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  • Google Maps API v3 - infoWindows all have same content

    - by paulriedel
    Hello, I've been having problems with the infoWindows and Google Maps API v3. Initially, I've ran into the problem that everyone else has of closing infoWindows when opening a new one. I thought to have solved the problem by defining "infowindow" beforehand. Now they close when I click on a new marker, but the content is the same. How should I re-structure my code to make sure the content is the right one each time - and only one infoWindow is open at a given time? Thank you! Paul var allLatLngs = new Array(); var last = 0; var infowindow; function displayResults(start, count){ if(start === undefined){ start = last; } if(count === undefined){ count = 20; } jQuery.each(jsresults, function(index, value) { if(index >= start && index < start+count){ var obj = jQuery.parseJSON(value); $("#textresults").append(index + ": <strong>" + obj.name + "</strong> " + Math.round(obj.distanz*100)/100 + " km entfernt" + "<br/>"); var myLatlng = new google.maps.LatLng(obj.geo_lat, obj.geo_lon); allLatLngs.push(myLatlng); var contentString = '<strong>'+obj.name+'</strong>'; infowindow = new google.maps.InfoWindow({ content: contentString }); var marker = new google.maps.Marker({ position: myLatlng, //title:"Hello World!" }); marker.setMap(map); google.maps.event.addListener(marker, 'click', function() { if (infowindow) { infowindow.close(map,marker); } infowindow.open(map,marker); }); } }); last = start+count;

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  • Best way to migrate export/import from SQL Server to oracle

    - by matao
    Hi guys! I'm faced with needing access for reporting to some data that lives in Oracle and other data that lives in a SQL Server 2000 database. For various reasons these live on different sides of a firewall. Now we're looking at doing an export/import from sql server to oracle and I'd like some advice on the best way to go about it... The procedure will need to be fully automated and run nightly, so that excludes using the SQL developer tools. I also can't make a live link between databases from our (oracle) side as the firewall is in the way. The data needs to be transformed in the process from a star schema to a de-normalised table ready for reporting. What I'm thinking about is writing a monster query for SQL Server (which I mostly have already) that will denormalise and read out the data from SQL Server into a flat file using the sql server equivalent of sqlplus as a scheduled task, dump into a Well Known Location, then on the oracle side have a cron job that copies down the file and loads it with sql loader and rebuilds indexes etc. This is all doable, but very manual. Is there one or a combination of FOSS or standard oracle/SQL Server tools that could automate this for me? the Irreducible complexity is the query on one side and building indexes on the other, but I would love to not have to write the CSV dumping detail or the SQL loader script, just say dump this view out to CSV on one side, and on the other truncate and insert into this table from CSV and not worry about mapping column names and all other arcane sqlldr voodoo... best practices? thoughts? comments? edit: I have about 50+ columns all of varying types and lengths in my dataset, which is why I'd prefer to not have to write out how to generate and map each single column...

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  • How do I handle the messages for a simple web-based live chat, on the server side?

    - by Carson Myers
    I'm building a simple live chat into a web application running on Django, but one thing I'm confused about is how I should store the messages between users. The chat will support multiple users, and a chat "session" is composed of users connected to one user that is the "host." The application is a sort of online document collaboration thing, so user X has a document, and users Y and Z would connect to user X to talk about the document, and that would be one chat session. If user Y disconnected for five minutes, and then signed back in and reconnected to user X, he should not get any of the messages shared between users X and Z while he was away. if users X, Y, and Z can have a chat session about user X's document, then users X and Y can connect to a simultaneous, but separate discussion about user Z's document. How should I handle this? Should I keep each message in the database? Each message would have an owner user and a target user (the host), and a separate table would be used to connect users with messages (which messages are visible to what users). Or should I store each session as an HTML file on the server, which messages get appended to? The problem is, I can't just send messages directly between clients. They have to be sent to the server in a POST request, and then each client has to periodically check for the messages in a GET request. Except I can't just have each message cleared after a client fetches it, because there could be multiple clients. How should I set this up? Any suggestions?

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  • SQL query to translate a list of numbers matched against several ranges, to a list of values

    - by Claes Mogren
    I need to convert a list of numbers that fall within certain ranges into a list of values, ordered by a priority column. The table has the following values: | YEAR | R_MIN | R_MAX | VAL | PRIO | ------------------------------------ 2010 18000 90100 52 6 2010 240000 240099 82 3 2010 250000 259999 50 5 2010 260000 260010 92 1 2010 330000 330010 73 4 2010 330011 370020 50 5 2010 380000 380050 84 2 The ranges will be different for different years. The ranges within one year will never overlap. The input will be a year and a list of numbers that might fall within one these ranges. The list of input number will be small, 1 to 10 numbers. Example of input numbers: (20000, 240004, 375000, 255000) With that input I would like to get a list ordered by the priority column, or a single value: 82 50 52 The only value I'm interested in here is 82, so UNIQUE and MAX_RESULTS=1 would do. It can easily be done with one query per number, and then sorting it in the Java code, but I would prefer to do it in a single SQL query. What SQL query, to be run in an Oracle database, would give me the desired result?

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  • Progressively stream the output of an ASP.NET page - or render a page outside of an HTTP request

    - by Evgeny
    I have an ASP.NET 2.0 page with many repeating blocks, including a third-party server-side control (so it's not just plain HTML). Each is quite expensive to generate, in terms of both CPU and RAM. I'm currently using a standard Repeater control for this. There are two problems with this simple approach: The entire page must be rendered before any of it is returned to the client, so the user must wait a long time before they see any data. (I write progress messages using Response.Write, so there is feedback, but no actual results.) The ASP.NET worker process must hold everything in memory at the same time. There is no inherent needs for this: once one block is processed it won't be changed, so it could be returned to the client and the memory could be freed. I would like to somehow return these blocks to the client one at a time, as each is generated. I'm thinking of extracting the stuff inside the Repeater into a separate page and getting it repeatedly using AJAX, but there are some complications involved in that and I wonder if there is some simper approach. Ideally I'd like to keep it as one page (from the client's point of view), but return it incrementally. Another way would be to do something similar, but on the server: still create a separate page, but have the server access it and then Response.Write() the HTML it gets to the response stream for the real client request. Is there a way to avoid an HTTP request here, though? Is there some ASP.NET method that would render a UserControl or a Page outside of an HTTP request and simply return the HTML to me as a string? I'm open to other ideas on how to do this as well.

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  • [IceFaces] Why are validators of unchanged components called?

    - by bitschnau
    I have a IceFaces-form and several input fields. Let's say I have this: <ice:selectOneMenu id="accountMenu" value="#{accountController.account.aId}" validator="#{accountController.validateAccount}"> <f:selectItems id="accountItems" value="#{accountController.accountItems}" /> </ice:selectOneMenu> and this: <ice:selectOneMenu id="costumerMenu" value="#{customerController.customer.cId}" validator="#{customerController.validateCustomer"> <f:selectItems id="customerItems" value="#{customerController.customerItems}" /> </ice:selectOneMenu> If I change one value, the respective validator is called, what is fine. But also the other validator is called, which is not fine, because the user get's an irritating message to insert a value to a field he maybe was just going to pay attention to. It's like poking the user with a stick to "Hurry up now!". BAD! I thought the attribute "partialSubmit" is controlling this behaviour, so only the one DOM-part is submitted, which is affected by the user interaction, but if I declare the both components to be partially submitted, nothing changes. Still both validators are called if one component value is changed. How can I prevent the whole form from being validated until it is submitted completely?

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  • testng multiple suites

    - by Eli
    Hi people. my problem is as follows: i am testing a web-ui using selenium and testng. i have a test suite with many test classes in it. i have a method with the @BeforeSuite witch also has a @Parameters annotation, this method recieves as a parameter the browser in witch the selenium will test by run,executing the lines: selenium = new DefaultSelenium("localhost", 4444, **browser**, "http://localhost:8099"); selenium.start(); the xml im using to run the test suite is: <suite name="suite"> <parameter name = "browser" value = "*firefox"/> <test name="allTests"> <classes> <class name="test.webui.MemcachedDeploymentTest" /> </classes> </test> </suite> this works fine and the test runs in firefox. my problem is that i would like to somehow run this suite again, immediatly after the first run finishes, but this time with chrome as the browser. i now have 2 xml suites, one with chrome and one with firefox, is there any way to run these test suites one after the other automatically? maybe using a third xml? Thanks in advance

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  • Problem logging in and changing permissions in Facebook

    - by kujawk
    Hi everybody, I've got a piece of code that logs into Facebook, gets a session, sets status_update and offline_access permission if they are not set, and gets a new session with the newly set permissions. This code used to work fine but now I'm getting error 100 "One of the parameters specified was missing or invalid" as a response to the second call to get session and I can't figure out why. Here's the sequence in detail: CREATE TOKEN restserver.php?method=auth.createToken&api_key=[our key]&v=1.0&format=JSON&sig=[sig created with our secret] response: new token LOGIN m.facebook.com/login.php?api_key=[our key]&v=1.0&auth_token=[token created above] login screen loads and user successfully logs in with their username/password. GET SESSION restserver.php?method=auth.getSession&api_key=[our key]&v=1.0&format=JSON&auth_token=token created above&sig=[sig created with our secret] response: session key with expiration date and a secret CHECK/AUTHORIZE PERMISSIONS restserver.php?method=users.hasAppPermission&api_key=[our key]&v=1.0&format=JSON&ext_perm=status_update&call_id=[proper id]&session_key=[key returned above]&sig=[sig created with secret returned for get session] response: 0 m.facebook.com/authorize.php?api_key=[our key]&v=1.0&ext_perm=status_update authorization screen loads and user authorizes Same steps for status_update CREATE NEW TOKEN Same steps as done to create the first token LOGIN m.facebook.com/login.php?api_key=[our key]&v=1.0&auth_token=[new token] user is already logged in, redirected to their homepage GET NEW SESSION restserver.php?method=auth.getSession&api_key=[our key]&format=JSON&auth_token=[new token]&sig=[sig created with our secret] response: error 100 - missing or invalid parameter. Of course it doesn't tell me which one. Anybody have any ideas what I'm doing wrong here? I tried skipping the second login and going right to creating the new session and that didn't work. The only thing that seems to work is logging out the user after they've authorized the permissions and having them log back in again. I'd like to avoid this if possible. Can you have two outstanding sessions at one time? This code used to work but I'm thinking maybe something changed on Facebook's end that I'm not aware of. Thanks, kris

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  • Should uni provide "correct answer" after programming assignment is due?

    - by Michael Mao
    Hi all: This is my very first subjective question. And I think it is programming related - the assignment is to be written in a programming language. I am not for "getting the full marks out of a subject". I am actually not for a "correct answer", but for a "better solution", so that I can compare, and can improve. I reckon it is good that I practice programming first and check the solution later to pick up the things I've done wrong/bad. Without a "benchmark" to against, this would be much harder. Unfortunately as far as I know, not all programming subjects taught in uni would kindly provide the students with a "correct answer" in the end, after the assignment is due. One bad metaphor for this is like someone asks you a question which they don't have a clear answer themselves and hope to take advantage of your answer as the basis for their answer. Personally, I feel having a assignment solution provided by the academic staff is essential to students. I do appreciate this, and I feel I might not be the only one. I am a very proactive student in uni. I learn more, I practice more, an assignment for me is more like a challenge to achieve "the best solution I can come up with", not something "I have to pass"... The cause of this question is that for the past few days I have crafted 500+ lines of Perl code, for a tiny assignment. I feel pain when I look at my solution(not finished yet) and I feel like I am an idiot doing some crap code. I know there must be a much better solution. And I reckon it is better for the lecturer in this subject to get me one, rather than asking for an answer here, even I would shamelessly add the link to my solution apart from the assignment requirements. I know in SO, there are a lot of tutors/lecturers for programming subjects/courses. I'd like to hear your words on this question.

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  • Why does Ruby have Rails while Python has no central framework?

    - by yar
    This is a(n) historical question, not a comparison-between-languages question: This article from 2005 talks about the lack of a single, central framework for Python. For Ruby, this framework is clearly Rails. Why, historically speaking, did this happen for Ruby but not for Python? (or did it happen, and that framework is Django?) Also, the hypothetical questions: would Python be more popular if it had one, good framework? Would Ruby be less popular if it had no central framework? [Please avoid discussions of whether Ruby or Python is better, which is just too open-ended to answer.] Edit: Though I thought this is obvious, I'm not saying that other frameworks do not exist for Ruby, but rather that the big one in terms of popularity is Rails. Also, I should mention that I'm not saying that frameworks for Python are not as good (or better than) Rails. Every framework has its pros and cons, but Rails seems to, as Ben Blank says in the one of the comments below, have surpassed Ruby in terms of popularity. There are no examples of that on the Python side. WHY? That's the question.

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  • Run arbitrary subprocesses on Windows and still terminate cleanly?

    - by Weeble
    I have an application A that I would like to be able to invoke arbitrary other processes as specified by a user in a configuration file. Batch script B is one such process a user would like to be invoked by A. B sets up some environment variables, shows some messages and invokes a compiler C to do some work. Does Windows provide a standard way for arbitrary processes to be terminated cleanly? Suppose A is run in a console and receives a CTRL+C. Can it pass this on to B and C? Suppose A runs in a window and the user tries to close the window, can it cancel B and C? TerminateProcess is an option, but not a very good one. If A uses TerminateProcess on B, C keeps running. This could cause nasty problems if C is long-running, since we might start another instance of C to operate on the same files while the first instance of C is still secretly at work. In addition, TerminateProcess doesn't result in a clean exit. GenerateConsoleCtrlEvent sounds nice, and might work when everything's running in a console, but the documentation says that you can only send CTRL+C to your own console, and so wouldn't help if A were running in a window. Is there any equivalent to SIGINT on Windows? I would love to find an article like this one: http://www.cons.org/cracauer/sigint.html for Windows.

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  • jquery selecting all elements except the last per group

    - by Anthony
    I have a table that looks like: <table> <tr> <td>one</td><td>two</td><td>three</td><td>last</td> </tr> <tr> <td>blue</td><td>red</td><td>green</td><td>last</td> </tr> <tr> <td>Monday</td><td>Tuesday</td><td>Wednesday</td><td>last</td> </tr> </table> What I want is a jquery selector that will choose all but the last td of each table row. I tried: $("tr td:not(:last)").css("background-color","red"); //changing color just as a test... But instead of all cells but the last on each row being changed, all cells but the very last one in the table are selected. Similarly, if I change it to: $("tr td:last").css("background-color","red"); the only one that changes is the very last cell. How do I choose the last (or not last) of each row?

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  • Developer friendly open-source license?

    - by Francisco Garcia
    As a software engineer/programmer myself, I love the possibility to download the code and learn from it. However building software is what brings food to my table. I have doubts regarding the type of license I should use for my own personal projects or when picking up one project to learn from. There are already many questions about licenses on Stackoverflow, but I would like to make this one much more specific. If your main profession and way of living is building software, which type of license do you find more useful for you? And I mean, the license that can benefit you most as a professional because it gives you more freedom to reuse the experience you gain. GPL is a great license to build communities because it forces you to give back your work. However I like BSD licenses because of their extra freedom. I know that if the code I am exploring is BSD licensed, I might be able to expand not only my skills, but also my programmer toolbox. Whenever I am working for a company, I might recall that something similar was done in another project and I will be able to copy or imitate certain part of the code. I know that there are religious wars regarding GPL vs BSD and it is not my intention to start one. Probably many companies already take snipsets from GPL projects anyway. I just want to insist in the factor of professional enrichment. I do not intend to discriminate any license. I said I prefer BSD licenses but I also use Linux because the user base is bigger and also the market demand.

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  • Sql Server Replication: Snapshot vs Merge

    - by Zyphrax
    Background information Let's say I have two database servers, both SQL Server 2008. One is in my LAN (ServerLocal), the other one is on a remote hosting environment (ServerRemote). I have created a database on ServerLocal and have an exact copy of that database on ServerRemote. The database on ServerRemote is part of a web application and I would like to keep it's data up-to-date with the data in the database ServerLocal. ServerLocal is able to communicate with ServerRemote, this is one-way traffic. Communication from ServerRemote to ServerLocal isn't available. Current solution I thought it would be a nice solution to use replication. So I've made ServerLocal a publisher and subscriptions are pushed to the ServerRemote. This works fine, when a snapshot is transfered to ServerRemote the existing data will be purged and the ServerRemote database is once again an exact replica of the database on ServerLocal. The problem Records that exist on ServerRemote that don't exist on ServerLocal are removed. This doesn't matter for most of my tables but in some of my tables I'd like to keep the existing data (aspnet_users for instance), and update the records if necessary. What kind of replication fits my problem?

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  • jquery draggable/droppable issue

    - by Scarface
    Hey guys I have a drag and drop function that does not fully work. What I want to do is be able to drag and drop a picture into a div and have that picture pop up in the div. I have a list of 2 pictures right now, so I have the following function echoed for each picture. Both pictures are draggable and droppable, but the first one is the only one that appears in the div, regardless of which picture gets dragged in. I am not sure what is wrong because the jquery function seems to be unique to each picture. If any one has any suggestions I would appreciate it greatly. while ($row = mysql_fetch_assoc($query)) { $image=htmlentities($row['image']); //image name $uniqid=uniqid(); //unique id for jquery functions $dirname = "usercontent/$user/images/$image"; echo "<img id=\"$uniqid\" src=\"$dirname\" width=\"75\" height=\"75\"/>"; echo "<script> $(function() { $(\"#$uniqid\").draggable({ scroll: true, scrollSensitivity: 10, scrollSpeed: 10, revert: true, helper: 'clone', cursorAt: { cursor: 'move', top: 27, left: 27 } }); $(\"#droppable2, #droppable-background , #droppable2-innerer\").droppable({ greedy: true, activeClass: 'ui-state-hover', hoverClass: 'ui-state-active', drop: function(event, ui) { $(this).addClass('ui-state-highlight').find('> p').html('Dropped!'); $('#droppable-background').css(\"background-image\",\"url($dirname)\"); } }); }); </script>"; }

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  • Installing a group of .deb files in Ubuntu

    - by p00ya
    Hi. I have a directory of .deb files which I copied from the cache folder of apt. There are many applications and Ubuntu updates among them. but there's no dependency failure because they were all downloaded by 'add/remove applications' and 'update manager' automatically. Now I have installed the same version of Ubuntu (9.04) and I want to install those apps and updates again(though they are not new versions). In other words, I want to make this fresh Ubuntu install exactly like the old one but without downloading any thing and using only those .deb files that I copied. All I have is an archive folder containing the .deb files and a 'pkgcache.bin' file. I know I can double-click the .deb files and install them manually but then I have to find out and follow the dependencies one by one from the installer errors. I have also tried adding an offline repository but it didn't work. I think because all of my .deb's are in on folder, and there is no separate 'main', 'restricted', ... folder?! Is there a way to do all of this automatically? thanks

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  • ReflectionTypeLoadException when I try to run Enable-Migrations with Entity Framework 5.0

    - by Eric Anastas
    I'm trying to use Entity Framework for the first time on one of my projects. I'm using the code first workflow to automatically create my database. Intitaly setting up the database worked fine. Now I'm trying to migrate changes in my classes into the database. The tutorial I'm reading says I need to run "Enable-Migrations" in the package manager console. Yet when I do this I get the following error PM> Enable-Migrations System.Reflection.ReflectionTypeLoadException: Unable to load one or more of the requested types. Retrieve the LoaderExceptions property for more information. at System.Reflection.RuntimeModule.GetTypes(RuntimeModule module) at System.Reflection.RuntimeModule.GetTypes() at System.Reflection.Assembly.GetTypes() at System.Data.Entity.Migrations.Design.ToolingFacade.BaseRunner.FindType[TBase](String typeName, Func`2 filter, Func`2 noType, Func`3 multipleTypes, Func`3 noTypeWithName, Func`3 multipleTypesWithName) at System.Data.Entity.Migrations.Design.ToolingFacade.GetContextTypeRunner.RunCore() at System.Data.Entity.Migrations.Design.ToolingFacade.BaseRunner.Run() Unable to load one or more of the requested types. Retrieve the LoaderExceptions property for more information. What am I doing wrong? How do I retrieve the loader exceptions property? Also NuGet says I have EF 5.0, but Version property of the EntityFramework item in my project references says 4.4.0.0. I'm not sure if this is related.

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  • how do you authenticate a user between two services, if they are both using a common third-party oauth service?

    - by urandom
    I'm currently experimenting with oauth logins on a website, using google oauth2. While I set that up without too many problems, I saw that there isn't some kind of permanent token, which only google and the authorized service know about a user. Also, from what I gathered, if I were to create a companion app on android, the preferred way is to go with AccountManager, which seems to handle giving oauth2 access tokens for google accounts. But if I authenticate myself from the anroid app using a google account, how do I now link that user to the same one in the web app? One way I think this can be done if the user also logs into the web app as well, so that the server receives a fresh access token, and the android and web one are compared. But that seems like a huge hassle, and I haven't seen many other apps do that. Another is to use a refresh token on the server, but that would require extra permissions which might put off any potential visitors. So what is the general workflow for achieving this? Or am I thinking the wrong way?

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  • Fluent NHibernate AutoMap

    - by Markus
    Hi. I have a qouestion regarding the AutoMap xml generation. I have two classes: public class User { virtual public Guid Id { get; private set; } virtual public String Name { get; set; } virtual public String Email { get; set; } virtual public String Password { get; set; } virtual public IList<OpenID> OpenIDs { get; set; } } public class OpenID { virtual public Guid Id { get; private set; } virtual public String Provider { get; set; } virtual public String Ticket { get; set; } virtual public User User { get; set; } } The generated sequences of xml files are: For User class: <bag name="OpenIDs"> <key> <column name="User_Id" /> </key> <one-to-many class="BL_DAL.Entities.OpenID, BL_DAL, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null" /> </bag> For OpenID class: <many-to-one class="BL_DAL.Entities.User, BL_DAL, Version=1.0.0.0, Culture=neutral, PublicKeyToken=null" name="User"> <column name="User_id" /> </many-to-one> I don't see the inverse=true attribute for the User mapping. Is it a normal behavior, or I made a mistake somewhere?

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  • Is there a way to automatically load navigational property using the .NET Entity Framework?

    - by René Wolferink
    Stepping away more and more from writing SQL for my applications, I decided to give the Entity Framework a try. However, I've run into something I believe is causing me to write more code than I think is strictly necessary. When I accessed some navigational properties, I discovered that all many-to-one relations (simple references) were null and all one-to-many and many-to-many relations (EntityCollections) were empty. For example: I have a User with a reference to a Group. When I have retieved a User, by using a simple select-by-id, the Group property is null. If I want to access the Group I have to manually load it (using User.GroupReference.Load()). So I added a GetGroup() method in User which checks whether the Group is loaded already and, if not, does so and then returns the Group. Now this will result in a lot of highly similar methods for all navigational properties. And it all results in the navigational properties not being used, only my custom-made Get"PropertyName"() method's are now being used. I don't want to expand my queries (linq to entities) to immediately load all these properties, because it's not always known at first what is needed. And besides, it would cause a lot of queries to have to be made. Is there a way to configure the Entity Framework to load these objects when they happen to not be present? So when I access User.Group and the group is not loaded yet, it is loaded automatically? Or am I stuck using my own Get"PropertyName"() method's as long as I'm trying to load objects only on demand (or "just-in-time")? Some extra info: I'm using VS2008 SP1 with .NET 3.5 SP1. The Entity Framework I'm using is the one that got shipped with it.

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  • SQL Binary Microsoft Access - Combining two tables if specific field values are equal

    - by Jordan
    I am new to Microsoft Access and SQL but have a decent programming background and I believe this problem should be relatively simple. I have two tables that I have imported into Access. I will give you a little context. One table is huge and contains generic, global data. The other table is still big but contains specific, regional data. There is only one common field (or column) between the two tables. Let’s call this common field CF. The other fields in both tables are different. I’ll take you through one iteration of what I need to do. I need to take each CF value in the regional, smaller table and find the common CF value in the larger, global table. After finding the match, I need to take the whole “record” or “row” from the global data and copy it over to the corresponding record in the smaller regional table (This should involve creating the new fields). I need to do this for all CF values in the regional, smaller table. I was recommended to use SQL and a binary search, but I am unfamiliar. Let me know if you have any questions. I appreciate the help!

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  • Partial class or "chained inheritance"

    - by Charlie boy
    Hi From my understanding partial classes are a bit frowned upon by professional developers, but I've come over a bit of an issue; I have made an implementation of the RichTextBox control that uses user32.dll calls for faster editing of large texts. That results in quite a bit of code. Then I added spellchecking capabilities to the control, this was made in another class inheriting RichTextBox control as well. That also makes up a bit of code. These two functionalities are quite separate but I would like them to be merged so that I can drop one control on my form that has both fast editing capabilities and spellchecking built in. I feel that simply adding the code form one class to the other would result in a too large code file, especially since there are two very distinct areas of functionality, so I seem to need another approach. Now to my question; To merge these two classes should I make the spellchecking RichTextBox inherit from the fast edit one, that in turn inherits RichTextBox? Or should I make the two classes partials of a single class and thus making them more “equal” so to speak? This is more of a question of OO principles and exercise on my part than me trying to reinvent the wheel, I know there are plenty of good text editing controls out there. But this is just a hobby for me and I just want to know how this kind of solution would be managed by a professional. Thanks!

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  • NSNotification vs. Delegate Protocols?

    - by jr
    I have an iPhone application which basically is getting information from an API (in XML, but maybe JSON eventually). The result objects are typically displayed in view controllers (tables mainly). Here is the architecture right now. I have NSOperation classes which fetch the different objects from the remote server. Each of these NSOperation classes, will take a custom delegate method which will fire back the resulting objects as they are parsed, and then finally a method when no more results are available. So, the protocol for the delegates will be something like: (void) ObjectTypeResult:(ObjectType *)result; (void) ObjectTypeNoMoreResults; I think the solution works well, but I do end up with a bunch of delegate protocols around and then my view controllers have to implement all these delegate methods. I don't think its that bad, but I'm always on the lookout for a better design. So, I'm thinking about using NSNotifications to remove the use of the delegates. I could include the object in the userInfo part of the notification and just post objects as received, and then a final event when no more are available. Then I could just have one method in each view controller to receive all the data, even when using multiple objects in one controller.† So, can someone share with me some pros/cons of each approach. Should I consider refactoring my code to use Events rather then the delegates? Is one better then the other in certain situations? In my scenario I'm really not looking to receive notifications in multiple places, so maybe the protocol based delegates are the way to go. Thanks!

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  • Negative number representation across multiple architechture

    - by Donotalo
    I'm working with OKI 431 micro controller. It can communicate with PC with appropriate software installed. An EEPROM is connected in the I2C bus of the micro which works as permanent memory. The PC software can read from and write to this EEPROM. Consider two numbers, B and C, each is two byte integer. B is known to both the PC software and the micro and is a constant. C will be a number so close to B such that B-C will fit in a signed 8 bit integer. After some testing, appropriate value for C will be determined by PC and will be stored into the EEPROM of the micro for later use. Now the micro can store C in two ways: The micro can store whole two byte representing C The micro can store B-C as one byte signed integer, and can later derive C from B and B-C I think that two's complement representation of negative number is now universally accepted by hardware manufacturers. Still I personally don't like negative numbers to be stored in a storage medium which will be accessed by two different architectures because negative number can be represented in different ways. For you information, 431 also uses two's complement. Should I get rid of the headache that negative number can be represented in different ways and accept the one byte solution as my other team member suggested? Or should I stick to the decision of the two byte solution because I don't need to deal with negative numbers? Which one would you prefer and why?

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  • Checkboxes in ADF are initially null, where I want them to be 0

    - by Mark Tielemans
    I am using ADF in JDeveloper and don´t have any experience with either of the two. Now I´ve run into quite some trouble yet, but for this particular thing I decided to consult the wisom of stackoverflow. The thing is, I have an edit form for an object that contains 3 checkboxes. The checked values are set to 1, unchecked to 0. In my database, the values are NOT NULL, and I want to keep it that way. The thing is, in the edit form, if the user submits the form leaving any boxes unchecked, it will result in an error, because the unchecked box values apparently remain null. Only after checking and then unchecking the boxes again, their values will be '0' rather than null. I've tried some things, including making the attributes mandatory in the domain BCD, but that just gives a bit more neat error message.. Any help would be greatly appreciated!! EDIT I made a little progress thanks to the guide provided by Joe, but still run into problems. I changed the values that should be checkboxes in my model, making them BOOLEANs where the table columns are NUMBERs (All are also mandatory and have a default value of 0). This automatically changed the corresponding View Object too. In the Application module, this now works great. It shows checkboxes, a checked one will return 1, an untouched one will return 0. However, I deleted the old form, and inserted a new one using the corresponding Data Control. I gave these values the checkbox type. I still had to edit the bindings (which I think reflects the problem, as this is not the case with, say, a model-level defined LOV) and gave them 1 for checked and 0 for unchecked. However, now apart from the original problem still occurring, also the checkboxes cannot be unchecked after checking, and return 0 when checked (and null when left untouched). Even though this has created new problems, it works correctly in my AM. Does someone know what I'm doing wrong in my Swing form?

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