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  • How do I access a <form> that is not the master page <form>?

    - by VBCSharp
    Winforms developer converting to web developer. I know the part about the Master Page having the tag, what is not clear is if I can or can not have another in one of my content pages. I have been seeing both answers doing searches. I see yes you can if only one has runat=server. The thing is I have a that contains several radio buttons on a web page that has a master page. I have a .js file that has a function if I send the name into it, it will loop thru the controls in the form to see which one is selected and return the desired date horizon(MTD, QTD, YTD, etc.). When I run this on a non master page web page it works fine. However, when I run on a web page that has a master page I can't seem to get to the element. I tried getElementByID, I tried looping through the page elements, etc. Maybe I am going about this incorrectly and I hope someone can straighten me out. Here is the code from my .js file that may help explain what I am trying to do a little better. var frmDateRanges = document.getElementById(formFieldName); var chosen; var len = frmDateRanges.DateRanges.length; for(i=0;i<len;i++) { if(frmDateRanges.DateRanges[i].checked) { chosen = frmDateRanges.DateRanges[i].value; } } where formFieldName is an arguement that is passed into the function and DateRanges is the name value given to the radio buttons. In the button I call this function I have: onclick ="FunctionCall('frmDateRanges')" FunctionCall is just for description purposes, 'frmDateRanges' is the name and id given to the form action="" Thanks for the help as I am stumped at this point. If there is a better way to do this please let me know that as well.

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  • Structuring iPhone/iPad application views

    - by Mark
    I have an idea about an application that I want to build and Im new to iPhone/iPad development (but not new to development in other languages/frameworks such as .NET and Java). I want to layout some views on the screen so that they animate (slide in) from different directions into their places. The question is about the strucuture of the application, if I have say 4 rectanglular areas on the screen that contain business data, such as contacts (name, photo, etc...) and they all take up different widths of the screen (say the first contact takes up one row of the screen, but the next 2 take up half the width of the next row each, and so on). Should I create a custom view for the different sized contact views, (i.e. LargeCustomView and SmallCustomView, and any other special type that I make) or should it all be one type, say, CustomerDetailsView which could be stretched to fit at design time? Also, if there were, say, 3 different instances of the same custom view on the one screen, are there 3 instances of the view controller also? Im a little confused about powering the data behind a view, can someone shed some light on this for me? Do I just set the properties (say an instance variable ContactForView) on the view controller for each instance? Thanks for any help you can give Cheers, Mark

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  • How can this Ambient Context become null?

    - by Mark Seemann
    Can anyone help me explain how TimeProvider.Current can become null in the following class? public abstract class TimeProvider { private static TimeProvider current = DefaultTimeProvider.Instance; public static TimeProvider Current { get { return TimeProvider.current; } set { if (value == null) { throw new ArgumentNullException("value"); } TimeProvider.current = value; } } public abstract DateTime UtcNow { get; } public static void ResetToDefault() { TimeProvider.current = DefaultTimeProvider.Instance; } } Observations All unit tests that directly reference TimeProvider also invokes ResetToDefault() in their Fixture Teardown. There is no multithreaded code involved. Once in a while, one of the unit tests fail because TimeProvider.Current is null (NullReferenceException is thrown). This only happens when I run the entire suite, but not when I just run a single unit test, suggesting to me that there is some subtle test interdependence going on. It happens approximately once every five or six test runs. When a failure occurs, it seems to be occuring in the first executed tests that involves TimeProvider.Current. More than one test can fail, but only one fails in a given test run. FWIW, here's the DefaultTimeProvider class as well: public class DefaultTimeProvider : TimeProvider { private readonly static DefaultTimeProvider instance = new DefaultTimeProvider(); private DefaultTimeProvider() { } public override DateTime UtcNow { get { return DateTime.UtcNow; } } public static DefaultTimeProvider Instance { get { return DefaultTimeProvider.instance; } } } I suspect that there's some subtle interplay going on with static initialization where the runtime is actually allowed to access TimeProvider.Current before all static initialization has finished, but I can't quite put my finger on it. Any help is appreciated.

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  • Thread-Safe lazy instantiating using MEF

    - by Xaqron
    // Member Variable private static readonly object _syncLock = new object(); // Now inside a static method foreach (var lazyObject in plugins) { if ((string)lazyObject.Metadata["key"] = "something") { lock (_syncLock) { // It seems the `IsValueCreated` is not up-to-date if (!lazyObject.IsValueCreated) lazyObject.value.DoSomething(); } return lazyObject.value; } } Here I need synchronized access per loop. There are many threads iterating this loop and based on the key they are looking for, a lazy instance is created and returned. lazyObject should not be created more that one time. Although Lazy class is for doing so and despite of the used lock, under high threading I have more than one instance created (I track this with a Interlocked.Increment on a volatile static int and log it somewhere). The problem is I don't have access to definition of Lazy and MEF defines how the Lazy class create objects. I should notice the CompositionContainer has a thread-safe option in constructor which is already used. My questions: 1) Why the lock doesn't work ? 2) Should I use an array of locks instead of one lock for performance improvement ?

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  • Mercurial: Class library that will exist for both .NET 3.5 and 4.0?

    - by Lasse V. Karlsen
    I have a rather big class library written in .NET 3.5 that I'd like to upgrade to make available for .NET 4.0 as well. In that process, I will rip out a lot of old junk, and rewrite some code to better take advantage of the new classes and support in .NET 4.0 (like TPL.) The class libraries will thus diverge, but still be similar enough that some bug-fixes can be done to both in the same manner. How should I best organize this class library in Mercurial? I'm using Kiln (fogbugz) if that matters. I'm thinking: Named branches in one repository, can then transplant any bugfixes from one to the other Unnamed branches in one repository, can also transplant, but I think this will look messy Separate repositories, will have to reimplement the bugfixes (or use a non-mercurial-integraded compare tool to help me) What would you do? (any other alternatives that I haven't though of is welcome as well.) Note that the class libraries will diverge pretty heavily in areas, I have some remnants of old collection-type code that does something similar to Linq that I will remove, and some code that uses it that I will rewrite to use the Linq-methods instead. As such, just copying the project files and using #if NET40..#endif sections is not going to work out. Also, the 3.5 version of the class library will not be getting many new features, mostly just critical bug-fixes, so keeping both versions equally "alive" isn't really necessary. Thus, separate copies of all the files are good enough.

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  • C/C++ Bit Array or Bit Vector

    - by MovieYoda
    Hi, I am learning C/C++ programming & have encountered the usage of 'Bit arrays' or 'Bit Vectors'. Am not able to understand their purpose? here are my doubts - Are they used as boolean flags? Can one use int arrays instead? (more memory of course, but..) What's this concept of Bit-Masking? If bit-masking is simple bit operations to get an appropriate flag, how do one program for them? is it not difficult to do this operation in head to see what the flag would be, as apposed to decimal numbers? I am looking for applications, so that I can understand better. for Eg - Q. You are given a file containing integers in the range (1 to 1 million). There are some duplicates and hence some numbers are missing. Find the fastest way of finding missing numbers? For the above question, I have read solutions telling me to use bit arrays. How would one store each integer in a bit?

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  • Very Urgent :How to start a new session if a user click on the new tab in IE or mozilla on websphere

    - by ha22109
    Hi, I have one "user search" portlet on the home page of one application running on websphere portal server.Which display the matching user records as per the search criteria filled in the search form.I have requirement to have a "back to search input" link on the results page which onclick should show the filled form on the input jsp. The issue which i am facing is if i open the application in two diff tab of same IE browser and start giving some search criteria and submit and same time search for some other input from other IE tab (in the same browser)and then go back to previous tab and click on "back to search input" link then instead of showing me the first input it will show me the imput which i entered in the next IE tab. I am setting and getting the bean(form bean) through portlet session.but in the two diff tab of same IE it will be the sae user session (and may be the same portlet session..) Please tell me solution for this. The one thing to be notice here is i can access this "user search" application even without doing login also.so it must be taking the default portlet session in this case. what wil happen once i login and then search,will it going to overwrite the portlet session and http session or howz is that?

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  • How to emulate a BEFORE DELETE trigger in SQL Server 2005

    - by Mark
    Let's say I have three tables, [ONE], [ONE_TWO], and [TWO]. [ONE_TWO] is a many-to-many join table with only [ONE_ID and [TWO_ID] columns. There are foreign keys set up to link [ONE] to [ONE_TWO] and [TWO] to [ONE_TWO]. The FKs use the ON DELETE CASCADE option so that if either a [ONE] or [TWO] record is deleted, the associated [ONE_TWO] records will be automatically deleted as well. I want to have a trigger on the [TWO] table such that when a [TWO] record is deleted, it executes a stored procedure that takes a [ONE_ID] as a parameter, passing the [ONE_ID] values that were linked to the [TWO_ID] before the delete occurred: DECLARE @Statement NVARCHAR(max) SET @Statement = '' SELECT @Statement = @Statement + N'EXEC [MyProc] ''' + CAST([one_two].[one_id] AS VARCHAR(36)) + '''; ' FROM deleted JOIN [one_two] ON deleted.[two_id] = [one_two].[two_id] EXEC (@Statement) Clearly, I need a BEFORE DELETE trigger, but there is no such thing in SQL Server 2005. I can't use an INSTEAD OF trigger because of the cascading FK. I get the impression that if I use a FOR DELETE trigger, when I join [deleted] to [ONE_TWO] to find the list of [ONE_ID] values, the FK cascade will have already deleted the associated [ONE_TWO] records so I will never find any [ONE_ID] values. Is this true? If so, how can I achieve my objective? I'm thinking that I'd need to change the FK joining [TWO] to [ONE_TWO] to not use cascades and to do the delete from [ONE_TWO] manually in the trigger just before I manually delete the [TWO] records. But I'd rather not go through all that if there is a simpler way.

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  • What is the point of having a key_t if what will be the key to access shared memory is the return value of shmget()?

    - by devoured elysium
    When using shared memory, why should we care about creating a key key_t ftok(const char *path, int id); in the following bit of code? key_t key; int shmid; key = ftok("/home/beej/somefile3", 'R'); shmid = shmget(key, 1024, 0644 | IPC_CREAT); From what I've come to understand, what is needed to access a given shared memory is the shmid, not the key. Or am I wrong? If what we need is the shmid, what is the point in not just creating a random key every time? Edit @link text one can read: What about this key nonsense? How do we create one? Well, since the type key_t is actually just a long, you can use any number you want. But what if you hard-code the number and some other unrelated program hardcodes the same number but wants another queue? The solution is to use the ftok() function which generates a key from two arguments. Reading this, it gives me the impression that what one needs to attach to a shared-memory block is the key. But this isn't true, is it? Thanks

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  • [PHP] Local/Dev/Live deployment - best workflow

    - by Adam Kiss
    Hello, situation We our little company with 3 people, each has a localhost webserver and most projects (previous and current) are on one PC network shared disk. We have virtual server, where some of our clients' sites and our site. Our standard workflow is: Coder PC ? Programmer localhost ? dev domain (client.company.com) ? live version (client.com) It often happens, that there are two or three guys working on same projects at the same time - one is on dev version, two are on localhost. When finished, we try to synchronize the files on dev version and ideally not to mess up any files, which *knock knock * doesn't happen often. And then one of us deploys dev version on live webserver. question we are looking for a way to simplify this workflow while updating websites - ideally some sort of diff uploader or VCS probably (Git/SVN/VCS/...), but we are not completely sure where to begin or what way would be ideal, therefore I ask you, fellow stackoverflowers for your experience with website / application deployment and recommended workflow. We probably will also need to use Mac in process, so if it won't be a problem, that would be even better. Thank you

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  • Window manipulation and inctences control

    - by touki
    In my application there are only 2 windows — win_a & win_b, on each of these windows there is button that call another window, e.g. click on btn1 of win_a will call win_b, click on btn2 of win_b will show win_a. Desired behaviour: 1. Only one instance of object is premitted at the same time, e.g. situation, where 2 instances of win_a running at the same time is not permitted. When you click on button that calls windows that already exist this action will only change a focus to needed window. If you call a window that previously had been created, but after this has been closed this action will create a new instance of this window. E.g. there are 2 running windows. you close one of them and after try to call this window back, so related button will create it. How to write it in WPF (XAML + C#). For the moment I wrote a version that can create a lot of instances of the same window (no number of instances control implemented), but I want to see only one instance of the same window, as we can see it in a lot of applications. Example of my code: Window win = new Window(); win.Show(); Thanks.

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  • How to handle product ratings in a database

    - by Mel
    Hello, I would like to know what is the best approach to storing product ratings in a database. I have in mind the following two (simplified, and assuming a MySQL db) scenarios: Scenario 1: Create two columns in the product table to store number of votes and the sum of all votes. Use columns to get an average on the product display page: products(productedID, productName, voteCount, voteSum) Pros: I will only need to access one table, and thus execute one query to display product data and ratings. Cons: Write operations will be executed in a table whose original purpose is only to furnish product data. Scenario 2: Create an additional table to store ratings. products(productID, productName) ratings(productID, voteCount, voteSum) Pros: Isolate ratings into a separate table, leaving the products table to furnish data on available products. Cons: I will have to execute two separate queries on product page requests (one for data and another for ratings). In terms of performance, which of the following two approaches is best: Allow users to execute an occasional write query to a table that will handle hundreds of read requests? Execute two queries at every product page, but isolate the write query into a separate table. I'm a novice to database development, and often find myself struggling with simple questions such as these. Many thanks,

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  • JAR file: Could not find main class

    - by ApertureT3CH
    Okay, I have a strange problem. I wanted to run one of my programs as a .jar file, but when I open it by double-clicking it, I get an error message like "Could not find main class, program is shutting down". I'm pretty sure I did everything right, the jar should work afaik. I also tried other programs, it's the same with every single one. (I'm creating the .jar's through BlueJ) There is no problem when I run them through a .bat . And here comes the strangest thing of all: The .jar's have worked some time ago (one or two months I guess), and I don't remember doing anything different. It's the same BlueJ-Version. Okay, maybe Java updated and something got messed up... I googled, but I couldn't find a solution. (some people seem to have a similar problem, and it seems to be only them who can't run their .jar's; they uploaded them and other people say the .jar's run fine.) What could be the problem? How can I solve it? I'd really appreciate some help here. Thank you :) ApertureT3CH EDIT: okay guys, you're making me unsure here. Imma check the manifest again, at this unholy time ( 1:34 am ) :P EDIT2: This is my MANIFEST.MF Manifest-Version: 1.0 Class-Path: Main-Class: LocalChatClientGUI [empty line] [empty line] The Main class is correct. EDIT3: Thanks to hgrey: There is nothing wrong with the jar. I can run it from a bat file, which actually should not be different from double-clicking the jar, right? Yet I get the error when clicking it, and it works fine through the bat. EDIT4: I finally solved the problem. I re-installed the JRE and now it works, although I can't see any version differences. Thanks to everyone!

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  • How to append query parametr @runtime using jquery

    - by Wondering
    Hi All, Through javascript I am appending one query parameter to the page url and I am facing one strange behaiviour <div> <a href="Default3.aspx?id=2">Click me</a> </div> $(function () { window.location.href = window.location.href + "&q=" + "aa"; }); Now I am appending &q in default3.aspx and in this page the &q is getting added continuously I mean the url become http://localhost:1112/WebSite2/Default3.aspx?id=2&q=aa&q=aa&q=aa&q=aa&q=aa&q=aa&q=aa&q=aa&q=aa&q=aa&q=aa&q=aa&q=aa&q=aa&q=aa&q=aa&q=aa&q=aa&q=aa&q=aa&q=aa one would say just pass it like <a href="Default3.aspx?id=2&q=aa">Click me</a> but I cant do that , value of this query parameter is actually value of an html element which is in default3.aspx..I have to add it in run time. what are the ways to achieve this. Thanks.

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  • retrieve only sub-pages (wordpress)

    - by Radek
    I want to list all sub-pages only one level though of one particular page. I was reading Function Reference/get pages and thought that $pages = get_pages( array( 'child_of' => $post->ID, 'parent' => $post->ID)) ; will do the trick but it is not working. It lists all pages on the same level like the page I call that code from. If I omit parent option I will get all pages even with sub-pages that I want. But I want only sub-pages. The whole function is like function about_menu(){ if (is_page('about')){ $pages = get_pages( array( 'child_of' => $post->ID, 'parent' => $post->ID)) ; foreach($pages as $page) { ?> <h2><a href="<?php echo get_page_link($page->ID) ?>"><?php echo $page->post_title ?></a></h2> <?php } } } and mine is second one

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  • Response Redirect - Open Link in New Window

    - by bacis09
    First, I've taken the time to review this question which seems to be the most similar, however, the solution that seems to have been selected will not work in my scenario.Not to mention I worry about some of the comments claiming it to be brittle or an inadequate solution. http://stackoverflow.com/questions/104601/asp-net-response-redirect-to-new-window -We have an XML document which basically contains all of the information for a Side menu. -We have numerous URLS which are stored in a constants class. -One of the elements in a string of XML (well call it label) is used to determine if the menu item is created as a LinkButton or a Label. -Links use a custom user control that is used standard for all links across the application (why suggestion on similar thread doesn't work - I don't want all links to open in a new window - just one) -One of the elements in a string of XML (well call it function) is used in a Switch statement to generate our links using Response Redirect. It may look something like this. switch (function) { case goto 1: string url; if (user_group == 1) { url = Constants.CONSTANT1 } else { url = Constants.CONSTANT2 } Response.Redirect(url) case goto 2: ...... default: ...... break; } Given this scenario, I'm trying to find the best way to quickly open a New Window, when a specific case in this switch statement is met. Can it be done with Response Redirect (this seems to be arguable - people say no it can't, yet other people say they have made it work)? If not, what alternative can work here?

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  • Coding the R-ight way - avoiding the for loop

    - by mropa
    I am going through one of my .R files and by cleaning it up a little bit I am trying to get more familiar with writing the code the r-ight way. As a beginner, one of my favorite starting points is to get rid of the for() loops and try to transform the expression into a functional programming form. So here is the scenario: I am assembling a bunch of data.frames into a list for later usage. dataList <- list (dataA, dataB, dataC, dataD, dataE ) Now I like to take a look at each data.frame's column names and substitute certain character strings. Eg I like to substitute each "foo" and "bar" with "baz". At the moment I am getting the job done with a for() loop which looks a bit awkward. colnames(dataList[[1]]) [1] "foo" "code" "lp15" "bar" "lh15" colnames(dataList[[2]]) [1] "a" "code" "lp50" "ls50" "foo" matchVec <- c("foo", "bar") for (i in seq(dataList)) { for (j in seq(matchVec)) { colnames (dataList[[i]])[grep(pattern=matchVec[j], x=colnames (dataList[[i]]))] <- c("baz") } } Since I am working here with a list I thought about the lapply function. My attempts handling the job with the lapply function all seem to look alright but only at first sight. If I write f <- function(i, xList) { gsub(pattern=c("foo"), replacement=c("baz"), x=colnames(xList[[i]])) } lapply(seq(dataList), f, xList=dataList) the last line prints out almost what I am looking for. However, if i take another look at the actual names of the data.frames in dataList: lapply (dataList, colnames) I see that no changes have been made to the initial character strings. So how can I rewrite the for() loop and transform it into a functional programming form? And how do I substitute both strings, "foo" and "bar", in an efficient way? Since the gsub() function takes as its pattern argument only a character vector of length one.

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  • How to pass values from array into mysql with php

    - by moustafa
    my original code is this <tr> <th> <label for="user_level"> User Level: * <?php echo isset($valid_user_level) ? $valid_user_level : NULL; ?> </label> </th> </tr> <td> <select name="user_level" id="user_level" class="sel"> <option value="">Select one…</option> <option value="1">User</option> <option value="5">Admin</option> </select> </td> this give me the option to select one of choice from the drop down menu i.e. user and when user is selected and the submit button is pressed this will insert the value 1 into the database which will when the user logs in tell the system that they are are normal user. I want to change the code to the following <tr> <td> <select name="user_level" id="user_level" class="sel"> <option value="">Select one…</option> <?php if(!empty($level)) { foreach($level as $value) { echo "<option value='{$value}'"; echo getSticky(2,'user_level',$value); echo ">{$value}</option>"; } } ?> </select> </td> </tr> With this being my array query $level = array('User','Admin'); How can I pass the values of 1 for user level and 5 for admin in this code so when the user is selected it inouts 1 into the database?

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  • How can I simplify this user interface?

    - by Bears will eat you
    I'm writing an internal-tools webapp; one of the central pages in this tool has a whole bunch of related commands the user can execute by clicking one of a number of buttons on the page, like this: Ideally, all of the buttons would fit on one line. Ordinarily I'd do this by changing each widget from a button with a (sometimes long) text label to a simple, compact icon - e.g. could be replaced by a familiar disk icon: Unfortunately, I don't think I can do this for every button on this particular page. Some of the command buttons just don't have good visual analogs - "VDS List". Or, if I needed to add another button in the future for some other kind of list, I'd need two icons that both communicate "list-ness" and which list. So, I'm still considering this option, but I don't love it. So it's come time for me to add yet another button to this section (don't you love internal tools?). There's not enough room on that single line to fit the new button. Aside from the icon solution I already mentioned, what would be a good* way to simplify/declutter/reduce or otherwise improve this UI? *As per Jakob Nielsen's article, I'd like to think that a dropdown menu is not the solution.

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  • How do I tile and overlay images in WPF?

    - by imnlfn
    I'm very new to WPF and trying to port an application from VB6 to C# and XAML. What I need to do now is create one big image out of a number of small ones, arranged like a series of "tiles." Some of these smaller ones will have overlays superimposed on them. In VB6, accomplishing both the tiling and overlaying would simply be a matter of using the PaintPicture method with the PictureBox control. This is my attempt at the tiling and overlaying in one step (though really the overlaying could occur beforehand): ImageDrawing Drawing1 = new ImageDrawing(new BitmapImage(new Uri(@"c:\one.bmp", UriKind.Absolute)), new Rect(0, 0, 40, 130)); ImageDrawing Drawing2 = new ImageDrawing(new BitmapImage(new Uri(@"c:\two.bmp", UriKind.Absolute)), new Rect(40, 0, 45, 130)); ImageDrawing Drawing3 = new ImageDrawing(new BitmapImage(new Uri(@"c:\overlay.bmp", UriKind.Absolute)), new Rect(40, 0, 45, 130)); DrawingGroup myDrawingGroup = new DrawingGroup(); myDrawingGroup.Children.Add(Drawing1); myDrawingGroup.Children.Add(Drawing2); myDrawingGroup.Children.Add(Drawing3); myImage.Source = new DrawingImage(myDrawingGroup); The tiling works fine, but the overlay is a no-go. I was wondering if someone could point me towards a means of accomplishing the overlays and someone could indicate whether this is the best way to do the tiling. Thanks!!

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  • Boost shared_ptr use_count function

    - by photo_tom
    My application problem is the following - I have a large structure foo. Because these are large and for memory management reasons, we do not wish to delete them when processing on the data is complete. We are storing them in std::vector<boost::shared_ptr<foo>>. My question is related to knowing when all processing is complete. First decision is that we do not want any of the other application code to mark a complete flag in the structure because there are multiple execution paths in the program and we cannot predict which one is the last. So in our implementation, once processing is complete, we delete all copies of boost::shared_ptr<foo>> except for the one in the vector. This will drop the reference counter in the shared_ptr to 1. Is it practical to use shared_ptr.use_count() to see if it is equal to 1 to know when all other parts of my app are done with the data. One additional reason I'm asking the question is that the boost documentation on the shared pointer shared_ptr recommends not using "use_count" for production code.

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  • Moving checkmarks in checkbox lists after page reload - Firefox only

    - by DaveS
    I'm getting some strange behavior in Firefox whenever I put checkboxes inside a list (ol, ul, dl), and then dynamically insert buttons above the list. If I start with a something simple list like this: <dl class="c"> <dt><label for="a1"><input type="checkbox" id="a1" />one</label></dt> <dt><label for="a2"><input type="checkbox" id="a2" />two</label></dt> <dt><label for="a3"><input type="checkbox" id="a3" />three</label></dt> </dl> and add some jQuery like this: $(document).ready(function(){ var a = $('<button type="button">a</button>'); var b = $('<button type="button">b</button>'); $('<div/>').append(a).append(b).insertBefore($('.c')); }); ...then open it in Firefox, it looks fine at first. But check the first checkbox, reload the page, and the check-mark jumps to the second box. Reload again, and it jumps to the third. Reload yet again, and no checkboxes are left checked. If I leave out one of the buttons by dropping one of the append calls, it's fine. If I change the buttons to divs or something similar, it's fine. If I replace the dl tag with a div (and get rid of the dt tags), it's fine. But I need both buttons, and the checkboxes have to be in a list for what I'm trying to build. Does anybody know what's causing this?

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  • Why in the world is this Moq + NUnit test failing?

    - by Dave Falkner
    I have this dataAccess mock object and I'm trying to verify that one of its methods is being invoked, and that the argument passed into this method fulfills certain constraints. As best I can tell, this method is indeed being invoked, and with the constraints fulfilled. This line of the test throws a MockException: data.Verify(d => d.InsertInvoice(It.Is<Invoice>(i => i.TermPaymentAmount == 0m)), Times.Once()); However, removing the constraint and accepting any invoice passes the test: data.Verify(d => d.InsertInvoice(It.IsAny<Invoice>()), Times.Once()); I've created a test windows form that instantiates this test class, runs its .Setup() method, and then calls the method which I am wishing to test. I insert a breakpoint on the line of code where the mock object is failing the test data.InsertInvoice(invoice); to actually hover over the invoice, and I can confirm that its .TermPaymentAmount decimal property is indeed zero at the time the method is invoked. Out of desperation, I even added a call back to my dataAccess mock: data.Setup(d => d.InsertInvoice(It.IsAny<Invoice>())).Callback((Invoice inv) => System.Windows.Forms.MessageBox.Show(inv.TermPaymentAmount.ToString("G17"))); And this gives me a message box showing "0". This is really baffling me, and no one else in my shop has been able to figure this out. Any help would be appreciated. A barely related question, which I should probably ask independently, is whether it is preferable to use Mock.Verify(...) as I have here, or to use Mock.Expect(...).Verifiable followed by Mock.VerifyAll() as I have seen other people doing? If the answer is situational, which situations would warrent the use of one over the other?

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  • System.Threading.Timer won't trigger

    - by mijatovic
    Hello guys, I am new here... I have one question, if somebody can help me. It is about timers (System.Threading.Timer). I want to break inevitable recursion: I have two columns in datarow and they are mutually dependant (price_without_VAT and price_with_VAT). Setting one of them will definitely cause StackOverflowException. So here's the idea: bool flag = true; void Reset(object state) { flag = true; } Now, wrap the method for changing value of one of the columns: { if(flag) { flag = false; System.Threading.Timer tmr = new System.Threading.Timer(new System.Threading.TimerCallback(Reset), null, 10, System.Threading.Timeout.Infinite); datarow.other_column = value; } } datarow.other_column.value line will immediately trigger the above method, but there will be no recursion because flag is false. In 10 ms flag should be back to true, and everything is back to normal. Now, when i follow the code in DEBUGGER, everything works fine, but when I start app NORMALLY Reset function simply will not trigger, flag is stuck to false forever and everything false apart. I play around with due_time parameter but nothing seems to help. Any ideas?

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  • when is a v-table created in C++?

    - by saminny
    When exactly does the compiler create a virtual function table? 1) when the class contains at least one virtual function. OR 2) when the immediate base class contains at least one virtual function. OR 3) when any parent class at any level of the hierarchy contains at least one virtual function. A related question to this: Is it possible to give up dynamic dispatch in a C++ hierarchy? e.g. consider the following example. #include <iostream> using namespace std; class A { public: virtual void f(); }; class B: public A { public: void f(); }; class C: public B { public: void f(); }; Which classes will contain a V-Table? Since B does not declare f() as virtual, does class C get dynamic polymorphism?

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