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  • Is there a Post-Build Extensible Installer System

    - by Will Hughes
    We have a product that we need to create an installer for. It has a number of components which can be installed or not as the situation demands. When we ship our installation package, we want to be able to have that include any number of additional components to be installed. For example, Foo Manager Pro contains: Foo Manager Console Foo Manager Database Foo Manager Services That might be shipped as something like: FooManagerInstaller.exe FMPConsole.pkg FMPDatabase.pkg FMPServices.pkg A package might consist of something like: Manifest Files to be deployed Additional scripts to be executed (eg find file foo.config, do some XML Manipulation) If a client wants to add custom skins and a series of plugins as part of the install, they create their own packages: FMPConsoleSkins.pkg ClientWebservices.pkg If that client then ships it to someone else who wants to add more customisation - they can do so in the same way. We can build this from scratch - but wanted to check if this sort of install system already exists. We already have a set of NAnt scripts which do something not too far from this. But they're difficult to maintain, and quite complex. They don't offer any of the 'niceties' that we'd expect from an installer (like tracking deployed files and removing them if the install fails). We've been looking a little bit at NSIS and building MSIs using WiX, but it's not clear that these can offer us the capability for downstream to provide additional packages, without inventing our own installer language.

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  • Database Functional Programming in Clojure

    - by Ralph
    "It is tempting, if the only tool you have is a hammer, to treat everything as if it were a nail." - Abraham Maslow I need to write a tool to dump a large hierarchical (SQL) database to XML. The hierarchy consists of a Person table with subsidiary Address, Phone, etc. tables. I have to dump thousands of rows, so I would like to do so incrementally and not keep the whole XML file in memory. I would like to isolate non-pure function code to a small portion of the application. I am thinking that this might be a good opportunity to explore FP and concurrency in Clojure. I can also show the benefits of immutable data and multi-core utilization to my skeptical co-workers. I'm not sure how the overall architecture of the application should be. I am thinking that I can use an impure function to retrieve the database rows and return a lazy sequence that can then be processed by a pure function that returns an XML fragment. For each Person row, I can create a Future and have several processed in parallel (the output order does not matter). As each Person is processed, the task will retrieve the appropriate rows from the Address, Phone, etc. tables and generate the nested XML. I can use a a generic function to process most of the tables, relying on database meta-data to get the column information, with special functions for the few tables that need custom processing. These functions could be listed in a map(table name -> function). Am I going about this in the right way? I can easily fall back to doing it in OO using Java, but that would be no fun. BTW, are there any good books on FP patterns or architecture? I have several good books on Clojure, Scala, and F#, but although each covers the language well, none look at the "big picture" of function programming design.

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  • Hybrid EAV/CR model via WCF (and statically-typed language)?

    - by Pat
    Background I'm working on the architecture for a cloud-based LOB application, using Silverlight for the client, WCF, ASP.NET/C# for server and SQL Server for storage. The data model requires some flexibility per user (ability to add custom properties and define validation rules for them, for example), and a hybrid EAV/CR persistence model on the server side will suit nicely. Problem I need an efficient and maintainable technology and approach to handle the transformation from the persisted EAV model to/from WCF (and similarly allow the client to bind to the resulting data - DataGrid is a key UI element)? Admission: I don't yet know enough about WCF to understand if it supports ExpandoObject directly, but I suspect it will. Options I started off looking at WCF RIA services, but quickly discovered they're heavily dependent upon both static type data and compile-time code generation. Neither of these appeal. The options I'm considering include: Using WCF RIA services and pass the data over the network directly in EAV form (i.e. Dictionary), and handle the binding issue purely on the client side (like this) Using a dynamic language (probably IronPython) to handle both ends of the communication, with plumbing to generate the necessary CLR type data on the client to allow binding, and transform to/from EAV form on the server (spam preventer stopped me from posting a URL here, I'll try it in a comment). Dynamic LINQ (CreateClass() and friends), although I'm way out of my depth there and don't know what the limitations on that approach might be yet. I'm interested in comments on these approaches as well as alternative approaches that might solve the problem. Other Notes The Silverlight client will not be the only consumer of the service, making me slightly uncomfortable with option #1 above. While the data model is flexible, it's not expected to be modified heavily. For argument's sake, we could assume that we might have 25 distinct data models active at a given time, with something like 10-20 unique data fields/rules each. Modifications to the data model will happen infrequently (typically when a new user is initially configured).

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  • JSF/Facelets: set `action` attribute to a dynamically evaluated string

    - by harto
    In my JSF/Facelets application, I want to dynamically generate a breadcrumb trail from a list of page IDs using a custom tag: <foo:breadcrumbs trail="foo,bar,baz"/> This should generate something like: <h:commandLink action="foo" ... /> <h:commandLink action="bar" ... /> <!-- (etc.) --> My code looks something like this: <ui:repeat value="#{fn:split(trail, ',')}" var="key"> <h:commandLink action="#{key}" ... /> </ui:repeat> The problem with this code is that #{key} is interpreted as a method binding. However, I just want the string value of #{key} to be returned as the navigation outcome. How can I achieve this? The only thing I could think of was creating a dummy managed-bean that has an outcome field and an action handler, and invoke it like so: <h:commandLink action="#{dummy.click}" ...> <f:setPropertyActionListener target="#{dummy.outcome}" value="#{key}" /> </h:commandLink> with the dummy class defined like so: public class Dummy { private String outcome; public String click() { return outcome; } public void setOutcome(String outcome) { this.outcome = outcome; } public void getOutcome() { return outcome; } } That seems ugly though, and I don't know if it would work.

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  • Rendering Swing Components to an Offscreen buffer

    - by Nick C
    I have a Java (Swing) application, running on a 32-bit Windows 2008 Server, which needs to render it's output to an off-screen image (which is then picked up by another C++ application for rendering elsewhere). Most of the components render correctly, except in the odd case where a component which has just lost focus is occluded by another component, for example where there are two JComboBoxes close to each other, if the user interacts with the lower one, then clicks on the upper one so it's pull-down overlaps the other box. In this situation, the component which has lost focus is rendered after the one occluding it, and so appears on top in the output. It renders correctly in the normal Java display (running full-screen on the primary display), and attempting to change the layers of the components in question does not help. I am using a custom RepaintManager to paint the components to the offscreen image, and I assume the problem lies with the order in which addDirtyRegion() is called for each of the components in question, but I can't think of a good way of identifying when this particular state occurs in order to prevent it. Hacking it so that the object which has just lost focus is not repainted stops the problem, but obviously causes the bigger problem that it is not repainted in all other, normal, circumstances. Is there any way of programmatically identifying this state, or of reordering things so that it does not occur? Many thanks, Nick

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  • Jqgrid search option hides the grid table

    - by Felix Guerrero
    The issue is when I click on search option (on pager) it shows the search window but the grid gets hide. I'm including the jqmodal.js file. But what I'm ignoring on the code below? css files: jqModal.css jquery-ui-1.8.custom.css ui.jqgrid.css ui.multiselect.css jquery.searchFilter.css js files: jquery.min.js grid.base.js grid.common.js grid.formedit.js grid.setcolumns.js ui.multiselect.js jquery.searchFilter.js jqModal.js The Javascript: $("#list").jqGrid({ url: 'foo_report.php?g=' + $('#fooselect').val() + '&report=1&searchString=null&searchField=null&searchOper=null', datatype: 'json', mtype: 'GET', colNames: ['foo1','foo2', 'foo3'], colModel: [ { name:'rows.foobar1', index: 'foobar1', search:true, jsonmap: 'foobar1', width: 150, align: 'left', sortable:true}, { name:'rows.foobar2', index: 'foobar2', jsonmap: 'foobar2', width: 150, align: 'left'}, { name:'rows.foobar3', index: 'foobar3', jsonmap: 'foobar3', width: 240, align: 'left', sortable: true}], pager: '#pager', rowNum: 8, autowidth: true, rowList: [8, 16], sortname: 'foobar1', sortorder: 'asc', viewrecords: true, search : { caption: "Search...", Find: "Find", Reset: "Reset", odata : ['equal', 'not equal', 'less'], groupOps: [ { op: "AND", text: "all" }, { op: "OR", text: "any" }], matchText: " match", rulesText: " rules" }, caption: 'Foobar Data', jsonReader : { root: "rows", repeatitems: false }, height: 350, width: 800 }); html: <table id="list"></table> <div id="pager"></div>

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  • VEMap and a GeoRSS feed(hosted separately)

    - by Alexis Abril
    The scenario is as follows: A WCF web service exists that outputs a valid GeoRSS feed. This lives in its own domain as a number of different applications have access to it. A web page(on a different site) has been created with an instance of a VEMap(Bing/Virtual Earth map object). Now, VEMap can accept an input feed in this format via the following: var layer = new VEShapeLayer(); var veLayerSpec = new VEShapeSourceSpecification(VEDataType.GeoRSS, "someurl", layer); map.ImportShapeLayerData(veLayerSpec, onComplete, true); onComplete is a callback function I'm using to replace the default pin graphic with something custom. The question is in regards to "someurl", which is a path to a local xml file containing the geographic information(georss simple format). I've realized this feed and the map must be hosted in the same domain, so I've created a generic handler that reads the remote feed and returns it in the same format. var veLayerSpec = new VEShapeSourceSpecification(VEDataType.GeoRSS, "/somelocalhandler.ashx", layer); When I do this, I get the VEMap error("z is null"). This is the same error one would receive when trying to access a remote feed. When I copy the feed into a local xml file(ie, "feed.xml") there is no error. The order of operations is currently: remote feed - local handler - VEMap import If I'm over complicating this procedure, let me know! I'm a bit new to the Bing Maps API and might have missed something. Any assistance is appreciated.

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  • iPad: Detecting External Keyboard

    - by StuartW
    My app uses a UIAccessoryView to provide additional keyboard functionality (such as forward/backward tabs and arrows keys) for the virtual keyboard, but that causes UIKeyboardDidShowNotification to fire even when a physical keyboard is present (the accessory appears at the bottom of the screen). I'd like to check if a physical keyboard is attached when handling UIKeyboardWillShowNotification, to prevent the accessory view from appearing and to prevent my custom view from scrolling up (to make room for the non-existent virtual keyboard). I've tried examining the UIKeyboardFrameEndUserInfoKey key, but it returns a real size for the virtual keyboard, in spite of nothing being displayed. Is there any way to detect the presence of a physical keyboard to prevent this unwanted behaviour? Hmm, the plot thickens. I tried disabling the input accessory by returning nil from the inputAccessoryView property of the Responder object which triggers the keyboard. That suppresses UIKeyboardWillShowNotification and UIKeyboardDidShowNotification when there is a physical keyboard present, but keeps these notifications when there is no such keyboard. All good so far. Then I tried re-enabling inputAccessoryView only after UIKeyboardWillShowNotification had been received. This only fires when a virtual keyboard is needed, so it should allow me to reintroduce the accessory view in those circumstances. Or so I thought. Unfortunately, it seems the OS doesn't check inputAccessoryView after UIKeyboardWillShowNotification, so it fails to show the accessory view when it is needed :o( That leaves me with two options: Include the input accessory view, giving extra functionality for virtual keyboard users, but lose the ability to detect a physical keyboard and hence not supporting physical devices; or Exclude the input accessory altogether, preventing most users from accessing the extra keys, but allowing the app to work with a physical keyboard. Not a great choice, so I'm still keen to see if anyone else has addressed this problem!

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  • MPMoviePlayerView fade in/out of overlay

    - by therobot
    I've got a MPMoviePlayerViewController, and I've added an overlay as a subview to the MPMoviePlayerController.view that it controls. Does anyone know if there's an easy way to make my added overlay fade in and out with the rest of the controls? My code to initialize and present the player is: LandscapeMPVC * theMovieViewController = [[LandscapeMPVC alloc] initWithContentURL:sourceURL]; MPMoviePlayerController * theMoviePlayer = [theMovieViewController moviePlayer]; [theMoviePlayer setRepeatMode:MPMovieRepeatModeOne]; [theMoviePlayer setScalingMode:MPMovieScalingModeAspectFit]; [theMoviePlayer setFullscreen:YES]; // Attemps at overlays MPViewOverlayController * overlayCont = [[MPViewOverlayController alloc] init]; [[theMovieViewController view] addSubview:overlayCont.view]; [[NSNotificationCenter defaultCenter] addObserver:self selector:@selector(resetToolbar:) name:MPMoviePlayerPlaybackDidFinishNotification object:theMoviePlayer]; [self presentMoviePlayerViewControllerAnimated:theMovieViewController]; LandscapeMPVC is just a subclass of MoviePlayerViewController where I overwrite the orientation code. When the rest of the controls fade in the movie player, my custom overlay does not. Is there some code in the controller that I need to add, or some notification that is sent? Any input would be greatly appreciated.

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  • How do I specify Open ID Realm in spring security ?

    - by Salvin Francis
    We are using Spring security in our application with support for username / password based authentication as well as Open id based authentication. The issue is that google gives a different open id for the return url specified and we have at least 2 different entry points in our application from where open id is configured into our system. Hence we decided to use open id realm. http://blog.stackoverflow.com/2009/0...ue-per-domain/ http://groups.google.com/group/googl...unts-api?pli=1 how is it possible to integrate realm into our spring configuration/code ? This is how we are doing it in traditional openid library code: AuthRequest authReq = consumerManager.authenticate(discovered, someReturnToUrl,"http://www.example.com"); This works and gives same open id for different urls from our site. our configuration: Code: ... <http auto-config="false"> <!-- <intercept-url> tags are here --> <remember-me user-service-ref="someRememberedService" key="some key" /> <form-login login-page="/Login.html" authentication-failure-url="/Login.html?error=true" always-use-default-target="false" default-target-url="/MainPage.html"/> <openid-login authentication-failure-url="/Login.html?error=true" always-use-default-target="true" default-target-url="/MainPage.html" user-service-ref="someOpenIdUserService"/> </http> ... <beans:bean id="someOpenIdUserService" class="com.something.MyOpenIDUserDetailsService"> </beans:bean> <beans:bean id="openIdAuthenticationProvider" class="com.something.MyOpenIDAuthenticationProvider"> <custom-authentication-provider /> <beans:property name="userDetailsService" ref="someOpenIdUserService"/> </beans:bean> ...

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  • Django Testing: Faking User Creation

    - by Ygam
    I want to better write this test: def test_profile_created(self): self.client.post(reverse('registration_register'), data={ 'username':'ygam', 'email':'[email protected]', 'password1':'ygam', 'password2':'ygam' }) """ Test if a profile is created on save """ user = User.objects.get(username='ygam') self.assertTrue(UserProfile.objects.filter(user=user).exists()) and I just came upon this code on django-registration tests that does not actually "create" the user: def test_registration_signal(self): def receiver(sender, **kwargs): self.failUnless('user' in kwargs) self.assertEqual(kwargs['user'].username, 'bob') self.failUnless('request' in kwargs) self.failUnless(isinstance(kwargs['request'], WSGIRequest)) received_signals.append(kwargs.get('signal')) received_signals = [] signals.user_registered.connect(receiver, sender=self.backend.__class__) self.backend.register(_mock_request(), username='bob', email='[email protected]', password1='secret') self.assertEqual(len(received_signals), 1) self.assertEqual(received_signals, [signals.user_registered]) However he used a custom function for this "_mock_request": class _MockRequestClient(Client): def request(self, **request): environ = { 'HTTP_COOKIE': self.cookies, 'PATH_INFO': '/', 'QUERY_STRING': '', 'REMOTE_ADDR': '127.0.0.1', 'REQUEST_METHOD': 'GET', 'SCRIPT_NAME': '', 'SERVER_NAME': 'testserver', 'SERVER_PORT': '80', 'SERVER_PROTOCOL': 'HTTP/1.1', 'wsgi.version': (1,0), 'wsgi.url_scheme': 'http', 'wsgi.errors': self.errors, 'wsgi.multiprocess':True, 'wsgi.multithread': False, 'wsgi.run_once': False, 'wsgi.input': None, } environ.update(self.defaults) environ.update(request) request = WSGIRequest(environ) # We have to manually add a session since we'll be bypassing # the middleware chain. session_middleware = SessionMiddleware() session_middleware.process_request(request) return request def _mock_request(): return _MockRequestClient().request() However, it may be too long of a function for my needs. I want to be able to somehow "fake" the account creation. I have not much experience on mocks and stubs so any help would do. Thanks!

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  • Looking for detailed explanation of Hibernate UserType methods for mutable objects

    - by Tom
    I am creating a custom UserType class in Hibernate. The specific case is for an HL7v3 clinical document (I work in health IT). It is a mutable object and most of the documentation around the Hibernate UserType interface seems to center around immutable types. I want a better understanding of how and when the interface methods are used, specifically: assemble - why two parameters (one Serializable, one Object)? What is the use case for this method? disassemble - should I just implement this method to return a serializable form (e.g. String representation)? When and how is this method invoked? equals - is this for update? read? contention? dirty reads? What are the consequences of simply returning false in most cases? replace - I really don't understand where the three Object parameters come from, when this method is invoked, and what Hibernate expects to return, or how that return value is used. Any pointers would be appreciated. I've searched and read all I can find on the subject, but have not found much documentation at all explaining how these methods are used for mutable objects.

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  • How to deploy SQL Reporting 2005 when Data Sources are locked?

    - by spoulson
    The DBAs here maintain all SQL Server and SQL Reporting servers. I have a custom developed SQL Reporting 2005 project in Visual Studio that runs fine on my local SQL Database and Reporting instances. I need to deploy to a production server, so I had a folder created on a SQL Reporting 2005 server with permissions to upload files. Normally, a deploy from within Visual Studio is all that is needed to upload the report files. However, for security purposes, data sources are maintained explicitly by DBAs and stored in a separated locked down common folder on the reporting server. I had them create the data source for me. When I attempt to deploy from VS, it gives me the error "The item '/Data Sources' already exists." I get this whether I'm deploying the whole project or just a single report file. I already set OverwriteDataSources=false in the project properties. The TargetServer URL and folder are verified correct. I suppose I could copy the files manually, but I'd like to be able to deploy from within VS. What could I be doing wrong?

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  • Comparing textbox.text value to value in SQL Server

    - by Anicho
    Okay so I am trying to compare a login textbox password and username with a custom validator using linq to get information from the database it always returns false though on the validator could someone please tell me where my code below is going wrong. This will be very much appreciated... thank you in advanced... protected void LoginValidate(object source, ServerValidateEventArgs args) { TiamoDataContext context = new TiamoDataContext(); var UsernameCheck = from User in context.Users where User.Username == TextBoxLoginUsername.Text && User.Password == TextBoxLogInPassword.Text select User.Username; var PasswordCheck = from User in context.Users where User.Username == TextBoxLoginUsername.Text && User.Password == TextBoxLogInPassword.Text select User.Password; String test1 = PasswordCheck.ToString(); String test2 = UsernameCheck.ToString(); if (test1 == TextBoxLogInPassword.Text && test2 == TextBoxLoginUsername.Text) { args.IsValid = true; Session["Username"] = TextBoxLoginUsername; Response.Redirect("UserProfile.aspx"); } else { args.IsValid = false; } } I dont know where I am going wrong I know its most probably some sort of silly mistake and me being inexperienced at this...

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  • Action Filter Dependency Injection in ASP.NET MVC 3 RC2 with StructureMap

    - by Ben
    Hi, I've been playing with the DI support in ASP.NET MVC RC2. I have implemented session per request for NHibernate and need to inject ISession into my "Unit of work" action filter. If I reference the StructureMap container directly (ObjectFactory.GetInstance) or use DependencyResolver to get my session instance, everything works fine: ISession Session { get { return DependencyResolver.Current.GetService<ISession>(); } } However if I attempt to use my StructureMap filter provider (inherits FilterAttributeFilterProvider) I have problems with committing the NHibernate transaction at the end of the request. It is as if ISession objects are being shared between requests. I am seeing this frequently as all my images are loaded via an MVC controller so I get 20 or so NHibernate sessions created on a normal page load. I added the following to my action filter: ISession Session { get { return DependencyResolver.Current.GetService<ISession>(); } } public ISession SessionTest { get; set; } public override void OnResultExecuted(System.Web.Mvc.ResultExecutedContext filterContext) { bool sessionsMatch = (this.Session == this.SessionTest); SessionTest is injected using the StructureMap Filter provider. I found that on a page with 20 images, "sessionsMatch" was false for 2-3 of the requests. My StructureMap configuration for session management is as follows: For<ISessionFactory>().Singleton().Use(new NHibernateSessionFactory().GetSessionFactory()); For<ISession>().HttpContextScoped().Use(ctx => ctx.GetInstance<ISessionFactory>().OpenSession()); In global.asax I call the following at the end of each request: public Global() { EndRequest += (sender, e) => { ObjectFactory.ReleaseAndDisposeAllHttpScopedObjects(); }; } Is this configuration thread safe? Previously I was injecting dependencies into the same filter using a custom IActionInvoker. This worked fine until MVC 3 RC2 when I started experiencing the problem above, which is why I thought I would try using a filter provider instead. Any help would be appreciated Ben P.S. I'm using NHibernate 3 RC and the latest version of StructureMap

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  • Core data migration failing with "Can't find model for source store" but managedObjectModel for source is present

    - by Ira Cooke
    I have a cocoa application using core-data, which is now at the 4th version of its managed object model. My managed object model contains abstract entities but so far I have managed to get migration working by creating appropriate mapping models and creating my persistent store using addPersistentStoreWithType:configuration:options:error and with the NSMigratePersistentStoresAutomaticallyOption set to YES. NSDictionary *optionsDictionary = [NSDictionary dictionaryWithObject:[NSNumber numberWithBool:YES] forKey:NSMigratePersistentStoresAutomaticallyOption]; NSURL *url = [NSURL fileURLWithPath: [applicationSupportFolder stringByAppendingPathComponent: @"MyApp.xml"]]; NSError *error=nil; [theCoordinator addPersistentStoreWithType:NSXMLStoreType configuration:nil URL:url options:optionsDictionary error:&error] This works fine when I migrate from model version 3 to 4, which is a migration that involves adding attributes to several entities. Now when I try to add a new model version (version 5), the call to addPersistentStoreWithType returns nil and the error remains empty. The migration from 4 to 5 involves adding a single attribute. I am struggling to debug the problem and have checked all the following; The source database is in fact at version 4 and the persistentStoreCoordinator's managed object model is at version 5. The 4-5 mapping model as well as managed object models for versions 4 and 5 are present in the resources folder of my built application. I've tried various model upgrade paths. Strangely I find that upgrading from an early version 3 - 5 works .. but upgrading from 4 - 5 fails. I've tried adding a custom entity migration policy for migration of the entity whose attributes are changing ... in this case I overrode the method beginEntityMapping:manager:error: . Interestingly this method does get called when migration works (ie when I migrate from 3 to 4, or from 3 to 5 ), but it does not get called in the case that fails ( 4 to 5 ). I'm pretty much at a loss as to where to proceed. Any ideas to help debug this problem would be much appreciated.

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  • Creating an HTTP-Redirected Virtual Directopry in IIS 6.0 without specifying physical path & WMI/ADS

    - by Steve Johnson
    My question is : Is it possible to create a working IIS 6.0 Virtual Directory with providing Physical Path of the Virtual Directory.? I know that manually, it is not possible via IIS but programmatically such a virtual directory can be created. If an HTTPRedirect is set on that virtual directory but the site physical path is not specified, then will it work? Simply stated, how to create an HTTp-redirected Virtual Directory , directly without specifying any physical path to a folder or network share. Here is my code. Try If Directory.Exists(HomeDirectory) = False And Path.StartsWith("http://") = False Then Directory.CreateDirectory(HomeDirectory) End If Dim website As DirectoryEntry website = New DirectoryEntry("IIS://" & IISServer & "/W3SVC/" & WebsiteId & "/Root") Dim NewVDir As DirectoryEntry = website.Children.Add(VDirName, "IIsWebVirtualDir") If Path.StartsWith("http://") = False Then NewVDir.Properties("Path")(0) = Path NewVDir.Properties("HttpRedirect").Clear() Else NewVDir.Properties("HttpRedirect")(0) = Path End If If ((Perm And Permission.Read) = Permission.Read) Then NewVDir.Properties("AccessRead")(0) = True End If If ((Perm And Permission.Write) = Permission.Write) Then NewVDir.Properties("AccessWrite")(0) = True End If If ((Perm And Permission.DirBrowse) = Permission.DirBrowse) Then NewVDir.Properties("EnableDirBrowsing")(0) = True End If If ((Perm And Permission.CreatetApplication) = Permission.CreatetApplication) Then NewVDir.Invoke("AppCreate", True) End If If ((Perm And Permission.ScriptOnly) = Permission.ScriptOnly) Then NewVDir.Properties("AccessScript")(0) = True End If If ((Perm And Permission.ScriptNExecute) = Permission.ScriptNExecute) Then NewVDir.Properties("AccessExecute")(0) = True End If NewVDir.Properties("AuthAnonymous")(0) = True NewVDir.Properties("AuthNTLM")(0) = True NewVDir.Properties("AnonymousUserName")(0) = AnonUserName NewVDir.Properties("AnonymousUserPass")(0) = AnonPassword NewVDir.Properties("AppFriendlyName")(0) = AppFriendlyName NewVDir.CommitChanges() website.CommitChanges() NewVDir.Close() website.Close() Success = True Catch Err As Exception Throw New Exception("My Custom Exception Here: " & Err.Message) End Try

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  • Do the new NoPIA and Type Equivalence features in C#/.NET 4.0 mean Microsoft.mshtml.dll is no longer

    - by jpierson
    I'm maintaining a WPF based application which contains a WinForms based WebBrowser control that based on the IE web browser control. When we deploy, we have had to also supply Microsoft.mshtml.dll and do some custom configuration stuff for our ClickOnce publishing process as well in order to get things to work. I'm curious that with the new NoPIA and Type Equivalence features and dynamic type capabilities in C# 4.0 can we expect that if we upgrade that we can remove the dependencies on the Microsoft.mshtml.dll assembly? If so this will not only reduce the size of our deployment quite a bit but will also simplify our publishing process as well. It is my understanding that we should be able embed the types that normally get automatically generated into extra assemblies for COM types such as the MapPoint Control by Visual Studio. I don't know if this also applies to the Microsoft.mshtml.dll or even how it is done even in the most simple of cases. If somebody could provide an explanation about what the practical impact of these new features are on a project that relies on COM interop and especially the Microsoft.mshtml.dll assembly it would be of great help to me.

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  • Git graph with ref logs

    - by Francisco Garcia
    I am trying to improve my custom git log format string. I have almost everything I want except the ref names. I can already get a log similar to what I want: > git log --all --source --pretty=oneline --graph * b7c7ad3855b54e94ad7ac03f2d2e5b96d6e5ac1d refs/heads/b1 na | * 695e1482622a79230fa1d83afb8d70e86847334a refs/heads/master Merge branch 'b1' | |\ | |/ |/| * | ec21f370f82096c0208f43b390da234d92e8c74a refs/heads/b1 beta * | c6bc1f55ab3b1bd568493a5de4298dfcb4f66d8d refs/heads/b1 alfa * | 762dd868ae87753afc1cbf9803744c76f9a9e121 refs/heads/b1 tango | * 57fb27bff06ee9bb569f93ba815e9dcd69521c13 refs/heads/master little last post commit |/ | * 8d613d09b43152a7263b6e02d47ec8a4304f54be refs/heads/b3 the other commit | * e1f32b7cb86633351df06e37c2c58ef3f9fafc40 refs/heads/b3 something |/ | * 01b5c6728cf25dd576733211ce75dd3ecc29c7ba refs/heads/b2 this time a I am fighting to get a customized output with my own format string like this: > git log --pretty=format:'%h - %gD %s' --source -g b7c7ad3 - HEAD@{0} na ec21f37 - HEAD@{1} beta 01b5c67 - HEAD@{2} this time a 01b5c67 - HEAD@{3} this time a 695e148 - HEAD@{4} Merge branch 'b1' 57fb27b - HEAD@{5} little last post commit My main problem is that I cannot get the ref names I want. I assume it is one of the %g? format strings, but none of them seem to give me the full ref name. Another problem is that the %g? format strings are empty unless I walk the reflogs (-g). However git refuses to combine --graph with -g How can reproduce the first sample with a format string which I can further customize?

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  • How to return proper 404 for google while providing user friendly content to the user?

    - by Marek
    I am bouncing between posting this here and on Superuser. Please excuse me if you feel this does not belong here. I am observing the behavior described here - Googlebot is requesting random urls on my site, like aecgeqfx.html or sutwjemebk.html. I am sure that I am not linking these urls from anywhere on my site. I suspect this may be google probing how we handle non existent content - to cite from an answer to the linked question: [google is requesting random urls to] see if your site correctly handles non-existent files (by returning a 404 response header) We have a custom page for nonexistent content - a styled page saying "Content not found, if you believe you got here by error, please contact us", with a few internal links, served (naturally) with a 200 OK. The URL is served directly (no redirection to a single url). I am afraid this may discriminate the site at google - they may not interpret the user friendly page as a 404 - not found and may think we are trying to fake something and provide duplicate content. How should I proceed to ensure that google will not think the site is bogus while providing user friendly message to users in case they click on dead links by accident?

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  • Control Attributes render Encoded on dot net 4 - how to disable the encoding ?

    - by Aristos
    I have an issue in asp.net 4. When I add an attribute on controls, then the render it encoded. For example, when I type this code txtQuestion.Attributes["onfocus"] = "if(this.value == this.title) { this.value = ''; this.style.backgroundColor='#FEFDE0'; this.style.color='#000000'; }"; I get render onfocus="if(this.value == this.title){this.value = &#39;&#39;;this.style.backgroundColor=&#39;#FEFDE0&#39;; this.style.color=&#39;#000000&#39;;}" And every ' hash been change to & #39; Is there a way to disable this new future only on some controls ? or an easy way to make a custom render ? My Fail tries I have all ready try some thinks but I fail. For example this fails. txtQuestion.RenderingCompatibility = new Version("3.5"); I also locate the point that this attributes renders and is on public virtual void RenderBeginTag(HtmlTextWriterTag tagKey) function, there every attribute have a flag if he wish to be encoded, but I do not know how can anyone set it or not. Anyway, thank you in advanced.

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  • Copy SQL Server data from one server to another on a schedule

    - by rwmnau
    I have a pair of SQL Servers at different webhosts, and I'm looking for a way to periodically update the one server using the other. Here's what I'm looking for: As automated as possible - ideally, without any involvement on my part once it's set up. Pushes a number of databases, in their entirely (including any schema changes) from one server to the other Freely allows changes on the source server without breaking my process. For this reason, I don't want to use replication, as I'd have to break it every time there's an update on the source, and then recreate the publication and subscription One database is about 4GB in size and contains binary data. I'm not sure if there's a way to export this to a script, but it would be a mammoth file if I did. Originally, I was thinking of writing something that takes a scheduled full backup of each database, FTPs the backups from one server to the other once they're done, and then the new server picks it up and restores it. The only downside I can see to this is that there's no way to know that the backups are done before starting to transfer them - can these backups be done synchronously? Also, the server being refreshes is our test server, so if there's some downtime involved in moving the data, that's fine. Does anybody out there have a better idea, or is what I'm currently considering the best non-replication way to go? Thanks for your help, everybody. UPDATE: I ended up designing a custom solution to get this done using BAT files, 7Zip,command line FTP, and OSQL, so it runs in a completely automatic way and aggregates the data from a dozen servers across the country. I've detailed the steps in a blog entry. Thanks for all your input!

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  • Alternative to MS Project 2007 for production scheduling?

    - by john c
    OK... Im coming to grips with the fact that MS Project 2007 may not be the correct tool for my production scheduling. We serve 120 to 150 projects a year with durations from 6 weeks to 12 months. The task are simple (6 to 8 per project) and the resource pool is stable (15 to 20 people). It's really an assembly line product but with extremely varied durations. I need to be able to prioritize the projects for production and run projects concurrently to fully utilize my resources. What are the feelings of the stackoverflow community. Am I using the wrong program? I was really hoping to make this simple for non-programer types to input project data into a form and have the schedule software automated enough to make most of the decisions. Is there a better solution available commercially? I'd like to hold on writing a custom spreadsheet as a last resort but if that's the best route then so be it. Thank you so much for your input.

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  • Putting a C++ Vector as a Member in a Class that Uses a Memory Pool

    - by Deep-B
    Hey, I've been writing a multi-threaded DLL for database access using ADO/ODBC for use with a legacy application. I need to keep multiple database connections for each thread, so I've put the ADO objects for each connection in an object and thinking of keeping an array of them inside a custom threadInfo object. Obviously a vector would serve better here - I need to delete/rearrange objects on the go and a vector would simplify that. Problem is, I'm allocating a heap for each thread to avoid heap contention and stuff and allocating all my memory from there. So my question is: how do I make the vector allocate from the thread-specific heap? (Or would it know internally to allocate memory from the same heap as its wrapper class - sounds unlikely, but I'm not a C++ guy) I've googled a bit and it looks like I might need to write an allocator or something - which looks like so much of work I don't want. Is there any other way? I've heard vector uses placement-new for all its stuff inside, so can overloading operator new be worked into it? My scant knowledge of the insides of C++ doesn't help, seeing as I'm mainly a C programmer (even that - relatively). It's very possible I'm missing something elementary somewhere. If nothing easier comes up - I might just go and do the array thing, but hopefully it won't come to that. I'm using MS-VC++ 6.0 (hey, it's rude to laugh! :-P ). Any/all help will be much appreciated.

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  • Why does a non-dynamically created iframe shim show, but a dynamically created one does not?

    - by Carter
    I have a custom control that is made up of a text field and the ajax control toolkit dateextender. In IE6 I'm hitting the z-index bug where the calendar is showing behind select boxes. If I have the shim sitting in the control, initially hidden, it seems to display fine when the calendar is shown, but when I try to dynamically create the shim on showing it doesn't appear. I've tried bgiframe and some examples I found on SO, no luck. Here is my javascript code currently... var dateEditorShim; function dateEditor_OnShown(dateControl, emptyEventArgs) { var shimWidth = dateControl._width; var shimHeight = dateControl._height; //var dateEditorShim; //dateEditorShim = document.getElementById(dateEditorShimId); dateEditorShim = document.createElement('iframe'); dateEditorShim.setAttribute('src', 'javascript:"";'); dateEditorShim.setAttribute('frameBorder', '0'); dateEditorShim.style.width = dateControl._popupDiv.offsetWidth; dateEditorShim.style.height = dateControl._popupDiv.offsetHeight; dateEditorShim.style.top = dateControl._popupDiv.style.top; dateEditorShim.style.left = dateControl._popupDiv.style.left; dateControl._popupDiv.style.zIndex = 999; dateEditorShim.style.zIndex = 998; dateEditorShim.style.display = "block"; } function dateEditor_OnHiding(dateControl, emptyEventArgs) { var shimWidth = 0; var shimHeight = 0; //var dateEditorShim; //dateEditorShim = document.getElementById(dateEditorShimId); dateEditorShim.style.width = 0; dateEditorShim.style.height = 0; dateEditorShim.style.top = 0; dateEditorShim.style.left = 0; dateEditorShim.style.display = "none"; } You'll notice I have a commented out bit of code that gets an iframe that is embedded into the page, as I said, in this case the iframe at least shows up, but when I dynamically create it like the code above currently, it doesn't. I'm trying to figure out why. Any ideas?

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