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  • Visual Studio project remains "stuck" when stopped

    - by Traveling Tech Guy
    Hi, Currently developing a connector DLL to HP's Quality Center. I'm using their (insert expelative) COM API to connect to the server. An Interop wrapper gets created automatically by VStudio. My solution has 2 projects: the DLL and a tester application - essentially a form with buttons that call functions in the DLL. Everything works well - I can create defects, update them and delete them. When I close the main form, the application stops nicely. But when I call a function that returns a list of all available projects (to fill a combo box), if I close the main form, VStudio still shows the solution as running and I have to stop it. I've managed to pinpoint a single function in my code that when I call, the solution remains "hung" and if I don't, it closes well. It's a call to a property in the TDC object get_VisibleProjects that returns a List (not the .Net one, but a type in the COM library) - I just iterate over it and return a proper list (that I later use to fill the combo box): public List<string> GetAvailableProjects() { List<string> projects = new List<string>(); foreach (string project in this.tdc.get_VisibleProjects(qcDomain)) { projects.Add(project); } return projects; } My assumption is that something gets retained in memory. If I run the EXE outside of VStudio it closes - but who knows what gets left behind in memory? My question is - how do I get rid of whatever calling this property returns? Shouldn't the GC handle this? Do I need to delve into pointers? Things I've tried: getting the list into a variable and setting it to null at the end of the function Adding a destructor to the class and nulling the tdc object Stepping through the tester function application all the way out, whne the form closes and the Main function ends - it closes, but VStudio still shows I'm running. Thanks for your assistance!

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  • Rails: using find method to access joined tables for polymorphic relationships

    - by DJTripleThreat
    Ok, I have a generic TimeSlot model that deals with a start_at and an end_at for time spans. A couple models derive from this but I'm referring to one in this question: AppointmentBlock which is a collection of Appointments. I want to validate an AppointmentBlock such that no other AppointmentBlocks have been scheduled for a particular Employee in the same time frame. Since AppointmentBlock has a polymorphic association with TimeSlot, you have to access the AppointmentBlock's start_at and end_at through the TimeSlot like so: appt_block.time_slot.start_at This means that I need to have some kind of join in my :conditions for my find() method call. Here is my code so far: #inside my appointment_block.rb model validate :employee_not_double_booked def employee_not_double_booked unless self.employee_id # this find's condition is incorrect because I need to join time_slots to get access # to start_at and end_at. How can I do this? blocks = AppointmentBlock.find(:first, :conditions => ['employee_id = ? and (start_at between ? and ? or end_at between ? and ?)', self.employee_id, self.time_slot.start_at, self.time_slot.end_at, self.time_slot.start_at, self.time_slot.end_at]) # pseudo code: # collect a list of appointment blocks that end after this # apointment block starts or start before this appointment # block ends that are also associated with this appointment # blocks assigned employee # if the count is great then 0 the employee has been double # booked. # if a block was found that means this employee is getting # double booked so raise an error errors.add "AppointmentBlock", "has already been scheduled during this time" if blocks end end Since AppointmentBlock doesn't have a start_at or an end_at how can I join with the time_slots table to get those conditions to work?

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  • C : files manipulation Can't figure out how to simplify this code with files manipulation.

    - by Bon_chan
    Hey guys, I have been working on this code but I can't find out what is wrong. This program does compile and run but it ends up having a fatal error. I have a file called myFile.txt, with the following content : James------ 07.50 Anthony--- 17.00 And here is the code : int main() { int n =2, valueTest=0,count=0; FILE* file = NULL; float temp= 00.00f, average= 00.00f, flTen = 10.00f; float *totalNote = (float*)malloc(n*sizeof(float)); int position = 0; char selectionNote[5+1], nameBuffer[10+1], noteBuffer[5+1]; file = fopen("c:\\myFile.txt","r"); fseek(file,10,SEEK_SET); while(valueTest<2) { fscanf(file,"%5s",&selectionNote); temp = atof(selectionNote); totalNote[position]= temp; position++; valeurTest++; } for(int counter=0;counter<2;counter++) { average += totalNote[counter]; } printf("The total is : %f \n",average); rewind(file); printf("here is the one with less than 10.00 :\n"); while(count<2) { fscanf(file,"%10s",&nameBuffer); fseek(file,10,SEEK_SET); fscanf(file,"%5s",&noteBuffer); temp = atof(noteBuffer); if(temp<flTen) { printf("%s who has %f\n",nameBuffer,temp); } fseek(file,1,SEEK_SET); count++; } fclose(file); } I am pretty new to c and find it more difficult than c# or java. And I woud like to get some suggestions to help me to get better. I think this code could be simplier. Do you think the same ?

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  • Threading calls to web service in a web service - (.net 2.0)

    - by Ryan Ternier
    Got a question regarding best practices for doing parallel web service calls, in a web service. Our portal will get a message, split that message into 2 messages, and then do 2 calls to our broker. These need to be on separate threads to lower the timeout. One solution is to do something similar to (pseudo code): XmlNode DNode = GetaGetDemoNodeSomehow(); XmlNode ENode = GetAGetElNodeSomehow(); XmlNode elResponse; XmlNode demResponse; Thread dThread = new Thread(delegate { //Web Service Call GetDemographics d = new GetDemographics(); demResponse = d.HIALRequest(DNode); }); Thread eThread = new Thread(delegate { //Web Service Call GetEligibility ge = new GetEligibility(); elResponse = ge.HIALRequest(ENode); }); dThread.Start(); eThread.Start(); dThread.Join(); eThread.Join(); //combine the resulting XML and return it. //Maybe throw a bit of logging in to make architecture happy Another option we thought of is to create a worker class, and pass it the service information and have it execute. This would allow us to have a bit more control over what is going on, but could add additional overhead. Another option brought up would be 2 asynchronous calls and manage the returns through a loop. When the calls are completed (success or error) the loop picks it up and ends. The portal service will be called about 50,000 times a day. I don't want to gold plate this sucker. I'm looking for something light weight. The services that are being called on the broker do have time out limits set, and are already heavily logged and audited, so I'm not worried on that part. This is .NET 2.0 , and as much as I would love to upgrade I can't right now. So please leave all the goodies of 2.0 out please.

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  • Ruby syntax error: unexpected $end, expecting keyword_end

    - by user2839246
    I am supposed to: Capitalize the first letter of string. Capitalize every word except articles (the, a, an), conjunctions (and), and prepositions (in). Capitalize i (as in "I am male."). Specify the first word of a string (I actually have no idea what this means. I'm trying to run the spec file to test other functions). Here's my code: class Book def initialize(string) title(string) end def title(string) arts_conjs_preps = %w{ a an the and but or nor for yet so although because since unless despite in to } array = string.downcase.split array.each do |word| if (word == array[0] || word == "i") then word = word.capitalize if arts_conjs_preps !include?(word) then word = word.capitalize end puts array.join(' ') end end puts Book.new("inferno") Ruby says I'm messing up at: puts Book.new("inferno") <--(right after the last line of code) I get exactly the same error message with this test code: def title(string) array = string.downcase.split array.each do |word| if word == array[0] then word = word.capitalize end array.join(' ') end puts title("dante's inferno") The only other Stack Overflow thread regarding this particular syntax error that did not suggest trailing or missing ends or .s as the root of the problem is here. The last comment recommends deleting and recreating the gemset, Which sounds scary. And I'm not sure how to do. Any thoughts? Simple solution? Resources to help? Solution class Book def initialize(string) title(string) end def title(string) arts_conjs_preps = %w{ a an the and but or nor for yet so although because since unless despite of in to } array = string.downcase.split title = array.map do |word| if (word == array[0] || word == "i") || !arts_conjs_preps.include?(word) word = word.capitalize else word end end puts title.join(' ') end end Book.new("dante's the inferno")

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  • calculate business days including holidays

    - by ran
    i need to calculate the business days between two dates. ex : we have holiday(in USA) on july4th. so if my dates are date1 = 07/03/2012 date2 = 07/06/2012 no of business days b/w these dates should be 1 since july4th is holiday. i have a below method to calclulate the business days which will only counts week ends but not holidays. is there any way to calculate holidays also....please help me on this. public static int getWorkingDaysBetweenTwoDates(Date startDate, Date endDate) { Calendar startCal; Calendar endCal; startCal = Calendar.getInstance(); startCal.setTime(startDate); endCal = Calendar.getInstance(); endCal.setTime(endDate); int workDays = 0; //Return 0 if start and end are the same if (startCal.getTimeInMillis() == endCal.getTimeInMillis()) { return 0; } if (startCal.getTimeInMillis() > endCal.getTimeInMillis()) { startCal.setTime(endDate); endCal.setTime(startDate); } do { startCal.add(Calendar.DAY_OF_MONTH, 1); if (startCal.get(Calendar.DAY_OF_WEEK) != Calendar.SATURDAY && startCal.get(Calendar.DAY_OF_WEEK) != Calendar.SUNDAY) { ++workDays; } } while (startCal.getTimeInMillis() < endCal.getTimeInMillis()); return workDays; }

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  • Is there any other way of using signed applets

    - by 640KB
    Hi There, If I want to deploy high privileged applets they need to be signed. For that a certificate is created and then a jar file is signed with a jarsigner. After that in the HTML code one has to specify code,codebase AND archive (jar) which we signed before. However I wrote a servlet which acts as two things: it sits at the URL pointed by the codebase and serves class bytecode to the applet. The same servlet also uses serialization to communicate with the applet whereby whenever the applet gets a class it does not know it goes to the codebase which ends up back at the servlet. Almost like a mini RMI setup but simpler. I hope you can see the power in this. Unfortunately for signed applets one needs the archive. Now the servlet is also able to load a Certificate object and can send it to the applet too. So here is the setup: At one point the applet receives class bytecode and it also has the Certificate. It would be nice if the applet could instantiate all received classes using that certificate (otherwise code from jar is signed and outside is not which prompts nasty messages to the user). So my question to you fine Java aficionados: Would there by any way for me to use the bytecode data and the Certificate to instantiate the class as a signed object so that the plugin pops the Security dialog, accepts teh certificate and elevates the object's privileges. What I could find is that the there is a class CodeSource that accepts codebase URL and certificate and is essential to the signing process. What I am not sure is how one could intercept the class loading inside applets to install additional certificates not obtained through a JAR file via archive. What do you say? Thanks a bunch.

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  • Ajax div can't access address bar variable

    - by Elaine Adams
    Can someone please advise me on how my Ajax div can get an address bar variable. The usual way just doesn't work. My address bar currently looks like this: http://localhost/social3/browse/?locationName=Cambridge Usually, I would use a little php and do this: $searchResult = $_POST['locationName']; echo $searchResult; But because I'm in an Ajax div, I can't seem to get to the variable. Do I need to add some JavaScript wizardry to my Ajax coding? (I have little knowledge of this) My Ajax: <script> window.onload = function () { var everyone = document.getElementById('everyone'), searching = document.getElementById('searching'), searchingSubmit = document.getElementById('searchingSubmit'); everyone.onclick = function() { loadXMLDoc('indexEveryone'); everyone.className = 'filterOptionActive'; searching.className = 'filterOption'; } searching.onclick = function() { loadXMLDoc('indexSearching'); searching.className = 'filterOptionActive'; everyone.className = 'filterOption'; } searchingSubmit.onclick = function() { loadXMLDoc('indexSearchingSubmit'); } function loadXMLDoc(pageName) { var xmlhttp; if (window.XMLHttpRequest) {// code for IE7+, Firefox, Chrome, Opera, Safari xmlhttp=new XMLHttpRequest(); } else {// code for IE6, IE5 xmlhttp=new ActiveXObject("Microsoft.XMLHTTP"); } xmlhttp.onreadystatechange=function() { if (xmlhttp.readyState==4 && xmlhttp.status==200) { document.getElementById("leftCont").innerHTML=xmlhttp.responseText; } } function get_query(){ var url = location.href; var qs = url.substring(url.indexOf('?') + 1).split('&'); for(var i = 0, result = {}; i < qs.length; i++){ qs[i] = qs[i].split('='); result[qs[i][0]] = decodeURIComponent(qs[i][1]); } return result; } xmlhttp.open("GET","../browse/" + pageName + ".php?user=" + get_query()['user'],true); xmlhttp.send(); } } </script> <!-- ends ajax script -->

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  • Downloading Images to a specific directory using Automator / Applescript

    - by fighella
    Im trying to use a variable in Automator to save images into a specific folder. Strangely when you create a new folder and you use a variable, it allows you to set the base path... but if you try to "Download URL" it does not allow you to select the base path to add the variable onto and it breaks the transaction. Im sure applescript could do a better job, but I can't seem to figure it out. Example. There is a photo gallery called Cats and Dogs. I am able to grab the Cats and Dogs title and make it my variable... it makes a new folder on my desktop called Cats and Dogs (from the Variable)... I am then able to grab all the images in the gallery as a result from "Get Image URL's from webpage"... This works great... then I try to "Download the URLs" and I want to download them to the new "Cats and Dogs" folder I have created. But I can't seem to make that work, because I can't set the path in the Download the URLs box in automator... This ends up being really useful when I have 100 galleries I need to rip to my desktop... Of course I could move the files in the newly created folder by hand once saved... but then I would have to do this for each gallery... Any suggestions?

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  • When to drop an IT job

    - by Nippysaurus
    In my career I have had two programming jobs. Both these jobs were in a field that I am most familiar with (C# / MSSQL) but I have quit both jobs for the same reason: unmanageable code and bad (loose) company structure. There was something in common with both these jobs: small companies (in one I was the only developer). Currently I am in the following position: being given written instructions which are almost impossible to follow (somewhat of a fools errand). we are given short time constraints, but seldom asked how long work will take, and when we do it is always too long and needs to be shorter (and when it ends up taking longer than they need it to take, it's always our fault). there is no time for proper documenting, but we get blamed for not documenting (see previous point). Management is constantly screwing me around, saying I'm underperforming on a given task (which is not true, and switching me to a task which is much more confusing). So I must ask my fellow developers: how bad does a job need to be before you would consider jumping ship? And what to look out for when considering taking a job. In future I will be asking about documented procedures, release control, bug management and adoption of new technologies. EDIT: Let me add some more fuel to the fire ... I have been in my current job for just over a year, and the work I am doing almost never uses any of the knowledge I have gained from the other work I have been doing here. Everything is a giant learning curve. Because of this about 30% of my time is learning what is going on with this new product (who's owner / original developer has left the company), 30% trying to find the relevant documentation that helps the whole thing make sense, 30% actually finding where to make the change, 10% actually making the change.

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  • When is a method eligible to be inlined by the CLR?

    - by Ani
    I've observed a lot of "stack-introspective" code in applications, which often implicitly rely on their containing methods not being inlined for their correctness. Such methods commonly involve calls to: MethodBase.GetCurrentMethod Assembly.GetCallingAssembly Assembly.GetExecutingAssembly Now, I find the information surrounding these methods to be very confusing. I've heard that the run-time will not inline a method that calls GetCurrentMethod, but I can't find any documentation to that effect. I've seen posts on StackOverflow on several occasions, such as this one, indicating the CLR does not inline cross-assembly calls, but the GetCallingAssembly documentation strongly indicates otherwise. There's also the much-maligned [MethodImpl(MethodImpOptions.NoInlining)], but I am unsure if the CLR considers this to be a "request" or a "command." Note that I am asking about inlining eligibility from the standpoint of contract, not about when current implementations of the JITter decline to consider methods because of implementation difficulties, or about when the JITter finally ends up choosing to inline an eligible method after assessing the trade-offs. I have read this and this, but they seem to be more focused on the last two points (there are passing mentions of MethodImpOptions.NoInlining and "exotic IL instructions", but these seem to be presented as heuristics rather than as obligations). When is the CLR allowed to inline?

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  • mod_rewrite to redirect URL with query string

    - by meeble
    I've searched all over stackoverflow, but none of the answers seem to be working for this situation. I have a lot of working mod_rewrite rules already in my httpd.conf file. I just recently found that Google had indexed one of my non-rewritten URLs with a query string in it: http://domain.com/?state=arizona I would like to use mod_rewrite to do a 301 redirect to this URL: http://domain.com/arizona The issue is that later on in my rewrite rules, that 2nd URL is being rewritten to pass query variables on to WordPress. It ends up getting rewritten to: http://domain.com/index.php?state=arizona Which is the proper functionality. Everything I have tried so far has either not worked at all or put me in an endless rewrite loop. This is what I have right now, which is getting stuck in a loop: RewriteCond %{QUERY_STRING} state=arizona [NC] RewriteRule .* http://domain.com/arizona [R=301,L] #older rewrite rule that passes query string based on URL: RewriteRule ^([A-Za-z-]+)$ index.php?state=$1 [L] which gives me an endless rewrite loop and takes me to this URL: http://domain.com/arizona?state=arizona I then tried this: RewriteRule .* http://domain.com/arizona? [R=301,L] which got rid of the query string in the URL, but still creates a loop.

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  • How can I keep an event from being delivered to the GUI until my code finished running?

    - by Frerich Raabe
    I installed a global mouse hook function like this: mouseEventHook = ::SetWindowsHookEx( WH_MOUSE_LL, mouseEventHookFn, thisModule, 0 ); The hook function looks like this: RESULT CALLBACK mouseEventHookFn( int code, WPARAM wParam, LPARAM lParam ) { if ( code == HC_ACTION ) { PMSLLHOOKSTRUCT mi = (PMSLLHOOKSTRUCT)lParam; // .. do interesting stuff .. } return ::CallNextHookEx( mouseEventHook, code, wParam, lParam ); } Now, my problem is that I cannot control how long the 'do interesting stuff' part takes exactly. In particular, it might take longer than the LowLevelHooksTimeout defined in the Windows registry. This means that, at least on Windows XP, the system no longer delivers mouse events to my hook function. I'd like to avoid this, but at the same time I need the 'do interesting stuff' part to happen before the target GUI receives the event. I attempted to solve this by doing the 'interesting stuff' work in a separate thread so that the mouseEventHookFn above can post a message to the worker thread and then do a return 1; immediately (which ends the hook function but avoids that the event is handed to the GUI). The idea was that the worker thread, when finished, performs the CallNextHookEx call itself. However, this causes a crash inside of CallNextHookEx (in fact, the crash occurs inside an internal function called PhkNextValid. I assume it's not safe to call CallNextHookEx from outside a hook function, is this true? If so, does anybody else know how I can run code (which needs to interact with the GUI thread of an application) before the GUI receives the event and avoid that my hook function blocks too long?

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  • TEXTAREAs scroll by themselves (on IE8) every time you type one character

    - by Justin Grant
    IE8 has a known bug (per connect.microsoft.com) where typing or pasting text into a TEXTAREA element will cause the textarea to scroll by itself. This is hugely annoying and shows up in many community sites, including Wikipedia. The repro is this: open the HTML below with IE8 (or use any long page on wikipedia which will exhibit the same problem until they fix it) size the browser full-screen paste a few pages of text into the TEXTAREA move the scrollbar to the middle position now type one character into the textarea Expected: nothing happens Actual: scrossing happens on its own, and the insertion point ends up near the bottom of the textarea! Below is repro HTML (can also see this live on the web here: http://en.wikipedia.org/w/index.php?title=Text_box&action=edit) <!DOCTYPE html PUBLIC "-//W3C//DTD XHTML 1.0 Transitional//EN" "http://www.w3.org/TR/xhtml1/DTD/xhtml1-transitional.dtd"> <html xmlns="http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml" > <body> <div style="width: 80%"> <textarea rows="20" cols="80" style="width:100%;" ></textarea> </div> </body> </html>

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  • Displaying same record twice- SQL Reporting Services

    - by RyanW
    Ok, here's the situation: I need to display the same record in two different sections. stupid i know, but here's why. The Report I am building is grouped by one Field, called Day. Each record has date/times, an expected arrival date time, and an expected departure date/time. so, at this point we have something like this: Day..............Arrival Time..................Departure Time 18/5.............18/5 9.00am.........19/5 11.00am The boss only wants to show times that relate to the current day in the arrive/depart coloumns (easy enough with expressions), which ends up like this: Day..............Arrival Time..................Departure Time 18/5..............9.00am.........................- the next thing he wants is to display the departing time in the correct day 'group', but as you can imagine as soon as you move to the next row, well you move to the next row of the table. So the question is: is there anyway to display the same record on multiple coloumns? Have i missed something or have i got an unsolvable problem? NOTE: this is not the only data in my table either. there is (for example) a name coloumn which also needs to be displayed on both days.

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  • How to partition bits in a bit array with less than linear time

    - by SiLent SoNG
    This is an interview question I faced recently. Given an array of 1 and 0, find a way to partition the bits in place so that 0's are grouped together, and 1's are grouped together. It does not matter whether 1's are ahead of 0's or 0's are ahead of 1's. An example input is 101010101, and output is either 111110000 or 000011111. Solve the problem in less than linear time. Make the problem simpler. The input is an integer array, with each element either 1 or 0. Output is the same integer array with integers partitioned well. To me, this is an easy question if it can be solved in O(N). My approach is to use two pointers, starting from both ends of the array. Increases and decreases each pointer; if it does not point to the correct integer, swap the two. int * start = array; int * end = array + length - 1; while (start < end) { // Assume 0 always at the end if (*end == 0) { --end; continue; } // Assume 1 always at the beginning if (*start == 1) { ++start; continue; } swap(*start, *end); } However, the interview insists there is a sub-linear solution. This makes me thinking hard but still not get an answer. Can anyone help on this interview question?

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  • TicTacToe strategic reduction

    - by NickLarsen
    I decided to write a small program that solves TicTacToe in order to try out the effect of some pruning techniques on a trivial game. The full game tree using minimax to solve it only ends up with 549,946 possible games. With alpha-beta pruning, the number of states required to evaluate was reduced to 18,297. Then I applied a transposition table that brings the number down to 2,592. Now I want to see how low that number can go. The next enhancement I want to apply is a strategic reduction. The basic idea is to combine states that have equivalent strategic value. For instance, on the first move, if X plays first, there is nothing strategically different (assuming your opponent plays optimally) about choosing one corner instead of another. In the same situation, the same is true of the center of the walls of the board, and the center is also significant. By reducing to significant states only, you end up with only 3 states for evaluation on the first move instead of 9. This technique should be very useful since it prunes states near the top of the game tree. This idea came from the GameShrink method created by a group at CMU, only I am trying to avoid writing the general form, and just doing what is needed to apply the technique to TicTacToe. In order to achieve this, I modified my hash function (for the transposition table) to enumerate all strategically equivalent positions (using rotation and flipping functions), and to only return the lowest of the values for each board. Unfortunately now my program thinks X can force a win in 5 moves from an empty board when going first. After a long debugging session, it became apparent to me the program was always returning the move for the lowest strategically significant move (I store the last move in the transposition table as part of my state). Is there a better way I can go about adding this feature, or a simple method for determining the correct move applicable to the current situation with what I have already done?

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  • Constructing a WeakReference<T> throws COMException

    - by ChaseMedallion
    The following code: IDisposable d = ... new WeakReference<IDisposable>(d); Has started throwing the following exception on SOME machines. What could cause this? System.Runtime.InteropServices.COMException: Unspecified error (Exception from HRESULT: 0x80004005 (E_FAIL)) EDIT: the machines that experience the error are running Windows Server 2008 R2. Windows Server 2012 and desktop machines running windows 7 work fine. (this is true, but I now think a different issue is the relevant difference... see below). EDIT: as an additional note, this occurred right after updating our codebase to Entity Framework 6.1.1.-beta1. In the above code, The IDisposable is a class which wraps an EF DbContext. EDIT: why the votes to close? EDIT: the stack trace of the failure ends at the WeakReference<T> constructor called in the above code: at System.WeakReference`1..ctor(T target, Boolean trackResurrection) // from here on down it's code we wrote/simple LINQ. None of this code has changed recently; // we just upgraded to EF6 and saw this failure start happening at Core.Data.EntityFrameworkDataContext.RegisterDependentDisposable(IDisposable child) at Core.Data.ServiceFactory.GetConstructorParameter[TService](Type parameterType) at System.Linq.Enumerable.WhereSelectListIterator`2.MoveNext() at System.Linq.Buffer`1..ctor(IEnumerable`1 source) at System.Linq.Enumerable.ToArray[TSource](IEnumerable`1 source) at Core.Data.ServiceFactory.CreateService[TService]() at MVC controller action method EDIT: it turns out that the machines having issues with this were running AppDynamics. Uninstalling that seems to have removed the issue.

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  • Converting contents of a byte array to wchar_t*

    - by Christopher MacKinnon
    I seem to be having an issue converting a byte array (containing the text from a word document) to a LPTSTR (wchar_t *) object. Every time the code executes, I am getting a bunch of unwanted Unicode characters returned. I figure it is because I am not making the proper calls somewhere, or not using the variables properly, but not quite sure how to approach this. Hopefully someone here can guide me in the right direction. The first thing that happens in we call into C# code to open up Microsoft Word and convert the text in the document into a byte array. byte document __gc[]; document = word->ConvertToArray(filename); The contents of document are as follows: {84, 101, 115, 116, 32, 68, 111, 99, 117, 109, 101, 110, 116, 13, 10} Which ends up being the following string: "Test Document". Our next step is to allocate the memory to store the byte array into a LPTSTR variable, byte __pin * value; value = &document[0]; LPTSTR image; image = (LPTSTR)malloc( document->Length + 1 ); Once we execute the line where we start allocating the memory, our image variable gets filled with a bunch of unwanted Unicode characters: ????????????????? And then we do a memcpy to transfer over all of the data memcpy(image,value,document->Length); Which just causes more unwanted Unicode characters to appear: ????????????????? I figure the issue that we are having is either related to how we are storing the values in the byte array, or possibly when we are copying the data from the byte array to the LPTSTR variable. Any help with explaining what I'm doing wrong, or anything to point me in the right direction will be greatly appreciated.

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  • What is the procedure for debugging a production-only error?

    - by Lord Torgamus
    Let me say upfront that I'm so ignorant on this topic that I don't even know whether this question has objective answers or not. If it ends up being "not," I'll delete or vote to close the post. Here's the scenario: I just wrote a little web service. It works on my machine. It works on my team lead's machine. It works, as far as I can tell, on every machine except for the production server. The exception that the production server spits out upon failure originates from a third-party JAR file, and is skimpy on information. I search the web for hours, but don't come up with anything useful. So what's the procedure for tracking down an issue that occurs only on production machines? Is there a standard methodology, or perhaps category/family of tools, for this? The error that inspired this question has already been fixed, but that was due more to good fortune than a solid approach to debugging. I'm asking this question for future reference. Some related questions: Test accounts and products in a production system Running test on Production Code/Server

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  • jQuery selector for option tag value attribute returns null

    - by Ben
    Hello, I am trying to change the selected option in a select dropdown box with jQuery. I have it set so that it finds the hash tag at the end of the URL and based on that hash tag it changes the selected option in the select box. Most of my code is functional, it successfully finds the hash tag and executes the if statement that corresponds with it. However, when it goes to execute the "then" section of the statement when it goes to the selector for the option (which uses an attribute selector based on the value attribute of the option tag) it returns null. If figured this out with firebug, in the console it says that the selector is null. Here is my code: $(document).ready(function() { var $hash = window.location.hash if($hash == "#htmlcss") { $('option[value="HTML/CSS Coding"]').attr("selected","selected") } if($hash == "#php") { $('option[value="PHP Coding"]').attr("selected","selected") } if($hash == "#jscript") { $('option[value="Javascript and jQuery Coding"]').attr("selected","selected") } if($hash == "#improv") { $('option[value="General Website Improvements"]').attr("selected","selected") } if($hash == "#towp") { $('option[value="Website Conversion to Wordpress"]').attr("selected","selected") } if($hash == "#wptheme") { $('option[value="Wordpress Theme Design"]').attr("selected","selected") } if($hash == "#complete") { $('option[value="Complete Website Creation"]').attr("selected","selected") } if($hash == "#server") { $('option[value="Web Server Configuration"]').attr("selected","selected") } }); So to clarify, when I enter in a url that ends in the #php hash tag, for example, the desired action does not occur which would change the "PHP Coding" option to the selected one by using the "selected" html attribute however the selector for the particular option tag returns null. Is there a problem with my syntax or is my code not functioning in the way that I think it should? Thanks very much.

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  • how to set style through javascript in IE immediately

    - by rezna
    Hi, recently I've encountered a problem with IE. I have a function function() { ShowProgress(); DoSomeWork(); HideProgress(); } where ShowProgress and HideProgress just manipulate the 'display' CSS style using jQuery's css() method. In FF everything is OK, and at the same time I change the display property to block, progress-bar appears. But not in IE. In IE the style is applied, once I leave the function. Which means it's never shown, because at the end of the function I simply hide it. (if I remove the HideProgress line, the progress-bar appears right after finishing executing the function (more precisely, immediately when the calling functions ends - and so there's nothing else going on in IE)). Has anybody encountered this behavior? Is there a way to get IE to apply the style immediately? I've prepared a solution but it would take me some time to implement it. My DoSomeWork() method is doing some AJAX calls, and these are right now synchronous. I assume that making them asynchronous will kind of solve the problem, but I have to redesign the code a bit, so finding a solution just for applying the style immediately would much simplier. Thanks rezna

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  • Python: Does one of these examples waste more memory?

    - by orokusaki
    In a Django view function which uses manual transaction committing, I have: context = RequestContext(request, data) transaction.commit() return render_to_response('basic.html', data, context) # Returns a Django ``HttpResponse`` object which is similar to a dictionary. I think it is a better idea to do this: context = RequestContext(request, data) response = render_to_response('basic.html', data, context) transaction.commit() return response If the page isn't rendered correctly in the second version, the transaction is rolled back. This seems like the logical way of doing it albeit there won't likely be many exceptions at that point in the function when the application is in production. But... I fear that this might cost more and this will be replete through a number of functions since the application is heavy with custom transaction handling, so now is the time to figure out. If the HttpResponse instance is in memory already (at the point of render_to_response()), then what does another reference cost? When the function ends, doesn't the reference (response variable) go away so that when Django is done converting the HttpResponse into a string for output Python can immediately garbage collect it? Is there any reason I would want to use the first version (other than "It's 1 less line of code.")?

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  • Codeigniter achor producing dodgy link in email inbox.. what could the problem be?

    - by Psychonetics
    My application is emailing out fine but the email I receive displays incorrectly. Rather than have text and a simple "click here to activate" link it doesn't. it shows this instead: Hi user1, please click the following link to activate your account <a href="http://mysite.com/activation/fzyZuyxVAzZS2koVg5UFjfVjlcLNcrzp">ssss</a> Here is the code from my model that sends email to user when they request activation email. $this->load->library('email'); $this->email->from('[email protected]', 'my site'); $this->email->to($result[0]->email); $this->email->subject('my site - Activate your account'); $this->email->message('Hi ' . $result[0]->first_name . ', please click the following link to activate your account ' . anchor('http://mysite.com/activation/' . $new_activation_code, 'click here to activate')); $this->email->send(); Also the mail always ends up in my spam folder.

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  • Database abstraction/adapters for ruby

    - by Stiivi
    What are the database abstractions/adapters you are using in Ruby? I am mainly interested in data oriented features, not in those with object mapping (like active record or data mapper). I am currently using Sequel. Are there any other options? I am mostly interested in: simple, clean and non-ambiguous API data selection (obviously), filtering and aggregation raw value selection without field mapping: SELECT col1, col2, col3 = [val1, val2, val3] not hash of { :col1 = val1 ...} API takes into account table schemas 'some_schema.some_table' in a consistent (and working) way; also reflection for this (get schema from table) database reflection: get list of table columns, their database storage types and perhaps adaptor's abstracted types table creation, deletion be able to work with other tables (insert, update) in a loop enumerating selection from another table without requiring to fetch all records from table being enumerated Purpose is to manipulate data with unknown structure at the time of writing code, which is the opposite to object mapping where structure or most of the structure is usually well known. I do not need the object mapping overhead. What are the options, including back-ends for object-mapping libraries?

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