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  • Jquery CheckBox Selection/Deselection optimally given X checkboxes

    - by Amitd
    Hi guys, I have suppose say 'X' check-boxes(any input elements) in a Form and "M" option selection indexes ("M" less than equal to "X"). then how do i select the "M" option indexes/values and deselect the rest of check-boxes optimally? i.e.Suppose I have 10 Checkboxes and 5 Option Indices(eg: 1,2,4,5,8) then i have to select checkboxes with given index . I could come up with the following code: HTML: <div id="Options"> <input id="choice_1" type="checkbox" name="choice_1" value="Option1"><label for="choice_1">Option1</label> <input id="choice_2" type="checkbox" name="choice_2" value="Option2"><label for="choice_2">Option2</label> <input id="choice_3" type="checkbox" name="choice_3" value="Option3"><label for="choice_3">Option3</label> .. ..till choice_10 </div> IN JS: //Have to select checkboxes with "Value" in choicesToSelect and give a selection //effect to its label var choicesToSelect={"Option1","Option9","Option3","Option4","Option2"}; selectHighlightCheckBoxes(choicesToSelect); function selectHighlightCheckBoxes(choices){ $.each( choices, function(intIndex, objValue) { //select based on id or value or some criteria var option = $("#Options :input[value=" + objValue + "]") ; if ($(option).is("input[type='radio']") || $(option).is("input[type='checkbox']")) { $(option).attr('checked', true); $(option).next('label:first').css({ 'border': '1px solid #FF0000', 'background-color': '#BEF781', 'font-weight': 'bolder' }); } else if ($(option).is("input[type='text']")) { $(option).css({ 'border': '1px solid #FF0000', 'background-color': '#BEF781', 'font-weight': 'bolder' }); } else { } } ); } But i want to also add effect to the rest (not in choicesToSelect array) also. (may be red color to those not in choiceToSelect) Can this be done in the one traversal/loop? Optimally? or Better way?

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  • Can I perform some processing on the POST data before ASP.NET MVC UpdateModel happens?

    - by Domenic
    I would like to strip out non-numeric elements from the POST data before using UpdateModel to update the copy in the database. Is there a way to do this? // TODO: it appears I don't even use the parameter given at all, and all the magic // happens via UpdateModel and the "controller's current value provider"? [HttpPost] public ActionResult Index([Bind(Include="X1, X2")] Team model) // TODO: stupid magic strings { if (this.ModelState.IsValid) { TeamContainer context = new TeamContainer(); Team thisTeam = context.Teams.Single(t => t.TeamId == this.CurrentTeamId); // TODO HERE: apply StripWhitespace() to the data before using UpdateModel. // The data is currently somewhere in the "current value provider"? this.UpdateModel(thisTeam); context.SaveChanges(); this.RedirectToAction(c => c.Index()); } else { this.ModelState.AddModelError("", "Please enter two valid Xs."); } // If we got this far, something failed; redisplay the form. return this.View(model); } Sorry for the terseness, up all night working on this; hopefully my question is clear enough? Also sorry since this is kind of a newbie question that I might be able to get with a few hours of documentation-trawling, but I'm time-pressured... bleh.

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  • Rendering LaTeX on third-party websites?

    - by A. Rex
    There are some sites on the web that render LaTeX into some more readable form, such as Wikipedia, some Wordpress blogs, and MathOverflow. They may use images, MathML, jsMath, or something like that. There are other sites on the web where LaTeX appears inline and is not rendered, such as the arXiv, various math forums, or my email. In fact, it is quite common to see an arXiv paper's abstract with raw LaTeX in it, e.g. this paper. Is there a plugin available for Firefox, or would it be possible to write one, that renders LaTeX within pages that do not provide a rendering mechanism themselves? (The LaTeX would be enclosed within dollar signs, e.g. $\pi$. See the arXiv link above.) Some notes: It may be impossible to render some of the code, because authors often copy-paste code directly from their source TeX files, which may contain things like "\cite{foo}" or undefined commands. These should be left alone. This question is a repost of a question from MathOverflow that was closed for not being related to math. There is one answer there, which is helpful, but perhaps Stack Overflow can provide better answers. I program a lot, but Javascript is not my specialty, so comments along the lines of "look at this library" are not particularly helpful to me (but may be to others).

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  • Is it valid to use unsafe struct * as an opaque type instead of IntPtr in .NET Platform Invoke?

    - by David Jeske
    .NET Platform Invoke advocates declaring pointer types as IntPtr. For example, the following [DllImport("user32.dll")] static extern IntPtr SendMessage(IntPtr hWnd, UInt32 Msg, Int32 wParam, Int32 lParam); However, I find when interfacing with interesting native interfaces, that have many pointer types, flattening everything into IntPtr makes the code very hard to read and removes the typical typechecking that a compiler can do. I've been using a pattern where I declare an unsafe struct to be an opaque pointer type. I can store this pointer type in a managed object, and the compiler can typecheck it form me. For example: class Foo { unsafe struct FOO {}; // opaque type unsafe FOO *my_foo; class if { [DllImport("mydll")] extern static unsafe FOO* get_foo(); [DllImport("mydll")] extern static unsafe void do_something_foo(FOO *foo); } public unsafe Foo() { this.my_foo = if.get_foo(); } public unsafe do_something_foo() { if.do_something_foo(this.my_foo); } While this example may not seem different than using IntPtr, when there are several pointer types moving between managed and native code, using these opaque pointer types for typechecking is a godsend. I have not run into any trouble using this technique in practice. However, I also have not seen an examples of anyone using this technique, and I wonder why. Is there any reason that the above code is invalid in the eyes of the .NET runtime? My main question is about how the .NET GC system treats "unsafe FOO *my_foo". Is this pointer something the GC system is going to try to trace, or is it simply going to ignore it? My hope is that because the underlying type is a struct, and it's declared unsafe, that the GC would ignore it. However, I don't know for sure. Thoughts?

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  • UpdatePanel and ModalPopup Extender

    - by rs
    I have my form designed as <asp:Panel runat="server" Id="xyz"> <asp:UpdatePanel ID="UpdatePanel1" runat="server" UpdateMode="Conditional"> <ContentTemplate> 'Gridview with edit/delete - opens detailsview(edit template) with data for editing </ContentTemplate> </asp:UpdatePanel> <asp:UpdatePanel ID="UpdatePanel2" runat="server" UpdateMode="Conditional"> <ContentTemplate> 'Hyperlink to open detailsview(insert template) for inserting records </ContentTemplate> </asp:UpdatePanel> </asp:Panel> <asp:Panel runat="server" Id="xyz1"> 'Ajax modal popup extender control </asp:Panel> It works perfectly when i click update, insert alternately, but when i click insert hyperlink (which is outside gridview) and close/cancel popup without any insert and then again click insert it doesn't call insert_onclick event. It works if i click some other button and click this button. What could be causing this issue and how can i solve it?

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  • Unrecognized function - but why?

    - by fmz
    I have an Ajax contact form that links to a jquery file but for some reason I get the following error in Firebug: $("#contactform").submit is not a function Here is the link to the jquery file: <script type="text/javascript" src="scripts/jquery.jigowatt.js"></script> Here is the jquery code: jQuery(document).ready(function(){ $('#contactform').submit(function(){ var action = $(this).attr('action'); $("#message").slideUp(750,function() { $('#message').hide(); $('#submit') .after('<img src="assets/ajax-loader.gif" class="loader" />') .attr('disabled','disabled'); $.post(action, { name: $('#name').val(), company: $('#company').val(), email: $('#email').val(), phone: $('#phone').val(), subject: $('#purpose').val(), comments: $('#comments').val(), verify: $('#verify').val() }, function(data){ document.getElementById('message').innerHTML = data; $('#message').slideDown('slow'); $('#contactform img.loader').fadeOut('slow',function() {$(this).remove()}); $('#contactform #submit').attr('disabled',''); if(data.match('success') != null) $('#contactform').slideUp('slow'); } ); }); return false; }); }); And last but not least, here is the page where it is all supposed to come together: http://theideapeople.com.previewdns.com/contact_us.html I would appreciate some help getting the function to function properly. Thanks.

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  • Powershell - Splitting string into seperate components

    - by TheD
    I am writing a script which will basically do the following: Read from a text file some arguements: DriveLetter ThreeLetterCode ServerName VolumeLetter Integer Eg. W MSS SERVER01 C 1 These values happen to form a folder destination W:\MSS\, and a filename which works in the following naming convention: SERVERNAME_VOLUMELETTER_VOL-b00X-iYYY.spi - Where The X is the Integer above The value Y I need to work out later, as this happens to be the value of the incremental image (backups) and I need to work out the latest incremental. So at the moment -- Count lines in file, and loop for this many lines. $lines = Get-Content -Path PostBackupCheck-Textfile.txt | Measure-Object -Line for ($i=0; $i -le $lines.Lines; $i++) Within this loop I need to do a Get-Content to read off the line I am currently looking at i.e. line 0, line 1, line 2, as there will be multiple lines in the format I wrote at the beginning and split the line into an array, whereby each part of the file, as seen above naming convention, is in a[0], a[1], a[2]. etc The reason for this is because, I need to then sort the folder that contains these, find the latest file, by date, and take the _iXXX.spi part and place this into the array value a[X] so I then have a complete filename to mount. This value will replace iYYY.spi It's a little complex because I also have to make sure when I do a Get-ChildItem with -Include before I sort it all by date, I am only including the filename that matches the arguements fed to it from the text file : So, SERVER01_C_VOL-b001-iYYY.spi and not anything else. i.e. not SERVER01_D_VOL-b001-iYYY.spi Then take the iYYY value from the sort on the Get-ChildItem -Include and place that into the appropriate array item. I've literally no idea where to start, so any ideas are appreciated! Hopefully I've explained in enough detail. I have also placed the code on Pastebin: http://pastebin.com/vtFifTW6 Thanks!

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  • Multiplication of 2 positive numbers giving a negative result

    - by krandiash
    My program is an implementation of a bloom filter. However, when I'm storing my hash function results in the bit array, the function (of the form f(i) = (a*i + b) % m where a,b,i,m are all positive integers) is giving me a negative result. The problem seems to be in the calculation of a*i which is coming out to be negative. Ignore the print statements in the code; those were for debugging. Basically, the value of temp in this block of code is coming out to be negative and so I'm getting an ArrayOutOfBoundsException. m is the bit array length, z is the number of hash functions being used, S is the set of values which are members of this bloom filter and H stores the values of a and b for the hash functions f1, f2, ..., fz. public static int[] makeBitArray(int m, int z, ArrayList<Integer> S, int[] H) { int[] C = new int[m]; for (int i = 0; i < z; i++) { for (int q = 0; q < S.size() ; q++) { System.out.println(H[2*i]); int temp = S.get(q)*(H[2*i]); System.out.println(temp); System.out.println(S.get(q)); System.out.println(H[2*i + 1]); System.out.println(m); int t = ((H[2*i]*S.get(q)) + H[2*i + 1])%m; System.out.println(t); C[t] = 1; } } return C; } Any help is appreciated.

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  • iPhone app rejection for using ICU (Unicode extensions)

    - by nickbit
    I received the following mail form Apple, considering my application: *Thank you for submitting your update to ??µ??es?a to the App Store. During our review of your application we found it is using private APIs, which is in violation of the iPhone Developer Program License Agreement section 3.3.1; "3.3.1 Applications may only use Documented APIs in the manner prescribed by Apple and must not use or call any private APIs." While your application has not been rejected, it would be appropriate to resolve this issue in your next update. The following non-public APIs are included in your application: u_isspace ubrk_close ubrk_current ubrk_first ubrk_next ubrk_open If you have defined methods in your source code with the same names as the above mentioned APIs, we suggest altering your method names so that they no longer collide with Apple's private APIs to avoid your application being flagged with future submissions. Please resolve this issue in your next update to ??µ??es?a. Sincerely, iPhone App Review Team* The functions mentioned in this mail are used in the ICU library (International Components for Unicode). Although my app is not rejected at this point, I don't feel very secure for the future of my app, because it relies heavily on the Unicode protocol and on this components in particular. Another thing is that I do not call these functions directly, but they are called by a custom 'sqlite' build (with FTS3 extensions enabled). Am I missing something here? Any suggestions?

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  • How to fix this java.lang.LinkageError?

    - by Péter Török
    I am trying to configure a custom layout class to Log4J as described in my previous post. The class uses java.util.regex.Matcher to identify potential credit card numbers in log messages. It works perfectly in unit tests (I can also programmatically configure a logger to use it and produce the expected output). However when I try to deploy it with our app in JBoss, I get the following error: --- MBEANS THAT ARE THE ROOT CAUSE OF THE PROBLEM --- ObjectName: jboss.web.deployment:war=MyWebApp-2010_02-SNAPSHOT.war,id=476602902 State: FAILED Reason: java.lang.LinkageError: java/util/regex/Matcher I couldn't even find any info on this form of the error - typically LinkageError seems to show up with a "loader constrain violation" message, like in here. Technical details: we use JBoss 4.2, Java 5, Log4J 1.2.12. We deploy our app in an .ear, which contains (among others) the above mentioned .war file, and the custom layout class in a separate jar file. We override the default settings in jboss-log4J.xml with our own log4j.properties located in a different folder, which is added to the classpath at startup, and is provided via Carbon. I can only guess: are two different Matcher class versions loaded from somewhere, or is Matcher loaded by two different classloaders when it is used from the jar and the war? What does this error message mean, and how can I fix it?

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  • Issue in creating Zip file using glob.glob

    - by infosyssec
    Hi, I am creating a Zip file from a folder (and subfolders). it works fine and creates a new .zip file also but I am having an issue while using glob.glob. It is reading all files from the desired folder (source folder) and writing to the new zip file but the problem is that it is, however, adding subdirectories, but not adding files form the subdirectories. I am giving user an option to select the filename and path as well as filetype also (Zip or Tar). I don;t get any problem while creating .tar.gz file, but when use creates .zip file, this problem comes across. Here is my code: for name in (Source_Dir): for name in glob.glob("/path/to/source/dir/*" ): myZip.write(name, os.path.basename(name), zipfile.ZIP_DEFLATED) myZip.close() Also, if I use code below: for dirpath, dirnames, filenames in os.walk(Source_Dir): myZip.write(os.path.join(dirpath, filename) os.path.basename(filename)) myZip.close() Now the 2nd code taks all files even if it inside the folder/ subfolders, creates a new .zip file and write to it without any directory strucure. It even does not take dir structure for main folder and simply write all files from main dir or subdir to that .zip file. Can anyone please help me or suggest me. I would prefer glob.glob rather than the 2nd option to use. Thanks in advance. Regards, Akash

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  • ASP.Net MVC vs ASP.Net for Complex workflows

    - by Grant Sutcliffe
    I have just become involved in migrating a series of complex workflows with InfoPath UIs to Web-based UIs. I am new to ASP.Net MVC but have started to evaluate it as the technology versus classic ASP.Net for the job. As is typical of most workflows, in each state there are a number of business rules that determine (a) who can view what content; (2) who can edit what content; (3) what the user action options might be (Edit; Reject; Approve), etc. In essence, there is a lot of logic that needs to be applied to each request before presenting the appropriate view. Being more experienced in ASP.Net, I know that presenting the form(s) as required can be easily achieved through code behind pages (enable / disable / hide fields). I have not seen how this can be achieved with ASP.Net MVC (but am realising that new thinking is required of me when working with MVC - ‘Give only the content on a particular View + limited user action options’). Therefore, if using ASP.Net MVC, it looks like I would need to create a lot of views. Much of the content in each view would be the same. Only field enabled status or buttons would differ in most instances for these views in each state. For example: Step01Initiate (‘Has Save’ button); Step01OriginatorView (has ‘Edit’ Button) ; Step01OriginatorEdit (has ‘Save’ button); Step01Review (has ‘Accept’ / ‘Reject’ buttons); Step01ReviewReject (for reviewer notes; has ‘Save’ / ‘Cancel’ buttons). With workflows of up to six states, this would result in a lot of views. I can see the advantages of choosing ASP.MVC (1) ‘thin’ Views in terms of content; and (2) with logic consolidation in Controllers and different Models. Am I thinking along the right lines in terms of applying the MVC – ‘plenty of views’; or is there a better way to achieve my goal (using ASP.Net MVC or classic ASP.Net)?

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  • Prevent deferred creation of controls.

    - by Scott Chamberlain
    Here is a test framework to show what I am doing, just create a new project add a tabbed control, on tab 1 put a button on tab 2 put a check box (default names) and paste this code for its code public partial class Form1 : Form { private List<bool> boolList = new List<bool>(); BindingSource bs = new BindingSource(); public Form1() { InitializeComponent(); boolList.Add(false); bs.DataSource = boolList; checkBox1.DataBindings.Add("Checked", bs, ""); } bool updating = false; private void button1_Click(object sender, EventArgs e) { updating = true; boolList[0] = true; bs.ResetBindings(false); Application.DoEvents(); updating = false; } private void checkBox1_CheckedChanged(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (!updating) MessageBox.Show("CheckChanged fired outside of updating"); } } The issue is if you run the program and look at tab 2 then press the button on tab 1 the program works as expected, however if you press the button on tab 1 then look at tab 2 the event for the checkbox will not fire untill you look at tab 2. The reason for this is the controll on tab 2 is not in the "created" state, so its binding to change the checkbox from unchecked to checked does not happen until after the control has been "Created". checkbox1.CreateControl() does not do anything because according to MSDN CreateControl does not create a control handle if the control's Visible property is false. You can either call the CreateHandle method or access the Handle property to create the control's handle regardless of the control's visibility, but in this case, no window handles are created for the control's children. I tried getting the value of Handle(there is no CreateHandle for Button) but still the same result. Any suggestions other than have the program quickly flash all of my tabs that have data-bound check boxes when it first loads?

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  • Simple imeplementation of admin/staff panel?

    - by Michael Mao
    Hi all: A new project requires a simple panel(page) for admin and staff members that : Preferably will not use SSL or any digital ceritification stuff, a simple login from via http will just be fine. has basic authentication which allows only admin to login as admin, and any staff member as of the group "staff". Ideally, the "credentials(username-hashedpassword pair)" will be stored in MySQL. is simple to configure if there is a package, or the strategy is simple to code. somewhere (PHP session?) somehow (include a script at the beginning of each page to check user group before doing anything?), it will detect any invalid user attempt to access protected page and redirect him/her to the login form. while still keeps high quality in security, something I worry about the most. Frankly I am having little knowledge about Internet security, and how modern CMS such as WordPress/Joomla do with their implementation in this. I only have one thing in my mind that I need to use a salt to hash the password (SHA1?) to make sure any hacker gets the username and password pair across the net cannot use that to log into the system. And that is what the client wants to make sure. But I really not sure where to start, any ideas? Thanks a lot in advance.

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  • mod_rewrite with question marks and ampersands (with PHP)

    - by Chris
    I have a PHP-based web app that I'm trying to apply Apache's mod_rewrite to. Original URLs are of the form: http://example.com/index.php?page=home&x=5 And I'd like to transform these into: http://example.com/home?x=5 Note that while rewriting the page name, I'm also effectively "moving" the question mark. When I try to do this, Apache happily performs this translation: RewriteRule ^/([a-z]+)\?(.+)$ /index.php?page=$1&$2 [NC,L] But it messes up the $_GET variables in PHP. For example, a call to http://example.com/home?x=88 yields only one $_GET variable (page => home). Where did x => 88 go? However, when I change my rule to use an ampersand rather than a question mark: RewriteRule ^/([a-z]+)&(.+)$ /index.php?page=$1&$2 [NC,L] a call like http://example.com/home&x=88 will work just as I'd expect it to (i.e. both the page and x $_GET variables are set appropriately). The difference is minimal I know, but I'd like my URL variables to "start" with a question mark, if it's possible. I'm sure this reflects my own misunderstanding of how mod_rewrite redirects interact with PHP, but it seems like I should be able to do this (one way or another). Thanks in advance! Cheers, -Chris

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  • What is the best software design to use in this scenario

    - by domdefelice
    I need to generate HTML snippets using jQuery. The creation of those snippets depends on some data. The data is stored server-side, in session (where PHP is used). At the moment I achieved this - retrieving the data from the server via AJAX in form of JSON - and building the snippets via specific javascript functions that read those data The problem is that the complexity of the data is getting bigger and hence the serialization into JSON is getting even more difficult since I can't do it automatically. I can't do it automatically because some information are sensible so I generate a "stripped" version to send to the client. I know it is difficult to understand without any code to read, but I am hoping this is a common scenario and would be glad for any tip, suggestion or even design-pattern you can give me. Should I store both a complete and a stripped data on the server and then use some library to automatically generate the JSON from the stripped data? But this also means I have to get the two data synchronized. Or maybe I could move the logic server-side, this way avoiding sending the data. But this means sending javascript code (since I rely on jQuery). Maybe not a good idea. Feel free to ask me more details if this is not clear. Thank you for any help

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  • How to perform undirected graph processing from SQL data

    - by recipriversexclusion
    I ran into the following problem in dynamically creating topics for our ActiveMQ system: I have a number of processes (M_1, ..., M_n), where n is not large, typically 5-10. Some of the processes will listen to the output of others, through a message queue; these edges are specified in an XML file, e.g. <link from="M1" to="M3"</link> <link from="M2" to="M4"</link> <link from="M3" to="M4"</link> etc. The edges are sparse, so there won't be many of them. I will parse this XML and store this information in an SQL DB, one table for nodes and another for edges. Now, I need to dynamically create strings of the form M1.exe --output_topic=T1 M2.exe --output_topic=T2 M3.exe --input_topic=T1 --output_topic=T3 M4.exe --input_topic=T2 --input_topic=T3 where the tags are sequentially generated. What is the best way to go about querying SQL to obtain these relationships? Are there any tools or other tutorials you can point me to? I've never done graps with SQL. Using SQL is imperative, because we use it for other stuff, too. Thanks!

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  • FormMethod.Get and query string parameters

    - by parminder
    Hi Experts, I am working on a website in asp.net mvc. I have to show a view where user put some search values like tags and titles to search. I want to use the same Index method for that. I have make my form to use formMethod.Get to send the parameters as querystring. so here is the method [HttpGet] public ActionResult Index(string title, string tags, int? page) { if (string.IsNullOrEmpty(title) return View(null); var list = GetSomeData(); return View(list); } here is my view <div id="searchBox"> <% using (Html.BeginForm(null, null, FormMethod.Get)) { %> <table> <tr> <td> <input type="hidden" id="isPosted" name="isPosted" value="1" /> I am looking for <%=Html.TextBox("Title")%> Tags: <%=Html.TextBox("Tags")%> <input id="search" type="submit" value="Search" /> </td> </tr> </table> <% } %> So when the user first visit the page, he will see only two text boxs and a button. but when he types something in the title and tags and click the search button i will load the view with some data. Now the problem is when i type something in title and tags box and click search, they are received in the method, but are not visible in the url. Is there anything i m doing wrong. help will be appreciated. Regards Parminder

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  • Read cookies with JavaScript

    - by Etienne
    I know how to write cookies in JavaScript //Create the cookies document.cookie = "Name=" + Name + ";expires=Friday, 31-Dec-2011 12:00:00 GMT; path=/"; document.cookie = "Surname=" + Surname + ";expires=Friday, 31-Dec-2011 12:00:00 GMT; path=/"; document.cookie = "Number=" + Number + ";expires=Friday, 31-Dec-2011 12:00:00 GMT; path=/"; document.cookie = "Email=" + Email + ";expires=Friday, 31-Dec-2011 12:00:00 GMT; path=/"; document.cookie = "Country=" + Country + ";expires=Friday, 31-Dec-2011 12:00:00 GMT; path=/"; document.cookie = "Company=" + Company + ";expires=Friday, 31-Dec-2011 12:00:00 GMT; path=/"; document.cookie = "Title=" + Job + ";expires=Friday, 31-Dec-2011 12:00:00 GMT; path=/"; But how can I read each one of them in JavaScript because I want to populate the text boxes next time the user come to the form? I have tried this but it does not work............ var cookieName = ReadCookie("Name"); document.getElementById('txtName').value = cookieName; Thanks in advanced!!

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  • Are there scenarios where the ViewModel needs to invoke methods on the View w.r.t. MVVM in WPF?

    - by Gishu
    As per the pattern, the ViewModel exposes Properties(with change notification) and Commands (to notify the VM of user actions) that the View binds to. The only communication that flows from the VM to the View is the property change notifications (so that the View can refresh itself with updated data). In MVP or PresentationModel form of the pattern (if I'm not mistaken), the View implements a plain vanilla interface (consisting of methods, properties and/or events). With MVVM, it feels methods on the IView have been outlawed (along with IView itself). One scenario I could think of was to set the focus to a certain control in the View. (When the user does ActionX, the focus should immediately be set to FieldY). In MVP, I'd write this as IView.ActivateField(NameConstant), which the presenter or PM would invoke. In MVVM, this seems to be a fringe case that needs a workaround / little bit of code-behind. The VM implements an ActiveField Property, which it sets to NameConstant. The view picks up the change notification event and in a code-behind event handler, activates the Name control. Is the above just an exception to the norm? Or are there other such scenarios, where the VM needs to invoke a method on the View ?

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  • Zend Sessions problem with IE8

    - by Emil
    I'm running a Zend Framework powered website and it seems to have serious problems with sessions. I have a 5 step process where I save the form data in the session between the steps and then save it into the database on the last step. When we built the site sometimes the session just went away and forced us to restart. Now it seems to work again but recently we discovered an issue with Internet Explorer 8. It fails between step 2 - 3 and forgets the session. It works fine in IE6, IE7, FF, Chrome, Safari and even in my mobile web browser (SE P1). We're storing our sessions in the database and if I deactivate the session db handler it works. What's the difference between using the database and not using it for sessions? Do I loose something if I switch back? Bootstrap: /* Start session */ $saveHandler = new Zend_Session_SaveHandler_DbTable(array( 'name' => 'sessions', 'primary' => 'id', 'modifiedColumn' => 'modified', 'dataColumn' => 'data', 'lifetimeColumn' => 'lifetime' )); Zend_Session::rememberMe((int) $config->session->lifetime); $saveHandler->setLifetime((int) $config->session->lifetime) ->setOverrideLifetime(true); Zend_Session::setSaveHandler($saveHandler); Zend_Session::start(); and in my step controller $session = new Zend_Session_Namespace('wizard'); Then I'm just working with $session saving data in a stdClass in $session.

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  • Ruby script/console and Ruby script/server using two different DBs?

    - by aronchick
    Has anyone seen where script/console and script/server load two different databases (though both report using the same)? Here's the first output $ script/server => Booting WEBrick => Rails 2.3.5 application starting on http://0.0.0.0:3000 => Call with -d to detach => Ctrl-C to shutdown server [2010-03-21 15:54:05] INFO WEBrick 1.3.1 [2010-03-21 15:54:05] INFO ruby 1.8.7 (2010-01-10) [i386-mingw32] [2010-03-21 15:54:05] INFO WEBrick::HTTPServer#start: pid=7148 port=3000 No errors. I then run my standard code for entering a form - no problems. Checking the Dev Database (.yml at bottom): mysql> select * from books; [...] | 712 | Book | Book Name | 2010-03-21 22:29:22 | 2010-03-21 22:29:22 | [...] 712 rows in set (0.00 sec) The code CLEARLY saved it seconds ago And now here's the output of script/console: $ script/console Loading development environment (Rails 2.3.5) >> Books.all => [] Nothing. Further, upon further inspection, it's using the production database, but I can't figure out why. Any thoughts here? All consoles have been closed and reopened. UPDATE: Requested .yml file (can't see how it'd be helpful (user name and password are all the same for each)) - development: adapter: mysql database: BooksDBdev username: <user name> password: <long string> timeout: 5000 # Warning: The database defined as "test" will be erased and # re-generated from your development database when you run "rake". # Do not set this db to the same as development or production. test: adapter: mysql database: BooksDBtest username: <user name> password: <long string> timeout: 5000 production: adapter: mysql database: BooksDB username: <user name> password: <long string> timeout: 5000

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  • 301 Redirecting URLs based on GET variables in .htaccess

    - by technicalbloke
    I have a few messy old URLs like... http://www.example.com/bunch.of/unneeded/crap?opendocument&part=1 http://www.example.com/bunch.of/unneeded/crap?opendocument&part=2 ...that I want to redirect to the newer, cleaner form... http://www.example.com/page.php/welcome http://www.example.com/page.php/prices I understand I can redirect one page to another with a simple redirect i.e. Redirect 301 /bunch.of/unneeded/crap http://www.example.com/page.php But the source page doesn't change, only it's GET vars. I can't figure out how to base the redirect on the value of these GET variables. Can anybody help pls!? I'm fairly handy with the old regexes so I can have a pop at using mod-rewrite if I have to but I'm not clear on the syntax for rewriting GET vars and I'd prefer to avoid the performance hit and use the cleaner Redirect directive. Is there a way? and if not can anyone clue me in as to the right mod-rewrite syntax pls? Cheers, Roger.

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  • What other things would be good to include in CSS reset (along with eric meyer reset) for any projec

    - by metal-gear-solid
    I know and use eric meyer CSS reset, but is there any more things which would be good to add in reset css? and can save our time and increase compatibility. This is default meyer's latest CSS reset code. /* v1.0 | 20080212 */ html, body, div, span, applet, object, iframe, h1, h2, h3, h4, h5, h6, p, blockquote, pre, a, abbr, acronym, address, big, cite, code, del, dfn, em, font, img, ins, kbd, q, s, samp, small, strike, strong, sub, sup, tt, var, b, u, i, center, dl, dt, dd, ol, ul, li, fieldset, form, label, legend, table, caption, tbody, tfoot, thead, tr, th, td { margin: 0; padding: 0; border: 0; outline: 0; font-size: 100%; vertical-align: baseline; background: transparent; } body { line-height: 1; } ol, ul { list-style: none; } blockquote, q { quotes: none; } blockquote:before, blockquote:after, q:before, q:after { content: ''; content: none; } /* remember to define focus styles! */ :focus { outline: 0; } /* remember to highlight inserts somehow! */ ins { text-decoration: none; } del { text-decoration: line-through; } /* tables still need 'cellspacing="0"' in the markup */ table { border-collapse: collapse; border-spacing: 0; }

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  • Jmeter is not extracting correctly the value with the reg ex extractor.

    - by Chris
    Jmeter is not extracting correctly the value with the reg ex. When I play with this reg ex (NAME="token" \s value="([^"]+?)") in reg ex coach with the following html everything work fine but when adding the reg with a reg ex extrator to the request he doesn't found the value even if it's the same html in output. <HTML>< script type="text/javascript" > function dostuff(no, applicationID) { submitAction('APPS_NAME' , 'noSelected=' + no + '&applicationID=' + applicationID); }< /script> <FORM NAME="baseForm" ACTION="" METHOD="POST"> <input type="hidden" NAME="token" value="fc95985af8aa5143a7b1d4fda6759a74" > <div id="loader" align="center"> <div> <strong style="color: #003366;">Loading...</strong> </div> <img src="images/initial-loader.gif" align="top"/> </div> <BODY ONLOAD="dostuff('69489','test');"> From the reg ex extractor reference name: token Regex: (NAME="token" \s value="([^"]+?)") template : $2$ match no.:1 Default value: wrong-token The request following my the POST of the previous code is returning : POST data: token=wrong-token in the next request in the tree viewer. But when I check a the real request in a proxy the token is there. Note : I tried the reg ex without the bracket and doesn't worked either. Do anybody have a idea whats wrong here ? Why jmeter can't find my token with the reg ex extrator ?

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