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  • Indirect property notification

    - by Carlo
    Hello, this question might look a little trivial, but it might not be. I'm just wondering which of the following two cases is better for indirect property notification, or perhaps there is an even better way. The scenario: I have two properties, the first one is an object called HoldingObject, the second one is a boolean called IsHoldingObject, which is false if HoldingObject == null, otherwise it's true. I'm just wondering what is the best notification mechanism for IsHoldingObject: Case (A) - Notify IsHoldingObject changed from the HoldingObject proeperty: public class NotifyingClass1 : INotifyPropertyChanged { private object _holdingObject; public object HoldingObject { get { return _holdingObject; } set { if (_holdingObject != value) { _holdingObject = value; NotifyPropertyChanged("HoldingObject"); // Notify from the property that is being checked NotifyPropertyChanged("IsHoldingObject"); } } } public bool IsHoldingObject { get { return this.HoldingObject == null; } } #region INotifyPropertyChanged Members public event PropertyChangedEventHandler PropertyChanged; private void NotifyPropertyChanged(string propertyName) { if (this.PropertyChanged != null) this.PropertyChanged(this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs(propertyName)); } #endregion } Case (B) - Notify IsHoldingObject changed from the IsHoldingObject directly, by setting it to false or true from HoldingObject property: public class NotifyingClass2 : INotifyPropertyChanged { private object _holdingObject; public object HoldingObject { get { return _holdingObject; } set { if (_holdingObject != value) { _holdingObject = value; NotifyPropertyChanged("HoldingObject"); // 1) Set the property here this.IsHoldingObject = _holdingObject != null; } } } private bool _isHoldingObject; public bool IsHoldingObject { get { return _isHoldingObject; } set { if (_isHoldingObject != value) { _isHoldingObject = value; // 2) Notify directly from the property NotifyPropertyChanged("IsHoldingObject"); } } } #region INotifyPropertyChanged Members public event PropertyChangedEventHandler PropertyChanged; private void NotifyPropertyChanged(string propertyName) { if (this.PropertyChanged != null) this.PropertyChanged(this, new PropertyChangedEventArgs(propertyName)); } #endregion } I personally lean to the first one because it requires less code, but I'm not sure how recommendable it is to do that. Let me know if there is another (better) way. Thanks!

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  • Question About Fk refrence in The Collection

    - by Ahmed
    Hi , i have 2 entities : ( person ) & (Address) with follwing mapping : <class name="Adress" table="Adress" lazy="false"> <id name="Id" column="Id"> <generator class="native" /> </id> <many-to-one name="Person" class="Person"> <column name="PersonId" /> </many-to-one> </class> <class name="Person" table="Person" lazy="false"> <id name="PersonId" column="PersonId"> <generator class="native" /> </id> <property name="Name" column="Name" type="String" not-null="true" /> <set name="Adresses" lazy="true" inverse="true" cascade="save-update"> <key> <column name="PersonId" /> </key> <one-to-many class="Adress" /> </set> </class> my propblem is that when i set Adrees.Person with new object of person ,The collection person.Adresses doesn't update itself . should i update every end role of the association to be updated in the two both? another thing : if i updated the Fk manually like this : Adress.PersonId it doesn't break or change association. does this is Nhibernte behavior ? thanks in advance , i am waiting for your experiencies

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  • Black Magic in Grails Data Binding!?

    - by Tiago Alves
    As described in http://n4.nabble.com/Grails-Data-Binding-for-One-To-Many-Relationships-with-REST-tp1754571p1754571.html i'm trying to automatically bind my REST data. I understand now that for one-to-many associations the map that is required for the data binding must have a list of ids of the many side such as: [propName: propValue, manyAssoc: [1, 2]] However, I'm getting this exception Executing action [save] of controller [com.example.DomainName] caused exception: org.springframework.orm.hibernate3.HibernateSystemException: IllegalArgumentException occurred calling getter of com.example.DomainName.id; nested exception is org.hibernate.PropertyAccessException: IllegalArgumentException occurred calling getter of com.example.DomainName.id However, even weirder is the update action that is generated for the controller. There we have the databinding like this: domainObjectInstance.properties = params['domainObject'] But, and this is the really weird thing, params['domainObject'] is null! It is null because all the domainObject fields are passed directly in the params map itself. If I change the above line to domainObjectInstance.properties = null the domainObject is still updated! Why is this happening and more important, how can I bind my incoming XML automatically if it comes in this format (the problem is the one-to-many associations): <product> <name>Table</name> <brand id="1" /> <categories> <category id="1" /> <category id="2" /> </categories> </product>

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  • Setting UITabBarItem title from UINavigationController?

    - by fuzzygoat
    I have setup a UITabBarController with two tabs, one is a simple UIViewController and the other is a UINavigationController using second UIViewController as its rootController to set up a UITableView. My question is with regard to naming the tabs (i.e. UITabBarItem) For the first tab (simple UIViewController) I have added the following (see below) to the controllers -init method. - (id)init { self = [super init]; if(self) { UITabBarItem *tabBarItem = [self tabBarItem]; [tabBarItem setTitle:@"ONE"]; } return self; } For the other tab I have added (see below) to the second controllers init (rootController). - (id)init { self = [super init]; if(self) { UITabBarItem *tabBarItem = [[self navigationController] tabBarItem]; [tabBarItem setTitle:@"TWO"]; } return self; } Am I setting the second tabBarItem title in the right place as currently it is not showing? EDIT: I can correctly set the UITabBarItem from within the AppDelegate when I first create the controllers, ready for adding to the UITabBarController. But I really wanted to do this in the individual controller -init methods for neatness. // UITabBarController UITabBarController *tempRoot = [[UITabBarController alloc] init]; [self setRootController:tempRoot]; [tempRoot release]; NSMutableArray *tabBarControllers = [[NSMutableArray alloc] init]; // UIViewController ONE MapController *mapController = [[MapController alloc] init]; [tabBarControllers addObject:mapController]; [mapController release]; // UITableView TWO TableController *rootTableController = [[TableController alloc] init]; UINavigationController *tempNavController = [[UINavigationController alloc] initWithRootViewController:rootTableController]; [rootTableController release]; [tabBarControllers addObject:tempNavController]; [tempNavController release]; [rootController setViewControllers:tabBarControllers]; [tabBarControllers release]; [window addSubview:[rootController view]]; [window makeKeyAndVisible];

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  • paypal_adaptive gem in Rails: Dynamic Receiver "Population" (Chained Payments)

    - by Jmlevick
    Note: I didn't find a better title for this O.o Hello, Humm... Look, what I want to do is to have a Rails app where a visitor can click a button/link to make a "special" chained payment using Paypal; Currently I have a Users registration form that has one field for the user to enter his/her paypal account email, and as I saw here: http://marker.to/XGg9MR it is possible to specify the primary reciever and the secondary ones by adding such info in a controller action when using the paypal_adaptive gem in a rails app. The thing is, I don't want to hard code the secondary reciever as I need to specify a different secondary reciever from time to time, (being specific my primary reciever will always be the same, but depending on what button/link the visitor clicks, the secondary one is going to change) and I want that secondary reciever email to be the paypal e-mail account from one of the registered users when the visitor clicks on their specific button/link... My question is: Is it possible to create such enviroment functionality in my app using the current implementation of the paypal_adaptive gem? Could someone point me in the right direction on how to accomplish such thing? I'm still learning rails and also I'm really new in the paypal handling universe with this framework! XD P.S. Thanks! :)

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  • Why do I need to close fds when reading and writing to the pipe?

    - by valentimsousa
    However, what if one of my processes needs to continuously write to the pipe while the other pipe needs to read? This example seems to work only for one write and one read. I need multi read and write void executarComandoURJTAG(int newSock) { int input[2], output[2], estado, d; pid_t pid; char buffer[256]; char linha[1024]; pipe(input); pipe(output); pid = fork(); if (pid == 0) {// child close(0); close(1); close(2); dup2(input[0], 0); dup2(output[1], 1); dup2(output[1], 2); close(input[1]); close(output[0]); execlp("jtag", "jtag", NULL); } else { // parent close(input[0]); close(output[1]); do { read(newSock, linha, 1024); /* Escreve o buffer no pipe */ write(input[1], linha, strlen(linha)); close(input[1]); while ((d = read(output[0], buffer, 255))) { //buffer[d] = '\0'; write(newSock, buffer, strlen(buffer)); puts(buffer); } write(newSock, "END", 4); } while (strcmp(linha, "quit") != 0); } }

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  • allowing bb code but not java script

    - by user1405062
    Hello im trying to get the hang of using bb codes onto my normal php site ( not forum or anything just a normal site ) I have seen a few posts like this one http://www.pixel2life.com/forums/index.php?/topic/10659-php-bbcode-parser/ which says i need a bb parser. I was just wondering can anyone show me how i would use one ? I have a status box were users can update there status but i would like to allow bb codes but not java script. So when im doing my inserting into the db i strip the status like so.. $status= mysql_real_escape_string($_POST['status']); $status2= strip_tags($status); And that stops the java script and tags from getting though but i need the bb code tags to come though but carry on blocking the java script code is there anyway to do this ? Also then i just echo it out echo $status2 ; But just plain text shows so was just wondering if anyone knows how to let though bb code and stop java script and could some one show me how to use the bb parasher ? also need to know how to echo out the bb coding...

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  • transferring binary files between systems

    - by tim
    Hi guys I'm trying to transfer my files between 2 UNIX clusters, the data is pure numeric (vectors of double) in binary form. Unfortunately one of the systems is IBM ppc997 and the other is AMD Opteron, It seems the format of binary numbers in these systems are different. I have tried 3 ways till now: 1- Changed my files to ASCII format (i.e. saved a number at each line in a text file), sent them to the destination and changed them again to binary on the target system (they both are UNIX, no end of line character difference??!) 2- Sent pure binaries to the destination 3- used uuencode sent them to the destination and decoded them Unfortunately any of these methods does not work (my code in the destination system generates garbage, while it works on the first system, I'm 100% sure the code itself is portable). I don't know what else I can do? Do you have any idea? I'm not a professional, please don't use computer scientists terminology! And: my codes are in C, so by binary I mean a one to one mapping between memory and hard disk. Thanks

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  • Loading GWT Messages from a Database

    - by Lars Tackmann
    In GWT one typically loads i18n strings using a interface like this: public interface StatusMessage extends Messages { String error(String username); : } which then loads the actual strings from a StatusMessage.property file: error=User: {0} does not have access to resource This is a great solution, however my client is unbendable in his demand for putting the i18n strings in a database so they can be changed at runtime (though its not a requirement that they be changed realtime). One solution is to create a async service which takes a message ID and user locale and returns a string. I have implemented this and find it terribly ugly (and it introduces a huge amount of extra communication with the server, plus it makes property placeholder replacement rather complicated). So my question is this, can I in some nice way implement a custom message provider that loads the messages from the backend in one big swoop (for the current user session). If it can also hook into the default GWT message mechanism, then I would be completely happy (i.e. so I can create a interface like above and keep using the the nice {0}, {1}... property replacement format). Other suggestions for clean database driven messages in GWT are also welcome.

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  • Advice on setting up a central db with master tables for web apps

    - by Dragn1821
    I'm starting to write more and more web applications for work. Many of these web applications need to store the same types of data, such as location. I've been thinking that it may be better to create a central db and store these "master" tables there and have each applicaiton access them. I'm not sure how to go about this. Should I create tables in my application's db to copy the data from the master table and store in the app's table (for linking with other app tables using foreign keys)? Should I use something like a web service to read the data from the master table instead of firing up a new db connection in my app? Should I forget this idea and just store the data within my app's db? I would like to have data such as the location central so I can go to one table and add a new location and the next time someone needs to select a location from one of the apps, the new one would be there. I'm using ASP.NET MVC 1.0 to build the web apps and SQL 2005 as the db. Need some advice... Thanks!

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  • C++ polymorphism and slicing

    - by Draco Ater
    The following code, prints out Derived Base Base But I need every Derived object put into User::items, call its own print function, but not the base class one. Can I achieve that without using pointers? If it is not possible, how should I write the function that deletes User::items one by one and frees memory, so that there should not be any memory leaks? #include <iostream> #include <vector> #include <algorithm> using namespace std; class Base{ public: virtual void print(){ cout << "Base" << endl;} }; class Derived: public Base{ public: void print(){ cout << "Derived" << endl;} }; class User{ public: vector<Base> items; void add_item( Base& item ){ item.print(); items.push_back( item ); items.back().print(); } }; void fill_items( User& u ){ Derived d; u.add_item( d ); } int main(){ User u; fill_items( u ); u.items[0].print(); }

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  • How to identify multiple identical pairs in two vectors

    - by Sacha Epskamp
    In my graph-package (as in graph theory, nodes connected by edges) I have a vector indicating for each edge the node of origin from, a vector indicating for each edge the node of destination to and a vector indicating the curve of each edge curve. By default I want edges to have a curve of 0 if there is only one edge between two nodes and curve of 0.2 if there are two edges between two nodes. The code that I use now is a for-loop, and it is kinda slow: curve <- rep(0,5) from<-c(1,2,3,3,2) to<-c(2,3,4,2,1) for (i in 1:length(from)) { if (any(from==to[i] & to==from[i])) { curve[i]=0.2 } } So basically I look for each edge (one index in from and one in to) if there is any other pair in from and to that use the same nodes (numbers). What I am looking for are two things: A way to identify if there is any pair of nodes that have two edges between them (so I can omit the loop if not) A way to speed up this loop # EDIT: To make this abit clearer, another example: from <- c(4L, 6L, 7L, 8L, 1L, 9L, 5L, 1L, 2L, 1L, 10L, 2L, 6L, 7L, 10L, 4L, 9L) to <- c(1L, 1L, 1L, 2L, 3L, 3L, 4L, 5L, 6L, 7L, 7L, 8L, 8L, 8L, 8L, 10L, 10L) cbind(from,to) from to [1,] 4 1 [2,] 6 1 [3,] 7 1 [4,] 8 2 [5,] 1 3 [6,] 9 3 [7,] 5 4 [8,] 1 5 [9,] 2 6 [10,] 1 7 [11,] 10 7 [12,] 2 8 [13,] 6 8 [14,] 7 8 [15,] 10 8 [16,] 4 10 [17,] 9 10 In these two vectors, pair 3 is identical to pair 10 (both 1 and 7 in different orders) and pairs 4 and 12 are identical (both 2 and 8). So I would want curve to become: [1,] 0.0 [2,] 0.0 [3,] 0.2 [4,] 0.2 [5,] 0.0 [6,] 0.0 [7,] 0.0 [8,] 0.0 [9,] 0.0 [10,] 0.2 [11,] 0.0 [12,] 0.2 [13,] 0.0 [14,] 0.0 [15,] 0.0 [16,] 0.0 [17,] 0.0 (as I vector, I transposed twice to get row numbers).

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  • Handling Denormalized Schema with Eclipselink

    - by iamrohitbanga
    Hello All I have a denormalized table containing employee information. The fields are employee id, name and department name. The primary key is a composite one consisting of all three fields. An employee can belong to multiple departments. I want to read/write the objects in the table using the Eclipselink Dynamic Persistence API (which is infact a wrapper on top of JPA descriptors etc.). Example Data: 1 e1 dep1 2 e1 dep2 3 e2 dep1 4 e2 dep3 5 e3 dep1 5 e3 dep2 5 e3 dep3 A normal ReadAllQuery (select query) on the table returns a DynamicEntity corresponding to each row in the table. However I want to club all entities based on the emp id and return all the departments he belongs to as a list. I can merge the entities after retrieving them but if I can use some Eclipselink feature out of the box then it would be better. One way to do the read is the following: I create two dynamic types corresponding to employee: Having id,name as the primary key Having id, department as the primary key, I create a OneToManyMapping from the first type to the second one. Then when I query the first type it does return the departments to which employee belongs as a list of DynamicEntity of the second type. This satisfies the read scenario. Is there a better way of doing this? Is this inherently supported by Eclipselink or JPA? I cannot get the same dynamic type configuration working for the write scenario. This is because when I write the changes using the writeObject method of UnitOfWork, it generates insert queries which enter the following entries in the table id name department 102 emp_102 102 st 102 dep_102 102 dep_102 102 dep_102 instead of: id name department 102 emp_102 st 102 emp_102 dep_102 102 emp_102 dep_102 102 emp_102 dep_102 Is there any way I can get write to work with this schema using eclipselink? I want to avoid doing the heavy lifting of merging the rows for such a denormalized schema or generating each row before doing a write. Is there no clean way of doing this using Eclipselink or JPA? Thanks in Advance.

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  • What is the standard way to bundle OSGi dependent libraries?

    - by Chris
    Hi, I have a project that references a number of open source libraries, some new, some not so new. That said, they are all stable and I wish to stick with my chosen versions until I have time to migrate to the newer versions (I tested hsqldb 2.0 yesterday and it contains many api changes). One of the libraries I have wish to embed is Jasper Reports, but as you all surely know, it comes with a mountain of supporting jar files and I have only need a subset of the mountain (known) therefore I am planning to custom bundle all of my dependant libraries. So: Does everyone custom-make their own OSGi bundles for open-source libraries they are using or is there a master source of OSGi versions of common libraries? Also, I was thinking that it would be far simpler for each of my bundles simply to embed their dependent jars within the bundle itself. Is this possible? If I choose to embed the 3rd party foc libraries within a bundle, I assume I will need to produce 2 jar files, one without the embedded libraries (for libraries to be loaded via the classpath via standard classloader), and one osgi version that includes the embedded libraryy, therefore should I choose a bundle name like this <<myprojectname>>-<<subproject>>-osgi-.1.0.0.jar ? If I cannot embed the open source libraries and choose to custom bundle the open source libraries (via bnd), should I choose a unique bundle name to avoid conflict with a possible official bundle? e.g. <<myprojectname>>-<<3rdpartylibname>>-<<3rdpartylibversion>>.jar ? My non-OSGi enabled project currently scans for custom plugins via scanning the META-INF folders in my various plugin jars via Service.providers(...). If I go OSGi, will this mechanism still work?

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  • using threads in menu options

    - by vbNewbie
    I have an app that has a console menu with 2/3 selections. One process involves uploading a file and performing a lengthy search process on its contents, whilst another process involves SQL queries and is an interactive process with the user. I wish to use threads to allow one process to run and the menu to offer the option for the second process to run. However you cannot run the first process twice. I have created threads and corrected some compilation errors but the threading options are not working correctly. Any help appreciated. main... Dim tm As Thread = New Thread(AddressOf loadFile) Dim ts As Thread = New Thread(AddressOf reports) .... While Not response.Equals("3") Try Console.Write("Enter choice: ") response = Console.ReadLine() Console.WriteLine() If response.Equals("1") Then Console.WriteLine("Thread 1 doing work") tm.SetApartmentState(ApartmentState.STA) tm.IsBackground = True tm.Start() response = String.Empty ElseIf response.Equals("2") Then Console.WriteLine("Starting a second Thread") ts.Start() response = String.Empty End If ts.Join() tm.Join() Catch ex As Exception errormessage = ex.Message End Try End While I realize that a form based will be easier to implement with perhaps just calling different forms to handle the processes.But I really dont have that option now since the console app will be added to api later. But here are my two processes from the menu functions. Also not sure what to do with the boolean variabel again as suggested below. Private Sub LoadFile() Dim dialog As New OpenFileDialog Dim response1 As String = Nothing Dim filepath As String = Environment.GetFolderPath(Environment.SpecialFolder.MyDocuments) dialog.InitialDirectory = filepath If dialog.ShowDialog() = DialogResult.OK Then fileName = dialog.FileName ElseIf DialogResult.Cancel Then Exit Sub End If Console.ResetColor() Console.Write("Begin Search -- Discovery Search, y or n? ") response1 = Console.ReadLine() If response1 = "y" Then Search() ElseIf response1 = "n" Then Console.Clear() main() End If isRunning = False End Sub and the second one Private Shared Sub report() Dim rptGen As New SearchBlogDiscovery.rptGeneration Console.WriteLine("Tread Process started") rptGen.main() Console.WriteLine("Thread Process ended") isRunning = False End Sub

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  • Where should test classes be stored in the project?

    - by limc
    I build all my web projects at work using RAD/Eclipse, and I'm interested to know where do you guys normally store your test's *.class files. All my web projects have 2 source folders: "src" for source and "test" for testcases. The generated *.class files for both source folders are currently placed under WebContent/WEB-INF/classes folder. I want to separate the test *.class files from the src *.class files for 2 reasons:- There's no point to store them in WebContent/WEB-INF/classes and deploy them in production. Sonar and some other static code analysis tools don't produce an accurate static code analysis because it takes account of my crappy yet correct testcase code. So, right now, I have the following output folders:- "src" source folder compiles to WebContent/WEB-INF/classes folder. "test" source folder compiles to target/test-classes folder. Now, I'm getting this warning from RAD:- Broken single-root rule: A project may not contain more than one output folder. So, it seems like Eclipse-based IDEs prefer one project = one output folder, yet it provides an option for me to set up a custom output folder for my additional source folder from the "build path" dialog, and then it barks at me. I know I can just disable this warning myself, but I want to know how you guys handle this. Thanks.

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  • Improve a regex statement in order to be as efficient as it can be

    - by user551625
    I have a PHP program that, at some point, needs to analyze a big amount of HTML+javascript text to parse info. All I want to parse needs to be in two parts. Seperate all "HTML goups" to parse Parse each HTML group to get the needed information. In the 1st parse it needs to find: <div id="myHome" And start capturing after that tag. Then stop capturing before <span id="nReaders" And capture the number that comes after this tag and stop. In the 2nd parse use the capture nº 1 (0 has the whole thing and 2 has the number) from the parse made before and then find . I already have code to do that and it works. Is there a way to improve this, make it easier for the machine to parse? preg_match_all('%<div id="myHome"[^>]>(.*?)<span id="nReaders[^>]>([0-9]+)<"%msi', $data, $results, PREG_SET_ORDER); foreach($results AS $result){ preg_match_all('%<div class="myplacement".*?[.]php[?]((?:next|before))=([0-9]+).*?<tbody.*?<td[^>]>.*?[0-9]+"%msi', $result[1], $mydata, PREG_SET_ORDER); //takes care of the data and finish the program Note: I need this for a freeware program so it must be as general as possible and, if possible, not use php extensions ADD: I ommitted some parts here because I didn't expect for answers like those. There is also a need to parse text inside one of the tags that is in the document. It may be the 6th 7th or 8th tag but I know it is after a certain tag. The parser I've checked (thx profitphp) does work to find the script tag. What now? There are more than 1 tag with the same class. I want them all. But I want only with also one of a list of classes..... Where can I find instructions and demos and limitations of DOM parsers (like the one in http://simplehtmldom.sourceforge.net/)? I need something that will work on, at least, a big amount of free servers.

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  • Storing Result set into an array

    - by OVERTONE
    i know this should be simpel and im probably staring straight at the problem but once again im stuck and need the help of the code gurus. im trying too take one row from a column in jdbc, and put them in an array. i do this as follows: public void fillContactList() { createConnection(); try { Statement stmt = conn.createStatement(); ResultSet namesList = stmt.executeQuery("SELECT name FROM Users"); try { while (namesList.next()) { contactListNames[1] = namesList.getString(1); System.out.println("" + contactListNames[1]); } } catch(SQLException q) { } conn.commit(); stmt.close(); conn.close(); } catch(SQLException e) { } creatConnection is an already defined method that does what it obviously does. i creat my result set while theres another one, i store the string of that column into an array. then print it out for good measure. too make sure its there. the problem is that its storing the entire column into contactListNames[1] i wanted to make it store column1 row 1 into [1] then column 1 row 2 into [2] i know i could do this with a loop. but i dont know too take only one row at a time from a single column. any ideas? p.s ive read the api, i jsut cant see anything that fits.

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  • best database design for city zip & state tables

    - by ryan a
    My application will need to reference addresses. Street info will be stored with my main objects but the rest needs to be stored seperately to reduce redundancy. How should I store/retrieve ZIPs, cities and states? Here are some of my ideas. single table solution (cant do relationships) [locations] locationID locationParent (FK for locationID - 0 for state entries) locationName (city, state) locationZIP two tables (with relationships, FK constraints, ref integrity) [state] stateID stateName [city] cityID stateID (FK for state.stateID) cityName zipCode three tables [state] stateID stateName [city] cityID stateID (FK for state.stateID) cityName [zip] zipID cityID (FK for city.cityID) zipName Then I read into ZIP codes amd how they are assigned. They aren't specifically related to cities. Some cities have more than one ZIP (ok will still work) but some ZIPs are in more than one city (oh snap) and some other ZIPs (very few) are in more than one state! Also some ZIPs are not even in the same state as the address they belong to at all. Seems ZIPs are made for carrier route identification and some remote places are best served by post offices in neighboring cities or states. Does anybody know of a good (not perfect) solution that takes this into consideration to minimize discrepencies as the database grows?

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  • Django | passing form values

    - by MMRUser
    I want to create a user sign up process that requires two different forms with the same data one (1st form) is for filling out the data and other one (2nd form) is for displaying the filled data as a summery (before actually saving the data) so then user can view what he/she has filled up... my problem is that how do I pass 1st form's data in to the 2nd one .. I have used the basic Django form manipulation mechanism and passed the form field values to the next form using Django template tags.. if request.method == 'POST': form = Users(request.POST) if form.is_valid(): cd = form.cleaned_data try: name = cd['fullName'] email = cd['emailAdd'] password1 = cd['password'] password2 = cd['password2'] phoneNumber = cd['phoneNumber'] return render_to_response('signup2.html', {'name': name, 'email': email, 'password1': password1, 'password2': password2, 'phone': phone, 'pt': phoneType}) except Exception, ex: return HttpResponse("Error %s" % str(ex)) and from the second from I just displayed those field values using tags and also used hidden fields in order to submit the form with values, like this: <label for="">Email:</label> {{ email }} <input type="hidden" id="" name="email" class="width250" value="{{ email }}" readonly /> It works nicely from the out look, but the real problem is that if someone view the source of the html he can simply get the password even hackers can get through this easily. So how do I avoid this issue.. and I don't want to use Django session since this is just a simple sign up process and no other interactions involved. Thanks.

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  • When to use reinterpret_cast?

    - by HeretoLearn
    I am little confused with the applicability of reinterpret_cast vs static_cast. From what I have read the general rules are to use static cast when the types can be interpreted at compile time hence the word static. This is the cast the C++ compiler uses internally for implicit casts also. reinterpret_cast are applicable in two scenarios, convert integer types to pointer types and vice versa or to convert one pointer type to another. The general idea I get is this is unportable and should be avoided. Where I am a little confused is one usage which I need, I am calling C++ from C and the C code needs to hold on to the C++ object so basically it holds a void*. What cast should be used to convert between the void * and the Class type? I have seen usage of both static_cast and reinterpret_cast? Though from what I have been reading it appears static is better as the cast can happen at compile time? Though it says to use reinterpret_cast to convert from one pointer type to another?

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  • Combine Arbitrary number of polygons together

    - by Jakobud
    I have an arbitrary number of polygons (hexes in this case) that are arranged randomly, but they are all touching another hex. Each individual hex has 6 x,y vertices. The vertex's are known for all the hexes. Can anyone point me in the direction of an algorithm that will combine all the hexes into a single polygon? Essentially I'm just looking for a function that spits out an array of vertex locations that are ordered in a way that when drawing lines from one to the next, it forms the polygon. This is my method so far: Create array of all the vertices for all the hexes. Determine the number of times a vertex occurs in the array If vertex is in the array 3+ times, delete the vertices from the array. If vertex is in the array 2 times, delete one of them. The next step is tricky though. I'm using canvas to draw out these polygons, which essentially involves drawing a line from one vertex to the next. So the order of the vertices in the final array is important. It can't be sorted arbitrarily. Also, I'm not looking for a "convex hull" algorithm, as that would not draw the polygon correctly. Are there any functions out there that do something like this? Am I on the right track or is there a better more efficient way?

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  • Output columns not in destination table?

    - by lance
    SUMMARY: I need to use an OUTPUT clause on an INSERT statement to return columns which don't exist on the table into which I'm inserting. If I can avoid it, I don't want to add columns to the table to which I'm inserting. DETAILS: My FinishedDocument table has only one column. This is the table into which I'm inserting. FinishedDocument -- DocumentID My Document table has two columns. This is the table from which I need to return data. Document -- DocumentID -- Description The following inserts one row into FinishedDocument. Its OUTPUT clause returns the DocumentID which was inserted. This works, but it doesn't give me the Description of the inserted document. INSERT INTO FinishedDocument OUTPUT INSERTED.DocumentID SELECT DocumentID FROM Document WHERE DocumentID = @DocumentID I need to return from the Document table both the DocumentID and the Description of the matching document from the INSERT. What syntax do I need to pull this off? I'm thinking it's possible only with the one INSERT statement, by tweaking the OUTPUT clause (in a way I clearly don't understand)? Is there a smarter way that doesn't resemble the path I'm going down here? EDIT: SQL Server 2005

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  • Can a custom MFC window/dialog be a template class?

    - by John
    There's a bunch of special macros that MFC uses when creating dialogs, and in my quick tests I'm getting weird errors trying to compile a template dialog class. Is this likely to be a big pain to achieve? Here's what I tried: MyDlg.h template <class W> class CMyDlg : public CDialog { typedef CDialog super; DECLARE_DYNAMIC(CMyDlg <W>) public: CMyDlg (CWnd* pParent); // standard constructor virtual ~CMyDlg (); // Dialog Data enum { IDD = IDD_MYDLG }; protected: virtual void DoDataExchange(CDataExchange* pDX); // DDX/DDV support DECLARE_MESSAGE_MAP() private: W *m_pWidget; //W will always be a CDialog }; IMPLEMENT_DYNAMIC(CMyDlg<W>, super) <------------------- template <class W> CMyDlg<W>::CMyDlg(CWnd* pParent) : super(CMyDlg::IDD, pParent) { m_pWidget = new W(this); } I get a whole bunch of errors but main one appears to be: error C2955: 'CMyDlg' : use of class template requires template argument list I tried using some specialised template versions of macros but it doesn't help much, other errors change but this one remains. Note my code is all in one file, since C++ templates don't like .h/.cpp like normal.

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  • Why is a DataViewManager not sorting?

    - by Alarion
    First off, a quick rundown of what the code is doing. I have two tables: Companies and Clients. There is a one to many relationship between Companies and Clients (one company can have many clients). In some processing logic, I have both tables loaded into a DataSet - each are DataTables. I have added a DataRelation to set the relationship, and it works when I use GetChildRows on a record from the Companies table. However, I need to sort the records returned. After googling around some it looks like the DataViewManager is the way to go, and I have examined several basic examples. However, I cannot get my rows sorted. Am I missing something, or am I not using this how it is supposed to be used? Example code: Dim ldvmManager As New DataViewManager(mdsData) ldvmManager.DataViewSettings("Companies").Sort = "comName ASC" ldvmManager.DataViewSettings("Clients").ApplyDefaultSort = False ldvmManager.DataViewSettings("Clients").Sort = "entLastName ASC, entFirstName ASC" For Each mdrCurrentCompany in ldvmManager.DataViewSettings("Companies").Table.Rows Dim ldrClients() as DataRow = mdrCurrentCompany.GetChildRows("CompaniesClients") Next No matter what I do, the first Client returned has a last name that starts with a 'B' and the second has one that starts with a 'A'. From there, the order is all mixed up. If I use my entire data instead of the subset I was using to test with, the first Client returned has a last name that starts with 'J'. It seems like it is still using whatever default sort was being used before I tried to use the DataViewManager. Any ideas?

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