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  • No Change for Index of DropDownList in a Custom Control!!!

    - by mahdiahmadirad
    Hi Dears, I have Created A Custom Control which is a DropDownList with specified Items. I designed AutoPostback and SelectedCategoryId as Properties and SelectedIndexChanged as Event for My Custom Control. Here Is My ASCX file Behind Code: private int _selectedCategoryId; private bool _autoPostback = false; public event EventHandler SelectedIndexChanged; public void BindData() { //Some Code... } protected void Page_Load(object sender, EventArgs e) { BindData(); DropDownList1.AutoPostBack = this._autoPostback; } public int SelectedCategoryId { get { return int.Parse(this.DropDownList1.SelectedItem.Value); } set { this._selectedCategoryId = value; } } public string AutoPostback { get { return this.DropDownList1.AutoPostBack.ToString(); } set { this._autoPostback = Convert.ToBoolean(value); } } protected void DropDownList1_SelectedIndexChanged(object sender, EventArgs e) { if (SelectedIndexChanged != null) SelectedIndexChanged(this, EventArgs.Empty); } I Want Used Update Panel to Update Textbox Fields According to dorp down list selected index. this is my code in ASPX page: <asp:Panel ID="PanelCategory" runat="server"> <p> Select Product Category:&nbsp; <myCtrl:CategoryDDL ID="CategoryDDL1" AutoPostback="true" OnSelectedIndexChanged="CategoryIndexChanged" SelectedCategoryId="0" runat="server" /> </p> <hr /> </asp:Panel> <asp:UpdatePanel ID="UpdatePanelEdit" runat="server"> <ContentTemplate> <%--Some TextBoxes and Other Controls--%> </ContentTemplate> <Triggers> <asp:PostBackTrigger ControlID="CategoryDDL1" /> </Triggers> </asp:UpdatePanel> But Always The Selected Index of CategoryDDL1 is 0(Like default). this means Only Zero Value will pass to the event to update textboxes Data. what is the wrong with my code? why the selected Index not Changing? Help?

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  • While within a switch block

    - by rursw1
    Hi, I've seen the following code, taken from the libb64 project. I'm trying to understand what is the purpose of the while loop within the switch block - switch (state_in->step) { while (1) { case step_a: do { if (codechar == code_in+length_in) { state_in->step = step_a; state_in->plainchar = *plainchar; return plainchar - plaintext_out; } fragment = (char)base64_decode_value(*codechar++); } while (fragment < 0); *plainchar = (fragment & 0x03f) << 2; case step_b: do { if (codechar == code_in+length_in) { state_in->step = step_b; state_in->plainchar = *plainchar; return plainchar - plaintext_out; } fragment = (char)base64_decode_value(*codechar++); } while (fragment < 0); *plainchar++ |= (fragment & 0x030) >> 4; *plainchar = (fragment & 0x00f) << 4; case step_c: do { if (codechar == code_in+length_in) { state_in->step = step_c; state_in->plainchar = *plainchar; return plainchar - plaintext_out; } fragment = (char)base64_decode_value(*codechar++); } while (fragment < 0); *plainchar++ |= (fragment & 0x03c) >> 2; *plainchar = (fragment & 0x003) << 6; case step_d: do { if (codechar == code_in+length_in) { state_in->step = step_d; state_in->plainchar = *plainchar; return plainchar - plaintext_out; } fragment = (char)base64_decode_value(*codechar++); } while (fragment < 0); *plainchar++ |= (fragment & 0x03f); } } What can give the while? It seems that anyway, always the switch will perform only one of the cases. Did I miss something? Thanks.

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  • Advice needed: stay with Java team or move to C++ team?

    - by user68759
    Some background - I have been programming in Java as a professional for the last few years. This is mainly using Java SE. I have also touched bits and pieces of other various Java technologies and have some basic knowledge about them. I consider my self as an intermediate Java programmer. I like Java very much. I think it is only going to get bigger. Recently, my manager asked my opinion on whether I would like to be transferred to another team within the company that is developing a product in C++. This is mainly because my current Java team simply didn't make enough money due to poor sales and the economic downturn. Now, I have never had any experience with C++ nor have I ever coded a single line of code in C++. I have always wanted to learn it and now is my chance. But I really want to make sure I get benefit out of it in the future, in the sense that I will have the skills that will still be on-demand in the future. So, what do you experts think? Is C++ still the language to learn these days to secure yourself for the future? What will I learn more in C++ but not in Java? And are they worthy to learn considering the current and possible future demands in IT industry? (Apart from the obvious more control over memory management and something along that line.) What is a good excuse to refuse the offer in order to stay with the Java team? I don't want to blatantly refuse it because you can never predict the future and I could possibly come back to my manager in the future and ask him to transfer me to the C++ team. How do I say it nicely that I am taking the offer but I would like to still be involved with Java one way or another, such as when there is a new Java project I would like to be considered. I have to admit that I am kind of 50-50 at the moment. I want to learn C++ for the sake of improving my skills and also helping my company to reduce the fund required for the Java team. But it is also hard for me to leave Java because I know Java is going to get bigger, so I am afraid of getting behind when I start concentrating on C++. I could, of course, decide to just join the C++ team, and then spend my free time reading about Java to keep in touch with it, but I thought I would ask anyway in case some people can point out the strong points of either over the other given the current and possibly future circumstances.

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  • Should the argument be passed by reference in this .net example?

    - by Hamish Grubijan
    I have used Java, C++, .Net. (in that order). When asked about by-value vs. by-ref on interviews, I have always done well on that question ... perhaps because nobody went in-depth on it. Now I know that I do not see the whole picture. I was looking at this section of code written by someone else: XmlDocument doc = new XmlDocument(); AppendX(doc); // Real name of the function is different AppendY(doc); // ditto When I saw this code, I thought: wait a minute, should not I use a ref in front of doc variable (and modify AppendX/Y accordingly? it works as written, but made me question whether I actually understand the ref keyword in C#. As I thought about this more, I recalled early Java days (college intro language). A friend of mine looked at some code I have written and he had a mental block - he kept asking me which things are passed in by reference and when by value. My ignorant response was something like: Dude, there is only one kind of arg passing in Java and I forgot which one it is :). Chill, do not over-think and just code. Java still does not have a ref does it? Yet, Java hackers seem to be productive. Anyhow, coding in C++ exposed me to this whole by reference business, and now I am confused. Should ref be used in the example above? I am guessing that when ref is applied to value types: primitives, enums, structures (is there anything else in this list?) it makes a big difference. And ... when applied to objects it does not because it is all by reference. If things were so simple, then why would not the compiler restrict the usage of ref keyword to a subset of types. When it comes to objects, does ref serve as a comment sort of? Well, I do remember that there can be problems with null and ref is also useful for initializing multiple elements within a method (since you cannot return multiple things with the same easy as you would do in Python). Thanks.

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  • jQuery carousel click updates selected item in a select list?

    - by Scott B
    I'm trying to hook up the click event on a jQuery image carousel's images so that it updates a select list in the same document and sets the "selected" option to match the item that was clicked in the carousel. The "title" attribute on each of the carousel images matches at least one option in the select list (title is always unique). For example: 1) carousel image titles are: image1, image2, image3 <div id="carousel"> <ul> <li><img src='folder1/screenshot.jpg' title=image1 /></li> <li><img src='folder2/screenshot.jpg' title=image2 /></li> <li><img src='folder3/screenshot.jpg' title=image3 /></li> </ul> </div> 2) select list options are... <select id="myThumbs"> <option>image1</option> <option selected="selected">image2</option> <option>image3</option> </select> My existing code is below, which already binds the hover event to a preview div outside the carousel. I want to keep this behavior, and also add the click behavior to update the selected item in the options list so that it matches the title of the carousel image that was clicked. $(function() { $("#carousel").jCarouselLite({ btnNext: ".next", btnPrev: ".prev", visible: 6, mouseWheel: true, speed: 700 }); $('#carousel').show(); $('#myThumbs').change(function() { var myImage = $('#myThumbs :selected').text(); $('.selectedImage img').attr('src','../wp-content/themes/mytheme/styles/'+myImage+'/screenshot.jpg'); }); $('#carousel ul li').click(function(e) { var myOption = $(this).children('img').attr('title'); $('#myThumbs').addOption('Text', myOption); }); $('#carousel ul li').hover(function(e) { var img_src = $(this).children('img').attr('src'); $('.selectedImage img').attr('src',img_src); } ,function() { $('.selectedImage img').attr('src', '<?php echo $selectedThumb; ?>');}); });

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  • I cannot get mlocManager.removeUpdates(mlocListener); to work

    - by Colin
    I have an app that uses the LocationManage functions which works well until the app is stopped or paused. The location listener function is still carrying on in the background. Relevant bits of code follow. When I click home or back the onstop() function is being triggered correctly. package uk.cr.anchor; import android.app.Activity; import android.content.Context; import android.location.Location; import android.location.LocationListener; import android.location.LocationManager; import android.media.MediaPlayer; import android.media.RingtoneManager; import android.net.Uri; import android.os.Bundle; import android.view.View; import android.widget.EditText; import android.widget.TableRow; import android.widget.Toast; import android.widget.ToggleButton; import android.content.SharedPreferences; import android.graphics.Color; public class main extends Activity { /** Called when the activity is first created. */ private LocationManager mlocManager; private LocationListener mlocListener; @Override public void onCreate(Bundle savedInstanceState) { super.onCreate(savedInstanceState); setContentView(R.layout.main); LocationManager mlocManager = (LocationManager)getSystemService(Context.LOCATION_SERVICE); LocationListener mlocListener = new MyLocationListener(); mlocManager.requestLocationUpdates( LocationManager.GPS_PROVIDER, 0, 0, mlocListener); } @Override protected void onStop(){ stoplistening(); super.onStop(); } /* Class My Location Listener */ public class MyLocationListener implements LocationListener { @Override public void onLocationChanged(Location loc) { loc.getLatitude(); loc.getLongitude(); etc etc etc } private void stoplistening() { if (mlocManager != null) { Toast.makeText( getApplicationContext(), "kill", Toast.LENGTH_SHORT ).show(); mlocManager.removeUpdates(mlocListener); } else { Toast.makeText( getApplicationContext(), " not kill", Toast.LENGTH_SHORT ).show(); } } } I always get the "not kill" message. Can anyone help me!

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  • Chrome is creating duplicate sessions with the same id

    - by dlwiest
    I encountered an issue while I was revising my session library today, and this might be the first time I've ever seen a browser-specific problem on a back end script. I hope somebody can shed some light. Basically how the session library works is: when instantiated, it checks for a cookie called 'id' (in the form of a uniqid result) on the client machine. If a cookie is found, the script checks that and a hashed copy of the user agent string against entries in a session table. If a matching entry is found, the script resumes the session. If no cookie named 'id' is found, or if no matching entry exists in the sessions table, the script creates both. Fairly standard, I think. Now here's the weird part: in Firefox, everything works as predicted. The user gets one session, which he'll always resume upon connection, as long as 24 hours of inactivity has not elapsed. But when I visit the page in Chrome, even though it looks the same and appears to be executing queries in the same order, I see two entries in the session table. The sessions share an agent string, but the ids are different, and timestamp logs indicate that the ghost session is being created shortly (within a second) after the one created for the user. For debugging purposes, I've been printing queries to the screen as they're executed, and this is an example of what I'm seeing when Chrome should be opening one session and is somehow opening two instead: // Attempting to resume a session SELECT id FROM sessions WHERE id = '4fd24a5cd8df12.62439982' AND agent = '9bcd5c6aac911f8bcd938a9563bc4eca' // No result, so it creates a new one INSERT INTO sessions (id, agent, start, last) VALUES ('4fd24ef0347f26.72354606', '9bcd5c6aac911f8bcd938a9563bc4eca', '1339182832', '1339182832') // Clear old sessions DELETE FROM sessions WHERE last < 1339096432 And here's what I'm seeing in the database afterward: id, agent, start, last 4fd24ef0347f26.72354606, 9bcd5c6aac911f8bcd938a9563bc4eca, 1339182832, 1339182832 4fd24ef0857f94.72251285, 9bcd5c6aac911f8bcd938a9563bc4eca, 1339182833, 1339182833 Am I missing something obvious? The only thing I can think of is that Chrome might be creating a hidden session in the background, possibly to crawl the page. If that's the case though, it could become a problem later, when I begin associating active sessions with entries in the users table. I've been looking for possible bugs in my script, but I haven't found anything so far, and everything works as expected in Firefox.

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  • IE dynamic image caching issue?

    - by rdevitt
    I have an html page that is loading multiple iframes into which are embedded dynamic images created from a Tomcat server page (.jsp). This works as expected from Chrome and Firefox, but for some reason IE displays all of the images the same (as the first image). I've created an example: http://coupondiscounts.com/dev/jsImageTest.html jsImageTest.html -- This page simply loads 6 instances of the testImageFrame.html page in separate iframes one-at-a-time, using Javascript. testImageFrame.html -- This is the page loaded in all the iframes. It contains only a JavaScript block that writes out the current time and an img tag. The img is dynamically generated by a .jsp page on a different server. It should be a white box on a black background. In the box are the current time (from the Tomcat server using Java) and a randomly created double between 0 & 1. What happens (in IE): The page almost instantly loads four identical iframes. Depending on the speed of your machine, the JavaScript times may vary by a second or two. The images' times will all be the same as will be the random number. This holds true even for the last two iframes which are loaded 5 and 10 seconds after the others (using JavaScript setTimeout()). What should happen (as it does in Chrome and FF): The page loads the same 4 iframes, but the random numbers in the images will be different. The times in the images occasionally span a second as well. Anyone have a clue as to what's going on here? Is IE doing some strange caching? The image header has "no-cache," "no-store" and all that. I've tried it on IE6 and 7. You can use the "Next" button to create another iframe. In IE, the images are always the same. Notes: I don't really need iframes, just the images, but if I only use img tags, the problem appears in Chrome and FF as well. I also don't really need to load these iframes dynamically, I was just trying to abstract the issue further and allow a delayed load for the latter 2 images.

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  • Can you get a Func<T> (or similar) from a MethodInfo object?

    - by Dan Tao
    I realize that, generally speaking, there are performance implications of using reflection. (I myself am not a fan of reflection at all, actually; this is a purely academic question.) Suppose there exists some class that looks like this: public class MyClass { public string GetName() { return "My Name"; } } Bear with me here. I know that if I have an instance of MyClass called x, I can call x.GetName(). Furthermore, I could set a Func<string> variable to x.GetName. Now here's my question. Let's say I don't know the above class is called MyClass; I've got some object, x, but I have no idea what it is. I could check to see if that object has a GetName method by doing this: MethodInfo getName = x.GetType().GetMethod("GetName"); Suppose getName is not null. Then couldn't I furthermore check if getName.ReturnType == typeof(string) and getName.GetParameters().Length == 0, and at this point, wouldn't I be quite certain that the method represented by my getName object could definitely be cast to a Func<string>, somehow? I realize there's a MethodInfo.Invoke, and I also realize I could always create a Func<string> like: Func<string> getNameFunc = () => getName.Invoke(x, null); I guess what I'm asking is if there's any way to go from a MethodInfo object to the actual method it represents, incurring the performance cost of reflection in the process, but after that point being able to call the method directly (via, e.g., a Func<string> or something similar) without a performance penalty. What I'm envisioning might look something like this: // obviously this would throw an exception if GetActualInstanceMethod returned // something that couldn't be cast to a Func<string> Func<string> getNameFunc = (Func<string>)getName.GetActualInstanceMethod(x); (I realize that doesn't exist; I'm wondering if there's anything like it.) If what I'm asking doesn't make sense, or if I'm being unclear, I'll be happy to attempt to clarify.

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  • SQL version control methodology

    - by Tom H.
    There are several questions on SO about version control for SQL and lots of resources on the web, but I can't find something that quite covers what I'm trying to do. First off, I'm talking about a methodology here. I'm familiar with the various source control applications out there and I'm familiar with tools like Red Gate's SQL Compare, etc. and I know how to write an application to check things in and out of my source control system automatically. If there is a tool which would be particularly helpful in providing a whole new methodology or which have a useful and uncommon functionality then great, but for the tasks mentioned above I'm already set. The requirements that I'm trying to meet are: The database schema and look-up table data are versioned DML scripts for data fixes to larger tables are versioned A server can be promoted from version N to version N + X where X may not always be 1 Code isn't duplicated within the version control system - for example, if I add a column to a table I don't want to have to make sure that the change is in both a create script and an alter script The system needs to support multiple clients who are at various versions for the application (trying to get them all up to within 1 or 2 releases, but not there yet) Some organizations keep incremental change scripts in their version control and to get from version N to N + 3 you would have to run scripts for N-N+1 then N+1-N+2 then N+2-N+3. Some of these scripts can be repetitive (for example, a column is added but then later it is altered to change the data type). We're trying to avoid that repetitiveness since some of the client DBs can be very large, so these changes might take longer than necessary. Some organizations will simply keep a full database build script at each version level then use a tool like SQL Compare to bring a database up to one of those versions. The problem here is that intermixing DML scripts can be a problem. Imagine a scenario where I add a column, use a DML script to fill said column, then in a later version that column name is changed. Perhaps there is some hybrid solution? Maybe I'm just asking for too much? Any ideas or suggestions would be greatly appreciated though. If the moderators think that this would be more appropriate as a community wiki, please let me know. Thanks!

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  • Large Data Table with first column fixed

    - by bhavya_w
    I have structure as shown in the fiddle http://jsfiddle.net/5LN7U/. <section class="container"> <section class="field"> <ul> <li> Question 1 </li> <li> question 2 </li> <li> question 3 </li> <li> question 4 </li> <li> question 5 </li> <li> question 6 </li> <li> question 7 </li> </ul> </section> <section class="datawrap"> <section class="datawrapinner"> <ul> <li><b>Answer 1 :</b></li> <li><b>Answer 2 :</b></li> <li><b>Answer 3 :</b></li> <li><b>Answer 4 :</b></li> <li><b>Answer 5 :</b></li> <li><b>Answer 6 :</b></li> <li><b>Answer 7 :</b></li> </ul> </section> </section> </section> Basically its a table structure made using divs. The first column contains a long list of questions and the second column contains answers/multiple answers which can be quite big ( there has to be horizontal scrolling in the second column.) The problem i am facing is when i scroll downwards the second column which has the horizontal scroll bar is also scrolling downward. I want horizontal scrollbar to be fixed there. as in it should be always fixed there no matter how much i scroll vertically. Much Like Google Spreadsheets: where the first column stays fixed and there's horizontal scrolling on rest of the columns with over vertical scrolling for whole of the data. I cannot used position fixed in the second column. P.S : please no lectures on using div's for making a table structure. I have my own reasons. and its kinda urgent. Thanks in advance.

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  • How to give properties to c++ classes (interfaces)

    - by caas
    Hello, I have built several classes (A, B, C...) which perform operations on the same BaseClass. Example: struct BaseClass { int method1(); int method2(); int method3(); } struct A { int methodA(BaseClass& bc) { return bc.method1(); } } struct B { int methodB(BaseClass& bc) { return bc.method2()+bc.method1(); } } struct C { int methodC(BaseClass& bc) { return bc.method3()+bc.method2(); } } But as you can see, each class A, B, C... only uses a subset of the available methods of the BaseClass and I'd like to split the BaseClass into several chunks such that it is clear what it used and what is not. For example a solution could be to use multiple inheritance: // A uses only method1() struct InterfaceA { virtual int method1() = 0; } struct A { int methodA(InterfaceA&); } // B uses method1() and method2() struct InterfaceB { virtual int method1() = 0; virtual int method2() = 0; } struct B { int methodB(InterfaceB&); } // C uses method2() and method3() struct InterfaceC { virtual int method2() = 0; virtual int method3() = 0; } struct C { int methodC(InterfaceC&); } The problem is that each time I add a new type of operation, I need to change the implementation of BaseClass. For example: // D uses method1() and method3() struct InterfaceD { virtual int method1() = 0; virtual int method3() = 0; } struct D { int methodD(InterfaceD&); } struct BaseClass : public A, B, C // here I need to add class D { ... } Do you know a clean way I can do this? Thanks for your help edit: I forgot to mention that it can also be done with templates. But I don't like this solution either because the required interface does not appear explicitly in the code. You have to try to compile the code to verify that all required methods are implemented correctly. Plus, it would require to instantiate different versions of the classes (one for each BaseClass type template parameter) and this is not always possible nor desired.

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  • No warning from gcc when function definition in linked source different from function prototype in h

    - by c_c
    Hi, I had a problem with a part of my code, which after some iterations seemed to read NaN as value of a int of a struct. I think I found the error, but am still wondering why gcc (version 3.2.3 on a embedded Linux with busybox) did not warn me. Here are the important parts of the code: A c file and its header for functions to acquire data over USB: // usb_control.h typedef struct{ double mean; short *values; } DATA_POINTS; typedef struct{ int size; DATA_POINTS *channel1; //....7 more channels } DATA_STRUCT; DATA_STRUCT *create_data_struct(int N); // N values per channel int free_data_struct(DATA_STRUCT *data); int aqcu_data(DATA_STRUCT *data, int N); A c and header file with helper function (math, bitshift,etc...): // helper.h int mean(DATA_STRUCT *data); // helper.c (this is where the error is obviously) double mean(DATA_STRUCT *data) { // sum in for loop data->channel1->mean = sum/data->N; // ...7 more channels // a printf here displayed the mean values corretly } The main file // main.c #include "helper.h" #include "usb_control.h" // Allocate space for data struct DATA_STRUCT *data = create_data_struct(N); // get data for different delays for (delay = 0; delay < 500; delay += pw){ acqu_data(data, N); mean(data); // printf of the mean values first is correct. Than after 5 iterations // it is always NaN for channel1. The other channels are displayed correctly; } There were no segfaults nor any other missbehavior, just the NaN for channel1 in the main file. After finding the error, which was not easy, it was of course east to fix. The return type of mean(){} was wrong in the definition. Instead of double mean() it has to be int mean() as the prototype defines. When all the functions are put into one file, gcc warns me that there is a redefinition of the function mean(). But as I compile each c file seperately and link them afterwards gcc seems to miss that. So my questions would be. Why didn't I get any warnings, even non with gcc -Wall? Or is there still another error hidden which is just not causing problems now? Regards, christian

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  • preg_replace replacing with array

    - by Scott
    What I want to do is replace the "[replace]" in input string with the corresponding vaule in the replace array. The total number of values will change but there will always be the same number in the replace array as in input string. I have tried doing this with preg_replace and preg_replace_callback but I can't get the pattern right for [replace], I also tried using vsprintf but the % in <table width="100%"> was messing it up. All help is greatly appreciated! Replace Array: $array = array('value 1','value 2','value 3'); Input String $string = ' <table width="100%"> <tr> <td>Name:</td> <td>[replace]</td> </tr> <tr> <td>Date:</td> <td>[replace]</td> </tr> <tr> <td>Info:</td> <td>[replace]</td> </tr> </table> '; Desired Result <table width="100%"> <tr> <td>Name:</td> <td>value 1</td> </tr> <tr> <td>Date:</td> <td>value 2</td> </tr> <tr> <td>Info:</td> <td>value 3</td> </tr> </table>

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  • priority_queue with dynamic priorities

    - by Layne
    Hey, I have a server application which accepts incomming queries and executes them. If there are too many queries they should be queued and if some of the other queries got executed the queued queries should be executed as well. Since I want to pass queries with different priorities I think using a priority_queue would be the best choice. e.g. The amout of the axcepting queries (a) hit the limt and new queries will be stored in the queue. All queries have a priority of 1 (lowest) if some of the queries from (a) get executed the programm will pick the query with the highest priority out of the queue and execute it. Still no problem. Now someone is sending a query with a priority of 5 which gets added to the queue. Since this is the query with the highest priority the application will execute this query as soon as the running queries no longer hit the limit. There might be the worst case that 500 queries with a priority of 1 are queued but wont be executed since someone is always sending queries with a priority of 5 hence these 500 queries will be queued for a looooong time. In order to prevent that I want to increase the prioritiy of all queries which have a lower priority than the query with the higher priority, in this example which have a priority lower than 5. So if the query with a priority of 5 gets pulled out of the queue all other queries with a priority < 5 should be increased by 0.2. This way queries with a low priority wont be queued for ever even if there might be 100 queries with a higher priority. I really hope can help me to solve the problem with the priorities: Since my queries consist of an object I thought something like this might work: class Query { public: Query( std::string p_stQuery ) : stQuery( p_stQuery ) {}; std::string getQuery() const {return stQuery;}; void increasePriority( const float fIncrease ) {fPriority += fIncrease;}; friend bool operator < ( const Query& PriorityFirst, const Query& PriorityNext ) { if( PriorityFirst.fPriority < PriorityNext.fPriority ) { if( PriorityFirst.fStartPriority < PriorityNext.fStartPriority ) { Query qTemp = PriorityFirst; qTemp.increasePriority( INCREASE_RATE ); } return true; } else { return false; } }; private: static const float INCREASE_RATE = 0.2; float fPriority; // current priority float fStartPriority; // initialised priority std::string stQuery; };

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  • Is it possible to make this Flex/Flash application safe?

    - by Frank
    I'm back with another Flex/Flash security question. I've already received some help from the community on this topic, but I'm still not quite sure this is the best way to do. Here's the thing. A flex web app, a lot of users (1000+), custom configuration of the application depending of the user group. Can I make this thing safe... or safer. For the moment, when a user comes to the application, there is only one configuration possible, but for the next version we've implented a multi-configuration protocol, this way : 1. The user connect to Default.aspx, server code process the windows credentials (whe are on intranet) and give the correct xml configuration file. 2. The flex app loads with the xml conf file as a flashvar and then the app 'builds' itself with the content of the xml file. As we know, since this is a flex application the swf is downloaded on the client computer and the xml file too. If more than one user connects to the app, from the same computer, the can possibly see the other xml file in the windows temp folder. The current directory of the application looks that way : Web site |-> default.aspx |-> index.swf |-> configAdmin.xml |-> configUserType1.xml |-> configUserType2.xml |-> com |-> a lot of swf and xml files I was first thinking making another directory (without read access for the client) containing all the configurations xml files, picking the right one, copying it to the client and deleting it afterwards. But it seems like I must let know the user know when downloading/deleting content on it's computer... I'm running out of ideas, so I hope you have some great ones. It's there are some design flaws (in the way the app is build, not in Flash :p) please share. I'm always looking forward to improve. Thanks Update : In browser Flash/Flex (without AIR that is) doesn't allow deleting file localy silently (on the client computer, where the application is). It's also not yet possible to get session data.

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  • Difficulty with jQuery and input keydown event

    - by Rosarch
    I am making a simple JavaScript enhanced list. I want it to be a list of inputs, each with an 'Add' and 'Remove' button. If the user clicks 'Add', a new li will be added. If the user clicks 'Remove', that li will be removed. It works fine, except for hitting "enter" in an <input>. Currently, it always causes the Remove.click event handler to fire, unless there's only one item in the list. I'm not sure why. How can I suppress this? Here is the complete jQuery. My attempt to fix the "enter" issue is commented out, and it doesn't work. I suspect that I could be designing this code better; if you see an improvement I'd love to hear it. function make_smart_list(list) { var ADD_CLASS = 'foo-widget-Add'; var REMOVE_CLASS = 'foo-widget-Remove'; var jq_list = $(list); jq_list.parents('form').submit(function() { return false; }); function refresh_handlers() { jq_list.find(sprintf('.%s, .%s', REMOVE_CLASS, ADD_CLASS)).unbind('click'); // jq_list.find('input').unbind('submit'); // // jq_list.find('input').submit(function() { // var jq_this = $(this); // var next_button = jq_this.nextAll('button'); // if (next_button.hasClass(ADD_CLASS)) { // next_button.nextAll('button').click(); // return; // } // // if (next_button.hasClass(REMOVE_CLASS)) { // return false; // } // // }); jq_list.find("." + REMOVE_CLASS).click(function() { var jq_this = $(this); jq_this.parent().remove(); refresh_handlers(); return false; }); jq_list.find("." + ADD_CLASS).click(function() { var jq_this = $(this); if (jq_this.prevAll('input').val() == '') { return; } jq_this.parent().clone().appendTo(jq_this.parent().parent()); jq_this.parent().next().find('input').val('').focus(); jq_this.removeClass(ADD_CLASS).addClass(REMOVE_CLASS); jq_this.text('Remove'); refresh_handlers(); return false; }); } refresh_handlers(); } (sprintf is another script I have.)

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  • Efficient method of finding database rows that have *one or more* qualities from a list of seven qualities

    - by hithere
    Hello! For this question, I'm looking to see if anyone has a better idea of how to implement what I'm currently planning on implementing (below): I'm keeping track of a set of images, using a database. Each image is represented by one row. I want to be able to search for images, using a number of different search parameters. One of these parameters involves a search-by-color option. (The rest of the search stuff is currently working fine.) Images in this database can contain up to seven colors: -Red -Orange -Yellow -Green -Blue -Indigo -Violet Here are some example user queries: "I want an image that contains red." "I want an image that contains red and blue." "I want an image that contains yellow and violet." "I want an image that contains red, orange, yellow, green, blue, indigo and violet." And so on. Users make this selection through the use of checkboxes in an html form. They can check zero checkboxes, all seven, and anything in between. I'm curious to hear what people think would be the most efficient way to perform this database search. I have two possible options right now, but I feel like there must be something better that I'm not thinking of. (Option 1) -For each row, simply have seven additional fields in the database, one for each color. Each field holds a 1 or 0 (true/false) value, and I SELECT based on whatever the user has checked off. (I didn't like this solution so much, because it seemed kind of wasteful to add seven additional fields...especially since most pictures in this table will only have 3-4 colors max, though some could have up to 7. So that means I'm storing a lot of zeros.) Also, if I added more searchable colors later on (which I don't think I will, but it's always possible), I'd have to add more fields. (Option 2) -For each image row, I could have a "colors" text field that stores space-separated color names (or numbers for the sake of compactness). Then I could do a fulltext match against search through the fields, selecting rows that contain "red yellow green" (or "1 3 4"). But I kind of didn't want to do fulltext searching because I already allow a keyword search, and I didn't really want to do two fulltext searches per image search. Plus, if the database gets big, fulltext stuff might slow down. Any better options that I didn't think of? Thanks! Side Note: I'm using PHP to work with a MySQL database.

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  • How to submit the correct div elements (not the div that's hidden)?

    - by user356651
    Hello, I have the following code working fine but the problem is that it always submits the first div (article) even though it's hidden. My question is how do I submit the form and the elements in the form in the div that's shown? (if I select Music radiobutton, I want to submit the input elements of the Music Div not the Article div. Thanks. $(document).ready(function(){ $("input[name$='itemlist']").click(function() { var selection = $(this).val(); $("div.box").hide(); $("#"+selection).show(); }); }); <!--radio buttons--> <div id="articleselection"><input name="itemlist" type="radio" value="article" /> Article/Book </div> <div id="musicselection"><input name="itemlist" type="radio" value="music" /> Music</div> <!--article div starts--> <div id="article" class="box"> <table class="fieldgroup"> <tr><td>Journal Title: <input id="JournalTitle" name="JournalTitle" type="text" size="60" class="f-name" tabindex="1" value="JournalTitle"> </table> <table class="fieldgroup"> <tr><td>Article Author: <input id="ArticleAuthor" name="ArticleAuthor" type="text" size="40" class="f-name" tabindex="2" value="<"ArticleAuthor"></td></tr> </table> </div> <!--music div starts--> <div id="music" class="box"> <table class="fieldgroup"> <tr><td>Music Title: <input id="Music Title" name="Music Title" type="text" size="60" class="f-name" tabindex="1" value="Music Title"> </table> <table class="fieldgroup"> <tr><td> Music Author: <input id="MusicAuthor" name="Music Author" type="text" size="40" class="f-name" tabindex="2" value="<"MusicAuthor"></td></tr> </table> </div>

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  • IF statement within WHILE not working

    - by Ds.109
    I am working on a basic messaging system. This is to get all the messages and to make the row of the table that has an unread message Green. In the table, there is a column called 'msgread'. this is set to '0' by default. Therefore it should make any row with the msgread = 0 - green. this is only working for the first row of the table with the code i have - i verified that it is always getting a 0 value, however it only works the first time through in the while statement .. require('./connect.php'); $getmessages = "SELECT * FROM messages WHERE toperson = '" . $userid . "'"; echo $getmessages; $messages = mysql_query($getmessages); if(mysql_num_rows($messages) != 0) { $table = "<table><tr><th>From</th><th>Subject</th><th>Message</th></tr>"; while($results = mysql_fetch_array($messages)) { if(strlen($results[message]) < 30){ $message = $results[message]; } else { $message = substr($results[message], 0 ,30) . "..."; } if($results[msgread] == 0){ $table .= "<tr style='background:#9CFFB6'>"; $table .= "<td>" . $results[from] . "</td><td>" . $results[subject] . "</td><td><a href='viewmessage.php?id=" . $results[message_id] ."'>" . $message . "</a></td></tr>"; } else { $table .= "<tr>"; $table .= "<td>" . $results[from] . "</td><td>" . $results[subject] . "</td><td><a href='viewmessage.php?id=" . $results[message_id] ."'>" . $message . "</a></td></tr>"; } } echo $table ."</table>"; } else { echo "No Messages Found"; } There's all the code, including grabbing the info from the database. Thanks.

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  • aligning divs in <td> to top of <td>

    - by twitter
    update: added jsfiddle: http://jsfiddle.net/WgzgF/11/ I have a table with a bunch of <td>. Each td has a div .tdcont which is like a wrapper of all content in that td. In .tdcont, I have 2 groups of divs .alwaystop and .below-at. <td class="table-td"> <div class="tdcont"> <div class="alwaystop"> <div class="at1">at1</div> <div class="at2">at2</div> <div class="at3">at3</div> </div> <div class="below-at"> <div class="bat1">bat1</div> <div class="bat2">bat2</div> <div class="bat3">bat3</div> </div> </div> </td> The problem I'm having is that alwaystop is supposed to align itself to the top border of the cell and below-at is supposed to come right under it like this _____________________________________________________ at1 at2 at3 | at1 at2 at3 | at1 at2 at3 | bat1 bat2 bat3 | bat1 bat2 bat3 | bat1 bat2 bat3 | small image here | big image here | | | is taking lots | | | of space | | __________________|_________________|________________| What I'm finding is that alwaystop and below-at center themselves vertically like you see in this fiddle http://jsfiddle.net/WgzgF/11/ so if one of the adjacent cells in this row is long, alwaystop centers itself to this row's height like this _____________________________________________________ | at1 at2 at3 | | | bat1 bat2 bat3 | | at1 at2 at3 | big image here | at1 at2 at3 | bat1 bat2 bat3 | is taking lots | bat1 bat2 bat3 | small image here | of space | | __________________|_________________|________________| What I want to do is make alwaystop always start from the top of the cell regardless of adjacent cells' heights, then the below-at comes under it. How can I do this? I should add that I have the content of alwaystop is floated left, so is the content of below-at, so they're supposed to be like 2 rows inside that td. .at1, .at2, .at3{ float:left; } .bat1, .bat2, .bat3{ float:left; } The css for alwaystop and below-at is empty. I tried a whole bunch of stuff like vertical-align and absolute positioning, but nothing worked and I just gave up and deleted them. .alwaystop{ } .below-at{ }

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  • More efficient SQL than using "A UNION (B in A)"?

    - by machinatus
    Edit 1 (clarification): Thank you for the answers so far! The response is gratifying. I want to clarify the question a little because based on the answers I think I did not describe one aspect of the problem correctly (and I'm sure that's my fault as I was having a difficult time defining it even for myself). Here's the rub: The result set should contain ONLY the records with tstamp BETWEEN '2010-01-03' AND '2010-01-09', AND the one record where the tstamp IS NULL for each order_num in the first set (there will always be one with null tstamp for each order_num). The answers given so far appear to include all records for a certain order_num if there are any with tstamp BETWEEN '2010-01-03' AND '2010-01-09'. For example, if there were another record with order_num = 2 and tstamp = 2010-01-12 00:00:00 it should not be included in the result. Original question: Consider an orders table containing id (unique), order_num, tstamp (a timestamp), and item_id (the single item included in an order). tstamp is null, unless the order has been modified, in which case there is another record with identical order_num and tstamp then contains the timestamp of when the change occurred. Example... id order_num tstamp item_id __ _________ ___________________ _______ 0 1 100 1 2 101 2 2 2010-01-05 12:34:56 102 3 3 113 4 4 124 5 5 135 6 5 2010-01-07 01:23:45 136 7 5 2010-01-07 02:46:00 137 8 6 100 9 6 2010-01-13 08:33:55 105 What is the most efficient SQL statement to retrieve all of the orders (based on order_num) which have been modified one or more times during a certain date range? In other words, for each order we need all of the records with the same order_num (including the one with NULL tstamp), for each order_num WHERE at least one of the order_num's has tstamp NOT NULL AND tstamp BETWEEN '2010-01-03' AND '2010-01-09'. It's the "WHERE at least one of the order_num's has tstamp NOT NULL" that I'm having difficulty with. The result set should look like this: id order_num tstamp item_id __ _________ ___________________ _______ 1 2 101 2 2 2010-01-05 12:34:56 102 5 5 135 6 5 2010-01-07 01:23:45 136 7 5 2010-01-07 02:46:00 137 The SQL that I came up with is this, which is essentially "A UNION (B in A)", but it executes slowly and I hope there is a more efficient solution: SELECT history_orders.order_id, history_orders.tstamp, history_orders.item_id FROM (SELECT orders.order_id, orders.tstamp, orders.item_id FROM orders WHERE orders.tstamp BETWEEN '2010-01-03' AND '2010-01-09') AS history_orders UNION SELECT current_orders.order_id, current_orders.tstamp, current_orders.item_id FROM (SELECT orders.order_id, orders.tstamp, orders.item_id FROM orders WHERE orders.tstamp IS NULL) AS current_orders WHERE current_orders.order_id IN (SELECT orders.order_id FROM orders WHERE orders.tstamp BETWEEN '2010-01-03' AND '2010-01-09');

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  • Why does Cacti keep waiting for dead poller processes?

    - by Oliver Salzburg
    sorry for the length I am currently setting up a new Debian (6.0.5) server. I put Cacti (0.8.7g) on it yesterday and have been battling with it ever since. Initial issue The initial issue I was observing, was that my graphs weren't updating. So I checked my cacti.log and found this concerning message: POLLER: Poller[0] Maximum runtime of 298 seconds exceeded. Exiting. That can't be good, right? So I went checking and started poller.php myself (via sudo -u www-data php poller.php --force). It will pump out a lot of message (which all look like what I would expect) and then hang for a minute. After that 1 minute, it will loop the following message: Waiting on 1 of 1 pollers. This goes on for 4 more minutes until the process is forcefully ended for running longer than 300s. So far so good I went on for a good hour trying to determine what poller might still be running, until I got to the conclusion that there simply is no running poller. Debugging I checked poller.php to see how that warning is issued and why. On line 368, Cacti will retrieve the number of finished processes from the database and use that value to calculate how many processes are still running. So, let's see that value! I added the following debug code into poller.php: print "Finished: " . $finished_processes . " - Started: " . $started_processes . "\n"; Result This will print the following within seconds of starting poller.php: Finished: 0 - Started: 1 Waiting on 1 of 1 pollers. Finished: 1 - Started: 1 So the values are being read and are valid. Until we get to the part where it keeps looping: Finished: - Started: 1 Waiting on 1 of 1 pollers. Suddenly, the value is gone. Why? Putting var_dump() in there confirms the issue: NULL Finished: - Started: 1 Waiting on 1 of 1 pollers. The return value is NULL. How can that be when querying SELECT COUNT()...? (SELECT COUNT() should always return one result row, shouldn't it?) More debugging So I went into lib\database.php and had a look at that db_fetch_cell(). A bit of testing confirmed, that the result set is actually empty. So I added my own database query code in there to see what that would do: $finished_processes = db_fetch_cell("SELECT count(*) FROM poller_time WHERE poller_id=0 AND end_time>'0000-00-00 00:00:00'"); print "Finished: " . $finished_processes . " - Started: " . $started_processes . "\n"; $mysqli = new mysqli("localhost","cacti","cacti","cacti"); $result = $mysqli->query("SELECT COUNT(*) FROM poller_time WHERE poller_id=0 AND end_time>'0000-00-00 00:00:00';"); $row = $result->fetch_assoc(); var_dump( $row ); This will output Finished: - Started: 1 array(1) { ["COUNT(*)"]=> string(1) "2" } Waiting on 1 of 1 pollers. So, the data is there and can be accessed without any problems, just not with the method Cacti is using? Double-check that! I enabled MySQL logging to make sure I'm not imagining things. Sure enough, when the error message is looped, the cacti.log reads as if it was querying like mad: 06/29/2012 08:44:00 PM - CMDPHP: Poller[0] DEVEL: SQL Cell: "SELECT count(*) FROM cacti.poller_time WHERE poller_id=0 AND end_time>'0000-00-00 00:00:00'" 06/29/2012 08:44:01 PM - CMDPHP: Poller[0] DEVEL: SQL Cell: "SELECT count(*) FROM cacti.poller_time WHERE poller_id=0 AND end_time>'0000-00-00 00:00:00'" 06/29/2012 08:44:02 PM - CMDPHP: Poller[0] DEVEL: SQL Cell: "SELECT count(*) FROM cacti.poller_time WHERE poller_id=0 AND end_time>'0000-00-00 00:00:00'" But none of these queries are logged my MySQL. Yet, when I add my own database query code, it shows up just fine. What the heck is going on here?

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  • Windows XP - Security Update for Windows XP (KB923561) (KB946648) (KB956572) (KB958644)

    - by leeand00
    My father's computer has Windows XP, but when I try to install the service packs it always fails. What gives? Here are the errors that I get in the event log: Date: 2/6/2010 Time: 12:02:18 AM Type: Error User: N/A Computer: EVO Source: Windows Update Agent Category: Installation Event ID: 20 Installation Failure: Windows failed to install the following update with error 0x80070002: Security Update for Windows XP (KB946648). For more information, see Help and Support Center at http://go.microsoft.com/fwlink/events.asp. 0000: 57 69 6e 33 32 48 52 65 Win32HRe 0008: 73 75 6c 74 3d 30 78 38 sult=0x8 0010: 30 30 37 30 30 30 32 20 0070002 0018: 55 70 64 61 74 65 49 44 UpdateID 0020: 3d 7b 38 33 44 31 41 44 ={83D1AD 0028: 46 35 2d 37 37 39 44 2d F5-779D- 0030: 34 30 31 36 2d 38 43 33 4016-8C3 0038: 31 2d 35 34 39 32 37 30 1-549270 0040: 46 36 37 42 33 46 7d 20 F67B3F} 0048: 52 65 76 69 73 69 6f 6e Revision 0050: 4e 75 6d 62 65 72 3d 31 Number=1 0058: 30 34 20 00 04 . Date: 2/6/2010 Time: 12:02:18 AM Type: Error User: N/A Computer: EVO Source: Windows Update Agent Catagory: Installation Event ID: 20 Installation Failure: Windows failed to install the following update with error 0x80070002: Security Update for Windows XP (KB956572). For more information, see Help and Support Center at http://go.microsoft.com/fwlink/events.asp. 0000: 57 69 6e 33 32 48 52 65 Win32HRe 0008: 73 75 6c 74 3d 30 78 38 sult=0x8 0010: 30 30 37 30 30 30 32 20 0070002 0018: 55 70 64 61 74 65 49 44 UpdateID 0020: 3d 7b 44 46 32 46 30 41 ={DF2F0A 0028: 39 38 2d 36 45 33 35 2d 98-6E35- 0030: 34 33 37 39 2d 41 42 33 4379-AB3 0038: 33 2d 41 30 33 30 33 45 3-A0303E 0040: 46 37 34 42 32 41 7d 20 F74B2A} 0048: 52 65 76 69 73 69 6f 6e Revision 0050: 4e 75 6d 62 65 72 3d 31 Number=1 0058: 30 32 20 00 02 . Date: 2/6/2010 Time: 12:02:18 AM Type: Error User: N/A Computer EVO Source: Windows Update Agent Event ID: 20 Installation Failure: Windows failed to install the following update with error 0x80070002: Security Update for Windows XP (KB958644). For more information, see Help and Support Center at http://go.microsoft.com/fwlink/events.asp. 0000: 57 69 6e 33 32 48 52 65 Win32HRe 0008: 73 75 6c 74 3d 30 78 38 sult=0x8 0010: 30 30 37 30 30 30 32 20 0070002 0018: 55 70 64 61 74 65 49 44 UpdateID 0020: 3d 7b 39 33 39 37 41 32 ={9397A2 0028: 31 46 2d 32 34 36 43 2d 1F-246C- 0030: 34 35 33 42 2d 41 43 30 453B-AC0 0038: 35 2d 36 35 42 46 34 46 5-65BF4F 0040: 43 36 42 36 38 42 7d 20 C6B68B} 0048: 52 65 76 69 73 69 6f 6e Revision 0050: 4e 75 6d 62 65 72 3d 31 Number=1 0058: 30 31 20 00 01 . Date: 2/6/2010 Time: 12:02:18 AM Type: Error User: N/A Computer: EVO Source: Windows Update Agent Category: Installation Event ID: 20 Installation Failure: Windows failed to install the following update with error 0x80070002: Security Update for Windows XP (KB923561). For more information, see Help and Support Center at http://go.microsoft.com/fwlink/events.asp. 0000: 57 69 6e 33 32 48 52 65 Win32HRe 0008: 73 75 6c 74 3d 30 78 38 sult=0x8 0010: 30 30 37 30 30 30 32 20 0070002 0018: 55 70 64 61 74 65 49 44 UpdateID 0020: 3d 7b 33 31 30 41 34 43 ={310A4C 0028: 30 38 2d 35 39 33 44 2d 08-593D- 0030: 34 31 41 33 2d 42 42 35 41A3-BB5 0038: 37 2d 38 33 42 33 38 36 7-83B386 0040: 44 37 37 33 42 35 7d 20 D773B5} 0048: 52 65 76 69 73 69 6f 6e Revision 0050: 4e 75 6d 62 65 72 3d 31 Number=1 0058: 30 33 20 00 03 . Thank you, Andrew

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  • Roaming user profile issues on Server 2008

    - by Alicia White
    I thought I cleared a user's profile from 2008, but it keeps coming back. So, I was looking for the best way to clear a roaming profile in Server 2008, but I have been unable to find anything. But, I did see the post here: http://serverfault.com/questions/18724/user-profile-keeps-loading-temp-profile I wanted to add a comment to that post, but it was closed as not being related to sysadmin. But, I think it IS related because I dealt with precisely this same problem on our Wndows 2008 terminal server. Here was the issue: we have a user who was getting an "unable to load your roaming profile" type of error at logon in Windows 2008. Looking at the server, we could see her temp profile listed in the profile list while she was loggged (listed as a "temporary" and not a "roaming" profile). While she was logged on, a folder called C:\Users\Temp.DOMAIN existed in the users folder, but that disappeared as soon as she logged out. When this thing happened in 2003, we would clear the contents of the roaming profile folder & delete the temp folder in C:\Documents and Settings. The thing is, 2008 behaves a bit differently. Server 2008 created a new roaming profile folder in the roaming profile folder share: \SERVER\ProfileShare\UserName.V2 The local profile disappears from the profile list in System Properties, so there is no profile to clear Also the local profile folder, C:\Users\Temp.DOMAIN doesn't stay on the server when the user logs out, so we can't delete that as we would normally do when this sort of thing happens in Windows 2003 Despite all of this, every time the user logs back on, the frickin' Temp profile always comes back. One of my team-mates, who is much more experienced with 2008, said I should check the registry for the user's profile in this key (the users are listed by SID): HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SOFTWARE\Microsoft\WindowsNT\CurrentVersion\ProfileList I saw the user's SID listed there, but it ended in .BAK. I checked several other servers where she is having the same profile errors: in all cases, her SID ended with .BAK. For example (xxx replacing the LONG SID): HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SOFTWARE\Microsoft\Windows NT\CurrentVersion\ProfileList\S-1-5-21-xxxxx-xxxx.bak On the server she was logged on to, there were two keys for her profile in the registry: HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SOFTWARE\Microsoft\Windows NT\CurrentVersion\ProfileList\S-1-5-21-xxxxx-xxxx and HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SOFTWARE\Microsoft\Windows NT\CurrentVersion\ProfileList\S-1-5-21-xxxxx-xxxx.bak So, here is how I cleared up the issue. I had the user log off. I deleted the apparently bad profiles ending in .BAK from the ProfileList key on each server where it appeared. I made sure her roaming profile folder was empty I made sure that all the TEMP profile folders were gone The user logged back on: no more profile errors! Anyway, I wanted to make a comment on that closed question, but I didn't see any way to re-open the question so I could add it. But, I also would like to know if this is the best practice to clear out a bad roaming profile for Server 2008? I'm having a hard time finding any instructions on line on how best to do this, but this method I used seemed to work. I'd like to find some documentation to give to our Level 1 support staff so they will know how to clear user profiles on 2008 since this seems to be more involved that clearing user profiles in server 2003. Thanks, Alicia

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