.value != value) { this.value = value propertyChanged(this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs(PropertyName)) } } } But is there any way to implement the first version using implicits or some other feature/idiom of Scala to make ObservableProperty instances function as if they were regular "properties" in scala, without needing to call the Value methods? The only other thing I can think of is something like this, which is more verbose than either of the above two versions, but is still less verbose than the original: trait IDrawable { private val visible = new ObservableProperty[Boolean]('Visible, false) def Visible = visible.Value def Visible_=(value: Boolean): Unit = { visible.Value = value } private val drawOrder = new ObservableProperty[Int]('DrawOrder, 0) def DrawOrder = drawOrder.Value def DrawOrder_=(value: Int): Unit = { drawOrder.Value = value } def Mutate() : Unit = { if(Visible) { DrawOrder += 1 } } }

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sendmail and MX records when mail server is not on web host

- by Jim Nelson

This is a problem I'm sure is easy to fix, but I've been banging my head on it all day. I'm developing a new web site for a client. The web site resides at (this is an example) website.com. I have a PHP form script to email visitors' requests to [email protected]. When I coded this on a staging server on a different domain, all worked fine. When I moved it to website.com, the mail messages never arrived. The web server is on a virtual host with a major ISP. Here's what I've learned since then: My client's mail server is Microsoft Exchange on a box physically in their office. Whenever someone on the outside world emails [email protected], the mail arrives. But if the web server sends to the same email address, it fails every time. This is not a PHP problem. I secure shell in to the web server and have tested this both with sendmail and the UNIX mail application. I've also tested it by emailing various email accounts from the shell. I can email myself, for example, just nobody at the website.com domain. In short, when I'm logged in to website.com, mail to [email protected], [email protected], [email protected] all fail. All other addresses work fine. What I've discovered is those dropped emails are routed to the web server's "catchall" account where they sit in its inbox. I've done an MX lookup on website.com. The MX record points to mailsec.website.com. I can telnet to mailsec.website.com port 25 and see the SMTP server. It appears to me that website.com isn't doing an MX lookup when it's sending mail to [email protected]. My theory is that it recognizes the domain as local, sees that there's no "requests" user account to deliver it to, and drops the mail into the catchall account. What I want is to force sendmail to do the MX lookup and send the message on to the Exchange server. I'm at wit's end here. I can't figure out how to do this. For that matter, I may be way off base here and have misdiagnosed this entirely. Internet mail and MX has always seemed a black art to me, and my ignorance is certainly showing in this question.

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Opinion on "loop invariants", and are these frequently used in the industry?

- by Michael Aaron Safyan

I was thinking back to my freshman year at college (five years ago) when I took an exam to place-out of intro-level computer science. There was a question about loop invariants, and I was wondering if loop invariants are really necessary in this case or if the question was simply a bad example... the question was to write an iterative definition for a factorial function, and then to prove that the function was correct. The code that I provided for the factorial function was as follows: public static int factorial(int x) { if ( x < 0 ){ throw new IllegalArgumentException("Parameter must be = 0"); }else if ( x == 0 ){ return 1; }else{ int result = 1; for ( int i = 1; i <= x; i++ ){ result*=i; } return result; } } My own proof of correctness was a proof by cases, and in each I asserted that it was correct by definition (x! is undefined for negative values, 0! is 1, and x! is 1*2*3...*x for a positive value of x). The professor wanted me to prove the loop using a loop invariant; however, my argument was that it was correct "by definition", because the definition of "x!" for a positive integer x is "the product of the integers from 1... x", and the for-loop in the else clause is simply a literal translation of this definition. Is a loop invariant really needed as a proof of correctness in this case? How complicated must a loop be before a loop invariant (and proper initialization and termination conditions) become necessary for a proof of correctness? Additionally, I was wondering... how often are such formal proofs used in the industry? I have found that about half of my courses are very theoretical and proof-heavy and about half are very implementation and coding-heavy, without any formal or theoretical material. How much do these overlap in practice? If you do use proofs in the industry, when do you apply them (always, only if it's complicated, rarely, never)?

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How do I debug a difficult-to-reproduce crash with no useful call stack?

- by David M

I am encountering an odd crash in our software and I'm having a lot of trouble debugging it, and so I am seeking SO's advice on how to tackle it. The crash is an access violation reading a NULL pointer: First chance exception at $00CF0041. Exception class $C0000005 with message 'access violation at 0x00cf0041: read of address 0x00000000'. It only happens 'sometimes' - I haven't managed to figure out any rhyme or reason, yet, for when - and only in the main thread. When it occurs, the call stack contains one incorrect entry: For the main thread, which this is, it should show a large stack full of other items. At this point, all other threads are inactive (mostly sitting in WaitForSingleObject or a similar function.) I have only seen this crash occur in the main thread. It always has the same call stack of one entry, in the same method at the same address. This method may or may not be related - we do use the VCL in our application. My bet, though, is that something (possibly quite a while ago) is corrupting the stack, and the address where it's crashing is effectively random. Note it has been the same address across several builds, though - it's probably not truly random. Here is what I've tried: Trying to reproduce it reliably at a certain point. I have found nothing that reproduces it every time, and a couple of things that occasionally do, or do not, for no apparent reason. These are not 'narrow' enough actions to narrow it down to a particular section of code. It may be timing related, but at the point the IDE breaks in, other threads are usually doing nothing. I can't rule out a threading problem, but think it's unlikely. Building with extra debugging statements (extra debug info, extra asserts, etc.) After doing so, the crash never occurs. Building with Codeguard enabled. After doing so, the crash never occurs and Codeguard shows no errors. My questions: 1. How do I find what code caused the crash? How do I do the equivalent of walking back up the stack? 2. What general advice do you have for how to trace the cause of this crash? I am using Embarcadero RAD Studio 2010 (the project mostly contains C++ Builder code and small amounts of Delphi.)

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dynamiclly schedule a lead sales agent

- by Josh

I have a website that I'm trying to migrate from classic asp to asp.net. It had a lead schedule, where each sales agent would be featured for the current day, or part of the day.The next day a new agent would be scheduled. It was driven off a database table that had a row for each day in it. So to figure out if a sales agent would show on a day, it was easy, just find today's date in the table. Problem was it ran out rows, and you had to run a script to update the lead days 6 months at a time. Plus if there was ever any change to the schedule, you had to delete all the rows and re-run the script. So I'm trying to code it where sql server figures that out for me, and no script has to be ran. I have a table like so CREATE TABLE [dbo].[LeadSchedule]( [leadid] [int] IDENTITY(1,1) NOT NULL, [userid] [int] NOT NULL, [sunday] [bit] NOT NULL, [monday] [bit] NOT NULL, [tuesday] [bit] NOT NULL, [wednesday] [bit] NOT NULL, [thursday] [bit] NOT NULL, [friday] [bit] NOT NULL, [saturday] [bit] NOT NULL, [StartDate] [smalldatetime] NULL, [EndDate] [smalldatetime] NULL, [StartTime] [time](0) NULL, [EndTime] [time](0) NULL, [order] [int] NULL, So the user can schedule a sales agent depending on their work schedule. Also if they wanted to they could split certain days, or sales agents by time, So from Midnight to 4 it was one agent, from 4-midnight it was another. So far I've tried using a numbers table, row numbers, goofy date math, and I'm at a loss. Any suggestions on how to handle this purely from sql code? If it helps, the table should always be small, like less than 20 never over 100. update After a few hours all I've managed to come up with is the below. It doesn't handle filling in days not available or times, just rotates through all the sales agents with leadTable as ( select leadid,userid,[order],StartDate, case DATEPART(dw,getdate()) when 1 then sunday when 2 then monday when 3 then tuesday when 4 then wednesday when 5 then thursday when 6 then friday when 7 then saturday end as DayAvailable , ROW_NUMBER() OVER (ORDER BY [order] ASC) AS ROWID from LeadSchedule where GETDATE()>=StartDate and (CONVERT(time(0),GETDATE())>= StartTime or StartTime is null) and (CONVERT(time(0),GETDATE())<= EndTime or EndTime is null) ) select userid, DATEADD(d,(number+ROWID-2)*totalUsers,startdate ) leadday from (select *, (select COUNT(1) from leadTable) totalUsers from leadTable inner join Numbers on 1=1 where DayAvailable =1 ) tb1 order by leadday asc

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LINQ to XML, a problem conceptualizing how the tree should look.

- by snark

Have you ever had one of those days when you've dug a hole but your so deep in now that the only option is to keep on digging and see where you come out? I thought just for giggles in the latest component I'm writing to use LINQ to XML because it was about time I saw what all the hooplah was about. The problem: I am making a graph component that contains series of data that get graphed and then you can apply a formula to that series and graph another series then apply a formula to that series and so on. So I figured that I would do so in 2 steps, create (and manage) an XML representaion of the series and how they relate to each other, then pass this xml to a draw engine which draws. Conceptually its a tree, with the exception of the root all child series being based upon a parent (1 parent can have many children. So I should always be adding child nodes to their parent and if I delete a node(series) then I can simply delete the series and its descendants (then draw) and voila all the messy iterating through each node finding parents and children is unneccessary. Trouble is I dont know how to represent this tree in XML i.e. the structure. My first attempt saw me programatically adding each series as siblings, which worked like a treat because I ended up with an ordered list and thus my order of rendering was maintained. I had this <Chart> <Series id="1">seriesText1</Series> <Series id="2">seriesText2</Series> <Series id="3">seriesText3</Series> <Series id="4">seriesText4</Series> </Chart> I'm in a muddle now ... how can I represent a series and a series that has children series. If some-one can give me a hint to how my tree should look (perhaps with a snippet on how to programatically add nodes to their parents) All the examples I have read usually have some container elements such as <ContactS> or <BookS> but my head says I have <series> some of them parent some of them children. Would appreciate a nudge in the right direction.

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KnockoutJS radio buttons not changing like checkboxes do

- by Gaui

I have the same data structure for checkboxes and radio buttons. When checking the checkboxes, they return correct boolean value ('chosen' variable). However, when I check the radio buttons, 'chosen' always changes to the 'value' (integer). Also the radio buttons don't get "checked" in the beginning, even though 'chosen' == true Javascript: function attributeValueViewModel(data) { var self = this; self.id = ko.observable(data.id); self.attributeID = ko.observable(data.attributeID); self.value = ko.observable(data.value); self.chosen = ko.observable(data.chosen); } function viewModel() { var self = this; self.attributeValues1 = ko.observableArray([]); self.attributeValues2 = ko.observableArray([]); self.addToList = function(data) { ko.utils.arrayForEach(data, function(item) { self.attributeValues1.push(new attributeValueViewModel(item)); self.attributeValues2.push(new attributeValueViewModel(item)); }); }; } var arr = [ { "id": 55, "attributeID": 28, "value": "Yes", "chosen": false, }, { "id": 56, "attributeID": 28, "value": "No", "chosen": true, }, { "id": 62, "attributeID": 28, "value": "Maybe", "chosen": false, } ]; var vm = new viewModel(); ko.applyBindings(vm); vm.addToList(arr); HTML <b>Checkbox:</b> <div id="test1"> <span data-bind="foreach: attributeValues1()"> <input type="checkbox" data-bind="value: id(), checked: chosen, attr: { name: 'test1' }" /> <span data-bind="text: value()"></span> <span data-bind="text: chosen()"></span> </span> </div> <br /> <b>Radio:</b> <div id="test2"> <span data-bind="foreach: attributeValues2()"> <input type="radio" data-bind="value: id(), checked: chosen, attr: { name: 'test2' }" /> <span data-bind="text: value()"></span> <span data-bind="text: chosen()"></span> </span> </div>? Here is my fiddle: http://jsfiddle.net/SN7Vn/1/ Can you please explain this behavior and why the radio buttons don't update boolean (like checkboxes do)?

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App dies on startup but not crash report

- by brettr

I've given an ad hoc version of my app to some users. Two of them have the app die on start up while one user has no issues. I can also install the ad hoc without issue...but that is always the case for me. One user sent the info below from the Xcode Organizer Console. They didn't find any crash logs. I don't know what to make of the info below. The one thing that stands out is "Permission denied". I place the provisioning and myapp.app files in a dropbox folder. The user then retrieves the files from the same location. I've run codesign against the .app file in the dropbox and get valid output: codesign -vvvv myapp.app myapp.app: valid on disk myapp.app: satisfies its Designated Requirement Any one have some ideas how I can figure out why the app doesn't work for this user? Here is the Console output from one user. They couldn't find any associated crash logs: Stats totalMLSITDBPostProcessing=5.31s commands=0.01 misc=0.45s icuSort=4.41s (MLS_icu_data=0.23s, MLS_icu_sec_data=0.13, dropIdx=0.04, normalize=0.13, update_orders=1.31, tStatsICUOther1=0.02, createIndex=2.50) Sun Dec 13 12:35:04 unknown com.apple.launchd[1] <Error>: (UIKitApplication:com.cygen.myapp[0x8cb6]) posix_spawn("/var/mobile/Applications/4B036396-3294-4E0A-BBCC-4118E72846D4/myapp.app/myapp", ...): Permission denied Sun Dec 13 12:35:04 unknown com.apple.launchd[1] <Warning>: (UIKitApplication:com.cygen.myapp[0x8cb6]) Exited with exit code: 1 Sun Dec 13 12:35:04 unknown SpringBoard[24] <Warning>: Failed to spawn myapp. Unable to obtain a task name port right for pid 179: (os/kern) failure Sun Dec 13 12:35:04 unknown com.apple.launchd[1] <Warning>: (UIKitApplication:com.cygen.myapp[0x8cb6]) Throttling respawn: Will start in 2147483647 seconds Sun Dec 13 12:35:04 unknown SpringBoard[24] <Warning>: Application 'myapp' exited abnormally with exit status 1 Sun Dec 13 12:35:10 unknown springboardservicesrelay[155] <Warning>: Unable to parse property list data of length: 0 Sun Dec 13 12:35:13 unknown com.apple.launchd[1] <Error>: (UIKitApplication:com.cygen.myapp[0x3ce5]) posix_spawn("/var/mobile/Applications/4B036396-3294-4E0A-BBCC-4118E72846D4/myapp.app/myapp", ...): Permission denied Sun Dec 13 12:35:13 unknown com.apple.launchd[1] <Warning>: (UIKitApplication:com.cygen.myapp[0x3ce5]) Exited with exit code: 1 Sun Dec 13 12:35:13 unknown SpringBoard[24] <Warning>: Failed to spawn myapp. Unable to obtain a task name port right for pid 182: (os/kern) failure Sun Dec 13 12:35:13 unknown com.apple.launchd[1] <Warning>: (UIKitApplication:com.cygen.myapp[0x3ce5]) Throttling respawn: Will start in 2147483647 seconds Sun Dec 13 12:35:13 unknown SpringBoard[24] <Warning>: Application 'myapp' exited abnormally with exit status 1

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Windows 7 - pydoc from cmd

- by Random_Person

Okay, I'm having one of those moments that makes me question my ability to use a computer. This is not the sort of question I imagined asking as my first SO post, but here goes. Started on Zed's new "Learn Python the Hard Way" since I've been looking to get back into programming after a 10 year hiatus and python was always what I wanted. This book has really spoken to me. That being said, I'm having a serious issue with pydoc from the command. I've got all the directories in c:/python26 in my system path and I can execute pydoc from the command line just fine regardless of pwd - but it accepts no arguments. Doesn't matter what I type, I just get the standard pydoc output telling me the acceptable arguments. Any ideas? For what it's worth, I installed ActivePython as per Zed's suggestion. C:\Users\Chevee>pydoc file pydoc - the Python documentation tool pydoc.py <name> ... Show text documentation on something. <name> may be the name of a Python keyword, topic, function, module, or package, or a dotted reference to a class or function within a module or module in a package. If <name> contains a '\', it is used as the path to a Python source file to document. If name is 'keywords', 'topics', or 'modules', a listing of these things is displayed. pydoc.py -k <keyword> Search for a keyword in the synopsis lines of all available modules. pydoc.py -p <port> Start an HTTP server on the given port on the local machine. pydoc.py -g Pop up a graphical interface for finding and serving documentation. pydoc.py -w <name> ... Write out the HTML documentation for a module to a file in the current directory. If <name> contains a '\', it is treated as a filename; if it names a directory, documentation is written for all the contents. C:\Users\Chevee> EDIT: New information, pydoc works just fine in PowerShell. As a linux user, I have no idea why I'm trying to use cmd anyways--but I'd still love to figure out what's up with pydoc and cmd. EDIT 2: More new information. In cmd... c:\>python c:/python26/lib/pydoc.py file ...works just fine. Everything works just fine with just pydoc in PowerShell without me worrying about pwd, or extensions or paths.

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Wrong sessionID being used in callback, but only on one particular computer

- by user210119

I am writing a Python/Django web application that uses OAuth (for the TwitterAPI, not that it should matter). I am storing a session ID in my login function, and then after using OAuth to get the user's token, I try to retrieve the sessionID in my callback function. The callback function then always fails(throws an exception) because it can't find the OAuth token in the session. Through the debugger, I am able to determine that the session ID that the server is using is incorrect - it does not match the session ID that was stored in the login function. It's therefore unsurprising that the Oauth tokens were not there. The session that appears in the callback was the same one each time (until I tried deleting it - see "things I've tried below"), and it started out as an old session, with some data in it that is from a different django app running on the same server that I hadn't touched in a couple weeks. Here's the kicker: everything I described is an issue only on our production server, and only when connecting to it from my computer. Let me clarify: this only happens with my particular laptop. I can connect to the app just fine from someone else's computer. Other people cannot connect with their accounts on my computer. Furthmore, I can connect just fine to the app when it is running on my localhost using the built-in django webserver, just not to the production server. My setup: my server and local box are running= Django 1.2.0 and Python 2.6.5. My local box is running Snow Leopard and the Django webserver, the server is running Ubuntu, Apache2, and mod-wsgi. For sessions, I am using Django's default session backend (DB). Things I have tried, all to no avail: logging in with a different account, including new accounts that have never OAuthed to this app before Clearing cookies, using incognito mode, using a different web browser on my same computer. Each time, upon inspecting my cookies, the sessionID matched the sessionID in the login function and was different from the sessionID in the callback. deleting the session in the database that appears in the callback function, (the one that appeared to be old data). The callback function still fails, and the sessionID it appears to be using is now a new one using a different session backend (DB-cache, flat file, etc...) restarting the server, my computer, etc. My first question on StackOverflow, so bear with me if I didn't quite follow local conventions. I am just at a loss as to what to even look for - what are the things that could possibly be causing sessions to not work on my particular computer, and (so far!) only my particular computer?

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IF Statement has strange behavior

- by BSchlinker

I've developed a 'custom' cout, so that I can display text to console and also print it to a log file. This cout class is passed a different integer on initialization, with the integer representing the verbosity level of the message. If the current verbosity level is greater then or equal to the verbosity level of the message, the message should print. The problem is, I have messages printing even when the current verbosity level is too low. I went ahead and debugged it, expecting to find the problem. Instead, I found multiple scenarios where my if statements are not working as expected. The statement if(ilralevel_passed <= ilralevel_set) will sometimes proceed even if ilralevel_set is LESS then ilralevel_passed. You can see this behavior in the following picture (my apologizes for using Twitpic) http://twitpic.com/1xtx4g/full. Notice how ilralevel_set is equal to zero, and ilralevel_passed is equal to one. Yet, the if statement has returned true and is now moving forward to pass the line to cout. I've never seen this type of behavior before and I'm not exactly sure how to proceed debugging it. I'm not able to isolate the behavior either -- it only occurs in certain parts of my program. Any suggestions are appreciated as always. // Here is an example use of the function: // ilra_status << setfill('0') << setw(2) << dispatchtime.tm_sec << endl; // ilra_warning << "Dispatch time (seconds): " << mktime(&dispatchtime) << endl; // Here is the 'custom' cout function: #ifndef ILRA_H_ #define ILRA_H_ // System libraries #include <iostream> #include <ostream> #include <sstream> #include <iomanip> // Definitions #define ilra_talk ilra(__FUNCTION__,0) #define ilra_update ilra(__FUNCTION__,0) #define ilra_error ilra(__FUNCTION__,1) #define ilra_warning ilra(__FUNCTION__,2) #define ilra_status ilra(__FUNCTION__,3) // Statics static int ilralevel_set = 0; static int ilralevel_passed; // Classes class ilra { public: // constructor / destructor ilra(const std::string &funcName, int toset) { ilralevel_passed = toset; } ~ilra(){}; // enable / disable irla functions static void ilra_verbose_level(int toset){ ilralevel_set = toset; } // output template <class T> ilra &operator<<(const T &v) { if(ilralevel_passed <= ilralevel_set) std::cout << v; return *this; } ilra &operator<<(std::ostream&(*f)(std::ostream&)) { if(ilralevel_passed <= ilralevel_set) std::cout << *f; return *this; } }; // end of the class #endif /* ILRA_H_ */

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Writing Device Drivers for Microcontrollers, where to define IO Port pins?

- by volting

I always seem to encounter this dilemma when writing low level code for MCU's. I never know where to declare pin definitions so as to make the code as reusable as possible. In this case Im writing a driver to interface an 8051 to a MCP4922 12bit serial DAC. Im unsure how/where I should declare the pin definitions for The CS(chip select) and LDAC(data latch) for the DAC. At the moment there declared in the header file for the driver. Iv done a lot of research trying to figure out the best approach but havent really found anything. Im basically want to know what the best practices... if there are some books worth reading or online information, examples etc, any recommendations would be welcome. Just a snippet of the driver so you get the idea /** @brief This function is used to write a 16bit data word to DAC B -12 data bit plus 4 configuration bits @param dac_data A 12bit word @param ip_buf_unbuf_select Input Buffered/unbuffered select bit. Buffered = 1; Unbuffered = 0 @param gain_select Output Gain Selection bit. 1 = 1x (VOUT = VREF * D/4096). 0 =2x (VOUT = 2 * VREF * D/4096) */ void MCP4922_DAC_B_TX_word(unsigned short int dac_data, bit ip_buf_unbuf_select, bit gain_select) { unsigned char low_byte=0, high_byte=0; CS = 0; /**Select the chip*/ high_byte |= ((0x01 << 7) | (0x01 << 4)); /**Set bit to select DAC A and Set SHDN bit high for DAC A active operation*/ if(ip_buf_unbuf_select) high_byte |= (0x01 << 6); if(gain_select) high_byte |= (0x01 << 5); high_byte |= ((dac_data >> 8) & 0x0F); low_byte |= dac_data; SPI_master_byte(high_byte); SPI_master_byte(low_byte); CS = 1; LDAC = 0; /**Latch the Data*/ LDAC = 1; }

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How can I specify resources in an MVVM view model?

- by gix

Suppose I want to show list of objects where each object should have a name and a suitable image (for example MenuItems with Icons, or buttons with text and image). All examples and programs exposed the image in the viewmodel as a path to a PNG file and then bound the Source of an Image to that. But what if I want to use vector images (for example as a DrawingImage in a local ResourceDictionary)? Exposing the DrawingImage from the view model seems bad because I would have to store a reference to the application/window/user control/... (and it is advised to not expose such XAML objects from view models). So a better approach would be to use a string identifier in the view model and then somehow select the appropriate resource. If that identifier is the resource key this snippet looks tempting but does not work: <Image Source="{StaticResource {Binding Icon}}"/> I found two workarounds for that though they did not work for me. The first one was using a normal binding to the icon with a converter that looked up the resource in Application.Current. This does not work if the resource is stored somewhere else I think (and the situation where I initially bumped into this problem had no Application running yet since it was a Window choosing the Application to launch!). The second workaround was using a markup extension derived from StaticResourceExtension that fetched its ResourceKey from the passed binding: <Image Source="{local:BindableStaticResource {Binding Icon}"/> This one looks really neat because it could use local resources, also be used for other things. But when using it I always got an exception ("Resource named {FooIcon} could not be found.", showing the correct XAML file and position of the extension). Even an empty resource extension derived from StaticResourceExtension that just passed the resource key to the base constructor did not work and I cannot explain why. Just using StaticResourceExtension worked just fine. Any ideas how I could fix the second approach, or even better solutions? Edit I noticed that it does work when used directly like this: <Window> <Window.Resources> <DrawingImage x:Key="SomeIcon"/> </Window.Resources> <Image Source="{BindableStaticResource {Binding Icon}}"/> </Window> but fails for example in a DataTemplate. Though a normal StaticResourceExtension works on both occasions so I am puzzled what is going wrong.

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Generate a list of file names based on month and year arithmetic

- by MacUsers

How can I list the numbers 01 to 12 (one for each of the 12 months) in such a way so that the current month always comes last where the oldest one is first. In other words, if the number is grater than the current month, it's from the previous year. e.g. 02 is Feb, 2011 (the current month right now), 03 is March, 2010 and 09 is Sep, 2010 but 01 is Jan, 2011. In this case, I'd like to have [09, 03, 01, 02]. This is what I'm doing to determine the year: for inFile in os.listdir('.'): if inFile.isdigit(): month = months[int(inFile)] if int(inFile) <= int(strftime("%m")): year = strftime("%Y") else: year = int(strftime("%Y"))-1 mnYear = month + ", " + str(year) I don't have a clue what to do next. What should I do here? Update: I think, I better upload the entire script for better understanding. #!/usr/bin/env python import os, sys from time import strftime from calendar import month_abbr vGroup = {} vo = "group_lhcb" SI00_fig = float(2.478) months = tuple(month_abbr) print "\n%-12s\t%10s\t%8s\t%10s" % ('VOs','CPU-time','CPU-time','kSI2K-hrs') print "%-12s\t%10s\t%8s\t%10s" % ('','(in Sec)','(in Hrs)','(*2.478)') print "=" * 58 for inFile in os.listdir('.'): if inFile.isdigit(): readFile = open(inFile, 'r') lines = readFile.readlines() readFile.close() month = months[int(inFile)] if int(inFile) <= int(strftime("%m")): year = strftime("%Y") else: year = int(strftime("%Y"))-1 mnYear = month + ", " + str(year) for line in lines[2:]: if line.find(vo)==0: g, i = line.split() s = vGroup.get(g, 0) vGroup[g] = s + int(i) sumHrs = ((vGroup[g]/60)/60) sumSi2k = sumHrs*SI00_fig print "%-12s\t%10s\t%8s\t%10.2f" % (mnYear,vGroup[g],sumHrs,sumSi2k) del vGroup[g] When I run the script, I get this: [root@serv07 usage]# ./test.py VOs CPU-time CPU-time kSI2K-hrs (in Sec) (in Hrs) (*2.478) ================================================== Jan, 2011 211201372 58667 145376.83 Dec, 2010 5064337 1406 3484.07 Feb, 2011 17506049 4862 12048.04 Sep, 2010 210874275 58576 145151.33 As I said in the original post, I like the result to be in this order instead: Sep, 2010 210874275 58576 145151.33 Dec, 2010 5064337 1406 3484.07 Jan, 2011 211201372 58667 145376.83 Feb, 2011 17506049 4862 12048.04 The files in the source directory reads like this: [root@serv07 usage]# ls -l total 3632 -rw-r--r-- 1 root root 1144972 Feb 9 19:23 01 -rw-r--r-- 1 root root 556630 Feb 13 09:11 02 -rw-r--r-- 1 root root 443782 Feb 11 17:23 02.bak -rw-r--r-- 1 root root 1144556 Feb 14 09:30 09 -rw-r--r-- 1 root root 370822 Feb 9 19:24 12 Did I give a better picture now? Sorry for not being very clear in the first place. Cheers!! Update @Mark Ransom This is the result from Mark's suggestion: [root@serv07 usage]# ./test.py VOs CPU-time CPU-time kSI2K-hrs (in Sec) (in Hrs) (*2.478) ========================================================== Dec, 2010 5064337 1406 3484.07 Sep, 2010 210874275 58576 145151.33 Feb, 2011 17506049 4862 12048.04 Jan, 2011 211201372 58667 145376.83 As I said before, I'm looking for the result to b printed in this order: Sep, 2010 - Dec, 2010 - Jan, 2011 - Feb, 2011 Cheers!!

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HttpPost request unsuccessful

- by The Thom

I have written a web service and am now writing a tester to perform integration testing from the outside. I am writing my tester using apache httpclient 4.3. Based on the code here: http://hc.apache.org/httpcomponents-client-4.3.x/quickstart.html and here: http://hc.apache.org/httpcomponents-client-4.3.x/tutorial/html/fundamentals.html#d5e186 I have written the following code. Map<String, String> parms = new HashMap<>(); parms.put(AirController.KEY_VALUE, json); postUrl(SERVLET, parms); ... protected String postUrl(String servletName, Map<String, String> parms) throws AirException{ String url = rootUrl + servletName; HttpPost post = new HttpPost(url); List<NameValuePair> nvps = new ArrayList<NameValuePair>(); for(Map.Entry<String, String> entry:parms.entrySet()){ BasicNameValuePair parm = new BasicNameValuePair(entry.getKey(), entry.getValue()); nvps.add(parm); } try { post.setEntity(new UrlEncodedFormEntity(nvps)); } catch (UnsupportedEncodingException use) { String msg = "Invalid parameters:" + parms; throw new AirException(msg, use); } CloseableHttpResponse response; try { response = httpclient.execute(post); } catch (IOException ioe) { throw new AirException(ioe); } String result; if(HttpStatus.SC_OK == response.getStatusLine().getStatusCode()){ result = processResponse(response); } else{ String msg = MessageFormat.format("Invalid status code {0} received from query {1}.", new Object[]{response.getStatusLine().getStatusCode(), url}); throw new AirException(msg); } return result; } This code successfully reaches my servlet. In my servlet, I have (using Spring's AbstractController): protected ModelAndView post(HttpServletRequest request, HttpServletResponse response) { String json = String.valueOf(request.getParameter(KEY_VALUE)); if(json.equals("null")){ log.info("Received null value."); response.setStatus(406); return null; } And this code always falls into the null parameter code and returns a 406. I'm sure I'm missing something simple, but can't see what it is.

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Another C datatypes question

- by b-gen-jack-o-neill

Hello. Well, I completely get the most basic datatypes of C, like short, int, long, float, to be exact, all numerical types.These types are needed to be known perform right operations with right numbers. For example to use FPU to add two float numbers. So the compiler must know what the type is. But, when it comes to characters I am little bit off. I know that basic C datatype char is there for ASCII characters coding. But what I don´t know is, why you even need another datatype for characters. Why could not you just use 1 byte integer value to store ASCII character. If you call printf, you apecify the datatype in the call, so you could say to printf that the integer represents ASCII character. I dont know how cout resolves datatype, but I guess you could just specify it somehow. Another thing is, when you want to use Unicode, you must use datatype wchar. But, what if I would like to use some another, for example ISO, or Windows coding instead of UTF? Becouse wchar codes characters as UTF-16 or UTF-32 (I read its compiler specific). And, what if I would want to use for example some imaginary new 8 byte text coding? What datatype should I use for it? I am actually pretty confused of this, becouse I always expected that if I want to use UTF-32 instead of ASCII, I just tell compiler "get UTF-32 value of the character I typed and save it into 4 char field." I thought that text coding is to be dealt with by the end, print function for example. That I just need to specify the coding for the compiler to use, since Windows doesent use ASCII in win32 apps, I guess C compiler must convert the char I typed to ASCII from whatever the type is that windows sends to the C editor. And the last thing is, what if I want to use for example 25 Byte integer for some high math operations? C has no specify-yourself datatype. Yes, I know that this would be difficult since all the math operations would need to be changed, becouse CPU can not add 25 Bytes numbers together. But is there a way to do it? Or is there some math library for it? What if I want to compute Pi to 1000000000000000 digits? :) I know my question is pretty long, but I just wanted to explain my thoughts the best I can in English, since its not my native language it is difficult. And I believe there is simple answer to my question(s), something I missed that explains everything. I read lot about text coding, C tutorials, but nothing about his. Thank you for your time.

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Override Linq-to-Sql Datetime.ToString() Default Convert Values

- by snmcdonald

Is it possible to override the default CONVERT style? I would like the default CONVERT function to always return ISO8601 style 126. Steps To Reproduce: DROP TABLE DATES; CREATE TABLE DATES ( ID INT IDENTITY(1,1) PRIMARY KEY, MYDATE DATETIME DEFAULT(GETUTCDATE()) ); INSERT INTO DATES DEFAULT VALUES; INSERT INTO DATES DEFAULT VALUES; INSERT INTO DATES DEFAULT VALUES; INSERT INTO DATES DEFAULT VALUES; SELECT CONVERT(NVARCHAR,MYDATE) AS CONVERTED, CONVERT(NVARCHAR(4000),MYDATE,126) AS ISO, MYDATE FROM DATES WHERE MYDATE LIKE'Feb%' Output: CONVERTED ISO MYDATE --------------------------- ---------------------------- ----------------------- Feb 8 2011 12:17AM 2011-02-08T00:17:03.040 2011-02-08 00:17:03.040 Feb 8 2011 12:17AM 2011-02-08T00:17:03.040 2011-02-08 00:17:03.040 Feb 8 2011 12:17AM 2011-02-08T00:17:03.040 2011-02-08 00:17:03.040 Feb 8 2011 12:17AM 2011-02-08T00:17:03.040 2011-02-08 00:17:03.040 Linq-to-Sql calls CONVERT(NVARCHAR,@p) when I cast ToString(). However, I am displaying all my data in the ISO8601 format. I would like to override the database default if possible to CONVERT(NVARCHAR,@p,126). I am using Dynamic Linq-to-Sql as demoed by ScottGu to process my data. PropertyInfo piField = typeof(T).GetProperty(rule.field); if (piField != null) { Type typeField = piField.PropertyType; if (typeField.IsGenericType && typeField.GetGenericTypeDefinition().Equals(typeof(Nullable<>))) { filter = filter .Select(x => x) .Where(string.Format("{0} != null", rule.field)) .Where(string.Format("{0}.Value.ToString().Contains(\"{1}\")", rule.field, rule.data)); } else { filter = filter .Select(x => x) .Where(string.Format("{0} != null", rule.field)) .Where(string.Format("{0}.ToString().Contains(\"{1}\")", rule.field, rule.data)); } } I was hoping my property would convert the expression from CONVERT(NVARCHAR,@p) to CONVERT(NVARCHAR,@p,126), however I get a NotSupportedException: ... has no supported translation to SQL. public string IsoDate { get { if (SUBMIT_DATE.HasValue) { return SUBMIT_DATE.Value.ToString("o"); } else { return string.Empty; } } }

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javascript DOM how to know what node is?

- by Fernando SBS

here is the source code: <table id="movements" cellpadding="1" cellspacing="1"><thead><tr><th colspan="3">Movimentações de tropas:</th></tr></thead><tbody><tr> <td class="typ"><a href="build.php?gid=16"><img src="img/x.gif" class="att1" alt="Tropas atacantes chegando" title="Tropas atacantes chegando" /></a><span class="a1">»</span></td> <td><div class="mov"><span class="a1">1 Ataque</span></div><div class="dur_r">em <span id="timer1">13:21:06</span> hrs.</div></div></td></tr><tr> <td class="typ"><a href="build.php?gid=16"><img src="img/x.gif" class="def1" alt="Tropas de reforço chegando" title="Tropas de reforço chegando" /></a><span class="d1">»</span></td> <td><div class="mov"><span class="d1">1 Reforço</span></div><div class="dur_r">em <span id="timer2">0:14:55</span> hrs.</div></div></td></tr><tr> <td class="typ"><a href="build.php?gid=16"><img src="img/x.gif" class="att2" alt="Próprias tropas atacando" title="Próprias tropas atacando" /></a><span class="a2">«</span></td> <td><div class="mov"><span class="a2">1 Ataque</span></div><div class="dur_r">em <span id="timer3">0:08:50</span> hrs.</div></div></td></tr><tr> <td class="typ"><a href="build.php?gid=16"><img src="img/x.gif" class="def2" alt="Próprias tropas reforçando" title="Próprias tropas reforçando" /></a><span class="d2">«</span></td> <td><div class="mov"><span class="d2">1 Reforço</span></div><div class="dur_r">em <span id="timer4">2:50:45</span> hrs.</div></div></td></tr></tbody></table> and this is the View Source Chart of the document html (for easy DOM working): I would like to get to the 0:14:55 value coming from <span class="d1">, how to do it? EDIT Marcel Korpel: The value is always in the span in a div coming directly after a div containing a span with class d1, like: <div class="mov"><span class="d1">1 Reforço</span></div><div class="dur_r">em <span id="timer2">0:14:55</span> hrs.</div>

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(resolved) empty response body in ajax (or 206 Partial Content)

- by Nikita Rybak

Hi guys, I'm feeling completely stupid because I've spent two hours solving task which should be very simple and which I solved many times before. But now I'm not even sure in which direction to dig. I fail to fetch static content using ajax from local servers (Apache and Mongrel). I get responses 200 and 206 (depending on the server), empty response text (although Content-Length header is always correct), firebug shows request in red. Javascript is very generic, I'm getting same results even here: http://www.w3schools.com/ajax/tryit.asp?filename=tryajax_first (just change document location to 'http://localhost:3000/whatever') So, it's probably not the cause. Well, now I'm out of ideas. I can also post http headers, if it'll help. Thanks! Response Headers Connection close Date Sat, 01 May 2010 21:05:23 GMT Last-Modified Sun, 18 Apr 2010 19:33:26 GMT Content-Type text/html Content-Length 7466 Request Headers Host localhost:3000 User-Agent Mozilla/5.0 (Macintosh; U; Intel Mac OS X 10.6; en-US; rv:1.9.2.3) Gecko/20100401 Firefox/3.6.3 Accept text/html,application/xhtml+xml,application/xml;q=0.9,*/*;q=0.8 Accept-Language en-us,en;q=0.5 Accept-Encoding gzip,deflate Accept-Charset ISO-8859-1,utf-8;q=0.7,*;q=0.7 Keep-Alive 115 Connection keep-alive Referer http://www.w3schools.com/ajax/tryit_view.asp Origin http://www.w3schools.com Response Headers Date Sat, 01 May 2010 21:54:59 GMT Server Apache/2.2.14 (Unix) mod_ssl/2.2.14 OpenSSL/0.9.8l DAV/2 mod_jk/1.2.28 Etag "3d5cbdb-fb4-4819c460d4a40" Accept-Ranges bytes Content-Length 4020 Cache-Control max-age=7200, public, proxy-revalidate Expires Sat, 01 May 2010 23:54:59 GMT Content-Range bytes 0-4019/4020 Keep-Alive timeout=5, max=100 Connection Keep-Alive Content-Type application/javascript Request Headers Host localhost User-Agent Mozilla/5.0 (Macintosh; U; Intel Mac OS X 10.6; en-US; rv:1.9.2.3) Gecko/20100401 Firefox/3.6.3 Accept text/html,application/xhtml+xml,application/xml;q=0.9,*/*;q=0.8 Accept-Language en-us,en;q=0.5 Accept-Encoding gzip,deflate Accept-Charset ISO-8859-1,utf-8;q=0.7,*;q=0.7 Keep-Alive 115 Connection keep-alive Origin null UPDATED: I've found a problem, it was about cross-domain requests. I knew that there are restrictions, but thought they're relaxed for local filesystem and local servers. (and expected more descriptive error message, anyway) Thanks everybody!

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JPA entity design / cannot delete entity

- by timaschew

I though its simple what I want, but I cannot find any solution for my problem. I'm using playframework 1.2.3 and it's using Hibernate as JPA. So I think playframework has nothing to do with the problem. I have some classes (I omit the nonrelevant fields) public class User { ... } public class Task { public DataContainer dataContainer; } public class DataContainer { public Session session; public User user; } public class Session { ... } So I have association from Task to DataContainer and from DataContainer to Sesssion and the DataContainer belongs to a User. The DataContainers can have always the same User, but the Session have to be different for each instance. And the DataContainer of a Task have also to be different in each instance. A DataContainer can have a Sesesion or not (it's optinal). I use only unidirectional assoc. It should be sufficient. In other words: Every Task must has one DataContainer. Every DataContainer must has one/the same User and can have one Session. To create a DB schema I use JPA annotations: @Entity public class User extends Model { ... } @Entity public class Task extends Model { @OneToOne(optional = false, cascade = CascadeType.ALL) public DataContainer dataContainer; } @Entity public class DataContainer extends Model { @OneToOne(optional = true, cascade = CascadeType.ALL) public Session session; @ManyToOne(optional = false, cascade = CascadeType.ALL) public User user; } @Entity public class Session extends Model { ... } BTW: Model is a play class and provides the primary id as long type. When I create some for each entity a object and 'connect them', I mean the associations, it works fine. But when I try to delete a Session, I get a constraint violation exception, because a DataContainer still refers to the Session I want to delete. I want that the Session (field) of the DataContainer will be set to null respectively the foreign key (session_id) should be unset in the database. This will be okay, because its optional. I don't know, I think I have multiple problems. Am I using the right annotation @OneToOne ? I found on the internet some additional annotation and attributes: @JoinColumn and a mappedBy attribute for the inverse relationship. But I don't have it, because its not bidirectional. Or is a bidirectional assoc. essentially? Another try was to use @OnDelete(action = OnDeleteAction.CASCADE) the the contraint changed from NO ACTIONs when update or delete to: ADD CONSTRAINT fk4745c17e6a46a56 FOREIGN KEY (session_id) REFERENCES annotation_session (id) MATCH SIMPLE ON UPDATE NO ACTION ON DELETE CASCADE; But in this case, when I delete a session, the DataContainer and User is deleted. That's wrong for me. EDIT: I'm using postgresql 9, the jdbc stuff is included in play, my only db config is db=postgres://app:app@localhost:5432/app

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Is there any alternative to obfuscation to make it harder to get any string in javascript?

- by MarceloRamires

I use DropBox and I've had some trouble reaching to my files from other computers: I not always want to login to anything when I'm in a public computer, but I like being able to reach my stuff from wherever I am. So I've made a simple little application that when put in the public folder, ran and given the right UID, creates (still in your public folder) an HTML of all the content in the folder (including subfolders) as a tree of links. But I didn't risk loading it anywhere, since there are slightly private things in there (yes, I know that the folder's name is "PUBLIC"). So I've came up with the idea to make it a simple login page, given the right password, the rest of the page should load. brilliant!, but how? If I did this by redirecting to other HTML on the same folder, I'd still put the html link in the web history and the "url's accessed" history of the administrator. So I should generate itin the same page. I've done it. And currently the page is a textbox and a button, and only if you type in the right password (asked by the generator) the rest of the page loads. The fault is that everything (password, URL's) is easily reachable through the sourcecode. Now, assuming I only want to avoid silly people to get it all too easily, not make a bulletproof all-content-holding NSA certified website, I though about some ways to make these informations a bit harder to get. As you may have already figured, I use a streamwritter to write a .HTM file (head, loop through links, bottom), then it's extremely configurable, and I can come up with a pretty messy-but-working c# code, though my javascript knowledge is not that good. Public links in DropBox look like this: http://dl.dropbox.com/u/3045472/img.png Summarizing: How do I hide stuff (MAINLY the password, of course) in my source-code so that no bumb-a-joe that can read, use a computer and press CTRL+U can reach to my stuff too easily ? PS.: It's not that personal, if someone REALLY wants it, it could never be 100% protected, and if it was that important, I wouldnt put it in the public folder, also, if the dude really wants to get it that hard, he should deserve it. PS2.: "Use the ultra-3000'tron obfuscator!!11" is not a real answer, since my javascript is GENERATED by my c# program. PS3.: I don't want other solutions as "use a serverside application and host it somewhere to redirect and bla bla" or "compress the links in a .RAR file and put a password in it" since I'm doing this ALSO to learn, and I want the thrill of it =)

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feeling insufficient while looking for a programming job ...

- by user325661

Hello everybody It's really dream to be programmer for me.So i always wanted to be .I had so small knowledges from commodore basic which i couldn't figure out anything in it .Then i tried to learn Visual basic 6 by myself and result wasn't good as i expected because i even didn't understand classes.Then i left to learning programming and to dream to be programmer. But challenge hadn't finished yet . After all of these i started to learn c# and i did chess engine which i hadn't believe that i can create one.I sometimes feel that i understand many thing about programming like knowing classes ,inheritance,abstract class and methods why exist , interfaces ,extension methods ,static classes ,threads. but i am not expert all in it . i just know that as i need . i don't know still i will learn many thing about these.i have also learned html, css2 , php and database concepts a little sql ,tables relations between primary keys etc but i haven't used them in praticaly . i just did some samples so i feel i am lack of knowledges. As a result still i can't evaluate my skills and can't decide what is my level.I just feel myself one step ahead of junior sometimes :) . Still can't decide that it is time to job seeking. While searching job on web i have never seen a junior advertisement. All looking for a good experiencing one.Nobody care about juniors. When found job advertisement which i feel sufficient myself a little then i start to feel that i think i can't do what they want from me and loosing job after have it in short time would leave many crap feelings into my low self-confidence. Please advise me something ... Also i want to ask some of concentrate questions. 1) If i enter a job which i can't provide their expectations should be in employers responsibility to test me while apply the job ? 2) If i answer "yes , i can " questions which is abstract(for example: can u do something like this) would be my responsibility ? Because such abstract questions is not clear and can't know before start it what i really can or not . 3) i have no professional experiences in this job so i even don't know how teams working on projects but a friend of me said that programmers only write method bodies while seniors create all project.So it looks what i can do really easy but i feel that small companies doesn't work like this so it is better work in a big company for starting who has seniors? 4)last applied job was looking for c# . net developer but then i learn that they need .net web developer.Does it take long time to learn specific sides of web programming while knowing c# desktop programming ? Thanks for all answers since now.

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How to define generic super type for static factory method?

- by Esko

If this has already been asked, please link and close this one. I'm currently prototyping a design for a simplified API of a certain another API that's a lot more complex (and potentially dangerous) to use. Considering the related somewhat complex object creation I decided to use static factory methods to simplify the API and I currently have the following which works as expected: public class Glue<T> { private List<Type<T>> types; private Glue() { types = new ArrayList<Type<T>>(); } private static class Type<T> { private T value; /* some other properties, omitted for simplicity */ public Type(T value) { this.value = value; } } public static <T> Glue<T> glueFactory(String name, T first, T second) { Glue<T> g = new Glue<T>(); Type<T> firstType = new Glue.Type<T>(first); Type<T> secondType = new Glue.Type<T>(second); g.types.add(firstType); g.types.add(secondType); /* omitted complex stuff */ return g; } } As said, this works as intended. When the API user (=another developer) types Glue<Horse> strongGlue = Glue.glueFactory("2HP", new Horse(), new Horse()); he gets exactly what he wanted. What I'm missing is that how do I enforce that Horse - or whatever is put into the factory method - always implements both Serializable and Comparable? Simply adding them to factory method's signature using <T extends Comparable<T> & Serializable> doesn't necessarily enforce this rule in all cases, only when this simplified API is used. That's why I'd like to add them to the class' definition and then modify the factory method accordingly. PS: No horses (and definitely no ponies!) were harmed in writing of this question.

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